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Immunohematology > Exam4 > Flashcards

Exam4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which blood group system is associated with resistance to malaria?

A

Duffy

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2
Q

Which antibodies are considered cold agglutinins?

A

Anti-I, anti-M, anti-N, anti-P1

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3
Q

Which autoantibody specificity is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?

A

autoanti-P

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4
Q

What test discussed in lecture is used to detect autoanti-P?

A

Donath-Landsteiner test

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5
Q

Which antigens are destroyed by enzymes?

A

M, N, S, Fya, Fyb

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6
Q

Which antigens are enhanced by enzymes?

A

I, Jka, i, P1, Rh (not anti-D), Lewis

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7
Q

What procedure might help you distinguish between an anti-Fya and an anti-Jka?

A

Ficin-treated panel

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8
Q

Which antibody is destroyed by a ficin-treated panel?

A

Fya

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9
Q

Which antibody is enhanced by a ficin-treated panel?

A

Jka

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10
Q

Which blood group is produced in the tissues?

A

Lewis

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11
Q

What is the McLeod phenotype?

A

absence of Kx antigens

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12
Q

Which of the antibodies from the other blood group systems require teh AHG for in vitro detection?

A

S, s, M, N, Lub, Kell, Duffy, Kidd

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13
Q

What is the rarest phenotype of the Lutheran system?

A

Lu (a- b-)

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14
Q

Which antigen is X-linked?

A

Xga

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15
Q

Which antibody is often found in patients with infectious mono, lymphoproliferative disease, and cold agglutinins?

A

anti-i

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16
Q

Which antibodies are known for causing delayed HTR?

A

Kidd

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17
Q

Fy (a- b-) is found primary in what type of population?

A

black (68% frequency)

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18
Q

Which antigen is found primarily in South Central and North American Indians and Asians?

A

Dia

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19
Q

Which blood group systems are known for showing dosage?

A

M, N, S, Kidd, Duffy, Rh (other than D)

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20
Q

What is the most common antibody seen in the blood bank other than ABO and Rh antibodies?

A

anti-K

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21
Q

Which blood group antigen increases in strength as a newborn grows older?

A

i becomes I

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22
Q

Can a pateint with blood group Ss be immunized by genotype SS, Ss, or ss?

A

no

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23
Q

Which antigens are actually WBC antigens that are expressed in variable degrees on RBCs and can cause confusing reactions in serological tests?

A

Bg

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24
Q

Which antigens are well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, and generally saline reactive?

A

M, N

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25
Q

Name the 3 most common antibodies that are most likely to react at 37C?

A

Anti-D, anti-E, and anti-K

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26
Q

What is the most practical manner for preventing transmission of malaria by blood transfusion?

A

do not accept blood from people that have lived in or recently traveled from a high malarial incidence area

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27
Q

Why might a prospective donor might be permanently rejected for donation of blood products?

A

AIDS, hepatitis, HTLV, IV drug user, homosexual sex since 1977, “do not use” sticker, relative with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Chagas disease, MS, heart attack, stroke, hemopiliacs

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28
Q

Why might a prospective donor be temporarily deffered?

A

tattoo/piercing, antibiotics, aspirin, low hematocrit, STD, transfusion, slept with prostitue, recent vaccines, pregnancy, Lyme disease, abortion, miscarriage, jail more than 72 hours

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29
Q

How long would a prospective donor be deferred following a tattoo/piercing?

A

1 year

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30
Q

How long would a prospective donor be deferred following taking antibiotics?

A

until course is completed

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31
Q

How long would a prospective donor be deferred following taking aspirin?

A

3 days

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32
Q

How long would a prospective donor be deferred following low hematocrit?

A

next visit

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33
Q

How long would a prospective donor be deferred following a positive test for a STD?

A

12 months following diagnosis and treatment

34
Q

How long would a prospective donor be deferred following a transfusion?

A

1 year

35
Q

How long would a prospective donor be deferred following having slept with a prostitute?

A

1 year

36
Q

How long would a prospective donor be deferred following a recent vaccine?

A

4 to 6 weeks

37
Q

Can unused autologous blood be placed in the general supply and used for another patient other than who it was intended?

A

no, it was not screened by the usual procedures

38
Q

Why must donor units be tested for a weak D antigen?

