Final Exam Prep Questions from Textbook Flashcards

1
Q

One of the central ideas of social psychology is
A) natural selection shapes behaviour.
B) adaptation is central to behaviour.
C) social structure and organization are essential to human development.
D) attitudes shape behaviour and behaviour shapes attitudes.

A

D) attitudes shape behaviour and behaviour shapes attitudes.

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2
Q

Given that social thinking, social influence, and social relations are among the “big ideas” that are important in social psychology, what in particular is noteworthy about the concept of social relations?
A) social behaviour is also biological behaviour.
B) we construct our own social reality.
C) social influences shape behaviour.
D) dispositions shape behaviour.

A

A) social behaviour is also biological behaviour.

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3
Q

One reason you may not study so hard for your first test in this class is because
A) you believe you are too smart for the class.
B) you think you don’t need to study.
C) you don’t worry about grades.
D) social psychology seems obvious because of the hindsight bias.

A

D) social psychology seems obvious because of the hindsight bias.

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4
Q

Who is most likely to ask “How do brain, mind, and behaviour function together as one coordinated system?”
A) an evolutionary psychologist
B) a social psychologist
C) a social neuroscientist
D) a biological psychologist

A

C) a social neuroscientist

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5
Q

An idea such as “a child’s gender development is directly related to his/her cognitive development” could be called
A) a hypothesis.
B) a theory.
C) a fact.
D) an experiment.

A

B) a theory.

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6
Q

A researcher, interested in whether the mere presence of others affects individual behaviour, designs a study in which individuals are asked to make a speech to either an empty room or a room with five people in it. This type of study is best described as __________.
A) a correlational study.
B) field research.
C) a case study.
D) a laboratory experiment.

A

D) a laboratory experiment.

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7
Q

An investigator, who wishes to study the attitudes of people in New Brunswick, identifies 1,000 people in New Brunswick, taking care that the percentages of male and female, young and old, education level, and occupation are the same in the sample as in the province’s total population. What kind of sample is the investigator trying to obtain?
A) an independent sample
B) a dependent sample
C) a random sample
D) a representative sample

A

D) a representative sample

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8
Q

I ask you to describe who you are and you tell me your gender, age, political preference, personality traits, and other information you think is relevant. You are describing your
A) possible selves.
B) self-concept.
C) idealized self.
D) realized-self.

A

B) self-concept.

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9
Q

Ed believes that his wife knows how he feels and what he is thinking just by looking at him. Social psychologists call this erroneous belief
A) the illusion of transparency.
B) the spotlight effect.
C) the personal fable.
D) egocentrism.

A

A) the illusion of transparency.

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10
Q

Victor walks into the room at a party, and everyone stares. He is devastatingly handsome. All the other guys feel bad. One reason could be due to
A) your conceit.
B) social identity.
C) self-reference effects.
D) social comparison effects.

A

D) social comparison effects.

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11
Q

A person from a collectivist culture would most likely value
A) their self-esteem.
B) harmonious relationships.
C) their perceptual abilities.
D) their personal sense of accomplishment.

A

B) harmonious relationships.

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12
Q

Bruce tells his girlfriend “If you don’t tell me I’m the most good-looking guy you’ve ever gone out with, the best dresser, the best dancer, the smartest, and have the nicest car, I’ll have to break up with you.” This reflects Bruce’s
A) antisocial personality disorder.
B) high self-esteem.
C) narcissism.
D) achievement motivation.

A

C) narcissism.

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13
Q

Sometimes, when a person has repeat failure experiences in several different areas of their life, they feel overwhelmed with problems, and they feel hopeless to solve their problems, they lose motivation to better themselves. This has been described as
A) unrealistic optimism.
B) a self-serving bias.
C) learned helplessness.
D) an increase in self-monitoring.

A

C) learned helplessness.

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14
Q

People who act like “social chameleons”-those who seem to change behaviour and attitudes to fit every situation they’re in-are generally considered
A) low self-monitors.
B) high self-monitors.
C) to be using the self-serving bias.
D) high in self-efficacy.

A

B) high self-monitors.

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15
Q

Your friend just took a new job. She meets you for drinks after her first week on the job and complains about her boss. This surprises you, because you’ve never heard her complain about a boss before, and she rarely complains in general. According to Harold Kelley’s model, this information helps explain her behaviour because her boss is
A) consistent.
B) consensus.
C) correspondent.
D) distinctive.

