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Immunohematology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the best temperature range for agglutinins to react?

A

0-5C

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2
Q

Three infections that may cause cold agglutinins to develop.

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae, infections mononucleosis, primary atypical pneumonia

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3
Q

What is desensitization?

A

Process in which a hypersensitive animal is given several very small subcutaneous injections of antigen at closely-spaced intervals and may then be able to tolerate an ordinarily shocking dose without severe reaction

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4
Q

Explain Graves’ disease

A

hyperthyroidism; characterized by goiter, weight loss, tachycardia, increased T3 and T4 and decreased or absent TSH

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5
Q

Explain what agglutination means in a hemagglutination inhibition test.

A

negative reaction

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6
Q

Explain what lack of agglutination means in a hemagglutination inhibition test

A

positive reaction

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7
Q

Which organ is thought that potentially self-reactive lymphocytes are removed?

A

thymus

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8
Q

The Nichols strain of T. pallidum is used in what type of testing?

A

FTA-ABS

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9
Q

When do serum tests for syphilis usually become reactive?

A

between first and third week following appearance of primary lesion

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10
Q

Secondary syphilis serological test to detect syphilis results.

A

positive

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11
Q

How long after treatment does the serological test for syphilis become nonreactive in secondary syphilis?

A

12 months after treatment

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12
Q

The secondary stage of syphilis occurs how many weeks after the appearance of the primary chancre?

A

6 to 8 weeks after the first chancre

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13
Q

Pharmacologically active mediators of anaphylaxis

A

Histamine, neutrophil chemotactiv factor, tryptase, chimase, and ECF-A

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14
Q

Is latent stage of syphilis contagious between mother and fetus?

A

usually noncontagious

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15
Q

P24 is a viral antigen that is the first to be detected in which potentially deadly virus?

A

HIV

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16
Q

Name three means of transmission of the HIV virus

A

body fluids, sexual activity, mother to fetus

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17
Q

Needles that dispense antigen for the VDRL test must be calibrated to deliver how much?

A

1/60 mL

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18
Q

How often should the needle for the VDRL test be QC’d?

A

each batch

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19
Q

T. pallidum crosses the placenta in which week of gestation?

A

18th week

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20
Q

What does the FTA-ABS test identify in the patient’s serum?

A

Treponemal antibodies

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21
Q

What does the fluorescein labeled antihuman globulin do for the purposes of interpreting FTA-ABS?

A

anti-human globulin makes the antigen-antibody reaction visible

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22
Q

What is labeled with fluorescent dye in the direct fluorescent antibody test?

A

antibody

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23
Q

The serum is inactivated to destroy complement in the VDRL or the RPR?

A

VDRL

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24
Q

7 examples of an autoimmune disease

A

Myasthenia gravis, Addison’s, insulin dependent diabetes mellitus, MS, Grave’s, SLE, RA

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25
Q

What organs are affected in Myasthenia gravis?

A

nerve-muscle synapse

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26
Q

What organs are affected in Addison’s disease?

A

adrenal glands

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27
Q

What organs are affected in insulin dependent diabetes mellitus?

A

pancreas

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28
Q

What organs are affected in MS?

A

myelin sheath on axons of neural cells

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29
Q

What organs are affected in Grave’s disease?

A

thyroid

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30
Q

What test requires a flat-bottomed bottle?

A

VDRL

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31
Q

Explain flocculation test

A

specific type of precipitation that occurs over a narrow range of antigen concentrations

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32
Q

2 examples of flocculation test

A

VDRL and RPR

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33
Q

What test is always read macroscopically?

A

RPR

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34
Q

A modified VDRL antigen is used in what type of testing?

A

RPR

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35
Q

Synonyms for Type B viral hepatitis

A

serum hepatitis, Hepatitis B, Hep B, viral hepatitis, HBV

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36
Q

What is a chancre?

A

primary inflammatory lesion of primary syphilis

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37
Q

What should the rotator speed be at in order to properly perform the RPR test?

A

100 rpm

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38
Q

Why do you get false negative results with a postzone reaction?

A

the quantity of antigen exceeds the quantity of antibody

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39
Q

The antibody to tissue lipids is called?

A

reagin

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40
Q

Why would you get false negative results with a prozone reaction?

A

The quantity of antibody exceeds the quantity of antigen

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41
Q

Explain the zone of equivalence

A

antibody and antigen are precipitated to the max

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42
Q

What is tannic acid used for in serologic testing?

A

allows proteins to complex with RBCs as antigen carriers

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43
Q

What is serum sickness?

A

reaction caused by injection of therapeutic foreign serum usually made from horse or cow found in tetanus, diphtheria, and gangrene vaccinations

44
Q

How does the Western blot test differ from ELISA tests?

A

ELISA is a screening test that identifies antibodies; WB uses antibody to individual antigen for specific identification so it is confirmatory

45
Q

What is an agglutinin?

A

substance that causes particles to coagulate to form a thickened mass

46
Q

Why is cholesterol added to the antigen that is used in the flocculation test for syphilis?

A

it is the absorption center for tissue lipids

47
Q

Does treating a pregnant woman with syphilis cure the fetus?

A

yes

48
Q

Are congenital, primary, and secondary syphilis best treated by repeated doses of penicillin?

A

no

49
Q

Does treatment alter any tissue damage that has already occurred?

A

no

50
Q

Is it necessary to get repeated blood tests for 5 years following treatment for syphilis?

A

no

51
Q

Can tertiary syphilis be treated?

A

yes

52
Q

Loss of self-tolerance results in what type of disease?

A

autoimmune

53
Q

Explain cross reactivity and what kind of results it can lead to

A

antigens that are closely related in structure can cause false positive results

54
Q

The presence of anti-double stranded DNA can distinguish RA from what other autoimmune disease?

