Final Exam Flashcards

0
Q

Name Disease: examples are CLL, CML, insidious onset, mild signs- fatigue, weakness, frequent infections, common in adults

A

Chronic Leukemia

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1
Q

True or False an infectious agent can be present in the body for some time before any clinical signs are apparent.

A

True

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2
Q

Name Disease: Due to recessive HbS gene, common in African Americans, signs: jaundice, splenomegaly, crescent RBCs

A

Sickle Cell Anemia

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3
Q

Name Disease: Initial manifestation is an enlarged, painless lymph node, 80% cases involve B-lymphocytes

A

Non-Hodgkin’s

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4
Q

Name Disease: Condition of increased production of erythrocytes, patient appears plethoric and cyanotic

A

Polycythemia

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5
Q

Name Disease: High numbers immature, nonfunctional cells in bone marrow & circulation, common - children Ex. ALL, AML

A

Acute Luekemia

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6
Q

Name Disease: occurs due to insufficient dietary intake & impaired iron absorption, Tx: iron supplements/ iron- rich foods

A

Iron- deficiency anemia

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7
Q

Name Disease: First indicator is large, painless, non-tender cervical lymph node, T- lymphocytes appear to be defective

A

Hodgkin’s

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8
Q

Name Disease: Deficient or abnormality of clotting factor VIII, signs: hematomas, ecchymosis, epistaxis

A

Hemophilia

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9
Q

Name Disease: B12 deficiency, main cause is mal-absorption from gastritis & inflammatory conditions; sign - shiny tongue

A

Pernicious anemia

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10
Q

True or False In atherosclerosis, the atheroma’s or plaques form primarily in small arteries

A

False, large arteries

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11
Q
Blockage of the left coronary artery may cause \_\_\_\_; whereas blockage of the right coronary artery may cause \_\_\_\_\_\_
A. Pulmonary embolism, MI
B. Arrhythmias; stroke
C. Stroke; pulmonary embolism
D. CHF; arrhythmia
A

D. CHF; arrhythmia

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12
Q
What is a compensation mechanism for individuals with anemias
A. Peripheral vasodilation
B. Increased erythropoiesis
C. Tachycardia 
D. Secondary polycythemia
A

C. Tachycardia

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13
Q

What is the characteristic change in the cardiovascular system with Raynaud’s syndrome
A. Intermittent severe vasoconstriction in the digits (fingers/toes)
B. weakened walls and valves in the leg veins
C.inflammation and thrombus in the arteries in the legs
D. Obstructions arteries causing necrosis and gangrene in the limbs

A

A. Intermittent severe vasoconstriction in the digits (fingers/toes)

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14
Q

What are early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction
A. Brief, substernal pain radiating to the right arm, with labored breathing
B. Persistent chest pain radiating to the arm, pallor and rapid, weak pulse
C. Bradycardia, increased blood pressure and severe dyspnea
D. Flushed face, rapid respiration, left-side weakness and numbness

A

B. Persistent chest pain radiating to the arm, pallor and rapid, weak pulse

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15
Q

Trus or False Spontaneous bleeding or excessive bleeding following a minor tissue trauma often indicates a blood-clotting disorder

A

True

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16
Q

What does the term intermittent claudication refer to
A. Sensory deficit in the legs due to damage to nerves
B. chest pain related to ischemia
C. Ischemia muscle pain in the legs, particularly with exercise
D. Dry, cyanotic skin with superficial ulcers

A

C. Ischemia muscle pain in the legs, particularly with exercise

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17
Q
Which of the following is not considered a CAD
A. Arteriosclerosis 
B. CHF
C. MI
D. Angina pectoris
A

CHF

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18
Q

How is shock defined
A. Failure of the heart to supply sufficient blood to body cells
B. general hypoxia causing damage to various organs
C. Decreased circulating blood and tissue perfusion
D. Loss of blood causing severe hypoxia

A

C. Decreased circulating blood and tissue perfusion

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19
Q

Anemias cause a reduction In Oxygen transport do to ______ and ______
A. Decreased erythrocytes and decreased hemoglobin
B. decreased hemoglobin and increased leukocyte a
C. Increased erythrocytes and increased leukocyte a
D. Increased hemoglobin and decreased leukocyte a