A

D) distinctive.

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16
Q

Which action is most likely to bring about an event?
A) perceiving events
B) judging events
C) explaining events
D) expecting events

A

D) expecting events

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17
Q

Research has shown that participants who were presented with aging-related words on a sentence completion task were later observed walking to an elevator slower than subjects who were not presented with aging-related words. This demonstrates
A) situations.
B) priming.
C) ageism.
D) perception.

A

B) priming.

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18
Q

If you showed identical research to proponents and opponents of gun control, what outcome would you expect to see?
A) Each side would become more extreme in their original position.
B) Each side would become more neutral in their views.
C) Both sides would view gun control more positively.
D) Both sides would view gun control more negatively.

A

A) Each side would become more extreme in their original position.

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19
Q

After the movie Jaws came out, and again in the early 1990s after “Summer of the Shark,” many people were afraid to go in the ocean. This is due to
A) the representative heuristic.
B) belief perseverance.
C) the availability heuristic.
D) the confirmation bias.

A

C) the availability heuristic.

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20
Q

“It always rains after I wash the car.” This statement is an example of
A) inferential statistics.
B) the confirmation bias.
C) an illusory correlation.
D) a positive correlation.

A

C) an illusory correlation.

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21
Q

Research by Allan Wicker (1969) found that
A) expressed attitudes hardly ever predict behaviour.
B) expressed attitudes almost always predict behaviour.
C) implicit attitudes are more likely than expressed attitudes to predict behaviour.
D) expressed attitudes are more likely than implicit attitudes to predict behaviour.

A

A) expressed attitudes hardly ever predict behaviour.

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22
Q

An important lesson of role-playing studies is that
A) it takes a strong personality to withstand social pressure.
B) what is unreal can evolve into what is real.
C) most participants remain aware that the situation is unreal.
D) we are powerless to resist imposed roles.

A

B) what is unreal can evolve into what is real.

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23
Q

When our behaviour is out of sync with our attitudes, it is called
A) attitude incongruity.
B) cognitive congruity.
C) attitude inoculation.
D) cognitive dissonance.

A

D) cognitive dissonance.

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24
Q

Self-presentation theory argues that people will adopt attitudes consistent with behaviours in order to
A) figure out the dominant response.
B) reduce tension.
C) determine how they should behave.
D) create good impressions.

A

D) create good impressions.

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25
Q

A teenager is out with her friends at the mall. Although she doesn’t believe in shoplifting, when they all take earrings and put them in their pockets, she does as well. As a result, she will most likely experience
A) cognitive dissonance.
B) cognitive congruity.
C) attitude inoculation.
D) attitude incongruity.

A

A) cognitive dissonance.

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26
Q

If poll takers standing outside election voting stations survey entering voters on which candidate they prefer, and then ask exiting voters who they voted for, there would be a high correlation between initial preference and actual vote. In this specific example, this is because
A) in general, attitudes specific to a behavior are excellent predictors.
B) when an attitude is strong, it is a good predictor of behaviour.
C) when social pressures are high, an attitude is an excellent predictor of behaviour.
D) attitudes are strong when you share them with your friends.

A

B) when an attitude is strong, it is a good predictor of behaviour.

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27
Q

Which of the following is not an element of persuasion?
A) the communicator
B) the message
C) the physical location
D) the content

A

C) the physical location

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28
Q

A change in behaviour or belief that results from real or imagined group pressure is referred to by social psychologists as
A) acceptance.
B) obedience.
C) conformity.
D) compliance.

A

C) conformity.

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29
Q

How did the obedience observed in Milgram’s study differ from the conformity observed in Asch’s study?
A) There was an expressed command in Milgram’s study but not in the Asch study.
B) Compliance took precedence over common sense.
C) The participants were pressured to go against their own conscience.
D) Milgram’s study, but not Asch’s, demonstrated the power of the situation.

A

A) There was an expressed command in Milgram’s study but not in the Asch study.

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30
Q

Which lesson about evil do we learn from Milgram’s research?
A) Evil results from a few depraved people.
B) Most people resist performing evil acts on moral grounds
C) Social forces can induce ordinary people to engage in evil acts.
D) Evil usually involves a conscious intent.

