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Immunohematology > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the main immunoglobulin in primary response?

A

IgM

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2
Q

What is the main immunoglobulin in secondary response?

A

IgG

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3
Q

What immunoglobulin is also known as incomplete or blocking antibodies?

A

IgG

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4
Q

What is the predominant immunoglobulin type found in the Rh system?

A

IgG

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5
Q

What is Landsteiner’s Law?

A

antibodies are present in plasma only when the corresponding antigen is not present on the red blood cells

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6
Q

What is genotype?

A

an individual’s actual genetic make up

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7
Q

What is phenotype?

A

the outward expression of genes

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8
Q

Where are antigens found?

A

on the red blood cells

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9
Q

Where are antibodies found?

A

in the serum/plasma

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10
Q

What is an alloantibody?

A

antibody formed after exposure to genetically different antigens from the same species

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11
Q

What is an autoantibody?

A

antibodies produced to self-antigens, usually have autoimmune disease

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12
Q

List the order of decreasing H substance.

A

O, A2, B, A2B, A1, A1B

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13
Q

What does forward ABO grouping demonstrate?

A

detects antigens on the red blood cells

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14
Q

What does the reverse grouping demonstrate?

A

detects antibodies present in the serum/plasma

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15
Q

What is the purpose of performing an absorption?

A

to remove an antibody from serum or plasma

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16
Q

Give five examples of factors influencing antigen-antibody reactions.

A

temperature, antibody size, incubation time, proximity of antigen sites on the RBCs, ionic strength of the surrounding medium

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17
Q

Why don’t labs perform reverse blood groupings on newborn infants?

A

antibodies in their serum/plasma are not well formed

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18
Q

What is the antisera used in an ABO/Rh

A

anti-A, anti-B, and anti-D

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19
Q

Anti-A1 is most often found in individuals of what blood group?

A

A2

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20
Q

What is one of the best ways to test a patient to see if they have a subgroup or variant of the A blood type?

A

test plasma/serum with A1 cells

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21
Q

What are the two types of AHG?

A

polyspecific and monospecific

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22
Q

The lectin from which plant has a specificity for anti-H?

A

Ulex europaeus

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23
Q

What is the main purpose of washing red blood cells used for testing in an antiglobulin test?

A

prevents neutralization of AHG from globulins in blood sample

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24
Q

The extract from what plant is used to distinguish type A1 cell from other type A cells?

A

Dolichos biflorus

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25
Q

What does the IAT indicate?

A

detects antibodies or complement (gamma or beta) attached to RBCs in vitro

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26
Q

What does DAT indicate?

A

detects antibodies and/or complement attached to RBCs in vivo

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27
Q

Who can cold agglutinins be excluded in a crossmatch?

A

perform a prewarmed crossmatch and a cold autocontrol

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28
Q

What is the purpose of anti-A1 lectin?

A

demonstrates presence of A1 antigen

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29
Q

What is the purpose of anti-A,B antisera?

A

detecting subgroups of A other than A1

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30
Q

What type of test would demonstrate that group A or B fetal cells have been coated with maternal group O antibodies?

A

DAT

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31
Q

What type of antibodies does an antiglobulin test detect?

A

IgG

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32
Q

Which rare blood type produces natural anti-H antibodies?

A

Bombay (Oh)

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33
Q

What is contained in the polyspecific AHG?

A

anti-IgG and anti-C3D

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34
Q

What is contained in the monospecific AHG

A

either anti-IgG or anti-C3D

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35
Q

What is IgG also known as?

A

blocking or incomplete

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36
Q

What is a procedure you could perform in the blood bank to remove rouleaux formation?

A

saline replacement technique

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37
Q

ABO and Rh antibodies are most often implicated in what serious condition that affects newborns and fetuses?

A

HDFN

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38
Q

What must be done to a donor unit to firmly establish that it is indeed Rh negative?

A

weak D

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39
Q

When is Rh immunoglobulin given to Rh negative mothers?

A

28 weeks gestation and within 27 hours after birth of Rh positive baby

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40
Q

What causes kernicterus in newborns?

A

infiltration of the brain and spinal cord with unconjugated bilirubin which causes permanent damage to CNS

41
Q

What type of blood bank testing is used to detect weak D?

A

IAT

42
Q

Before testing, what must be done to call cord cells?

A

washed three times

43
Q

Why are cord cells washed three times prior to testing?

A

to remove Wharton’s Jelly

44
Q

What causes HDFN?

A

maternal cells lack antigen that fetal cells have, which causes sensitization

45
Q

What type of donor blood would you give a patient that has developed Lewis antibodies?

A

Le (a- b-)

46
Q

What percentage of the caucasian population are secretors?

A

80%

47
Q

What are the components used for testing in a major crossmatch?

A

donor red cells and recipient plasma

48
Q

What is the purpose of a major crossmatch?

A

select red cells for the recipient to ensure the safety of the transfusion

49
Q

Which antibodies can show up as cold agglutinins?

