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Anatomy & Physiology 1 > Final Exam (Endocrine System, Stress Response, & Semi-Cumulative Topics) > Flashcards

Final Exam (Endocrine System, Stress Response, & Semi-Cumulative Topics) Flashcards

1
Q

what is the classic definition of a hormone

A

chemical substance produced in a specialized gland (endocrine gland)

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2
Q

where are hormones released

A

the bloodstream

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3
Q

where are hormones transported to

A

(sometimes) distant target cells/tissues to elicit (produce) a response

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4
Q

How do hormone pathways and interactions work

A

in negative feedback loops
(sometimes positive - like labor)

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5
Q

Where are hormone receptors located

A

protein molecules located either;
-on cell membrane
-inside the cell (cytoplasm or nucleus)

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6
Q

What is the job of hormone receptors

A

bind specific hormones in specific target tissues to produce a biological effect (usually through protein modification)

*Key factor that determines if a cell will respond to a hormone is if it has receptors for that hormone!
-Hormone MUST bind to its proper receptor to have an effect

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7
Q

How are hormones classified

A

based off of their structure
-amino acid OR
-lipid based

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8
Q

what are the types of hormones we discussed

A

Peptide hormones
Steroid hormones
Amines: Catecholamines, thyroid hormones

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9
Q

What is the structure of steroid hormones

A

lipid based

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10
Q

describe process of steroid hormone synthesis

A

-Cholesterol (a lipid) is precursor to ALL steroid hormones
-conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone via P450scc in mitochondria
-further conversion by additional enzymes (mostly in smooth ER)

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11
Q

How does testosterone (T) get to Estradiol (E2)

A

via aromatase enzyme

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12
Q

How are steroids transported through blood

A

via binding proteins because steroids are non-water-soluble

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13
Q

What kind of receptors do steroids have

A

intracellular receptors (in cytoplasm or nucleus)

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14
Q

Describe the process of peptide/protein hormone synthesis

A

-made up of Amino acids
-soluble in water, so they freely travel through blood w/o binding globulins
-stored in vesicles
-Synthesis is done via transcription & translation

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15
Q

what kind of receptors do peptide hormones have

A

cell membrane receptors

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16
Q

Describe cell membrane hormone receptors

A

result in fast response (seconds to minutes)
-used by peptide/protein and most amine hormones (like epinephrine)

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17
Q

Describe intracellular hormone receptors

A

result in slower response (~20-90 minutes)
-used by steroids and thyroid hormones

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18
Q

What are the classes of cell membrane receptors

A

-ligand-gated channel
-receptor enzyme
-g protein coupled receptor
-integrin

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19
Q

Describe how the G-protein coupled receptor works

A
  1. hormone binds to receptor
  2. GTP replaces GDP on Alpha subunit of G-protein
  3. Alpha subunit dissociates
  4. Alpha subunit activates adenylyl cyclase
  5. Adenylyl cyclase produces cAMP from ATP
  6. cAMP activates protein kinase A
  7. Protein Kinase A phosphorylates proteins inside cell
    —–> leads to RESPONSE IN CELL
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20
Q

What specific receptor do many peptide hormones use

A

G-protein coupled receptor

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21
Q

Describe how intracellular receptors work

A

-steroid enters target cell by simple diffusion
-steroid binds to receptor
-activated steroid-receptor complex translocates to nucleus
——>binds to DNA & initiates gene transcription
——>Production of new proteins
—————> Leads to RESPONSE IN CELL

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22
Q

what receptor do steroids and thyroid hormones use

A

intracellular receptors

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23
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
-There is an important close relationship between the hypothalamus & pituitary

A

TRUE

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24
Q

what are Hypothalamic nuclei

A

clusters of neuron cell bodies that make up the hypothalamus

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25
Q

Describe the Hypothalamus-Pituitary complex

A

-Hypothalamus secretes hormones into capillary network: Hypophyseal portal system
-hormones carried to anterior pituitary
-Anterior Pituitary secretes different hormones in response

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26
Q

Describe the Hypothalamus’s interaction with the posterior pituitary

A

-axons from hypothalamic neurons extend into posterior pituitary
-same hormones produced in hypothalamus are secreted by posterior pituitary

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27
Q

Describe the anatomy of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland

A

composed of epithelial or “true” endocrine tissue

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28
Q

Describe the anatomy of the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland

A

composed of neural tissue

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29
Q

what is the entire pituitary gland housed in

A

bony capsule in sphenoid bone known as Sella Turcica

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30
Q

What hormones are produced in the cell bodies of hypothalamic nuclei and secreted by the posterior pituitary