A

C) Social forces can induce ordinary people to engage in evil acts.

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31
Q

Concern for social image involves __________ influence; the desire to be correct involves __________ influence.
A) normative; informational.
B) qualitative; proximal.
C) informational; normative.
D) proximal; qualitative.

A

A) normative; informational.

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32
Q

Shelley’s mother insists that Shelly come directly home after school. Instead, in an effort to protect her sense of freedom, Shelley goes to the mall with her friends after school, demonstrating what social psychologists call
A) forgetfulness.
B) deviance.
C) reaction formation.
D) reactance.

A

D) reactance.

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33
Q

Persuasion is
A) the process by which a message induces attitude change.
B) a change in behaviour or belief as a result of real or imagined group pressure.
C) the process by which a message induces a change in behaviour.
D) a change in behaviour or belief as a result of a direct order from someone.

A

B) a change in behaviour or belief as a result of real or imagined group pressure.

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34
Q

Which of the following is more likely to produce change?
A) the elaborative route to persuasion
B) the peripheral route to persuasion
C) the implicit route to persuasion
D) the central route to persuasion

A

D) the central route to persuasion

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35
Q

Carl’s relative died of lung cancer and emphysema. He is now thoroughly against smoking because of the strong emotional component of his attitude. What type of anti-smoking message is he more likely to be persuaded by?
A) a credible communicator
B) an attractive communicator
C) the reciprocity factor
D) an emotional appeal

A

D) an emotional appeal

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36
Q

Persuasion __________ as the significance and familiarity of the issue __________.
A) decreases; increases.
B) stays the same; increases.
C) increases; decreases.
D) increases; stays the same.

A

A) decreases; increases.

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37
Q

Regarding persuasion research on personal influence and media influence, which type of influence is most effective?
A) newspapers.
B) radio
C) face-to-face contact.
D) television.

A

C) face-to-face contact.

38
Q

Credibility is
A) the same as liking.
B) perceived expertise and trustworthiness.
C) the same as attractiveness.
D) how likely you are to be persuaded by someone.

A

B) perceived expertise and trustworthiness.

39
Q

The best way to build resistance to brain washing by religious cults is
A) stronger indoctrination in one’s current religious belief system.
B) teaching children about cults and helping them prepare counter persuasive appeals.
C) instilling fear of punishment for abandoning their faith.
D) teaching them to explore a wide variety of belief systems.

A

B) teaching children about cults and helping them prepare counter persuasive appeals.

40
Q

Social facilitation is the tendency for the presence of others
A) to affect our likelihood to help.
B) to strengthen dominant responses.
C) to only impair our performance.
D) to only improve our performance.

A

B) to strengthen dominant responses.

41
Q

According to Zajonc, the dominant response
A) should boost performance on easy tasks and hurt performance on difficult tasks.
B) should always lead to an improvement in performance.
C) should boost performance on difficult tasks and hurt performance on easy tasks.
D) should increase how the performer feels.

A

A) should boost performance on easy tasks and hurt performance on difficult tasks.

42
Q

When you perform a task in front of others who are blindfolded, social facilitation effects are void. This finding supports which theory of social facilitation?
A) social imitation.
B) distraction-conflict.
C) evaluation apprehension.
D) mere presence effects.

A

C) evaluation apprehension.

43
Q

Ben, a quiet young man, went to a heavy metal rock concert. The large crowd began to scream and stomp their feet when the musicians came on stage. Ben joined in as he lost his sense of awareness. This is an example of
A) dehumanization.
B) deindividuation.
C) depersonalization.
D) mass hysteria.

A

B) deindividuation

44
Q

Can social loafing be reduced?
A) No, social loafing is inevitable.
B) Yes, by having females work on the task.
C) Yes, by making individual’s work identifiable.
D) Yes, by doing research in countries other than the United States.

A

C) Yes, by making individual’s work identifiable.

45
Q

The phenomenon of risky shift is the finding
A) that group decisions are often riskier once groupthink sets in.
B) that individual decisions are often riskier than group decisions.
C) that individuals help less when others are around.
D) that group decisions often encourage riskier actions than individual decisions.

A

D) that group decisions often encourage riskier actions than individual decisions.