A

SLE (lupus)

55
Q

Exposure to group A hemolytic Streptococci can be detected when there are high or steadily increasing concentrations of what in a patient’s serum?

A

anti-streptolysin O

56
Q

Define anaphylaxis

A

severe systemic allergic reaction that results when the organs involved are primarily blood vessels and smooth muscles of the circulatory system

57
Q

What is a xenograft?

A

transplant of tissue from one species to another

58
Q

What is a xenograft also known as?

A

heterograft

59
Q

Transplanting from one individual to a genetically nonidentical person of the same species is called what?

A

homograft or allograft

60
Q

Define contact dermatitis.

A

hypersensitive reaction caused by direct contact of a substance to the skin

61
Q

Give three examples of things that can cause contact dermatitis.

A

metals, drugs, and plants

62
Q

Which type of screening test is most widely used to detect HIV?

A

ELISA

63
Q

Which type of confirmatory test is most widely used to detect HIV?

A

Western blot

64
Q

Which disease of Hep C, HIV, Hep G, and Hep B is most virulent?

A

Hep C

65
Q

Why is Hep C more dangerous than Hep B?

A

85% of cases of Hep C convert to chronic hepatitis, whereas 10% of Hep B convert; 2 out of 3 infected Hep C become carriers that can transmit

66
Q

What is the first antigen to appear in the serum of a person infected with HBV?

A

Hep B surface antigen

67
Q

How is Hep A transmitted?

A

oral-fecal

68
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity is the only type that involves which type of cells?

A

T cells

69
Q

Is testing for the p24 antigen useful as a screening test for blood products?

A

no

70
Q

On average, how long does it take an individual to develop HIV antibodies after exposure?

A

6 to 12 weeks

71
Q

What antibody appears in the serum of individuals that have recovered from hepatitis B or who have received the hepatitis B vaccination?

A

Hep B surface antibody; also known has Hep Bs or HBsAb

72
Q

Which form of hepatitis is responsible for the most post-transfusion reactions?

A

hepatitis C

73
Q

If a patient has an immune response to his/her own IgG, they would mostly likely have a positive or negative RA test?

A

positive

74
Q

Which set of antigens would be represented on a positive Western blot?

A

GP41, GP120

75
Q

The antigen in a precipitin reaction must be..?

A

soluble

76
Q

What does ANA stand for?

A

anti-nuclear antibody

77
Q

How is testing for ANA useful?

A

found in >95% of SLE patients

78
Q

What does HLA stand for?

A

human leukocyte antigen

79
Q

Why is HLA important?

A

most important immunologic barrier to the survival of transplanted organs and tissues?

80
Q

Which hepatitis virus requires hep B infection?

A

Hep D

81
Q

What is the primary mode of transmission for EBV and IM?

A

contact with salivary secretions from infected individual

82
Q

What % of lymphs would be expected to be seen as atypical on a peripheral blood smear of a patient infected with EBV or IM?

A

10% of lymphs presenting as atypical

83
Q

Which malignancy has been associated with EBV?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma and Hodgkin’s disease

84
Q

Which virus have most people been exposed to by their elderly years?

A

cytomegalovirus (CMV)

85
Q

Examples of antiretroviral drug therapies.

A

nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors, nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, fusion inhibitors, coreceptor antagonists, and integrase inhibitors.

86
Q

How do antiretroviral drug therapies work?

A

block various steps in viral replication

87
Q

Which cells are the main target for the HIV virus?

A

T helper cells

88
Q

Why are T helper cells the main target for the HIV virus?

A

high number of CD4 antigens

89
Q

What is one method for determining the progression to the AIDS stage of HIV infection?

A

CD4 T-cell count lower than 200 per microliter

90
Q

How is CD4 T-cell enumeration done (the gold standard)?

A

flow cytometry

91
Q

Shingles is essentially a re-emergence of what virus?

A

Varicella Zoster virus

92
Q

Which specimens are not considered infectious unless visibly bloody in regards to HIV transmission?

A

saliva, sputum, nasal secretions, tears, sweat, urine, vomitus, and feces

93
Q

What is reverse transcriptase responsible for doing?

A

transcribes viral RNA into DNA

94
Q

What is the gene that codes for the enzymes necessary for HIV replication?

A

pol gene

95
Q

Describe the latency period of HIV infection.

A

decrease in viremia, clinical symptoms subtle or absent, gradual deterioration of immune system

96
Q

What is the medium length of time the latency period of HIV infection can last?

A

10 years

97
Q

Symptoms of primary infection of HIV are similar to symptoms from what other virus?

A

mono

98
Q

What are the advantages of chemiluminescent assays?

A

excellent sensitivity, reagents are stable and relatively nontoxic, inexpensive, faster turnaround time

99
Q

What are the disadvantages of chemiluminescent assays?

A

false results possible from lack of precision in injection of the hydrogen peroxide, urine and plasma may cause quenching of the light emission

100
Q

What is turbidimetry?

A

measure of the turbidity or cloudiness of a solution, measures the reduction of light intensity due to reflection, absorption, or scatter

101
Q

Describe nephlometry.

A

measures the light that is scattered at a particular angle from the incident beam as it passes through a suspension

102
Q

The antibody that is rheumatoid factor belongs to which Ig class?

A

IgM

103
Q

What is the test anti-CCP?

A

cyclic citrullinated peptides

104
Q

What is anti-CCP used for?

A

lead marker for RA, much more specific than RF

105
Q

What does VDRL stand for?

A

venereal disease research lab

106
Q

What does RPR stand for?

A

rapid plasma reagin

107
Q

What is precipitation?

A

combining soluble antigen with soluble antibody to produce insoluble complexes that are visible

Immunohematology (7 decks)

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