Final Exam Comprehensive Flashcards

1
Q

You are instructed to give an injection to the subQ layer of the skin. Into what types of tissue will you be injecting?

A

Adipose and areolar connective tissue

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2
Q

Fingerprints are unique to each person. How are they formed?

A

Dermal papilla

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3
Q

How does skin play a role in temperature regulation?

A
  • By serving as a blood reservoir whose volume can be altered
  • By producing sweat that aids in evaporation and thus cooling
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4
Q

Keratinocytes gone through the process of apoptosis at the upper most layer of the epidermis? True / False

A

True

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5
Q

When removing a mole, a doctor recommends a specific direction for making the incision, why?

A

The doctor is considering lines of cleavage

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6
Q

What contributes to a person’s skin color?

A
  • The amount of melanin produced by their melanocytes
  • The amount of blood flow to their skin
  • The amount of carotenoids found in their skin
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7
Q

What type of cell junctions are particularly involved in binding skin cells together to prevent separation as the skin is pulled and twisted?

A

Desmosomes

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8
Q

A few bacteria find their way down a hair follicle and into your epidermis. Which mechanism(s) will help to defend you against the intruder?

A
  • Langerhans cells

- Sebum produced by oil glands

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9
Q

Which nerve ending perceives pressure in the skin and is located deep within the dermis or subcutaneous layer?

A

Pacinian corpuscle

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10
Q

Sunburn that displays signs of small blisters and pain is a 2nd degree burn, what layers of skin does it affect?

A

Epidermis and Dermis

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11
Q

What are characteristics of the periosteum?

A
  • It has an inner cellular layer
  • It has nerve fibers which produce much of the pain associated with a bone break
  • It serves as an attachment point for tendons and ligaments
  • It assists with fracture repair
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12
Q

How would removing collagen fibers from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone?

A

The bone would be less flexible

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13
Q

During endochondral ossification, what is a consequence of the bony collar that forms?

A

Developing chondrocytes are cut off from nutrients and die

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14
Q

You can donate red bone marrow from the diaphysis from your humerus? True / False

A

False

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15
Q

What could be the result of osteoclast activity being greater than osteoblast activity?

A

A decrease in bone density resulting in osteoporosis

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16
Q

Vitamins A and C are both vital for bone growth and maintenance. Why?

A

Vitamin A stimulates osteoblast activity and Vitamin C is vital to collagen structure

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17
Q

What is the significant difference between intramembranous and endochondral bone formation?

A

Endochondral formation includes the formation of a medullary cavity while intramembranous does not

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18
Q

Someone walks with a wobbly gait due to a painful right gait. What might you find displayed at the interior of their femur?

A

The spongy bone arrangement would be different between the two femurs due to the unequal forces placed on these bones

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19
Q

The periosteum is formed of hyaline cartilage. True/ False

A

False

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20
Q

During bone formation, at what point does an osteoblast differentiate into an osteocyte?

A

When collagen fibers surrounding it become calcified

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21
Q

What is a characteristic of canaliculi?

A

Osteocytes communicate with each other in the canaliculi via gap junctions

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22
Q

Both fibroblasts and osteoblasts are involved in forming the bony callus. True / False

A

True

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23
Q

Which type of bone is always produced first, whether during intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification, or during fracture repair?

A

Spongy bone

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24
Q

What are the characteristics of estrogen changes in the female pelvis?

A
  • Estrogen is responsible for closing the growth plate in the pelvis
  • Estrogen is responsible for the widening of the pelvis during puberty to accommodate a baby during the later but process
  • Estrogen causes certain regions of the pelvis to grow faster than others
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25
Q

The typical sequence of information transfer in the nervous system goes from sensory neuron to interneuron to motor neuron. True / False?

A

True

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26
Q

Why are neurons unable to undergo mitosis?

A

They lack centrioles

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27
Q

Which two cells have similar functions to neuroglia but are found in different locations?

A

satellite cells and astrocytes

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28
Q

Damage to astrocytes could result in _____?

A

A breakdown of the blood-brain barrier

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29
Q

Two years post-wrist surgery, a patient still has numbness at the incision site. What are possible reasons why?

A
  • Schwann cells associate with the sensory neurons were too damaged to form a regeneration tube
  • Schwann cells formed a regeneration tube, but the developing axon failed to find it
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30
Q

In a neuron, where are voltage gated potassium channels located?

A

In the membrane that covers axons

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31
Q

Why does sodium rush into a nerve cell during depolarization?

A

It moves down its concentration gradient and moves toward negative charges in the cell

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32
Q

Why do potassium channels play a large role in establishing resting membrane potential?

A

There are more potassium leak channels than sodium leak channels

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33
Q

Explain the all-or-non principle

A

All stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials

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34
Q

What allows salutatory conduction to be faster than continuous conduction?

A

Depolorization of the membrane only occurs at nodes of Ranvier

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35
Q

You manufacture a drug that blocks voltage gated calcium channels. What would be the result in a neuron?

A

The neuron would not be able to release its neurotransmitter.

36
Q

Excitatory postsynaptic potentials are local _________ that can vary in magnitude.

A

depolarizations

37
Q

The condition/amount of myelin present in the nervous system accounts for the jerky movements of both infants and persons with MD. True / False

A

True

38
Q

Supposing two graded potentials arrive at the axon hillock at the same time. One has a depolarizing value of +20mV and the other has a hyper polarizing value of -30mV. Assuming normal resting membrane and threshold values for a typical neuron, what will happen?

A

There will be a net hyperpolarization and no action potential produced.

39
Q

If a reaction equation has an arrow on both ends (instead of just one), what kind of reaction does it represent?

