Final Exam 11 Flashcards

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1
Q
If an investment adviser representative is reviewing a client's IRA portfolio, she would be most concerned with the inclusion of which of the following investments?
QID: 1507381Mark For Review
A
ADRs
B   
Municipal bonds
C   
Shares of a growth fund
D
Shares of an REIT
A

Municipal bonds

Although it is not prohibited to place municipal bonds in an IRA, a review of the appropriateness must be performed. Since an IRA is a tax-deferred account, the tax-exempt nature of the municipal bond loses its effectiveness. Instead, the placement of a higher yielding investment is more suitable.

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2
Q
What's a benefit to establishing a business entity as an LLC rather than as a sole proprietorship?
QID: 2101115Mark For Review
A   
Owners can protect their personal assets
B
Tax treatment is the same as for corporations
C
Ease and simplicity of establishment
D
The investor has greater control
A

Owners can protect their personal assets

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3
Q

In the formula Pn = P0(1 + r)n, P0 represents:
QID: 1507066Mark For Review
A
The standard deviation
B
One million dollars in U.S. currency
C
The anticipated original investment amount
D
The returns in excess of expected returns

A

The anticipated original investment amount

The formula Pn = P0(1 + r)n is used to calculate the future value of money. P0 represents the anticipated original investment (at Year 0). Pn represents what an investment will be worth at some point in the future when the effects of compounding are taken into consideration, n represents the number of compounding periods, and r represents the rate of interest.

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4
Q
What's the best indicator of a successful mutual fund?
QID: 2101121Mark For Review
A   
Tenure of the manager
B
The returns of the portfolio over the previous year
C
The fund's expense ratio
D
The turnover rate in the portfolio
A

Tenure of the manager

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5
Q

An investor purchased a 6%, A-rated, corporate bond at par value. After one year, the bond’s total return is actually 6.50%. The most likely reason for this is:
QID: 1507060Mark For Review
A
The credit rating of the bond was lowered, which increased the bond’s yield
B
Market interest rates increased to 6.50% for A-rated issues
C
The investor’s payment of accrued interest at the time of purchase lowered his effective return
D
Interest rates have decreased

A

Interest rates have decreased

The formula for calculating a bond’s total return is interest received, plus appreciation, minus any depreciation, divided by the original cost of the investment. Since the 6% bond was originally purchased at par, but now has a total return of 6.5%, it is indicative of the bond’s value having increased. Based on the inverse relationship between bond prices and interest rates, a bond’s value will increase as market interest rates decrease.

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6
Q

What’s an advantage of a non-qualified retirement plan over a qualified retirement plan?
QID: 2100432Mark For Review
A
Contributions grow on a tax-deferred basis.
B
Contributions are pre-tax, reducing the investor’s gross income.
C
It can be discriminatory.
D
It has a zero-cost basis.

A

It can be discriminatory.

Contributions made to non-qualified retirement plans are not tax-deductible (i.e., they’re funded after-tax). Although some non-qualified retirement plans allow contributions to grow on a tax-deferred basis (e.g., 457 plans), this is not always the case. However, non-qualified plans are not required to be offered to all employees (i.e., they may be discriminatory), which is the main advantage for an employer.

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7
Q

Which trust is the most expensive for a trustee to manage?
QID: 2100460Mark For Review
A
A trust that has several young children as beneficiaries.
B
A trust which has adult beneficiaries.
C
A trust which is created for the privacy of the grantor.
D
A trust which is created for the medical expenses of a beneficiary.

A

A trust that has several young children as beneficiaries.

As it relates to trusts, when children are the beneficiaries, it can be assumed that the trust will need to be managed for a longer period and will incur more costs. The other choices will most likely be closed in a shorter period and be less expensive for the trustee to manage

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8
Q

Which of the following can time-weighted return be used to evaluate?
QID: 2101109Mark For Review
A
The return on the market that exceeds the risk-free rate of return
B
The rate of return an investor will earn if he holds a bond until it matures
C
Comparing the performance of portfolio managers
D
The discount rate that will make future cash flows equal to the present market value of an investment

A

Comparing the performance of portfolio managers

Time-weighted return is used to evaluate the performance of money managers. Time weighted return minimizes the impact of investor deposits and withdrawals, which cannot be controlled by the manager.

