Final Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

All the following descriptions are TRUE of a closed-end management company, EXCEPT:
Shares are purchased at the current offering price
Shares are redeemable
Investors can purchase full and fractional shares
The company may issue only common stock
When making a purchase, a customer will pay a markup or a commission
QID: 1506884Mark For Review
A
I and V only
B
I, III, and V only
C
II, III, and IV only
D
II, III, and V only

A

II, III, and IV only

Shares of a closed-end fund are not redeemable instruments. The shares are usually traded in the open market on an exchange. The purchaser pays either a commission or a markup on both a purchase and a sale. A closed-end fund may issue common stock, preferred stock, or bonds. The fund may issue only full shares. Unlike a mutual fund, the closed-end management company may not issue fractional shares.

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2
Q
According to the efficient market hypothesis, which form of efficiency asserts that using technical analysis in identifying securities which may be undervalued is of no benefit?
QID: 1507350Mark For Review
A   
Weak-form efficiency
B
Semistrong-form efficiency
C
Strong-form efficiency
D
Passive-form efficiency
A

Weak-form efficiency

Weak-form efficiency asserts that all past market prices are fully reflected in security prices. In that technical analysis attempts to identify patterns in stock price movements in order to predict future price trends, weak-form efficiency believes fundamental analysis should be used in determining if a stock is over or under valued.

Semistrong-form efficiency asserts that security prices reflect all publically available information. Thus, analysis of any type does not necessarily result in superior returns as the information is available to investors.

Strong-form efficiency asserts that the price of a stock reflects all public and private information, thus no one can consistently outperform the market. Passive-form efficiency is not a form of efficiency.

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3
Q
Which of the following statements BEST describes the similarities between an S Corporation and a general partnership?
QID: 1506866Mark For Review
A
Both provide limited personal liability
B
Both require full personal liability
C
Both do not provide flow-through of losses
D   
Both provide flow-through of losses
A

Both provide flow-through of losses

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4
Q

Which of the following statements describes a strong form efficient market?
QID: 1506889Mark For Review
A
Past market prices and data are fully reflected in securities prices.
B
All public and private information is reflected in securities prices.
C
All public information, including historical data, is reflected in securities prices.
D
Market prices are rational and based on an assumption that investors will attempt to maximize their potential returns for the risk being assumed.

A

All public and private information is reflected in securities prices.

The Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH) explains three different forms – strong, semi-strong, and weak form efficiency. In a weak form efficient market, all past prices and data are fully reflected in current prices. In a semi-strong form efficient market, all public data, including historical pricing, is reflected in current prices. In a strong form efficient market, both public and non-public (i.e., inside) information is reflected in current prices. The assumption that investors want to minimize risk and maximize returns is made in the Modern Portfolio Theory, not the Efficient Market Hypothesis.

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5
Q
The advantages of investing in a limited partnership include:
QID: 1507357Mark For Review
A   
The potential for assessments
B
Lack of control
C   
The ability to limit risk
D
Tax losses that can reduce taxes on other portfolio income
A

The ability to limit risk

A limited partner is risking only the amount she invests in the partnership. The potential for assessments (demands for more money from investors) and the lack of control over the management of the venture are considered disadvantages of limited partnerships. Tax losses generated by the partnership are passed on to investors, but they may only be used to reduce income generated by other passive activities. They may not be used to reduce earned income (wages and salaries) or income from most other types of investments.

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6
Q

If Jane Brown annuitizes her nonqualified variable annuity, how will the series of payments be taxed?
QID: 1507333Mark For Review
A
LIFO
B
FIFO
C
Part of each payment is taxable earnings and part is a tax-free cost basis
D
All taxable earnings first, then all cost basis

A

Part of each payment is taxable earnings and part is a tax-free cost basis

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7
Q
An individual has a contract which offers guaranteed principal, tax-deferral, fixed premium, fixed benefit, and the insurance company bears the investment risk. What type of insurance contract is this?
QID: 1506876Mark For Review
A   
Equity-indexed
B
Variable
C   
Annuity
D
Variable life
A

Annuity

Annuities, including fixed annuities, provide investors with a way to save for retirement. The annuitant pays an insurance company fixed premiums and, in exchange, receives a fixed rate of return (i.e., benefit). Because the rate of return is fixed, the insurance company assumes the investment risk. Taxes on an annuity are deferred until the annuitant withdraws (i.e., receives benefits).