A

Reversible reaction

40
Q

A scientist analyzes adipose tissue. What vitamin might he find?

A

Vitamin A (betacarotene)

41
Q

In the control of body temperature, skeletal muscle that shovers in response to a decreased body temperature is function as the ________.

A

effector

42
Q

When mechanisms to homeostasis fail, what will an individual experience symptoms of?

A

Illness/disease

43
Q

Insulin is released from the pancreas in response to increased levels of glucose in the blood. If this hormone is part of a negative feedback loop, what effect would insulin have on blood glucose levels?

A

Blood glucose levels would decrease

44
Q

What structures are located in the pelvic cavity?

A

Portions of the large intestine and the bladder

45
Q

What is another word for “buttocks”?

A

gluteal

46
Q

Blood pressure is not controlled by a positive feedback system. True / False

A

True

47
Q

If you were to drop potassium chloride in water, the resulting potassium ions would ______.

A

Be attracted to the side of the water molecule that is slightly negative

48
Q

Building ATP from ADP + P is an endergonic reaction (it absorbs energy). What is the most common source of energy that gets put into this reaction?

A

From the breakdown of glucose

49
Q

Enzymes are consumed during the reaction. True / False

A

False

50
Q

A body temperature that rises above 105 degrees is dangerous because ________.

A

Enzymes can lose their shape in high temperatures.

51
Q

The building of maltose from its monomers (glucose and glucose) is an example of _______.

A

dehydration synthesis

52
Q

What combination of molecules is needed to form a triglyceride?

A

1 glycerol + 3 fatty acid molecules

53
Q

What are two characteristics of cholesterol molecules?

A
  • They provide rigidity to the membrane that would otherwise be too fluid.
  • They are amphipathic molecules.
54
Q

Diffusion through the plasma membrane is a passive process. What are two things that would result in an increase in the rate of diffusion through the membrane?

A
  • An increase in the steepness of the concentration gradient

- An increase in temperature

55
Q

The liver functions to detoxify our blood from drugs we ingest. Because of this, which organelle should be prominent in liver cells?

A

Smooth ER

56
Q

Why is secondary active transport considered active transport?

A

It uses the concentration gradient for sodium set up by the sodium/potassium pump

57
Q

The process of pinocytosis involves engulfing liquids into the cell via vesicles. True / False

A

True

58
Q

Membrane proteins serve as cell nutrients. True / False

A

False

59
Q

If the golgi apparatus is removed from a cell, what can it no longer do?

A

It cannot modify proteins and direct them to their proper location

60
Q

What is a common function of RNA?

A

Transfer information for protein synthesis

61
Q

What is the primary function of the sodium/potassium pump?

A

Moves 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell

62
Q

The particular amino acid sequence in a protein determines the shape of the protein because _________.

A

Charges associated with the amino acids attract or repel each other

63
Q

The cytoskeleton is made of sugars formed into long chains. True / False

A

False

64
Q

If blood cells are crenated, what can be concluded about blood plasma?

A

blood plasma was hypertonic due to dehydration

65
Q

Solution A (2% glucose solution) and solution B (13% glucose solution) are separated by a semi-permeable membrane impermeable to glucose. What will water do in this situation?

A

Water will move from the lower glucose solution (A) to the higher glucose solution (B) because the higher glucose solution (B) is hypertonic.
*Water follows solute

66
Q

Glycoproteins in the cell membrane function to _______

A

provide flags that mark the identity of the cell

67
Q

Phagocytosis and receptor mediated endocytosis are similar because ________

A

both require the use of ATP

68
Q

Some cells remain in the G0 phase of the cell cycle permanently. In other words, they never enter interphase or mitosis. What is an example of a cell that does this?

A

Cardiac muscle cells

69
Q

What type of tissue produces serous fluid (which can be found in the pleural cavity)?

A

simple squamous epithelium

70
Q

Simple epithelia covers surfaces subjected to mechanical or chemical stress. True / False

A

False

71
Q

Why is the pericardium strong even when pulled in many different direction?

A

The collagen fibers running many different direction within the tissue.

72
Q

Connective tissue fibers are produced mainly by _______

A

fibroblasts

73
Q

A torn lateral meniscus affects what type of cartilage?

A

fibrocartilage

74
Q

A tissue that is stretchy and recoils to its original shape, what protein is most abundant in that tissue?

A

elastin

75
Q

Epidermis is a connective tissue. True / False?

A

False

76
Q

What connective tissue provides structure in the spleen and other non-hollow organs?

A

Reticular connective tissue

77
Q

Where can you find smooth muscle?

A

Iris of the eye and the uterus.

78
Q

Describe the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle.

A

It is the storage and release site for calcium ion

79
Q

At rest the tropomyosin molecule is held in place by _________ molecules.

A

troponin

80
Q

Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after ________________

A

acetylcholine binds to chemically gated channels in the motor end plate membrane

81
Q

How would the loss of acetylcholinesterase from the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle?

A

It would cause spastic paralysis (muscles are contracted and unable to relax)

82
Q

During excitation-contraction coupling, the muscle cell can be stimulated or inhibited by acetylcholine. True / False?

A

False

83
Q

During the contraction phase of a muscle twitch, the z-lines of the sarcomere are getting closer. True / False?

A

True

84
Q

Compared to lifting a coffee cup, lifting a 25 pound barbell requires __________

A

recruiting larger motor units that can produce more tension

85
Q

What motor units have the fewest muscle fibers?

A

Muscles that have the most fine motor skills such as the muscles that control hand and finger movements

86
Q

When sitting in A&P lecture

A

question 10 ex 3