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9
Q
An investor purchases a bond that was quoted in terms of its yield-to-call. The best outcome for the investor is:
QID: 2101125Mark For Review
A
Holding the bond until it's called
B
Selling the bond after one year
C   
Holding the bond until it matures
D
Selling the bond immediately
A

Holding the bond until it matures

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10
Q

Which of the following advisers are exempt from registration under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940?
QID: 1507075Mark For Review
A
U.S. government securities advisers
B
Advisers to charities and non-profit organizations
C
Advisers to investment companies
D
Domestic advisers that have fewer than 15 clients

A

U.S. government securities advisers

The IA Act of 1940 provides an exemption for advisers that limit their advice to U.S. government securities. Note, there is no de minimis exemption for domestic advisers. However, there is a de minimis exemption for foreign advisers that have fewer than 15 clients and (1) have no place of business in the state, and (2) have less the $25 million in aggregate assets under management that are attributable to U.S. investors.

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11
Q
Which formula is used to perform discounted cash flow analysis for a bond?
QID: 2101069Mark For Review
A   
Present value
B
Future value
C   
Duration
D
Yield-to-maturity
A

Present value

Discounted cash flow analysis is a method for estimating the current market price of a bond, project, or business. Discounted cash flow analysis involves estimating or projecting future income (i.e., cash flows) and discounting them back to their present value using the present value formula. Duration measures a bond’s risk relative to interest rates and the yield-to-maturity measures a bond’s rate of return.

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12
Q

An agent has been given the login and password for a client’s account. The client has provided written authorization for the agent to login and place trades in the client’s account. This activity is considered:
QID: 2101114Mark For Review
A
Acceptable, provided the authorization was filed with the Administrator.
B
Acceptable, provided the broker-dealer’s policies allow for it.
C
Unacceptable, since it likely violates the terms of service of the broker-dealer’s online account access system.
D
Unacceptable, since it’s strictly prohibited under the Uniform Securities Act.

A

Unacceptable, since it likely violates the terms of service of the broker-dealer’s online account access system.

Since the agent is logging into the website using the client’s credentials, it’s impossible to determine which transactions were entered by the agent and which were entered by the customer. Since broker-dealers cannot identify whether trades were fraudulent, they prohibit the sharing of usernames and passwords in their terms of service.

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13
Q
How do mutual funds report annual returns?
QID: 2100439Mark For Review
A
Arithmetic mean
B   
Total Return
C
Beta
D
Net Asset Value (NAV)
A

Total Return

Mutual funds are required to disclose their returns to their shareholders using the Total Return formula. The NAV is the price of a mutual fund, not a measure of return. Arithmetic mean is simply an average, while beta measures the systematic risk of an investment.

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14
Q
An advisory client believes that the economy is heading into recession. Which of the following is the most appropriate strategy in anticipation of a market decline?
QID: 1507359Mark For Review
A   
Buying index calls
B
Selling index puts
C   
Selling index futures
D
Buying index futures
A

Selling index futures

Selling stock index futures is a bearish strategy which may be used by a speculator or a hedger. The other strategies that are listed are bullish and are not appropriate for an investor who anticipates a market decline.