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8
Q

When can an issuer use an omitting or summary prospectus?
QID: 1507330Mark For Review
A
With initial public offerings
B
With sales of investment company securities and variable contracts
C
With follow-on offerings of federal covered securities
D
With private placements

A

With sales of investment company securities and variable contracts

In most securities offerings, the prospectus is the only disclosure document that’s permitted. However, the SEC does permit the use of a summary or omitting prospectus when selling investment company securities and variable products. The summary prospectus is a shorter document, which summarizes the full prospectus. The disclosure document for a private placement is referred to as an offering memorandum or private placement memorandum.

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9
Q
`In order to determine the lump-sum amount that a person will need at retirement, what elements are required for an investment adviser to make the projection?
Life expectancy
Inflation rate
Current cash flow
Investment return
QID: 1507095Mark For Review
A
I and II only
B
II and III only
C   
I, II, and IV only
D   
I, II, III, and IV
A

I, II, and IV only

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10
Q

The Investment Advisers Act of 1940 would consider an individual to be in the business of providing investment advice if:
QID: 1506877Mark For Review
A
On rare occasions, she renders advice that is incidental
B
She provides general advice on stocks, bonds, and tangible assets
C
She provides mutual fund timing and sector rotation advice to her clients
D
She provides advice in isolated instances as part of another service

A

She provides mutual fund timing and sector rotation advice to her clients

Investment advisers provide advice that is timed and tailored to each client. An investment adviser’s advice is not general, isolated, or occasionally offered. An adviser is considered in the business of providing advice when it holds itself out as an adviser or makes recommendations that are client-specific.

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11
Q

Which of the following actions by an agent of a broker-dealer is prohibited?
QID: 1507354Mark For Review
A
Providing advice to a customer about a specific security and then receiving a commission for executing the purchase transaction for the customer
B
Describing the features of a trust to a customer
C
Determining the type of joint account that a client should open
D
Providing advice to a customer regarding different potential investments to place in a custodial account

A

Determining the type of joint account that a client should open

An agent is in the business of representing a broker-dealer in effecting securities transactions for her firm’s account and the accounts of others. Providing a general description of the details and characteristics of brokerage products and accounts is acceptable. On the other hand, determining or suggesting the best type of account for a customer to open has legal ramifications and should be provided by an attorney.

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12
Q
When investing in a variable annuity, investors would be MOST concerned with which of the following risks?
QID: 1507083Mark For Review
A
Legislative risk
B   
Investment risk
C   
Interest-rate risk
D
Mortality risk
A

Investment risk

In a variable annuity contract, an investor’s principal is invested in a separate account. The separate account contains a pool of securities that will fluctuate over time. A variable annuity client would be most concerned with the fact that the value of his investment will fluctuate due to changes in the overall market.

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13
Q

An 81-year-old father is establishing a bypass trust for his two adult children who are both in their 40s. His investment adviser is evaluating the risks and benefits of numerous investment vehicles. Which of the following choices is MOST appropriate investment in a bypass trust?
QID: 1507329Mark For Review
A
Government securities, since they preserve the value of the assets that will be passed to the beneficiaries
B
Growth stocks, since the beneficiaries will not need the funds for several years
C
Municipal securities, since the income that will be provided to the beneficiaries is tax-free
D
Bonds with short-term maturities due to the grantor’s age

A

Growth stocks, since the beneficiaries will not need the funds for several years

A Bypass Trust (or Credit Shelter Trust) is a type of irrevocable trust and is most commonly used to pass assets from parents to children at the time of the second parent’s death. The key to this specific question is to identify the ages of the beneficiaries. Since both children are in their 40s, a growth investment is the most appropriate. The focus must be on the beneficiaries, not the grantor.

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14
Q
If an investment adviser uses a social media site as a form of advertising, all records of its use must be maintained for at least:
QID: 1507094Mark For Review
A
Two years
B
Three years
C   
Five years
D
The life of the firm, plus three years
A

Five years

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15
Q

Modern Portfolio Theory (MPT) defines risk as the:
QID: 1507349Mark For Review
A
Possibility of loss of principal
B
Possibility that returns will be less than the rate of inflation
C
Slope of the regression line of portfolio returns versus the market
D
Variability of expected returns about the mean

A

Variability of expected returns about the meanIn MPT, risk is defined as the degree to which investment returns deviate from what was expected or predicted. It is usually measured by the standard deviation of expected returns about the mean (δ), although its square, variance (δ2), is sometimes used.