A

A. Decreased erythrocytes and decreased hemoglobin

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20
Q
What is the primary cause of death in American men and women
A. Cancer
B. cardiac Arrhythmias
C. Myocardial infarction 
D congestive heart failure
A

C. Myocardial Infarction

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21
Q

When comparing angina with myocardial infarction, which statement is true
A. both angina and MI cause tissue necrosis
B. Angina occurs at rest, MI occurs during a stressful time
C. Pain is more severe and last longer with angina than with MI
d. Angina pain is relieved by rest and intake of nitroglycerin; Pain of MI is not

A

D

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22
Q

Right-sided CHF back-up effects is congestion in ______; whereas left-sided CHF back-up effects is ______ congestion.

A

Systemic circulation; pulmonary

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23
Q
Which of the following is NOT a cause of left-sided heart failure
A. Pulmonary valve stenosis
B. aortic valve stenosis
C. Hypertension 
D. Hyperthyroidism
A

A

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24
Hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, acites, and distended neck veins are all manifestations of A. Backward effect of right-sided heart failure B. backward effect of left-sided heart failure C. Forward effect of right-sided heart failure D. Forward effect of left-sided heart failure
A. Backward effect of right-sided heart failure
25
Orthopnea, cough, SOB, hemoptysis, and rales are all manifestations of A. Backward effects of right-sided heart failure B. Backwards effects of left-sided heart failure C. Forward effects of left-sided heart failure D. Forward effects of right-sided heart failure
B. Backwards effects of left-sided heart failure
26
Name Disease: pathophysiology: loss of elasticity, impaired respiration, barrel chest, hyperinflation, clubbed fingers
Emphysema
27
Name Disease: Two stages of pathogenesis: primary and reinfection form tubercles which combine and cause cavitation
Tuberculosis
28
Name Disease: secondary to cold or allergy that has obstructed the drainage of one or more of the paranasal sinuses into the nasal cavity. Signs: severe pain in facial bone. Diagnostics: transilumination
Sinusitis
29
Name Disease: cause by DNA virus: A carrier state is common. Transmitted by blood and body fluids: Vaccine is available
Hepatitis B
30
Nasal Congestion, rhinorrhea, mouth breathing, sore throat, common pathogen: rhinovirus
Infectious rhinitis
31
RNA virus, oral-fecal spread, more common in Africa and Asia. No chronic/carrier state, 2-9 week incubation
Hepatitis E
32
Known as infectious Hepatitis. Transmitted as oral-fecal, often from water and shellfish: No "carrier" state
Hepatitis A
33
Known as croup, common signs: horse, barking cough, inspiratory strider, restlessness
Laryngotrachebronchitis
34
Etiology:mycoplasma pathophysiology: necrosis of bronchial epithelium. Signs: non-productive hacking cough
Interstitial pneumonia
35
``` Gallstones consist of all of the following except A. Potassium salts B. calcium salts C. Cholesterol D. Bilirubin ```
A
36
``` Which of the following would be a high risk group for hepatitis A A. IV drug user B. homosexual man C. Day care worker D. Hospital personnel ```
C
37
``` The etiology of cystic fibrosis is A. X-linked recessive gene B. autosomal recessive gene C. Autosomal dominant gene D. Chromosomal defect ```
D
38
The first stage of lobar pneumonia is known as ____; whereas the second stage is known as _____. A. Consolidation; chronic. B. acute; consolidation C. Congestion; consolidation D. Acute; chronic
C
39
Peptic ulcers most commonly occur in ____
Duodenum
40
True or False Gallstones primarily made of bilirubin are white or crystalline
False
41
Cause of IBD is
Unknown
42
``` This type of cirrhosis is also known as portal cirrhosis A. Metabolic storage disorder B. postnecrotic cirrhosis C. Biliary cirrhosis D. Alcoholic liver cirrhosis ```
D
43
In alcoholic liver disease stages, which stage is reversible A. End-stage cirrhosis B. fatty liver C. Alcoholic hepatitis
B
44
True or False the dark color ( tarry) stool that is acted on by bacteria, caused by significant bleeding higher in the digestive tract is known as steatorrhea