A

M, N, I, P1, and Lewis

50
Q

Which antibodies belong to the Kidd blood group system?

A

anti-Jka and anti-Jkb

51
Q

Which antibodies are known for showing dosage when reacting with heterozygous red cells?

A

Kidd, Duffy, MNS, and Rh other than D, and Lutheran

52
Q

What antigen is known to be sex-linked?

A

Xga

53
Q

The i antigen is most prevalent in what type of population?

A

babies

54
Q

Which antibodies are most known for delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

A

Kidd

55
Q

Why is the transfusion of specific blood components preferable to the use of whole blood?

A

concentrated form of the required fraction can be administered, reduces the risk of circulatory overload, many patients can be effectively treated with a single donation

56
Q

What are some of the routine tests generally performed on donor blood?

A

ABO Rh, antibody screen, HIV, HEP, CMV, weak D if Rh negative, syphilis

57
Q

What is autologous donation?

A

donating for yourself

58
Q

What is the biggest advantage of an autologous donation?

A

if they have a rare blood type

59
Q

What is directed donation?

A

donating for a specific recipient

60
Q

What is emergency release?

A

doctor authorizes the use of emergency O neg blood that has not been crossmatched

61
Q

What is the normal temperature for packed red blood cells in CPDA-1?

A

1-6C

62
Q

What is the shelf life of packed red blood cells in CPDA-1 stored at 1-6C?

A

35 days

63
Q

What is the temperature for frozen red cells?

A

-65C to -120C

64
Q

What is the shelf life of frozen red cells stored at -65C to -120C?

A

10 years

65
Q

What is the temperature for fresh frozen plasma?

A

-18C

66
Q

What is the shelf life for fresh frozen plasma stored at -18C?

A

1 year

67
Q

What is the temperature for CRYO?

A

-18C

68
Q

What is the shelf life for CRYO stored at -18C?

A

1 year

69
Q

What is the temperature for platelets?

A

20-24C

70
Q

What is the shelf life for platelets stored at 20-24C?

A

5 days with continuous gentle agitation

71
Q

What are some conditions in which you might use therapeutic phlebotomy?

A

polycythemia vera, hereditary hemochromatosis, porphyrias

72
Q

How long should someone wait between whole blood donations?

A

every 8 weeks

73
Q

How often should a new sample be collected on a blood recipient when a series of transfusions are to be administered over a period of time?

A

every three days

74
Q

When transfusing packed red cells, what is the total amount that is routinely transfused?

A

280 mL +/- 10%

75
Q

Why is there a storage limit of 21 days put on CPD blood stored at 5C?

A

preserve the 70% viability of red blood cells post transfusion

76
Q

What is plasmapheresis?

A

plasma is removed from the whole blood and RBCs are reinfused

77
Q

What is the most common of all the transfusion reactions?

A

febrile or allergic reaction

78
Q

What usually causes febrile reactions to occur?

A

leukocyte antibodies, pyrogins, platelet antibodies from platelet transfusion

79
Q

What are two acceptable methods for thawing FFP?

A

FDA approved microwave and water bath

80
Q

Which government agency is the regulatory agency providing licensure for blood banking reagents?

A

FDA

81
Q

What is the expiration for packed red cells where the hermetic seal has been broken but the nit has been refrigerated?

A

24 hours

82
Q

What is the expiration for six units of platelets that have been pooled together in an open system?

A

4 hours

83
Q

What is the expiration of FFP that has been thawed and is being kept refrigerated?

A

24 hours

84
Q

What is the temperature limit for shipping packed red cells?

A

1-10C

85
Q

What does refractory mean?

A

unresponsive

86
Q

Which blood component is refractory associated with?

A

platelet transfusions

87
Q

Why are patient specimens kept in the lab after testing is completed?

A

so retesting can occur if there are any questions regarding initial testing?

88
Q

How long are patient specimens kept in the lab after testing is completed?

A

7 days

89
Q

How long are most blood bank records kept in the lab?

A

12 months

90
Q

What are some methods of good record keeping in the bank?

A

indelible ink, circle or cross off with a single line followed by date and initials of person making the correction

91
Q

What is the number one source of error in blood banking?

A

clerical issues

92
Q

What is the blood component of choice for factor VIII deficiency?

A

CRYO

93
Q

What is the blood component of choice for marked thrombocytopenia?

A

platelets

94
Q

What is the blood component of choice for factor V deficiency?

A

FFP

95
Q

What is the blood component of choice for exchange transfusions?

A

fresh whole blood

96
Q

What is the blood component of choice for severe burns?

A

human serum albumin

97
Q

What is the blood component of choice for chronic anemia?

A

packed red blood cells

98
Q

What is the blood component of choice for acute blood loss?

A

whole blood

99
Q

What is the blood component of choice for hemophilia?

A

CRYO

Immunohematology (7 decks)

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