Final Exam Flashcards
For thrombi treatment, what drug is primarily a platelet aggregate inhibitor?
Clopidagrel
- Is an anti-platelet aggregation agent, inhibits ADP pathway irreversibly.
What are the delivery forms of contraceptives?
-
Combinations:
- Monophasics- constant doses of both estrogen and progesterone
- Biphasic- dosage of one or both change one time during cycle
- Triphasic-dosages change 2 times
- Progestin only—referred to as the “minipill” (no estrogen); fewer side effects, but less effective
- Implantable
- Injections (i.m., sustained effects)
- Intravaginal rings
- IUDs with and without estrogen/progestin
- Transdermal combinations
Age-related Macular Degeneration occurs in 90% of patients >80 years old. True or False?
False
- Age-Related Macular Degeneration =
- • >10% of patients > 80 years old
- Most common cause of severe loss of sight in 60+ pts.
- Almost never occurs in individuals < 50 years of age
- Smoking is a risk factor
- Associated with gene polymorphisms, smoking, cardiovascular disease
- Loss of central vision
- Progress of disease faster in wet (hemorrhage and fluid present) than dry (large majority) macular degeneration
- Pharmacological options minimal; some evidence that antioxidants (e.g., vit. C or zinc oxide may help reduce development, but benefit is minimal) for wet AMD. No treatment for dry AMD.
- Treatment: monoclonal Ab (anti-angiogenic Ab)- e.g., bevacizumab (Avestatin)
- Inject into vitreous humor; 1-2x/ month, for wet AMD
A 27 year old woman has recently developed severe headaches, and was found to have episodic severe hypertension. The episodes of hypertension are accompanied by the headaches, along with flushing, nervousness, and excessive sweating. 24-hour urine catecholamines are substantially increased. There is a 24 cm diameter right adrenal mass. This patient most likely has:
A. Adrenal cortical adenoma
B. Adrenal cortical carcinoma
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Paraganglioma
E. Pheochromocytoma
E. Pheochromocytoma
- Pheochromocytoma = • It is a tumor of adrenal medulla (usually benign) –increases secretion of catecholamines • Can be episodic or sustain secretion • Effects typically look like increased sympathetic nervous system function • Hypertension • Flushing • Increased urine catecholamines
- Adrenal Cortex makes = Mineralcorticoids, glucocorticoids and sex steroids.
- Adrenall Medulla makes = Makes and releases catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
- Acute adrenal cortex insufficiency = Weakness • Nausea • Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia • Hypotension • Skin pigmentation (get increase of MSH with the ACTH) • May cause ‘adrenal crisis’- a sudden requirement for increased steroid, which is not available; e.g., ‘Waterhouse-Friderichson syndrome’ caused by hemorrhaging into the adrenal cortex caused by sepsis from meningococcal infection
- Chronic adrenal cortex insufficiency = Addison’s Disease. • Cause: autoimmune • More common in white women • 65% of adrenal insufficiency cases • Adrenals reduced • Increased infection ACTH is increased Caused by infections such as TB
- Neuroblastoma = Usually children - Metastatic Can secrete catecholamines
- Three adrenocorticosteroids = 1. Glucocorticoids - Regulate intermediary metabolism and immunity. Cortisol synthesized from cholesterol (hydrocortisone). 2. Mineralocorticoids - Aldosterone (Na retention/K+ loss). 3. Androgens - Dehydroepiandrosterone, DHEA, can be converted to estrogens.
Orderly cell death without inflammation:
Apoptosis
- Reversible and Irreversible (cell death). An example of reversible is mild acute tubular necrosis of kidney, toxic livery injury, severe exercise. An example of irreversible is holes in cell membrane, long Ca++ influx, mitochondrial loss, and the two types of irreversible are necrosis and apoptosis.
The cardiovascular effects of epinephrine in a person treated with propranolol and prazosin will most likely resemble the response after the administration of:
A. Pilocarpine
B. Phenylephrine
C. Clonidine
D. Isoproterenol
C. Clonidine
- Clonidine is an Alpha2 receptor agonist, so it decreases NE release, helps treat hypertension and ADHD, and can also dilate pupils, used for glaucoma. Remember that epinephrine increases aqueous humor outlofw.
- Propranolol is a Beta1 and Beta2 receptor antagonist (beta blocker), and Prazosin is an alpha 1 antagonist that helps block vasoconstriction so essentially causes vasodilation and is used to treat hypertension.