A

Oxytocin (OT)
Vasopressin (VP)

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31
Q

what kind of hormones are Oxytocin and Vasopressin

A

Neurohormones

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32
Q

what are the physiological roles of Oxytocin (OT)

A

-milk release by lactating women
-uterine contractions during labor (this is positive feedback related to hormones)

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33
Q

what are the behavioral roles of Oxytocin (OT)

A

-maternal behavior
-mating behavior
-social behavior
-sexual response

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34
Q

what are the physiological roles of Vasopressin (VP) A.K.A. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

A

water balance
-VP induces water reabsorption at kidney tubules

Blood pressure regulation
-VP causes vasoconstriction (increased BP)

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35
Q

what are the behavioral roles of Vasopressin (VP) A.K.A. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

A

Social behavior
-crystallization of social memory (allowing you to remember people you met a few days-years ago)

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36
Q

Which cells make up 2% of the total mass of the pancreas

A

Endocrine cells

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37
Q

What are the Islets of Langerhans

A

cell clusters in the pancreas

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38
Q

which cells make up 75% of the Islets of Langerhans and what do they secrete

A

Beta Cells
-secrete insulin (a peptide hormone)

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39
Q

which cells make up 20% of the Islets of Langerhans and what do they secrete

A

Alpha cells
-secrete glucagon (a peptide hormone)

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40
Q

which cells make up 4% of the Islets of Langerhans and what do they secrete

A

D cells
-secrete Somatostatin

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41
Q

which cells make up 1% of the Islets of Langerhans and what do they secrete

A

F Cells
-secrete pancreatic polypeptide

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42
Q

what occurs in the endocrine pancreas

A

glucose homeostasis

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43
Q

how does the endocrine pancreas maintain glucose homeostasis

A

when blood glucose is high:
-insulin released, induces target cells to take up glucose
———> blood glucose goes down

When blood glucose is low:
-Glucagon released, induces release of glucose from target cells
———>blood glucose levels go up

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44
Q

Describe Insulin

A

Produced from Beta cells of Islets of Langerhans
-needed for normal growth and development
-ONLY hormone that lowers blood glucose
-stimulus for secretion=increased glucose in blood

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45
Q

what does insulin act on and what response does it produce

A

liver, skeletal & cardiac muscle, and adipose tissue cells
-Enhance glucose uptake —–> lowers blood glucose levels
-induces glycogen synthesis, or protein & fat synthesis

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46
Q

what happens if insulin is absent

A

unregulated high blood glucose levels

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47
Q

what occurs due to inadequate insulin secretion, abnormal target cell responsiveness, or both

A

Diabetes Mellitus

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48
Q

How does insulin lower blood glucose

A

via glucose transport proteins (GLUTs)

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49
Q

how does insulin affect blood glucose via GLUT4s

A

-Insulin binding causes insertion of GLUT4s into plasma membrane
-Facilitated diffusion of glucose into cells

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50
Q

Where are GLUT4s found

A

GLUT4s present in striated muscle (cardiac & Skeletal), and adipose tissue

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51
Q

how does insulin affect blood glucose via GLUT2s

A

-not dependent on insulin, always present in plasma membrane
-insulin alters intracellular glucose levels, creating concentration gradient to facilitate glucose movement (in or out)

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52
Q

where are GLUT2s found

A

GLUT2s present in liver, pancreas, intestine, and kidneys

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53
Q

What is Diabetes Mellitus typically characterized by

A

the inability to lower blood glucose levels

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54
Q

what characterizes Type I diabetes

A

There is no insulin production from the pancreas

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55
Q

what is the cause of Type I Diabetes

A

Autoimmune destruction of Beta cells, resulting in no insulin production

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56
Q

What is the treatment for Type I Diabetes

A

Insulin replacement (injection or pump)

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57
Q

What characterizes Type II Diabetes

A

Receptors for insulin are non-functional (insulin resistance)
-initial upregulation of insulin secretion followed by reduction of insulin secretion

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58
Q

what is the cause of Type II Diabetes

A

Multifactorial
-Biggest Risk factors=Genetics (family history), ethnicity, & stress

-Other=inactivity, age, & diet

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59
Q

what is the treatment for Type II Diabetes

A

Dietary management
Physical exercise
medication to lower blood glucose

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60
Q

why is physical exercise a possible treatment option for Type II Diabetes

A

Contracting striated muscle leads to GLUT4 expression & membrane insertion, and glucose uptake independent of insulin

