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Pathophysiology > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

0
Q

Name Disease: examples are CLL, CML, insidious onset, mild signs- fatigue, weakness, frequent infections, common in adults

A

Chronic Leukemia

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1
Q

True or False an infectious agent can be present in the body for some time before any clinical signs are apparent.

A

True

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2
Q

Name Disease: Due to recessive HbS gene, common in African Americans, signs: jaundice, splenomegaly, crescent RBCs

A

Sickle Cell Anemia

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3
Q

Name Disease: Initial manifestation is an enlarged, painless lymph node, 80% cases involve B-lymphocytes

A

Non-Hodgkin’s

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4
Q

Name Disease: Condition of increased production of erythrocytes, patient appears plethoric and cyanotic

A

Polycythemia

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5
Q

Name Disease: High numbers immature, nonfunctional cells in bone marrow & circulation, common - children Ex. ALL, AML

A

Acute Luekemia

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6
Q

Name Disease: occurs due to insufficient dietary intake & impaired iron absorption, Tx: iron supplements/ iron- rich foods

A

Iron- deficiency anemia

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7
Q

Name Disease: First indicator is large, painless, non-tender cervical lymph node, T- lymphocytes appear to be defective

A

Hodgkin’s

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8
Q

Name Disease: Deficient or abnormality of clotting factor VIII, signs: hematomas, ecchymosis, epistaxis

A

Hemophilia

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9
Q

Name Disease: B12 deficiency, main cause is mal-absorption from gastritis & inflammatory conditions; sign - shiny tongue

A

Pernicious anemia

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10
Q

True or False In atherosclerosis, the atheroma’s or plaques form primarily in small arteries

A

False, large arteries

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11
Q 
Blockage of the left coronary artery may cause \_\_\_\_; whereas blockage of the right coronary artery may cause \_\_\_\_\_\_
A. Pulmonary embolism, MI
B. Arrhythmias; stroke
C. Stroke; pulmonary embolism
D. CHF; arrhythmia
A

D. CHF; arrhythmia

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12
Q 
What is a compensation mechanism for individuals with anemias
A. Peripheral vasodilation
B. Increased erythropoiesis
C. Tachycardia 
D. Secondary polycythemia
A

C. Tachycardia

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13
Q

What is the characteristic change in the cardiovascular system with Raynaud’s syndrome
A. Intermittent severe vasoconstriction in the digits (fingers/toes)
B. weakened walls and valves in the leg veins
C.inflammation and thrombus in the arteries in the legs
D. Obstructions arteries causing necrosis and gangrene in the limbs

A

A. Intermittent severe vasoconstriction in the digits (fingers/toes)

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14
Q

What are early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction
A. Brief, substernal pain radiating to the right arm, with labored breathing
B. Persistent chest pain radiating to the arm, pallor and rapid, weak pulse
C. Bradycardia, increased blood pressure and severe dyspnea
D. Flushed face, rapid respiration, left-side weakness and numbness

A

B. Persistent chest pain radiating to the arm, pallor and rapid, weak pulse

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15
Q

Trus or False Spontaneous bleeding or excessive bleeding following a minor tissue trauma often indicates a blood-clotting disorder

A

True

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16
Q

What does the term intermittent claudication refer to
A. Sensory deficit in the legs due to damage to nerves
B. chest pain related to ischemia
C. Ischemia muscle pain in the legs, particularly with exercise
D. Dry, cyanotic skin with superficial ulcers

A

C. Ischemia muscle pain in the legs, particularly with exercise

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17
Q 
Which of the following is not considered a CAD
A. Arteriosclerosis 
B. CHF
C. MI
D. Angina pectoris
A

CHF

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18
Q

How is shock defined
A. Failure of the heart to supply sufficient blood to body cells
B. general hypoxia causing damage to various organs
C. Decreased circulating blood and tissue perfusion
D. Loss of blood causing severe hypoxia

A

C. Decreased circulating blood and tissue perfusion

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19
Q

Anemias cause a reduction In Oxygen transport do to ______ and ______
A. Decreased erythrocytes and decreased hemoglobin
B. decreased hemoglobin and increased leukocyte a
C. Increased erythrocytes and increased leukocyte a
D. Increased hemoglobin and decreased leukocyte a

A

A. Decreased erythrocytes and decreased hemoglobin

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20
Q 
What is the primary cause of death in American men and women
A. Cancer
B. cardiac Arrhythmias
C. Myocardial infarction 
D congestive heart failure
A

C. Myocardial Infarction

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21
Q

When comparing angina with myocardial infarction, which statement is true
A. both angina and MI cause tissue necrosis
B. Angina occurs at rest, MI occurs during a stressful time
C. Pain is more severe and last longer with angina than with MI
d. Angina pain is relieved by rest and intake of nitroglycerin; Pain of MI is not

A

D

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22
Q

Right-sided CHF back-up effects is congestion in ______; whereas left-sided CHF back-up effects is ______ congestion.