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16
Q

Which of the following choices is NOT a broker-dealer in State B?
An agent in State A who contacts a client in State B
A corporation that sells commercial paper every other week in State B
A broker-dealer registered in State A, where its only office is located, which has only insurance companies as clients in State B
A bank trust department that buys and sells securities for its customers
QID: 1507356Mark For Review
A
I only
B
III only
C
IV only
D
I, II, III, and IV

A

I, II, III, and IV

Agents, issuers, and banks are not broker-dealers. Also, a person with no place of business in a state, who deals only with institutional investors, is not a broker-dealer. (

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17
Q
Under what form of ownership may a husband and wife ensure that their property is not able to be attached by the creditors of either spouse?
QID: 1506806Mark For Review
A
Tenants in common
B
A qualified domestic partnership order
C   
Tenancy by the entirety
D   
Joint tenants with right of survivorship
A

Tenancy by the entirety

Tenancy by the entirety, which is only available to married couples, allows spouses to own property as a single legal entity. With this form of ownership, a creditor of one spouse is unable to make a claim to the account’s assets. However, if the creditor has a claim against both spouses, it may make a claim to the assets.

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18
Q
The biggest disadvantage of investing in a growth mutual fund is the potential loss of:
QID: 1507328Mark For Review
A
Diversification
B
Income
C
Liquidity
D   
Principal
A

Principal

When an individual invests in a mutual fund that consists primarily of common stocks, his principal is at risk. As the market value of the mutual fund fluctuates over the life of the investment, the result may be a loss of the customer’s principal or investment.

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19
Q
Which of the following choices is an asset class?
QID: 1507079Mark For Review
A
An S&P Index Fund
B
Diamonds
C
Baseball cards
D   
Real estate
A

Real estate

An S&P Index Fund, diamonds, baseball cards, and real estate are all assets; however, real estate is the only one that represents an asset class. For example, a baseball card is an asset but the asset class to which it belongs is collectibles.

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20
Q

An agent of a broker-dealer has written an electronic marketing piece that recommends the purchase of a new investment company which is being offered by his firm. He wants to send it by e-mail to 40 non-institutional clients. If the product is suitable for each client who’s on the agent’s distribution list, which of the following statements is TRUE?
QID: 1506860Mark For Review
A
The content of the e-mail must be filed with the Administrator within 10 business days.
B
The content of the e-mail must be filed with the Administrator 10 business days before it’s sent.
C
The content of the e-mail is not required to be filed with the Administrator because the securities are federal covered.
D
Administrators never require the filing of sales literature or advertisements.

A

The content of the e-mail is not required to be filed with the Administrator because the securities are federal covered.

Advertisements, including standardized emails, are generally required to be filed with the state Administrator before they’re used. However, advertisements for exempt securities and securities that are sold in exempt transactions are not required to be filed. Since registered investment companies are federal covered and exempt from registration with the state Administrator, the agent’s email is not required to be filed.

21
Q

What is the liability for loss for an investor in a limited partnership?
QID: 1506874Mark For Review
A
The amount determined by the general partner
B
The investor’s basis
C
The initial investment requirements
D
A percentage of liabilities allocated by the general partner

A

The investor’s basis

A limited partner’s liability when investing in a partnership is referred to as the investor’s basis. An investor’s basis consists of her initial investment plus any recourse loans (cosigned loans) or profits retained by the partnership that are not distributed. If a partner receives a cash distribution or loss, this would reduce her basis or capital at risk. The general partner may not arbitrarily assign liabilities to investors in a partnership.