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61
Q

what medication is commonly used to treat Type II Diabetes

A

Metformin
-reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis and enhances insulin sensitivity

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62
Q

what characterizes gestational diabetes

A

Insulin resistance or reduction of insulin production during pregnancy

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63
Q

what is the cause of gestational diabetes

A

unknown/many

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64
Q

what are treatment options for gestational diabetes

A

dietary management
physical exercise
insulin

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65
Q

What produces Glucagon

A

Produced by Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans of pancreas

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66
Q

What are Glucagon’s target tissues

A

liver and adipose tissue

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67
Q

what does glucagon induce

A

glyconeogenesis, gluconeogenesis, and lipolysis

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68
Q

what does Glucagon do

A

Increases blood glucose
-Antagonistic effect to insulin

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69
Q

define stressor

A

anything that disrupts homeostasis (internal or external)

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70
Q

define stress response

A

physiological & behavioral responses that attempt to reestablish homeostasis

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71
Q

what is general adaptation syndrome

A

3 stage process of responding to stress

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72
Q

who founded general adaptation syndrome

A

Hans Selye (1907 - 1982)

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73
Q

what are the 3 stages of general adaptation syndrome

A
  1. alarm reaction stage
  2. resistance stage
  3. exhaustion stage
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74
Q

Where are the adrenal glands located

A

sit on top of the kidneys

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75
Q

Describe the Adrenal medulla

A

the inner portion of adrenal glands
-nervous tissue origin (neuroendocrine)

76
Q

what does the adrenal medulla secrete

A

catecholamines
-Norepinephrine
-epinephrine

77
Q

Describe the adrenal cortex

A

the outer portion of adrenal glands
-made of epithelial tissue (“true” endocrine tissue)

78
Q

what does the adrenal cortex secrete

A

glucocorticoids (steroids)

79
Q

Describe the Neuroendocrinology of the stress response

A

Integration of 2 systems
-sympathetic branch of ANS
(releases catecholamines)

-HPA Axis
(releases Glucocorticoids)

80
Q

what are the additional hormones secreted during stress response

A

beta-endorphins - pain suppression
vasopressin - increases blood pressure
prolactin - unclear function

81
Q

Describe the Alarm reaction stage of general adaptation syndrome

A

Activated within seconds of appearance of stressor
-catecholamine (epinephrine & norepinephrine) release from adrenal medulla
*fast acting “fight-or-flight” response triggered

82
Q

what are the functions of catecholamines

A

Variety of effects
Increases:
-alertness, memory, O2 intake, glucose availability, blood flow to muscles, heart rate, blood pressure

Inhibits:
-digestion, pain perception

83
Q

Describe the Resistance stage of general adaptation syndrome

A

Activated within minutes to hours, if stressor continues
-activation of hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis

84
Q

Steps of Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Adrenal (HPA) Axis

A

-Stressor causes hypothalamus to release corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH)
-this causes Anterior pituitary to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
-this causes adrenal cortex to release glucocorticoids (cortisol & corticosterone) to target tissues
-this causes blood glucose to increase

*this is negative feed back at hypothalamus and anterior pituitary

85
Q

What are 2 specific glucocorticoids and what kind of hormones are they

A

corticosterone & cortisol
-these are metabolic hormones

86
Q

Describe when corticosterone & cortisol are activated and how they are transported

A

Peak shortly after waking (“morning burst”)
-this provides energy for our day

Also elevate in response to stress

*Moved through blood via carrier corticosterone binding globulin (CBG)

87
Q

what receptors do glucocorticoids bind to

A

intracellular receptors (mostly)
-they are steroids

88
Q

what are the major effects of glucocorticoids

A

They are essential for life:
Major effect=increases blood glucose
-induction of gluconeogenesis in liver
-reduction of cellular glucose uptake

89
Q

what are the additional effects of glucocorticoids

A

-Breakdown of proteins and fats
-suppress immune response, reproduction, & digestion

Route energy away from non-essential functions, and route energy to survival-based functions during entire stress response

90
Q

Describe the exhaustion stage of general adaptation syndrome

A

occurs if stressor continues for days, weeks, months, or years
-there is continued secretion of epinephrine, norepinephrine, and cortisol