46
Q

The symptoms of groupthink are
A) a collective form of dissonance reduction.
B) a form of social loafing.
C) a form of social facilitation.
D) always a negative influence on group decisions.

A

A) a collective form of dissonance reduction.

47
Q

According to Jussim, McCauley, and Lee (1995), stereotypes
A) are almost always negative.
B) are inaccurate generalizations.
C) may be positive or negative but are always inaccurate.
D) may be positive or negative and may be accurate or inaccurate.

A

D) may be positive or negative and may be accurate or inaccurate.

48
Q

Stereotypes are to __________ as prejudices are to __________.
A) behaviour; beliefs.
B) beliefs; behaviour.
C) cognition; behaviour.
D) beliefs; attitudes.

A

D) beliefs; attitudes.

49
Q

Which of the following is a negative attitude?
A) prejudice
B) discrimination
C) racism
D) sexism

A

A) prejudice

50
Q

Researchers have found that gender stereotypes
A) have changed over the years.
B) differ from one culture to another.
C) are not consistent with reality.
D) have remained consistent over time and culture.

A

D) have remained consistent over time and culture.

51
Q

Realistic conflict theory holds that
A) competition between groups for recognition leads to prejudice.
B) competition between groups for scarce resources leads to prejudice.
C) it is obvious that groups will always be in conflict because of evolution.
D) competition between groups over perceived inequalities leads to prejudice.

A

B) competition between groups for scarce resources leads to prejudice.

52
Q

Whereas the __________ theory of prejudice is based on competition for resources, __________ is based on a need to see one’s group as “better.”
A) evolutionary; social competition theory
B) social identity; realistic conflict theory
C) realistic conflict; social identity theory
D) social identity; drive theory

A

C) realistic conflict; social identity theory

53
Q

Research suggests that when we spontaneously categorize people, we do so in terms of our
A) age.
B) sex.
C) race.
D) status.

A

C) race.

54
Q

When misfortunes befall a person, others sometimes think the victim of circumstances deserved what happened. One reason put forth to explain why someone would think like that has been called
A) the mere exposure effect.
B) deindividuation.
C) the just-world hypothesis.
D) the hindsight bias.

A

C) the just-world hypothesis

55
Q

Because you dislike one of your coworkers, you lie and tell others you overheard her saying how she disliked everyone at the office. This would be an example of what kind of aggression?
A) hostile
B) instrumental
C) physical
D) direct

A

A) hostile

56
Q

A man leaves a bomb on a bus to kill innocent victims in order to persuade a government to yield to his demands. This would be an example of what kind of aggression?
A) hostile
B) instrumental
C) verbal
D) sexual

A

B) instrumental

57
Q

Theories of aggression
A) only include the idea that aggression is due to learned behaviours.
B) only include the idea that aggression is due to frustration.
C) include the idea that there are biological roots to aggression.
D) include the idea that there are no biological roots to aggression.

A

C) include the idea that there are biological roots to aggression.

58
Q

What factor does not predict conformity?
A) personality
B) culture
C) reactance
D) social roles

A

D) social roles

59
Q

When we are stuck in traffic or behind slow people in line at a store, sometimes we feel like we are going to snap. One possible reason for this is because
A) driving arouses us.
B) in our cars we are less polite.
C) driving is deindividuation.
D) frustration can facilitate aggression.

A

D) frustration can facilitate aggression.

60
Q

Frustration arises from the gap between __________ and __________.
A) belief; behaviour.
B) learning; behaviour.
C) expectations; attainments.
D) behaviour; attitudes.

A

C) expectations; attainments.

61
Q

Research in the laboratory and in real life suggests that pain, personal attacks, and overcrowding are __________ experiences that __________ the likelihood aggression.
A) frustrating; decrease.
B) frustrating; do not affect
C) aversive; decrease.
D) aversive; increase.

A

D) aversive; increase.

62
Q

Research by Berkowitz showed that
A) viewing a weapon served as a cue for aggressive behaviour.
B) viewing a weapon did not serve as a cue for aggressive behaviour.
C) viewing a weapon has no effect on aggressive behaviour.
D) viewing a weapon reduced aggressive behaviour.

A

A) viewing a weapon served as a cue for aggressive behaviour.