A

Systemic circulation; pulmonary

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23
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a cause of left-sided heart failure
A. Pulmonary valve stenosis
B. aortic valve stenosis
C. Hypertension 
D. Hyperthyroidism
A

A

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24
Q

Hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, acites, and distended neck veins are all manifestations of
A. Backward effect of right-sided heart failure
B. backward effect of left-sided heart failure
C. Forward effect of right-sided heart failure
D. Forward effect of left-sided heart failure

A

A. Backward effect of right-sided heart failure

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25
Q

Orthopnea, cough, SOB, hemoptysis, and rales are all manifestations of
A. Backward effects of right-sided heart failure
B. Backwards effects of left-sided heart failure
C. Forward effects of left-sided heart failure
D. Forward effects of right-sided heart failure

A

B. Backwards effects of left-sided heart failure

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26
Q

Name Disease: pathophysiology: loss of elasticity, impaired respiration, barrel chest, hyperinflation, clubbed fingers

A

Emphysema

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27
Q

Name Disease: Two stages of pathogenesis: primary and reinfection form tubercles which combine and cause cavitation

A

Tuberculosis

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28
Q

Name Disease: secondary to cold or allergy that has obstructed the drainage of one or more of the paranasal sinuses into the nasal cavity. Signs: severe pain in facial bone. Diagnostics: transilumination

A

Sinusitis

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29
Q

Name Disease: cause by DNA virus: A carrier state is common. Transmitted by blood and body fluids: Vaccine is available

A

Hepatitis B

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30
Q

Nasal Congestion, rhinorrhea, mouth breathing, sore throat, common pathogen: rhinovirus

A

Infectious rhinitis

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31
Q

RNA virus, oral-fecal spread, more common in Africa and Asia. No chronic/carrier state, 2-9 week incubation

A

Hepatitis E

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32
Q

Known as infectious Hepatitis. Transmitted as oral-fecal, often from water and shellfish: No “carrier” state

A

Hepatitis A

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33
Q

Known as croup, common signs: horse, barking cough, inspiratory strider, restlessness

A

Laryngotrachebronchitis

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34
Q

Etiology:mycoplasma pathophysiology: necrosis of bronchial epithelium. Signs: non-productive hacking cough

A

Interstitial pneumonia

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35
Q 
Gallstones consist of all of the following except
A. Potassium salts
B. calcium salts
C. Cholesterol
D. Bilirubin
A

A

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36
Q 
Which of the following would be a high risk group for hepatitis A
A. IV drug user
B. homosexual man
C. Day care worker
D. Hospital personnel
A

C

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37
Q 
The etiology of cystic fibrosis is
A. X-linked recessive gene
B. autosomal recessive gene
C. Autosomal dominant gene
D. Chromosomal defect
A

D

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38
Q

The first stage of lobar pneumonia is known as ____; whereas the second stage is known as _____.
A. Consolidation; chronic. B. acute; consolidation
C. Congestion; consolidation D. Acute; chronic

A

C

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39
Q

Peptic ulcers most commonly occur in ____

A

Duodenum

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40
Q

True or False Gallstones primarily made of bilirubin are white or crystalline

A

False

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41
Q

Cause of IBD is

A

Unknown

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42
Q 
This type of cirrhosis is also known as portal cirrhosis
A. Metabolic storage disorder
B. postnecrotic cirrhosis 
C. Biliary cirrhosis 
D. Alcoholic liver cirrhosis
A

D

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43
Q

In alcoholic liver disease stages, which stage is reversible
A. End-stage cirrhosis
B. fatty liver
C. Alcoholic hepatitis

A

B

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44
Q

True or False the dark color ( tarry) stool that is acted on by bacteria, caused by significant bleeding higher in the digestive tract is known as steatorrhea

A

False, melena

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45
Q 
Severe prolonged diarrhea may lead to all of the following except
A. Electrolyte imbalance 
B. malnutrition 
C. Dehydration
D. Alkalosis
A

D

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46
Q

Elevated hematocrit results in ____ ; whereas a reduced hematocrit results in ____
A. Anemia; polycythemia
B. polycythemia ; anemia
C. Anemia; leukopenia