False, melena
45
``` Severe prolonged diarrhea may lead to all of the following except A. Electrolyte imbalance B. malnutrition C. Dehydration D. Alkalosis ```
D
46
Elevated hematocrit results in ____ ; whereas a reduced hematocrit results in ____ A. Anemia; polycythemia B. polycythemia ; anemia C. Anemia; leukopenia
B
47
True or False The major factor in atheroma formation is "bad" cholesterol
True
48
True or False brain will suffer permanent damage unless it has a constant source of glucose and carbon dioxide
False, oxygen
49
Name Disease: debris form "nidus" ; may be from excessive insoluble salts in the filtrate; staghorn calculi; treatment: lithotripsy
Urolithiasis
50
Name Disease: seizure disorder that follows a pattern that starts with prodromal signs, aura and loss of consciousness and ends as the person regains consciousness and is confused and fatigued
Tonic-clonic seizure
51
True or False 75% of calculi are calcium salts
True
52
Name Disease: group of neural tube defect; failure of posterior spinous process to fuse; vitamin A or folic acid deficits
Spina bifida
53
Name disease: progressive de-myelination of the neurons; blurred vision, Scotsman, weakness in legs; no cure
MS
54
APSGN is a representative form; usually begins as "strept throat"; coffee-colored urine
Glomerulonephritis
55
Reduction in dopamine secretion; change in facial expression; pill-rolling, shuffling, tremors
Parkinson's disease
56
What indicates the early stages of acute renal failure
Very low GFR and increased serum urea
57
Individual is aware and capable of thinking but is paralyzed and cannot communicate; can move their eyes in a "yes" or "no" response
Lock-in syndrome
58
Most common cause is E.coli ; microbes ascend up from the perineal area; cloudy urine with unpleasant odor
UTIs
59
Loss of awareness and mental capabilities; appears to be a sleep-wake cycle, but unresponsive to stimuli
Vegetative state
60
_______ is a lower UTI; whereas _______ is an upper UTI
Urethritis; Pyelonephritis
61
Most frequent cause is developmental abnormalities; sutures have not closed; head enlarges, "sunset sign"
Hydrocephalus
62
Why is cystitis more common in females
Urethra is short, wide and adjacent to areas with resident flora
63
``` Which is not a sign/symptom of acute renal failure A. Develops rapidly B. oliguria C. Uremic frost D. Hyperkalemia ```
C
64
Purulent exudate fills pelvis and calicoes; urinary casts; infection from ureter to renal pelvis and medullary tissue
Pyelonephritis
65
Damage to _____ would lead to loss of logical thinking and analytical skills; whereas damage to the _____ would lead to impaired appreciation of music and art and cause behavioral problems and "neglect" syndrome
L. Cerebral hemisphere; R. Cerebral hemisphere
66
________ PKD appears in infancy/childhood; whereas ______ PKD is more common in adults
Autosomal recessive form; autosomal dominant trait
67
A common form of dementia; specific cause is yet unknown; cognitive function declines with behavior, mood, personality, wandering off, confusion
Alzheimer's disease
68
Seizure disorder that presents as a brief loss of awareness, staring into space for a moment than resuming activity
Absence seizures
69
Marked by loss of all reflexes; fixed and dilated pupils; slow, irregular pulse and respiration
Terminal state, deep coma
70
True or False all stroke are proceeded by TIAs
False
71
Excessive growth hormone in adults is known as A. Dwarfism B. gigantism C. Acromegaly
C
72
The lack of response by cells to insulin is known as
Insulin resistance
73
The ____ and the endocrine system work together to control body function
Nervous system
74
True or False Gestational diabetes may occur during pregnancy and immediately turns into type II diabetes
False
75
True or False manifestations of hypoglycemia (insulin shock) are due to high insulin levels
False
76
``` All of the following are signs/symptoms of insulin deficit except A. Polyuria B. Polyphasia C. Polydipsia D. Polyphagia ```
B
77
``` Signs/symptoms for _____ are related to dehydration, metabolic acidosis, and electrolyte imbalance A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypoglycemia C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Insulin deficient ```