- Pilocarpine is a muscarinic receptor agonist. Used for radiation therapy xerostomia, glaucoma, myasthenia gravis.
- Phenylephrine is an alpha-1 receptor agonist and it causes vasoconstriction to sinus vessels in order to act as a decongestant, helps with mydriasis for eye exams. Also causes a decreased heart rate from baroreceptor reflex essentially.
- Isoproterenol is a Beta-1 and Beta-2 receptor agonist. So it increases heart rate.
Elevated dome or flat topped < 5mm
Papule
Your patient is having a recurrent episode of shingles on her face. When she had her first outbreak the antiviral drug prescribed was useless. Her doctor explained this likely was due to the fact that her shingles was caused by a resistant form of Varicella-Zoster virus and if shingles occured, she would require a more expensive drug. Which one?
A. Acyclovir
B. Foscarnet
C. Famcyclovir
D. Zovirax
B. Foscarnet
-
Acyclovir = (Zovirax, Denavir ointments):
- most effective for herpes simples virsus (HSV-1 and HSV-2)
- cold sores on mouth and nose; less potent on Varicella-zoster virus (VZV-chickenpox–shingles).-Requires activation by the HSV thymidine kinase enzyme
-
Foscarnet =
- Used for shingles and herpes. selectively inhibits viral DNA polymerase enzymes (not kinases).
- Unlike acyclovir and ganciclovir, foscarnet is not activated by viral protein kinases, making it useful in acyclovir- or ganciclovir-resistant HSV and CMV infections.
- Famciclovir—effective against VZV virus and shingles and herpes viruses. Longer acting than acyclovir
Case Question:
78 year old female, 5’ 6”, 90 lbs, BP is 140/90, chief complaint is that husband explains that his wife moans and makes a strained facial expression when trying to eat, especially when she tries to chew her food. In addition, she has a severe drooling problem and sometimes chokes on the accumulated saliva.
The patient was diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease at the age of 70, although the husband claims that his wife’s memory had been deteriorating for the previous 5 years. According to the husband, the patient also started to struggle with mood problems approximately 3 years ago and was recently prescribed a mediation to deal with this problem as well as medication to control the drooling. He claims that while the medications seemed to help his wife’s mood and reduce the drooling, they also appeared to cause her memory to deterioriate significantly.
The patient has difficulty communicating with you and the spouse continually holds her hand to try and calm her down as she seems very anxious and not quite aware what is going on. Significant muscle atrophy and body wasting has occurred in the patient, likely due to poor nutrition. The husband is hoping that you can help his wife so that she can start to eat and feel better.
Current medications: Sertraline, Benztropine, Ibuprofen, Vitamins
The patient is diagnosed as edentulous except for teeth #3, 14, 19, 30 with significant maxillary and mandibular bone atrophy. All surviving teeth have severe periodontal involvement and are unstable. Examination of mucosal tissues reveals several areas of extreme inflammation on top and on both the buccal and lingual sides of the ridges with occasional ulceration present. The patient resists placement of her well-worn partial dentures when you ask her to put them into her mouth.
Which of the following is most likely responsible for a worsening of the patient’s memory?
A. Sertraline
B. Benztropine
C. Ibuprofen
D. Vitamins
What is the most likely mechanism for your answer in #37 above?
A. Overdose of calcium and vitamin C
B. Agitation
C. Anticholinergic activity
D. Antiinflammatory
B. Benztropine and C. Anticholinergic activity
- Benztropine can cause memory loss apparently because it is an anticholinergic drug.
Which of the following are the survival rates for breast cancers classified as stage 0 and stage IV.
A. 40% and 85%
B. 99% and 5%
C. 55% and 10%
D. 92% and 13%
D. 92% and 13%
- Based on size, axillary node status, and distant metastasis
- 5 year Survival rate of stage 0 (early stage)=92%, stage IV (late)= 13%
- If tumor expresses estrogen/progesterone receptors, it often responds to hormonal treatment
- Types of Breast Carcinoma =
- Invasive carcinoma: 75-85%
- Most are ductal and the incidence increases with age and have invasive and non-invasive types
- Can do lumpectomies to remove smaller masses.