91
Q

which stages of general adaptation syndrome are categorized as acute stress

A

alarm reaction stage
resistance stage

92
Q

which stage of general adaptation syndrome is categorized as chronic stress

A

exhaustion stage

93
Q

define allostasis

A

physiological process of returning the body to homeostasis

94
Q

define allostatic load

A

body “wear and tear” overtime due to costs of allostasis

95
Q

define allostatic overload

A

costs outweigh available energy
-results in stress-related pathologies

96
Q

examples of physical stress

A

baboons fighting
cheetah chasing its food

97
Q

examples of psychosocial stress

A

war
skydiving
stressful job
exams at school

98
Q

what chronic stress pathology does the acute stress response of increased energy use cause

A

fatigue
myopathy (muscle fatigue)

99
Q

what chronic stress pathology does the acute stress response of increased cardiac output cause

A

hypertension (high BP)

100
Q

what chronic stress pathology does the acute stress response of inhibited digestion cause

A

ulcers

101
Q

what chronic stress pathology does the acute stress response of inhibited reproduction cause

A

infertility

102
Q

what chronic stress pathology does the acute stress response of immunosuppression cause

A

loss of disease resistance

103
Q

what chronic stress pathology does the acute stress response of enhanced cognition cause

A

neural degeneration

104
Q

What is the anatomical body position?

A

position in which feet are pointed forward, body is standing up straight, and palms are facing out

105
Q

What are the non-standing body positions?

A

supine and prone

106
Q

Define supine

A

body position in which someone is laying on their back, face up

107
Q

Define prone

A

body position in which someone is laying on their stomach, face down

108
Q

What are directional terms?

A

They usually come in pairs and compare structures

109
Q

How are proximal and distal used to compare structures?

A

used to compare linear structures such as the arms or legs

110
Q

Define proximal

A

closer to the attachment point to the body
(Ex. the elbow is proximal to the wrist)

111
Q

Define distal

A

farther from the attachment point to the body
(Ex. elbow is distal to the shoulder)

112
Q

How are superior and inferior used to compare structures?

A

They are NOT used when referring to arms or legs because this is not as accurate in all the body positions

113
Q

Define superior

A

above
(Ex. The head is superior to the chest)

114
Q

Define inferior

A

below
(Ex. the nose is inferior to the eyes)

115
Q

Define medial

A

closer to the midline (middle) of the body
(Ex. The spine is medial to the ribcage)

116
Q

Define lateral

A

Away from the midline (middle) of the body, closer to the sides of the body
(Ex. The lungs are lateral to the heart)

117
Q

Define Anterior

A

towards the front of the body
(Ex. the eyes are anterior to the butt)

118
Q

Define posterior

A

towards the back of the body
(Ex. the Achilles tendon is posterior to the nose)

119
Q

Define superficial

A

closer to the surface of the body
(Ex. the skin is superficial to the bones)

120
Q

Define deep

A

toward the core (center) of the body
(Ex. The bones are deep to the skin)

121
Q

Draw a diagram of the 9 square abdominal divisions and label them

A

Look at diagram

122
Q

Define Homeostasis

A

Homeo=similar
Stasis=period or state of inactivity or equilibrium

Maintenance of relatively constant internal body conditions - despite changes in the external environment - through activity of regulatory mechanisms.
(A.K.A. Dynamic Equilibrium in which body conditions are maintained within narrow limits)

123
Q

What are positive feedback loops?

A

Rare, continued “vicious” cycle until ended by a major event

124
Q

What is the goal of positive feedback loops?

A

increased stimulus, continual shift away from homeostasis

125
Q

What are some examples of positive feedback loops?

A

Blood clotting, ovulation, labor during childbirth

126
Q

What are negative feedback loops?

A

Most common type of feedback, responsible for almost all physiological regulation

127
Q

What is the goal of negative feedback loops?

A

Reduce stimulus to return body to homeostasis

128
Q

What are examples of negative feedback loops?

A

Blood glucose regulation, temperature regulation

129
Q

What are the strata of the epidermis?

A

(Deep to Superficial)
1. Stratum Basale
2. Stratum Spinosum
3. Stratum Granulosum
4. Stratum Lucidum
5. Stratum Corneum

130
Q

Describe the Stratum Basale

A

deepest layer of epidermis anchored to BM. Here keratinocyte stem cells divide via mitosis about every 19 days

131
Q

Describe the Stratum Spinosum

A

2nd strata of epidermis where keratin a lamellar bodies filled with lipids accumulate in cells

132
Q

Describe the Stratum Granulosum

A

3rd strata of epidermis where cells become diamond-shaped. Granules with the protein keratohyalin accumulate and lamellar bodies release their lipids. Cells die here.