22
Q

KiddieLand is a company that operates several theme parks across the United States. Pilar would like to purchase 18 shares of KiddieLand stock for her newborn niece. Her broker-dealer charges a specified minimum ticket amount for small orders. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
QID: 1507351Mark For Review
A
Common stock is a suitable gift for children only if the company pays a dividend
B
The agent should disclose that the commissions charged for this transaction could be unusually large as a percentage of the market price
C
Pilar will need to obtain the custodian’s permission to purchase the stock
D
The agent will need to have Pilar’s written approval since the number of shares is less than 100

A

The agent should disclose that the commissions charged for this transaction could be unusually large as a percentage of the market price

It is considered fraudulent for a broker-dealer to fail to notify a client of larger-than-ordinary commissions or costs. Purchases or sales of a small amount of securities can often lead to larger-than-ordinary costs because of minimum charges assessed for transactions. This can lead to commissions that are large as a percentage of the purchase price. It is not illegal to assess such charges, but it is illegal not to inform the client about them. Charging a client an unreasonable commission is prohibited.

23
Q

Rancho Rio Investments is a single-office investment advisory firm that is based in New Mexico and plans to expand its business to New Jersey. Under the Uniform Securities Act, in which TWO of the following situations is Rancho Rio NOT considered to be an IA in New Jersey?
The firm transacts business only with New Jersey broker-dealers
The firm transacts business in New Jersey, but only with a few employee benefit plans that contain assets under $500,000
The firm’s only business in New Jersey is with 10 or fewer non-institutional customers within a 12-month period
The firm’s only business in New Jersey is with a limited number of federal covered advisers
QID: 1507073Mark For Review
A
I and II only
B
I and IV only
C
II and III only
D
II and IV only

A

I and IV only

Under the Uniform Securities Act, any investment adviser that has no place of business in a given state and whose clients are banks, broker-dealers, investment advisers, and other institutions is exempt from registration in that state. Also, any IA that has no place of business in the state and deals with five or fewer retail customers who are residents of the state within a 12-month period is also exempt. Since this question makes no reference to Rancho Rio having an office in New Jersey, it may transact business with New Jersey institutional investors, such as broker-dealers (choice I) and investment advisers (choice IV), without being registered in New Jersey. To do business with an employee benefit plan in a state without being registered, the plan must have assets of $1 million or more.

24
Q

A technology company’s stock is listed on an exchange and is also traded over-the-counter by a small number of market makers. The stock is considered by the Administrator to be a:
QID: 1507337Mark For Review
A
Non-exempt security and subject to registration by coordination
B
Federal covered security and not subject to registration with the Administrator
C
Federal covered security and subject to registration by qualification
D
Federal covered security and subject to notice filing with the Administrator

A

Federal covered security and not subject to registration with the Administrator

Securities that are listed on the NYSE, Nasdaq, or other national exchanges are considered federal covered securities and exempt from registration with the Administrator. This federal covered status applies regardless of where other trades may take place. Although notice filing does apply to certain federal covered securities, it does not apply to listed securities. Investment company securities and securities that are issued under Regulation D Rule 506 are considered federal covered securities (exempt from state registration), but subject to notice filing.

25
Q
Under the Capital Asset Pricing Model, risk is defined as:
QID: 1507344Mark For Review
A   
Loss of principal
B
Loss of interest
C   
Deviation in returns
D
Failure to accomplish the client's objective
A

Deviation in returns

The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) measures risk using beta to measure systematic risk and alpha to measure nonsystematic risk. Risk is the variance in expected return, not the loss of client funds or failure to meet an objective.

26
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding futures and forward contracts?
QID: 1506870Mark For Review
A
Forward contracts are standardized, and futures contracts are not standardized
B
Both forward contracts and futures contracts are standardized
C
Futures contracts are standardized, and forward contracts are not standardized
D
Neither futures contracts nor forward contracts are standardized

A

Futures contracts are standardized, and forward contracts are not standardized

The terms of a futures contract are standardized and typically trade on an exchange. Forward contracts are privately negotiated between two counter parties and the terms are customized.

27
Q

Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following statements is/are TRUE regarding the registration of securities?
A security is considered registered for one year from the effective date of its registration statement
Once the registration statement is declared effective by the Administrator, the security is considered to be registered as long as the issuer files quarterly and annual financial statements
If the registration statement for a security is declared effective by the Administrator of one state, it is also immediately effective in any state in which an identical registration statement has been filed
The filing of a registration statement may be done by a person other than the issuer
QID: 1507090Mark For Review
A
II only
B
I and IV only
C
I, III, and IV only
D
II, III, and IV only

A

I and IV only

Under the USA, a registration statement is effective for one year from its effective date and may be filed by the issuer, a registered broker-dealer, or any other person on whose behalf the offering is being made. The filing of quarterly and annual financial statements is not a requirement for registration. Also, if an Administrator of one state declares an offering effective, it does not automatically mean that the registration is effective in any other state.