A

B

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47
Q

True or False The major factor in atheroma formation is “bad” cholesterol

A

True

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48
Q

True or False brain will suffer permanent damage unless it has a constant source of glucose and carbon dioxide

A

False, oxygen

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49
Q

Name Disease: debris form “nidus” ; may be from excessive insoluble salts in the filtrate; staghorn calculi; treatment: lithotripsy

A

Urolithiasis

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50
Q

Name Disease: seizure disorder that follows a pattern that starts with prodromal signs, aura and loss of consciousness and ends as the person regains consciousness and is confused and fatigued

A

Tonic-clonic seizure

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51
Q

True or False 75% of calculi are calcium salts

A

True

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52
Q

Name Disease: group of neural tube defect; failure of posterior spinous process to fuse; vitamin A or folic acid deficits

A

Spina bifida

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53
Q

Name disease: progressive de-myelination of the neurons; blurred vision, Scotsman, weakness in legs; no cure

A

MS

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54
Q

APSGN is a representative form; usually begins as “strept throat”; coffee-colored urine

A

Glomerulonephritis

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55
Q

Reduction in dopamine secretion; change in facial expression; pill-rolling, shuffling, tremors

A

Parkinson’s disease

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56
Q

What indicates the early stages of acute renal failure

A

Very low GFR and increased serum urea

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57
Q

Individual is aware and capable of thinking but is paralyzed and cannot communicate; can move their eyes in a “yes” or “no” response

A

Lock-in syndrome

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58
Q

Most common cause is E.coli ; microbes ascend up from the perineal area; cloudy urine with unpleasant odor

A

UTIs

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59
Q

Loss of awareness and mental capabilities; appears to be a sleep-wake cycle, but unresponsive to stimuli

A

Vegetative state

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60
Q

_______ is a lower UTI; whereas _______ is an upper UTI

A

Urethritis; Pyelonephritis

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61
Q

Most frequent cause is developmental abnormalities; sutures have not closed; head enlarges, “sunset sign”

A

Hydrocephalus

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62
Q

Why is cystitis more common in females

A

Urethra is short, wide and adjacent to areas with resident flora

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63
Q 
Which is not a sign/symptom of acute renal failure
A. Develops rapidly
B. oliguria 
C. Uremic frost
D. Hyperkalemia
A

C

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64
Q

Purulent exudate fills pelvis and calicoes; urinary casts; infection from ureter to renal pelvis and medullary tissue

A

Pyelonephritis

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65
Q

Damage to _____ would lead to loss of logical thinking and analytical skills; whereas damage to the _____ would lead to impaired appreciation of music and art and cause behavioral problems and “neglect” syndrome

A

L. Cerebral hemisphere; R. Cerebral hemisphere

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66
Q

________ PKD appears in infancy/childhood; whereas ______ PKD is more common in adults

A

Autosomal recessive form; autosomal dominant trait

67
Q

A common form of dementia; specific cause is yet unknown; cognitive function declines with behavior, mood, personality, wandering off, confusion

A

Alzheimer’s disease

68
Q

Seizure disorder that presents as a brief loss of awareness, staring into space for a moment than resuming activity

A

Absence seizures

69
Q

Marked by loss of all reflexes; fixed and dilated pupils; slow, irregular pulse and respiration

A

Terminal state, deep coma

70
Q

True or False all stroke are proceeded by TIAs

A

False

71
Q

Excessive growth hormone in adults is known as
A. Dwarfism
B. gigantism
C. Acromegaly

A

C

72
Q

The lack of response by cells to insulin is known as

A

Insulin resistance

73
Q

The ____ and the endocrine system work together to control body function

A

Nervous system

74
Q

True or False Gestational diabetes may occur during pregnancy and immediately turns into type II diabetes

A

False

75
Q

True or False manifestations of hypoglycemia (insulin shock) are due to high insulin levels

A

False

76
Q 
All of the following are signs/symptoms of insulin deficit except
A. Polyuria
B. Polyphasia
C. Polydipsia
D. Polyphagia
A

B

77
Q 
Signs/symptoms for \_\_\_\_\_ are related to dehydration, metabolic acidosis, and electrolyte  imbalance 
A. Hyperglycemia 
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. Insulin deficient
A

C

78
Q 
Rickets caused by deficit of vitamin \_\_\_\_ and phosphate
A. C
B. D
C. K
D. E
A

B

79
Q 
Which term refers to bleeding between menstrual cycles
A. Amenorrhea
B. dysmenorrhea
C.oligomenorrhea
D. Metrorrhagia
A