133
Q

Describe the Stratum Lucidum

A

4th strata of the epidermis where keratohyalin is dispersed around keratin fibers and cells flatten and overlap

134
Q

Describe Stratum Corneum

A

5th and most superficial strata of the epidermis containing dead and overlapping squamous cells. Cornified cells (cells with “hard” protective layer of keratin) regularly slough off.

135
Q

What is common pathology in integumentary system

A

burns

136
Q

Degree refers to what of a burn

A

depth

137
Q

what combines %BSA & depth of burns

A

burn severity

138
Q

Define first-degree burn

A

only epidermis is affected
some pain, redness, swelling
fairly common

139
Q

Define second-degree burn

A

damage to epidermis & dermis
these vary b/c dermis is thick
can be red, tan, or white (if deep)
can scar if deep enough

140
Q

Define third-degree burn

A

epidermis and dermis completely destroyed
deeper tissues may be involved (like hypodermis)
sensory structures destroyed (affects ability to feel)
tan or brown color, leathery look
skin grafts often necessary

141
Q

Define major burn

A

3rd degree burn covers over 10% BSA OR
2nd degree burn covers over 25% BSA OR
Burns to hands, face, genitals, or anal region

142
Q

Define moderate burn

A

3rd degree burn covers 2-10% BSA OR
2nd degree burn covers 15-25% BSA

143
Q

Define minor burn

A

3rd degree burn covers less than 2% BSA OR
2nd degree burn covers less than 15% BSA

144
Q

Bone matrix composition

A

organic portion: collagen fibers (provides flexible strength)

Inorganic portion: hydroxyapatite - CaPO4 crystals (provides weight bearing strength

145
Q

Long bone structures

A

Diaphysis:
-shaft of long bone
-mostly compact bone

Epiphyses:
-ends of long bone
-mostly cancellous bone

Epiphyseal plates:
-near epiphyses
-site of bone growth
-becomes epiphyseal line when bone growth stops

Medullary Cavity:
-hollow center in shaft
-contains marrows (red marrow during childhood, converts to yellow as we age)

Periosteum:
-Tissue membrane on outer surface of bone
-Outer layer - Dense irregular CT, continues with tendon
-Inner Layer - Bone Cells

Endosteum:
-lines all internal spaces including spaces in cancellous bone

146
Q

What are the 3 types of muscles?

A

Skeletal muscle, smooth muscle, cardiac muscle

147
Q

What are the functions of skeletal muscle?

A

locomotion (physical movement), posture, respiration

148
Q

describe Skeletal muscle

A

voluntary (stimulated by motor neuron)

striated

149
Q

What are the functions of smooth muscle?

A

contraction of hollow organs, vasoconstriction, vasodilation

150
Q

describe smooth muscle

A

most widely distributed muscle type (in hollow organs & blood vessels)

involuntary (enteric and autonomic nervous system regulation - not controlled consciously)

Some are autorhythmic (initiate contraction w/o external nervous stimulation - muscles can self-contract)

151
Q

what are the functions of cardiac muscle?

A

contraction of heart chambers

152
Q

describe cardiac muscle

A

only found in heart

involuntary (regulated by autonomic nervous system)

Autorhythmic

striated

153
Q

What is an action potential (AP)

A

temporary reversal of voltage (charge) inside cell —> voltage within cell becomes temporarily positive

“signal firing”

154
Q

What are the stages of an action potential

A
  1. Resting Membrane Potential
    -no ion channels open

Stimulus
-some Na+ channels open
-Na+ starts to move into cell (start of depolarization)

  1. Depolarization (2nd part)
    -Voltage-gated Na+ channels are open
    -Na+ rushes into cell
  2. Repolarization
    -Na+ channels close
    -voltage-gated K+ channels open
    -K+ rushes out of cell
  3. Hyperpolarization
    -“undershoot”
    -excess K+ moving out of cell
  4. Back to resting membrane potential
155
Q

describe what occurs at a neuromuscular junction

A
  1. Action potential arrives at axon terminal
  2. Voltage-gated calcium (Ca++) channels open
    -Ca++ rushes IN to axon terminal
  3. Calcium ions (Ca++) triggers vesicles to release acetylcholine (Ach) into synaptic cleft
  4. Acetylcholine (Ach) diffuses across synaptic cleft
  5. Acetylcholine (Ach) binds to receptors on muscle fiber
  6. Na+ (sodium) channels open
    -Na+ moves into muscle fiber
    -triggers action potential (AP) in muscle fiber
156
Q