28
Q
An advantage of a Coverdell ESA over a 529 plan is:
QID: 1507104Mark For Review
A
Higher annual contributions
B   
Stronger tax incentives
C   
More investment options
D
No income limit on contributors
A

More investment options

29
Q

Which of the following events would NOT require a public company to file a Form 8-K report?
QID: 1507346Mark For Review
A
A minority owned subsidiary changes locations
B
The auditors of the company resign
C
The company acquires a controlling interest in another company
D
The company merges with another company

A

A minority owned subsidiary changes locations

30
Q

Rather than utilizing a custodian, an investment adviser chooses to maintain custody of customer assets. According to the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, the adviser is required to:
QID: 1507340Mark For Review
A
Verify client funds and submit to an unannounced annual audit by a CPA
B
Submit to an unannounced annual audit by the SEC
C
File Form ADV-E with the SEC
D
Have a qualified custodian verify the clients’ funds and securities

A

Verify client funds and submit to an unannounced annual audit by a CPA

If an IA acts as a qualified custodian and holds customer cash and securities, the assets must be subject to an unannounced annual audit by a CPA (not by the SEC). At the completion of the audit, the CPA (not the IA) must file Form ADV-E.

31
Q

Kevin is an agent of CMP Broker-Dealers which is registered in 10 states. Kevin is currently registered in five states, but only transacts business with institutional clients. Due to recent mergers, some of Kevin’s clients will be relocating to North Carolina and CMP now wants to open a new office there. Kevin will not be moving from his current office in Missouri, a state in which both Kevin and CMP are registered. Under the USA:
QID: 1507353Mark For Review
A
Both Kevin and CMP are required to be registered in North Carolina
B
CMP is required to be registered in North Carolina, but Kevin is not
C
Neither Kevin nor CMP is required to be registered in North Carolina
D
Only Kevin is required to be registered in North Carolina

A

Both Kevin and CMP are required to be registered in North Carolina

This is a tricky question, but the main concept is that a broker-dealer is not required to register in a state if it has “no place of business in the state.” However, since CMP is opening an office in North Carolina, the firm is required to be registered in the state regardless of the type of securities being sold or the types of clients with which it conducts business. Since the broker-dealer will be registered in North Carolina, any agents of that broker-dealer who execute client transactions in that state are also required to be registered, regardless of the types of clients being represented. Although Kevin may not visit or work out of the North Carolina office, since his firm has a place of business there and Kevin will be effecting transactions in the state, he must register.

32
Q
What type of investment company sells its securities exclusively in the primary market, is open-ended, and issues redeemable shares?
QID: 1506901Mark For Review
A
Unit investment trusts
B
Face amount certificates
C
Exchange-traded funds (ETFs)
D   
Mutual funds
A

Mutual funds

33
Q

One of your clients would like to buy 100,000 shares of Smallco Industries, a thinly traded OTC security. You would like to purchase a nominal amount of shares ahead of the client for your own account, since his prior picks have proven to be profitable. Under which of the following conditions is this action acceptable?
QID: 1507080Mark For Review
A
The client has signed the IAR liability waiver
B
The client is made aware of your activities in writing
C
The client is given a reduced commission on the transaction in return for his accommodation
D
Generally, you should never take this action

A

Generally, you should never take this action

Taking this action would constitute an ethical violation. The practice is often referred to as trading ahead of a client. Some practices, even when disclosed, are still considered unethical and should be avoided.

34
Q
Mrs. Smith sets up a grantor trust where the income is used to pay the premiums on her husband's life insurance policy. Mr. and Mrs. Smith file their taxes as married but filing separately. The tax on the income generated by the trust is:
QID: 1506880Mark For Review
a   
Paid by the trust
B
Paid by the husband
C   
Paid by the wife
D
Not taxable, since the proceeds of life insurance are not taxable
A

Paid by the wife

A grantor trust is one in which the grantor retains a right to any income generated by the trust, as well as the power to revoke the trust. The income generated by the trust must be included in the grantor’s taxable income. The grantor is responsible for paying all taxes on any funds the trust distributes or retains for future distribution. For tax purposes, it is irrelevant that the income is used to pay the premiums on insurance policies owned by the grantor or the spouse.