Which of these drugs is associated with ADHD? (may be more than one)
A. entacapone
B. prednisone
C. Buproprion (BuSpar)
D. Chlorpromazine
E. Donepezil
F. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
G. Clozapine
H. Modafinil
I. Carbamazepine
J. Lithium carbonate
K. Alprazolam (Xanax)
H
- Modafinil = It is a minor stimulant, or non-stimulant, to treat ADHD, called the “smart drug.” Has few side effects, biggest complaint is that it alters sleep patterns, and it is also used for narcolepsy.
Methyltrexate is a folic acid analog that interferes with the formation of key DNA in cancer cells such as those associated with breast cancer. True or False?
True
- Methyltrexate = Treats cancer, is an antimetabolite, anti-inflammatory.
- Acts on intermediary metabolism of proliferating cells
- E.g., methyltrexate-folic acid analog
- • Inhibits tetrahydrofolate–Interferes with formation of DNA, key proteins
- • Treats head and neck cancers, breast cancer
- • Toxicity: mucositis, diarrhea
Concerning addison’s disease, administration of mifepristone worsens the symptoms. True or False?
True
- Mifepristone = Used for Cushing’s syndrome. Is an antagonist at steroid receptors.
- Ketoconazole = Used for Cushing’s syndrome. Inhibits adrenal steroid synthesis.
- Metyrapone = Used for Cushing’s syndrome. Reduces cortisol synthesis by inhibiting steroid 11-hydroxylation.
Can result in kyphosis and scoliosos:
Osteoporosis
- Genetic: age, low estrogen, fair hair and skin, tall and thin
- Behavior: inactivity, smoking/alcohol, malnutrition, medication (chronic corticosteroids)
- 10 million have osteoporosis in US, mostly women
- • 1/3 women >50 years old have at least one osteoporitic fracture
Which of these is diabetes insipidus associated with?
A. Insulin receptors are resistant to activation by insulin
B. Diuresis
C. Severe abnormal lipid metabolism
D. No insulin
E. Increased thirst
F. Long-term increased risk of atherosclerosis and hypertension
B
E
The main cause of COPD (congestive obstructive pulmonary disease) is car emissions. True or False?
False
- Main causes of COPD
- •Cigarret smoke is main cause, Long smoking hx, or exposure to environmental irritants • Airflow limitations-due to progressive, irreversible airway remodeling • Not fully reversible in contrast to asthma which can be at least partially reversible
-
How to Treat COPD? =
- Longer acting bronchodilators such as tiotropium bromide (Spireva)
- Longer acting beta 2 agonists such as salmeterol
- Theophylline with glucocorticoids (glucocorticoids alone not very effective)
- Typically responses not as good as with asthma
A patient experiencing major psychosis caused by an automobile accident is most likely to be classified in which of the following psychiatric dimensional axes?
A. Axis I
B. Axis II
C. Axis III
D. Axis IV
C. Axis III
- Axis I - All psychological diagnostic categories except mental retardation and personality disorder
- Axis I = Depression, anxiety disorders, bipolar disorder, ADHD, autism spectrum disorders, anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, schizophrenia and drug dependence (usually).
- Axis II - Personality disorders and mental retardation
- Axis II = Personality disorders: paranoid personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder, antisocial personality disorder, narcissistic personality disorder, dependent personality disorder, obsessive-compulsive personality disorder; and intellectual disabilities.
- Axis III - General medical condition; acute medical conditions and physical disorders (Meningitis, which means I have inflammation, a fever, cause symptoms that look like psychiatric disorders)
- Axis III = Brain injuries and other medical/physical disorders which may aggravate existing diseases or present symptoms similar to other disorders, (sometimes drug abuse?). (-So if you get schizophrenia from a brain injury from a car crash, it is axis III, If you have schizophrenia coming from drug abuse, it is also axis III)
- Axis IV - Psychosocial and environmental factors contributing to the disorder (e.g. stress)
- Axis V - Global Assessment of Functioning or Childrens Global Assessment Scale for children and teens under the age of 18
Concerning cardiac arrhythmias, procainamide is the first choice for ventricular arrhythmias. True or False?
False
- Four drugs used to treat arrhythmias:
- Class I - Sodium channel blockade
- Class II - Block sympathetic autonomic effects on heart (beta blocker = Propanolol)
- Class III - Prolong refractory period
- Class IV - Ca channel blockade (Verapamil and Diltiazem)
- Procainamide = Class I anti-arrhythmic drug. It blocks sodium channels. Involved with cocaine, and local anesthetics, so if you inject it into an artery, can cause problems. Usually not first choice drug because it can precipitate new arrhythmias. It slows action potential conduction.