Describe the process of neurotransmitter release to muscle contraction

A
  1. Acetylcholine secretion from motor neuron, Ach binds to receptors on muscle fiber (detailed steps at neuromuscular junction)
  2. Increased influx of sodium ions (Na+) into muscle fiber —> triggers muscular action potential
  3. Propagation of action potential across muscle fiber
  4. Depolarization of membrane and release of calcium ions (Ca++) from sarcoplasmic Reticulum (SR)
    -due to: travelling of action potential into the inside of the fiber (T-tubules)
  5. Cross-bridge formation & sliding filaments (or muscle contractions)
    -due to: Ca++ binding to troponin
    -troponin-tropomyosin complex moves out of the way, revealing active (binding) sites for myosin to bind on actin

6.Calcium ions (Ca++) goes back into sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)
-restoration of filaments to original positions

157
Q

How many major regions exist in the adult brain

A

4

158
Q

what are the 4 major regions of the adult brain

A
  1. Cerebrum
  2. Diencephalon
  3. Brainstem
  4. Cerebellum
159
Q

what does each region of the brain contain

A

nuclei
-clusters of neuron cell bodies in the Central Nervous System (CNS)

160
Q

what is the cerebrum responsible for

A

higher brain functions

161
Q

what does the cerebrum contain

A

cerebral cortex - layer of gray matter surrounding cerebrum

left & right cerebral hemispheres - separated by longitudinal fissure

162
Q

what are the cortical lobes of the brain

A

frontal lobe
prefrontal cortex
parietal lobe
occipital lobe
temporal lobe

163
Q

what are the functions of the frontal lobe

A

-motor functions
-planning movements and executing movements

164
Q

what are the functions of the prefrontal cortex

A

-most anterior portion of the frontal lobe
-associated with personality
-regulation of emotional behavior & mood
-motor decision making

165
Q

what is the function of the parietal lobe

A

processing of somatic sensations from body

166
Q

what is the function of the occipital lobe

A

visual processing

167
Q

what are the functions of the temporal lobe

A

-auditory processing
-regions for memory formation

168
Q

what are the special functions of the cerebral cortex

A

-speech
-memory

169
Q

what makes up the diencephalon

A

-thalamus
-hypothalamus & pituitary

170
Q

what is the function of the thalamus

A

relay between cerebrum and rest of nervous system

171
Q

what is the function of the hypothalamus & pituitary

A

-homeostatic regulation
-signal for regulatory mechanisms
-endocrine function

172
Q

what is the function of the cerebellum

A

balance and coordination

173
Q

how does the cerebellum work

A

using the cerebellar comparator function

174
Q

What is the sympathetic branch of the ANS responsible for

A

“fight-or-flight” response
-physical activity & stress
Ex. increase Heart Rate, blood pressure, respiration

175
Q

what is the parasympathetic branch of the ANS responsible for

A

“Rest-and-digest” response
-slow functions like digestion
-Vagus nerve stimulation (Cranial Nerve X (10))
Ex. decrease heart rate, blood pressure, respiration

176
Q

what do cholinergic neurons secrete

A

acetylcholine neurotransmitter

177
Q

what do adrenergic neurons secrete

A

norepinephrine neurotransmitter

178
Q

what neurotransmitter do cholinergic receptors bind to

A

acetylcholine

179
Q

what are the 2 subtypes of cholinergic receptors

A

nicotinic receptors
muscarinic receptors

180
Q

where are nicotinic receptors found

A

on all postganglionic neurons of the ANS
-both sympathetic and parasympathetic branches

181
Q

where are muscarinic receptors found

A

on effectors of the parasympathetic branch of ANS

182
Q

what neurotransmitter do adrenergic receptors bind to

A

norepinephrine and epinephrine

183
Q

where are adrenergic receptors found

A

on effectors of the sympathetic branch of ANS

184
Q

what are the 2 subtypes of adrenergic receptors

A

alpha adrenergic receptors
-respond more to norepinephrine than epinephrine

Beta adrenergic receptors
-respond equally to norepinephrine & epinephrine

185
Q

What is accommodation when referring to vision

A

keeping objects in focus via lens changing shape (use of ciliary muscle)

Distant objects:
-ciliary muscles relax, there is ligament tension on lens —->flatter lens shape

Near objects:
-ciliary muscles contract, less ligament tension on lens —->rounder lens shape

*as we age, lose ability to accommodate lens for vision

Anatomy & Physiology 1 (8 decks)

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