C
78
``` Rickets caused by deficit of vitamin ____ and phosphate A. C B. D C. K D. E ```
B
79
``` Which term refers to bleeding between menstrual cycles A. Amenorrhea B. dysmenorrhea C.oligomenorrhea D. Metrorrhagia ```
D
80
``` A sprain is a tear in the A. Tendon B. ligament C. Meniscus D. Muscle ```
B
81
Body's nonspecific response to tissue injury resulting in what four symptoms
Redness, swelling, warmth, pain
82
``` What do these terms mean: Rubor- Tumor- Calor- Dolor- ```
Redness Swelling Warmth Pain
83
Infection period where microbes enter into the body and the appearance of clinical signs of disease lasts for days to months
Incubation period
84
Infection period when person feels "something is wrong" headache, fatigue
Prodromal period
85
Infection period when infection develops and clinical signs manifestations peak. May become chronic or systemic such at septicemia.
Acute period
86
Infection period where signs subside
Convalescent period, recovery
87
Caused of legionnaires' disease
Gram-negative bacterium
88
Cause of cystic fibrosis
Chromosomal defect
89
Small hidden amounts of blood on fecal matter is called
Occult blood
90
Red blood, on surface of stool is called
Frank blood
91
Gradual irreversible, result of hypertension, long term exposure to toxins. Often asymptomatic until well advances due to kidneys reserve capacity.
Chronic renal failure
92
Late signs of chronic renal failure (end-stage failure)
Pruritis, uremic frost
93
Most common cause of endocrine disorders
Development of benign tumors (adenoma)
94
Type 1 diabetes is also known as
Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) or juvenile diabetes
95
This type of diabetes has a genetic factor and beta cells are destroyed in an autoimmune response
Type 1
96
The type of diabetes has acute complications such as hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis
Type 1
97
Type 2 is also know as
Noninsulin-defendant diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) or mature onset
98
This type of diabetes occurs due to relative or partial deficit of insulin, is milder and usually develops in older adults, most are overweight
Type 2
99
The initial stage of insulin deficit is
``` Decreased glucose Hyperglycemia Glucosuria Polyuria Dehydration Polydipsia Polyphagia ```
100
The progressive effects of insulin deficit are
Catabolism of fats and proteins Ketoacidosis Ketonuria Decreased body pH
101
True or False metabolic Acidosis can lead to diabetic coma
True
102
What is precipitated by an excess of insulin which causes a deficit of glucose in the blood
Hypoglycemia
103
Hypoparathyroidism leads to
Hypocalcemia
104
Hyperparathyroidism leads to
Hypercalcemia, which leads to osteoporosis, and kidney stones
105
Dwarfism is a deficit/excess of GH that effects
Deficit; children
106
Gigantism is a deficit/ excess of GH that effects
Excess; children
107
Deficit of ADH causing dehydration. Manifestations are polyuria, and thirst
Diabetes insipidus
108
Enlargement of the thyroid glad usually due to insufficient iodine levels
Goiter
109
Another name for hyperthyroidism
Graves' disease
110
Increased secretion of T3 & T4, occur mostly in women, signs of thin with increased appetite, toxic goiter, bug eyes "exophthalmos"
Hyperthyroidism
111
Decreased secretion of T3 & T4, signs of hypometabolism, endemic goiter, lethargic, weight gain with decreased appetite
Hypothyroidism
112
Destructive, inflammatory autoimmune disorder
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
113
Severe hypothyroidism in adults, facial puffiness, thick tongue
Myxedema
114
Untreated congenital hypothyroidism impairing mental and physical development
Cretinism
115
Weight loss, hypotension, syncope, hyper pigmentation, deficit of corticosteroids
Addison's disease
116
Moon face, buffalo hump, bruising of skin, hypertension, glucose intolerance, excess glucocorticoids
Cushing's syndrome
117
Fracture that results in skin broken
Open or compound
118
Fracture that results in skin not broken
Closed
119
Fracture that has two or more separate pieces
Complete fracture
120
Fracture that is only partially broken
Incomplete fracture (green stick)
121
Fracture that results in a single break
Simple fracture
122