D

80
Q 
A sprain is a tear in the 
A. Tendon
B. ligament
C. Meniscus 
D. Muscle
A

B

81
Q

Body’s nonspecific response to tissue injury resulting in what four symptoms

A

Redness, swelling, warmth, pain

82
Q 
What do these terms mean:
Rubor-
Tumor-
Calor-
Dolor-
A

Redness
Swelling
Warmth
Pain

83
Q

Infection period where microbes enter into the body and the appearance of clinical signs of disease lasts for days to months

A

Incubation period

84
Q

Infection period when person feels “something is wrong” headache, fatigue

A

Prodromal period

85
Q

Infection period when infection develops and clinical signs manifestations peak. May become chronic or systemic such at septicemia.

A

Acute period

86
Q

Infection period where signs subside

A

Convalescent period, recovery

87
Q

Caused of legionnaires’ disease

A

Gram-negative bacterium

88
Q

Cause of cystic fibrosis

A

Chromosomal defect

89
Q

Small hidden amounts of blood on fecal matter is called

A

Occult blood

90
Q

Red blood, on surface of stool is called

A

Frank blood

91
Q

Gradual irreversible, result of hypertension, long term exposure to toxins. Often asymptomatic until well advances due to kidneys reserve capacity.

A

Chronic renal failure

92
Q

Late signs of chronic renal failure (end-stage failure)

A

Pruritis, uremic frost

93
Q

Most common cause of endocrine disorders

A

Development of benign tumors (adenoma)

94
Q

Type 1 diabetes is also known as

A

Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) or juvenile diabetes

95
Q

This type of diabetes has a genetic factor and beta cells are destroyed in an autoimmune response

A

Type 1

96
Q

The type of diabetes has acute complications such as hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis

A

Type 1

97
Q

Type 2 is also know as

A

Noninsulin-defendant diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) or mature onset

98
Q

This type of diabetes occurs due to relative or partial deficit of insulin, is milder and usually develops in older adults, most are overweight

A

Type 2

99
Q

The initial stage of insulin deficit is

A 
Decreased glucose
Hyperglycemia 
Glucosuria
Polyuria
Dehydration
Polydipsia
Polyphagia
100
Q

The progressive effects of insulin deficit are

A

Catabolism of fats and proteins
Ketoacidosis
Ketonuria
Decreased body pH

101
Q

True or False metabolic Acidosis can lead to diabetic coma

A

True

102
Q

What is precipitated by an excess of insulin which causes a deficit of glucose in the blood

A

Hypoglycemia

103
Q

Hypoparathyroidism leads to

A

Hypocalcemia

104
Q

Hyperparathyroidism leads to

A

Hypercalcemia, which leads to osteoporosis, and kidney stones

105
Q

Dwarfism is a deficit/excess of GH that effects

A

Deficit; children

106
Q

Gigantism is a deficit/ excess of GH that effects

A

Excess; children

107
Q

Deficit of ADH causing dehydration. Manifestations are polyuria, and thirst

A

Diabetes insipidus

108
Q

Enlargement of the thyroid glad usually due to insufficient iodine levels

A

Goiter

109
Q

Another name for hyperthyroidism

A

Graves’ disease

110
Q

Increased secretion of T3 & T4, occur mostly in women, signs of thin with increased appetite, toxic goiter, bug eyes “exophthalmos”

A

Hyperthyroidism

111
Q

Decreased secretion of T3 & T4, signs of hypometabolism, endemic goiter, lethargic, weight gain with decreased appetite

A

Hypothyroidism

112
Q

Destructive, inflammatory autoimmune disorder

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

113
Q

Severe hypothyroidism in adults, facial puffiness, thick tongue

A

Myxedema

114
Q

Untreated congenital hypothyroidism impairing mental and physical development

A

Cretinism

115
Q

Weight loss, hypotension, syncope, hyper pigmentation, deficit of corticosteroids

A

Addison’s disease

116
Q

Moon face, buffalo hump, bruising of skin, hypertension, glucose intolerance, excess glucocorticoids

A

Cushing’s syndrome

117
Q

Fracture that results in skin broken

A

Open or compound

118
Q

Fracture that results in skin not broken

A

Closed

119
Q

Fracture that has two or more separate pieces

A

Complete fracture

120
Q

Fracture that is only partially broken

A

Incomplete fracture (green stick)