63
Q

According to George Gerbner (1979, 1994), television’s most potent effect is
A) increasing violent behaviour in children and adults.
B) altering perceptions of the real world.
C) reducing participation in civic activities.
D) desensitizing people to violence.

A

B) altering perceptions of the real world.

64
Q

Because Tony was ostracized by his peers, we would expect him to
A) try harder to be accepted.
B) increase his behaviour regulation.
C) engage in self-defeating behaviours.
D) become more passive.

A

C) engage in self-defeating behaviours.

65
Q

What factor does not enable close relationships?
A) attachment
B) equity
C) self-disclosure
D) detachment

A

D) detachment

66
Q

If Andrea wants to reduce her children’s aggressive behaviours, she should do all of the following EXCEPT
A) reduce aversive stimulation.
B) reward and model nonaggression.
C) elicit reactions that are incompatible with aggression.
D) encourage them to vent their anger.

A

D) encourage them to vent their anger.

67
Q

Which statement is most accurate?
A) Birds of a feather flock together.
B) Absence makes the heart grow fonder.
C) Opposites attract.
D) The best way to attract a man is to play hard-to-get.

A

A) Birds of a feather flock together.

68
Q

Roughly what percent of infants display a secure attachment?
A) 10%
B) 30%
C) 70%
D) 90%

A

C) 70%

69
Q

Whereas similarity __________; dissimilarity __________.
A) has minimal affect on liking; has no affect on liking.
B) increases liking; decreases liking.
C) has no affect on liking; has no affect on liking.
D) decreases liking; increases liking.

A

B) increases liking; decreases liking.

70
Q

When romantic restaurants, dates out, nice dinners at home, and vacations continue in a relationship, couples last longer and are happier because they associate the relationship with positive things. This is best explained by
A) the reward theory of attraction.
B) the anticipatory-liking theory.
C) the complementary hypothesis.
D) the mere exposure effect.

A

A) the reward theory of attraction.

71
Q

Umberto feels intense, exciting emotions for Elena. Elena has great affection for Umberto and sees their lives as deeply intertwined with each other. Umberto’s love would be called __________; Elena’s love would be called __________.
A) passionate; passionate
B) passionate; companionate
C) companionate; passionate
D) companionate; companionate

A

B) passionate; companionate

72
Q

According to equity theory, which couple would be most satisfied with their relationship?
A) Eugene and Mary, because Mary takes care of all of Eugene’s needs.
B) Jonathan and Ruthie, because both believe they are getting as much as they are giving.
C) Frank and Carol, because Frank is wealthy and Carol is beautiful.
D) Mike and Lynn, because their relationship is extremely passionate.

A

B) Jonathan and Ruthie, because both believe they are getting as much as they are giving.

73
Q

When your campus has a blood drive, you might weigh the costs and the benefits before deciding to donate blood. This strategy would be predicted by
A) the social exchange theory.
B) the just-world hypothesis.
C) the egoism hypothesis.
D) the reciprocity norm.

A

A) the social exchange theory.

74
Q

According to B.F. Skinner, we credit people for good deeds only when we can’t explain them. We attribute behaviour to __________ only when we lack __________.
A) external explanations; dispositional explanations.
B) their inner dispositions; external explanations.
C) external causes; internal ones.
D) extraneous causes; dispositional causes.

A

B) their inner dispositions; external explanations.

75
Q

After I lend my neighbour a cup of milk, I feel comfortable asking her for some vanilla extract for a coconut cake I am baking. This is due to my ascribing to
A) social exchange theory.
B) ingratiation.
C) the reciprocity norm.
D) social capital.

A

C) the reciprocity norm.

76
Q

Mindy volunteers at a center for homeless children and her brother Kirk volunteers at a hospice for people dying of AIDS. They are demonstrating which principle of prosocial behaviour?
A) the reciprocity norm
B) social exchange theory
C) the social responsibility norm
D) ingratiation

A

C) the social responsibility norm

77
Q

Kin selection is to evolutionary theory, as reward is to __________.
A) social exchange theory.
B) reciprocity norm.
C) evolutionary theory.
D) social responsibility norm.

A

A) social exchange theory.

78
Q

One reason for the occurrence of bystander apathy is
A) the reciprocity norm.
B) the social exchange theory.
C) the social responsibility norm.
D) a diffusion of responsibility.