35
Q

Under the USA, which of the following transactions is NOT considered exempt?
QID: 1506893Mark For Review
A
An offering being made to an investment company
B
A transaction by an executor of an estate
C
An unsolicited issuer transaction that is executed through a registered broker-dealer
D
A transaction by a trustee that is involved in a bankruptcy proceeding

A

An unsolicited issuer transaction that is executed through a registered broker-dealer

The USA provides a specific exemption to unsolicited, non-issuer transactions. However, unsolicited issuer transactions that are executed through registered broker-dealers are not given an exemption. Under the Uniform Securities Act, exempt transactions also include any offer to an investment company or other institutional investor as well as a transaction by an executor of an estate or a trustee involved in a bankruptcy.

36
Q

Under the USA, which of the following characteristics is required for a banker’s acceptance to be exempt from registration?
QID: 1507343Mark For Review
A
Maturities of no more than nine months
B
Issued by a blue-chip company
C
Rated in the highest category by at least three ratings companies
D
Minimum denominations of $100,000 or more

A

Maturities of no more than nine months

Short-term, corporate, fixed-income securities such as commercial paper and a banker’s acceptance may qualify as an exempt security. The maximum maturity is nine months. The minimum denomination is $50,000 and it must be rated in one of the three highest rating categories by a nationally recognized statistical rating organization.

37
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding a dollar-weighted rate of return?
It may be used to compare the performance of two money managers.
It is a way of calculating an investor’s internal rate of return.
It takes into consideration the inflows and outflows of cash.
It measures the average return that the client’s investment earned.
QID: 1507084Mark For Review
A
I and II only
B
I, II, and III only
C
II and III only
D
II, III, and IV only

A

II, III, and IV only

Dollar-weighted rates of return are used to calculate a client’s internal rate of return and take into account how much the client earned based on the amount of money invested. This method is not considered a fair way to measure the performance of money managers since they have no control over when their clients invest. Time-weighted averages are used to compare the performance of two money managers.

38
Q
Under IRS rules, which of the following items are exempt from the definition of earned income?
Unemployment benefits
Alimony
Child support
Income received from investments in property
Net earnings from self-employment
QID: 1507335Mark For Review
A   
I, II, and III only
B   
I, II, III, and IV only
C
II, III, IV, and V only
D
I, II, IV, and V only
A

I, II, III, and IV only

39
Q

What information may NOT be part of an investment adviser’s contract with its clients?
QID: 1507072Mark For Review
A
A description of how the client’s transactions will be executed
B
A clause incorporating Part 2 of the adviser’s ADV form into the contract by reference
C
A hedge clause limiting adviser liability except in cases of gross negligence
D
A notification provision stating that the adviser will notify all its clients in case of a change in ownership

A

A hedge clause limiting adviser liability except in cases of gross negligence

The SEC believes that hedge clauses that limit the adviser’s liability or the investor’s potential right of actions against the adviser may violate the antifraud provisions of the Investment Advisers Act.

40
Q

Which of the following statements is accurate regarding dollar cost averaging?
QID: 1506892Mark For Review
A
It is a systematic, fixed-dollar method of investing
B
If employed, the average price will be less than the average cost
C
It can only be set up through a payroll deduction plan
D
The benefits can be obtained if one invests in a money-market fund

A

It is a systematic, fixed-dollar method of investing

41
Q
The S&P 500 is a(an):
QID: 1506811Mark For Review
A
Inflation adjusted index
B
Price-weighted index
C
Time-weighted index
D   
Capitalization-weighted index
A

Capitalization-weighted index

The S&P 500 is a capitalization-weighted index. Indexes that are cap-weighted calculate their value based on the total value of the stocks, rather than the per share price. Market capitalization is determined by multiplying a company’s shares outstanding x the price per share. The Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA) is a price-weighted index.