A

if the patient is Du positive, then they are considered Rh positive and should be labeled as such

39
Q

What are the two terms used to refer to AHG that contains both anti-complement and anti-IgG?

A

polyspecific and broad spectrum

40
Q

A transfusion that replaces approximately a patient’s blood volume within a 24-hour period is called what kind of transfusion?

A

massive

41
Q

What is it called when a physician signs an order for uncrossed-matched blood and accepts full responsibility for the transfusion of such products?

A

emergency release

42
Q

Why are homozygous cells used for “ruling out”?

A

shows if certain antibodies show dosage

43
Q

Why should a patient’s serum/plasma for compatibility testing be stored?

A

So that it can be retested if there are any concerns with original testing

44
Q

Leukocyte antibodies are usually responsible for what types of transfusion reaction?

A

febrile reactions

45
Q

Which blood bank test detects in vitro sensitization?

A

IAT

46
Q

How is the shelf life for blood determined?

A

70% viability of RBCs post-transfusion

47
Q

What is the purpose of the albumin/LISS of an antibody screen or crossmatch?

A

detect IgG antibodyes

48
Q

What is an example of IgG antibodies?

A

Rh antibodies

49
Q

A positive DAT would give you what kind of information on the patient?

A

in vivo RBC sensitization, RBC coated with gamma and/or beta globulins

50
Q

A patient that has had multiple transfusions is most likely to have what type of transfusion reaction?

A

febrile

51
Q

What does CPDA stand for?

A

citrate phosphate dextrose adenine

52
Q

What is the shelf life of a unit of blood with CPDA-1 as the anticoagulant?

A

35 days

53
Q

What is the shelf life of a unit with the additive of AS-1?

A

42 days

54
Q

How often should a new recipient sample be collected if a series of transfusions are to be administered over a period of several days?

A

every three days

55
Q

incomplete antibodies are usually?

A

IgG

56
Q

What does it mean to perform a major crossmatch?

A

recipient plasma/donor cells are tested together for compatibility

57
Q

Cells are “washed” how many times in an antibody screen?

A

Three times

58
Q

What is the purpose of washing cells three times in an antibody screen?

A

prevents neutralization of AHG from globulins in blood samples

59
Q

What is the therapeutic phlebotomy?

A

bloodletting

60
Q

Why is bloodletting used?

A

remove blood from a patient with a certain disease

61
Q

What are some conditions in which bloodletting might be used?

A

polycythemia vera, hemachromatosis, porphyrias

62
Q

What type of transfusion is it when a recipient serves as his/her own donor?

A

autologous

63
Q

What is the “three in, three out” rule?

A

when doing an antibody panel, and you suspect a specfic antibody, pick three bottles of cells that are positive for the antigen, and three bottles that are negative; test against the plasma

64
Q

Why is the “three in, three out” rule used?

A

will confirm antibody, should get the reaction that you’re expecting

65
Q

Explain why and when an antibody screen is done?

A

this is done to detect clinically significant antibodies prior to transfusion

66
Q

What are the stages of an antibody screen?

A

immediate s pin, 37, AHG, check cells

67
Q

What happens if an antibody screen is positive?

A

run an antibody panel

68
Q

Why is there a control in an antibody screen?

A

detects in vivo sensitization

69
Q

What does TRALI stand for?

A

transfusion related acute lung injury

70
Q

Explain TRALI

A

reaction to leukocyte antibodies that causes the plasma to leak into the lung and cause pulmonary edema

71
Q

What is the leading cause of transfusion-related deaths?

A

TRALI

72
Q

What is directed or specific donation?

A

donated blood intended for a specific recipient

73
Q

What blood group system does anti-Dia correlate to?

A

Diego

74
Q

What blood group system does anti-Sc2 correlate to?

A

Scianna

75
Q

What blood group system does anti-Xga correlate to?

A

XG

76
Q

What blood group system does anti-Cob correlate to?

A

Colton

77
Q

What blood group system does anti-Ch3 correlate to?

A

Chido/Rogers

78
Q

What blood group system does anti-Ge3 correlate to?

A

Gerbich

79
Q

If you do an antibody panel and all cells are positive, including the control, what should be the first thing you should think may be the problem?

A

presence of a warm or cold auto-antibody

80
Q

What is the preferred storage temperature for RBCs?

A

1-6C

Immunohematology (7 decks)

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