A

D) a diffusion of responsibility.

79
Q

Two suspects are arrested for allegedly committing a bank robbery. The police tell them that if one confesses, the confessor will be set free and the other will be convicted of the crime. The suspects are confronted with
A) the prisoner’s dilemma.
B) the tragedy of the commons.
C) non-zero-sum.
D) social dilemma.

A

A) the prisoner’s dilemma.

80
Q

People overfishing when they know the fish might be depleted is
A) the prisoner’s dilemma.
B) the tragedy of the commons.
C) non-zero-sum.
D) a social dilemma.

A

B) the tragedy of the commons.

81
Q

What allowed the two groups in Muzafer Sherif’s Robber’s Cave study to finally get along?
A) the formation of superordinate goals
B) the formation of subordinate goals
C) the misperception effect
D) exposure to non-prejudiced models

A

A) the formation of superordinate goals

82
Q

You hear a rumour that a coworker has said something about you, so you snub them. As a result, your coworker does say something bad about you. This example shows
A) self-confirming perceptions.
B) reciprocally fulfilling perceptions.
C) the vindication effect.
D) equitably fulfilling perceptions

A

A) self-confirming perceptions.

83
Q

Bicultural individuals identify with both their own ethnic identity and mainstream culture. Research suggests that these people typically
A) have low self-esteem.
B) have problems learning language skills.
C) have a strongly positive self-concept.
D) are not sure which group they belong to.

A

C) have a strongly positive self-concept.

84
Q

In a classic study, Rosenhan, et al. had confederates check into a mental hospital and report hearing voices. All other information presented to the administrator and doctor was accurate and no other symptoms were reported. The study reported that
A) they were all found out within one week.
B) most were diagnosed as schizophrenic and remained hospitalized for 2 to 3 weeks.
C) they were all found out immediately.
D) they were all kept in the hospital for at least one month.

A

B) most were diagnosed as schizophrenic and remained hospitalized for 2 to 3 weeks.

85
Q

Professor Snowden is teaching a graduate seminar in the clinical interview. He would be most correct if he informed his students that
A) they should rely more heavily on their intuitive assessment than on statistical predictions.
B) they should rely equally on clinical and statistical predictions.
C) statistical prediction is highly superior to intuitive prediction.
D) they should first consider statistical data, then rely on their intuition when making clinical predictions.

A

C) statistical prediction is highly superior to intuitive prediction.

86
Q

Who is likely to have the most accurate perception in estimating their degree of control?
A) Amanda, who is slightly depressed
B) Brenda, who is severely depressed
C) Connie, who is not depressed
D) There is no correlation between depression and estimation of degree of control.

A

A) Amanda, who is slightly depressed

87
Q

Witnesses who tend to be more accurate often
A) have a vivid memory for trivial details.
B) remember the event perfectly.
C) have a poor memory for trivial details.
D) have had their memories hypnotically refreshed.

A

C) have a poor memory for trivial details

88
Q

The misinformation effect is in part due to
A) open-ended questions.
B) inadequate police work.
C) prejudice.
D) suggestive questions.

A

D) suggestive questions.

89
Q

The cognitive interview procedure includes
A) flooding the eyewitness with an array of mug shots.
B) inserting follow up questions into open ended responses.
C) guiding the eyewitness to reconstruct the setting.
D) having the eyewitness verbally describe the perpetrator’s face.

A

C) guiding the eyewitness to reconstruct the setting.

90
Q

Research on capital punishment finds that
A) homicide rates drop in states that allow capital punishment.
B) application of the death penalty is highly consistent.
C) death qualified jurors comprise a biased sample.
D) the death penalty is applied equally to poor and middle class defendants.

A

A) homicide rates drop in states that allow capital punishment.

91
Q

In poor countries __________, but in wealthy countries __________.
A) money doesn’t predict happiness; it does.
B) money predicts happiness; the correlation diminishes.
C) the number of offspring predicts happiness; it doesn’t.
D) age predicts happiness; it does as well.

A

B) money predicts happiness; the correlation diminishes.

92
Q

Social psychologists suggest that all of the following strategies enhance life quality EXCEPT
A) close, supportive relationships.
B) positive thinking habits.
C) financial well-being.
D) flow.

A

C) financial well-being.