- Lidocaine is the first choice for ventricular arrhythmias! Also a Class I.
A newly diagnosed diabetic patient (has hyperglycemia) has presented to your office. Which of the following would favor type 2 rather than type 1 diabetes?
A. Age < 15 years
B. Experiences polydypsia and polyphagia
C. Serum insulin is normal
D. Thin rather than obese
C. Serum insulin is normal
- Type II Diabetes = 2. Type II DM, “adult onset”, Non-insulin dependent DM a. Features • 95% diabetics are type II • Insulin levels often normal, problem is resistance of insulin receptors to insulin stimulation • Correlates with excessive visceral fat (80-90% are obese): restricted diet controls ~20% of diabetic expression • Correlates with hypertension and risk for atherosclerosis • Metabolic syndrome (see below for details) • Some genetics-likely polygenic autosomal • Most over 30 yrs old, but increasing numbers of younger Type I DM patients due to obesity • Minimal ketones or acidosis, but very high glucose –Hyperosmolar coma—enough insulin to prevent lipolysis, but still have elevated glucose
- Typical symptoms of type I = Polydipsia ; polyphagia (hunger and thirst) • Polyuria (lots of diluted urine) • Unexplained weight loss
- Type I = ketoacidosis
A heart failure patient presents with hypertension. He has some breathing problems that seem to be associated with pulmonary edema. He experienes dyspnea even when lying down. Palpitation revelas a liver of normal size. Which of the following is most likely the cause of these symptoms?
A. Left sided heart failure
B. Right sided heart failure
C. Proportionate left and right sided heart failure
D. Angina pectoris
A. Left sided heart failure
- When left heart isn’t doing its job, it backs up and you get pulmonary edema.
- How does left-sided heart failure occur? It is caused by ischemic heart disease, hypertension, aortic and mitral valve disease, myocardial disease like cardiomyopathy. You get pulmonary edema and breathing problems, dyspnea (breathlessness), orthopnea (dyspnea while lying down due to vascular congestion and it develops within minutes), paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (extreme dyspnea, develops over a few hours, due to pulmonary edema from heart failure while lying down). You also get reduced perfusion to organs like kidneys, ending up with prerenal azotemia (high BUN with less high or normal creatinine) or ischemic tubular necrosis.
- Right-sided heart failure: Can be caused by right-sided heart disease or cor pulmonale (abnormal enlargement of right side), and can be a consequence of left-sided failure, or due to myocarditis, cardiomyopathy. You end up getting chronic passive congestion to the liver, congestive splenomegaly, congestion and hypoxia to the kidneys, peripheral edema and anasarca (extreme edema), pleural effusions, venous congestion and hypoxia, and ascites.
- What causes angina pectoris? It is due to ischemia-related metabolites like glucose and other factors.
Prevented by consuming citrus fruit:
Scurvy
- Vitamin deficiencies : scurvy (vit. C), rickets (vit. D)
- Endocrine factors—hyperparathyroidism
- Osteoporosis—common in elderly women, after menopause
- Osteomalacia—vitamin D deficiency
Drug: Diminishes fat absorption in intestines:
Orlistat
- Is used for weight loss, is a lipase inhibitor. It diminishes fat absorption by the intestines.
Which of the following side effects is least likely to be associated with high doses of Cox 1/2 nonselective inhibiting NSAID, like that used to treat inflammatory disorders?
A. Diabetes
B. Hypertension
C. Altered liver functions
D. Asthma
E. Renal insufficiency
A. diabetes
- (a) CNS-tinnitis
- (b) CVS-hypertension
- (c) GI-nausea, ulcers or bleeding
- (d) Hepatic-altered liver functions
- (e) Pulmonary-asthma
- (f) Skin-rashes
- (g) Renal- insufficiency, in extreme can have failure
Concerning Addison’s disease, it is typically associated with weight gain. True or False?
False
- Addison’s—adrenal glands produce too little cortisol (chronic)—often insufficient aldosterone as well • Symptoms • Weakness • Fatigue • Weight loss • Hyperpigmentation • Treatment—corticol supplements: cortisones (hydro-) or prednisone