121
Q

Fracture that results in a single break

A

Simple fracture

122
Q

Fracture that has multiple fracture lines and bone fragments

A

Comminuted fracture

123
Q

Fracture that occurs when bone is crushed or collapsed into small pieces

A

Compression fracture

124
Q

Fracture that occurs when one bone is forced into the adjacent bone

A

Impacted fracture

125
Q

Fracture that results from weakness in the bone structure due to conditions such as disease or tumors

A

Pathologic fractures

126
Q

Fractures that results from repeated excessive stress

A

Stress fracture

127
Q

Fracture that occurs when the broken section is forced inward on the brain

A

Depressed fracture

128
Q

Fracture that travels across the bone

A

Transverse fracture

129
Q

Fracture that travels along the axis

A

Linear fracture

130
Q

Fracture that travels at an angle to the diaphysis

A

Oblique fracture

131
Q

A fracture that travels around the bone

A

Spiral fracture

132
Q

Name of a break in the distal radius common when people try to break their fall by extending their arms and open hand

A

Colles’ fracture

133
Q

Name of fracture of the lower fibula due to excessive stress on the ankle usually done when stepping down with force

A

Pott’s fracture

134
Q

A strain is a tear in the

A

Tendon

135
Q

Decreased bone mass and density, loss of bone matrix and mineralization, signs of kyphosis, scoliosis, and loss of height

A

Osteoporosis

136
Q

True or False major factor of hip and vertebrae fractures of elderly is osteoporosis

A

True

137
Q

Kyphosis is

A

Hunchback

138
Q

Scoliosis is

A

Lateral curvature

139
Q

Rickets occurs in _____; whereas osteomalacia occurs in _______

A

Children; adults

140
Q

Inherited skeletal disorder, degeneration of skeletal muscle.

A

Muscular dystrophy

141
Q

Most common form of muscular dystrophy, usually affecting boys, a metabolic defect caused by deficit of dystrophin

A

Duchenne’s

142
Q

Duchenne’s is a

A

X-linked recessive inheritance

143
Q

A degenerative non-inflammatory joint disease, primary form idiopathic, articular cartilage of weight bearing joints is damaged, surface becomes rough and worn, cysts and osteophytes, synovial cavity irritation, secondary inflammation, pain, enlarged joints, crepitus

A

Osteoarthritis

144
Q

Autoimmune disease, chronic system inflammation, insidiously in small joints, rheumatoid factor, granulation tissue called “pannus”, pannus becomes fibrotic leading to ankylosis, rheumatoid nodules, insidious at first, symmetrical, progressive

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

145
Q

True or False remission and exacerbation leads to progressive joint damage

A

True

146
Q

True or false joint may appear to recover after first period of acute inflammation

A

True

147
Q

Swelling of 3 joints for a minimum of 6 weeks confirms diagnosis of

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

148
Q

Caused by deposit of Uris acid and urates in joints

A

Gout

149
Q

Progressive inflammatory disorder of vertebral joints that leads to rigid spine

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

150
Q

Hard nodules detectable upon rectal exam, often in posterior lobe, later stage tumors cause cystitis, obstruction, decreased flow, PSA antigen markers for early diagnosis and prostatic acid phosphates are elevated

A

Prostatic cancer

151
Q

True or false urethral obstruction usually not an early sign due to location or prostatic cancer

A

True

152
Q

True or false PSA may be elevated in BP) or due to infection so not diagnostic by itself

A

True

153
Q

Prostate gland enlarges and can be palpated upon rectal exam, no increased risk of prostate cancer, distended bladder, dilated ureters, renal damage

A

Benign prostatic hypertrophy

154
Q

Serious bacterial infection, caused by microbes such as chlamydia ascending into the Fallopian tubes and entering the peritoneal cavity causing peritonitis, uterus is obstructed with purulent exudate and edema

A

PID pelvic inflammatory disease

155
Q

40,000 deaths per year, especially in women, develop in upper outer quadrant, most arise from cells of distal epithelium, cancer infiltrates causing “dimpling”

A

Breast cancer

156
Q

Also known as venereal disease, most common contagious disease, frequently asymptomatic

A

Sexually transmitted diseases STDs

157
Q

Bacterial or viral: chlamydia

A

Bacterial

158
Q

Bacterial or viral: gonorrhea

A

Bacterial

159
Q

Bacterial or viral: syphillis

A

Bacterial

160
Q

Bacterial or viral: genital herpes

A

Viral

161
Q

Bacterial or viral: genital warts

A

Viral

162
Q

Bacterial or viral: HPV

A

Viral

163
Q

Bacterial or viral: hepatitis B

A

Viral

164
Q

Bacterial or viral: HIV

A

Viral

Pathophysiology (6 decks)

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