Fracture that has multiple fracture lines and bone fragments
Comminuted fracture
123
Fracture that occurs when bone is crushed or collapsed into small pieces
Compression fracture
124
Fracture that occurs when one bone is forced into the adjacent bone
Impacted fracture
125
Fracture that results from weakness in the bone structure due to conditions such as disease or tumors
Pathologic fractures
126
Fractures that results from repeated excessive stress
Stress fracture
127
Fracture that occurs when the broken section is forced inward on the brain
Depressed fracture
128
Fracture that travels across the bone
Transverse fracture
129
Fracture that travels along the axis
Linear fracture
130
Fracture that travels at an angle to the diaphysis
Oblique fracture
131
A fracture that travels around the bone
Spiral fracture
132
Name of a break in the distal radius common when people try to break their fall by extending their arms and open hand
Colles' fracture
133
Name of fracture of the lower fibula due to excessive stress on the ankle usually done when stepping down with force
Pott's fracture
134
A strain is a tear in the
Tendon
135
Decreased bone mass and density, loss of bone matrix and mineralization, signs of kyphosis, scoliosis, and loss of height
Osteoporosis
136
True or False major factor of hip and vertebrae fractures of elderly is osteoporosis
True
137
Kyphosis is
Hunchback
138
Scoliosis is
Lateral curvature
139
Rickets occurs in _____; whereas osteomalacia occurs in _______
Children; adults
140
Inherited skeletal disorder, degeneration of skeletal muscle.
Muscular dystrophy
141
Most common form of muscular dystrophy, usually affecting boys, a metabolic defect caused by deficit of dystrophin
Duchenne's
142
Duchenne's is a
X-linked recessive inheritance
143
A degenerative non-inflammatory joint disease, primary form idiopathic, articular cartilage of weight bearing joints is damaged, surface becomes rough and worn, cysts and osteophytes, synovial cavity irritation, secondary inflammation, pain, enlarged joints, crepitus
Osteoarthritis
144
Autoimmune disease, chronic system inflammation, insidiously in small joints, rheumatoid factor, granulation tissue called "pannus", pannus becomes fibrotic leading to ankylosis, rheumatoid nodules, insidious at first, symmetrical, progressive
Rheumatoid arthritis
145
True or False remission and exacerbation leads to progressive joint damage
True
146
True or false joint may appear to recover after first period of acute inflammation
True
147
Swelling of 3 joints for a minimum of 6 weeks confirms diagnosis of
Rheumatoid arthritis
148
Caused by deposit of Uris acid and urates in joints
Gout
149
Progressive inflammatory disorder of vertebral joints that leads to rigid spine
Ankylosing spondylitis
150
Hard nodules detectable upon rectal exam, often in posterior lobe, later stage tumors cause cystitis, obstruction, decreased flow, PSA antigen markers for early diagnosis and prostatic acid phosphates are elevated
Prostatic cancer
151
True or false urethral obstruction usually not an early sign due to location or prostatic cancer
True
152
True or false PSA may be elevated in BP) or due to infection so not diagnostic by itself
True
153
Prostate gland enlarges and can be palpated upon rectal exam, no increased risk of prostate cancer, distended bladder, dilated ureters, renal damage
Benign prostatic hypertrophy
154
Serious bacterial infection, caused by microbes such as chlamydia ascending into the Fallopian tubes and entering the peritoneal cavity causing peritonitis, uterus is obstructed with purulent exudate and edema
PID pelvic inflammatory disease
155
40,000 deaths per year, especially in women, develop in upper outer quadrant, most arise from cells of distal epithelium, cancer infiltrates causing "dimpling"
Breast cancer
156
Also known as venereal disease, most common contagious disease, frequently asymptomatic
Sexually transmitted diseases STDs
157
Bacterial or viral: chlamydia
Bacterial
158
Bacterial or viral: gonorrhea
Bacterial
159
Bacterial or viral: syphillis
Bacterial
160
Bacterial or viral: genital herpes
Viral
161
Bacterial or viral: genital warts
Viral
162
Bacterial or viral: HPV
Viral
163
Bacterial or viral: hepatitis B
Viral
164
Bacterial or viral: HIV
Viral