42
Q

An investment adviser may store its books and records on electronic media if:
QID: 1506881Mark For Review
A
It discloses the format type to the regulators
B
It also makes separate paper copies and stores them separately
C
It provides immediate access to the books and records
D
It discloses to all clients that electronic media storage is used

A

It provides immediate access to the books and records

Using a form of electronic media storage is acceptable provided the records are readily accessible and copies may be created. Electronic records must also be nonerasable, nonrewritable, and tamper-evident.

43
Q

A married couple, who are both 60-years-old, earned $150,000 jointly last year. They each make 401(k) contributions, but want to save more for their retirement. The most suitable type of plan for an IAR to recommend is a:
QID: 1507347Mark For Review
A
Roth IRA, into which each may contribute $7,000 per year
B
Traditional IRA, into which each may contribute $6,000 per year
C
Roth IRA, into which both may contribute $6,000 per year
D
Traditional IRA, into each may contribute $7,000 per year

A

Roth IRA, into which each may contribute $7,000 per year

44
Q
Value stocks are characterized by a:
QID: 1507348Mark For Review
A
Large number of shares outstanding
B
High price/earnings ratio
C   
Low price/earnings ratio
D
Prices less than $20.00 per share
A

Low price/earnings ratio

45
Q

Megamerger is a federal registered investment adviser with offices in all fifty states. John is an investment adviser representative with Megamerger. He is registered in New York where his primary office is located but often travels to New Jersey and uses one of Megamerger’s offices there to conduct business. John:
QID: 1506807Mark For Review
A
Must register in New Jersey unless all of his clients there are institutions
B
Is exempt from registration in New Jersey, since he is only using the office temporarily
C
Must register as an IAR in New Jersey
D
Is exempt from registration, since he is already registered in New York

A

Must register as an IAR in New Jersey

Investment adviser representatives who work for federal covered investment advisers must register in every state in which they maintain a place of business.

46
Q

All of the following statements regarding discounted cash flow are NOT TRUE, EXCEPT:
QID: 1507105Mark For Review
A
It is used to calculate the volatility of the market
B
It is used to determine the attractiveness of an investment
C
It can only be used to determine the value of a bond
D
It can only be used to determine the value of common stock

A

It is used to determine the attractiveness of an investment

Discounted cash flow (DCF) analysis is a method of estimating the fair market price of an investment. If the investment is trading at a value lower than its discounted cash flow value, this would suggest it is attractive or undervalued. Research analysts use discounted cash flow analysis to determine the value of many different investment opportunities in the marketplace.

47
Q

Henry is a trustee for an account that has beneficiaries ranging in age from 2 through 17. Under the Uniform Prudent Investor Act (UPIA), how should the assets of the trust be managed?
QID: 1507087Mark For Review
A
All assets should be invested based on the investment recommendations of the grantor
B
The trust should be managed based on the most conservative beneficiary profile
C
The investment profile of the oldest beneficiary is the determining factor, since she will need the money for college within one year
D
All beneficiaries’ interests should be weighed prior to making any investments

A

All beneficiaries’ interests should be weighed prior to making any investments

48
Q
Under the Uniform Securities Act, in order for an issuer to be eligible to use registration by coordination, the issuer must also register with the SEC under:
QID: 1507332Mark For Review
A
The Investment Company Act of 1940
B   
The Securities Act of 1933
C
The Securities Exchange Act of 1934
D
The Investment Advisers Act of 1940
A

The Securities Act of 1933

49
Q

Which of the following is TRUE concerning the private placement of securities being distributed under Rule 506(c) of Regulation D?
QID: 1506873Mark For Review
A
The securities may only be offered to accredited investors.
B
The securities may only be sold to no more than 35 non-accredited investors.
C
General advertising is prohibited.
D
General advertising is permitted, but all investors must be accredited.

A

General advertising is permitted, but all investors must be accredited.

Under Rule 506(c) of Regulation D, issuers may raise an unlimited amount of capital and they may solicit all types of investors; however, the issuer can only accept accredited investors. In other words, general advertising/solicitation is allowed, but only accredited investors may purchase the securities. Under Regulation D, issuers may also sell securities privately through a 506(b) offering. Two key differences between 506(c) and 506(b) are that 506(b) offerings do not allow for general advertising/solicitation and the issuer may sell to an unlimited number of accredited investors, but no more than 35 non-accredited (yet still sophisticated) investors.