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15
Q
Jack purchased 100 shares of XTRO at $20. After nine years, he gave the shares to his nephew Sam when the fair market value of XTRO was $16 per share. Sam held the stock for seven months and then sold the shares for $23 per share. What's the tax consequence for Sam?
QID: 1507382Mark For Review
A
Short-term capital gain of $300
B   
Long-term capital gain of $300
C
Short-term capital gain of $700
D   
Long-term capital gain of $700
A

Long-term capital gain of $300

If securities are received as a gift, any tax implication is delayed until the securities are subsequently sold. To determine capital gains, the recipient’s cost basis will either be the donor’s original cost or the fair market value (FMV) at the time of the gift (i.e., dual basis). At the time of the gift, if the securities have appreciated (i.e., FMV > donor’s cost), the recipient will always use the donor’s original cost as her basis. This is the way that most gifts will work. However, in this question, the securities have fallen in value at the time of the gift (i.e., $16 FMV < $20 donor’s cost). As a result, the cost basis is dependent on the sales price. If the sales price was above the donor’s cost (i.e., $23 sales price > $20 donor’s cost), then the donor’s cost will be used as the cost basis. In addition, the donor’s holding period will be used to determine whether there’s a long or short-term holding period. If the sales price was less than the FMV (e.g., $5 sales price < $16 FMV), then the FMV will be used as the cost basis. In addition, the holding period begins one day after the gift is made.

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16
Q
When the beta for a portfolio is 1.0, the portfolio return is 12%. What's the alpha if the portfolio now has a beta of 1.4 and the actual return is 18.8%?
QID: 1507385Mark For Review
A
\+6.80
B
-6.80
C   
\+2.00
D
-2.00
A

+2.00

A portfolio’s alpha is calculated by taking the actual return (which is 18.8% for this question) and subtracting the expected return. A portfolio’s expected return is found by taking the beta and multiplying by the return on the market (i.e., the S&P 500). Although this question doesn’t indicate the return on the market, it does indicate that the expected return is 12% when the beta is 1.0. Since the market has a beta of 1.0, it can be assumed that the return on the market is 12%. Therefore, the expected return on the portfolio is 16.8% (Beta of 1.4 x 12% return on the market). Ultimately, the Alpha is +2% (18.8% actual return - 16.8% expected return).

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17
Q

Which of the following can be included in an investment advisory contract?
QID: 1507389Mark For Review
A
A clause which indemnifies the adviser from any wrongdoing
B
A statement indicating that the IA guarantees performance against a benchmark and, if it is not met, the IA will surrender its fee for that year
C
The fact that conflicts may exist, without disclosing the details of those conflicts
D
That the IA is entitled to a portion of all of its clients’ profits

A

A statement indicating that the IA guarantees performance against a benchmark and, if it is not met, the IA will surrender its fee for that year

Within the contracts that IAs establish with clients, they are prohibited from inserting provisions that would make them blameless for misdeeds (indemnifying clauses), failing to disclose conflicts of interest, and summarily taking a portion of a client’s profits. However, IAs are permitted to structure a contract in such a way that if they do not perform at a given level, they will not earn some of their advisory fee. In this case, they would receive a base fee and a performance adjusted fee; or simply sacrifice some of their fee due to inferior performance. This arrangement is referred to as a fulcrum fee. Although this fee structure is available to advisers in the mutual fund business, it is rarely used.

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18
Q

How does an Administrator determine whether excessive trading has occurred in a customer’s account?
QID: 2101118Mark For Review
A
The client’s financial situation
B
The frequency of unsolicited trades in the account
C
The suitability of solicited trades in the account
D
The suitability of unsolicited trades in the account

A

The suitability of solicited trades in the account

Churning or excessive trading is a prohibited activity. To determine whether churning has occurred, regulators typically examine the suitability of solicited trades (i.e., those which were recommended by agents of a broker-dealer). Unsolicited trades are executed at the client’s own volition, without advice from an agent of a broker-dealer, and are irrelevant for churning determination.

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19
Q
A client purchased orange juice futures at $1.70 per pound. Two months later, if orange juice has increased to $1.95, the client has:
QID: 1507361Mark For Review
A
A gain of $.25 per pound
B   
No realized gain or loss
C   
An option to buy at $1.70
D
An obligation to deliver at $1.70
A

No realized gain or loss

This is a tricky question. Since the question does not indicate that the contract has been closed out, there is no realized gain or loss. However, if the client sells, closing out the position, she would realize a profit if orange juice is trading above $1.70.

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20
Q
Jake purchased a corn futures contract at $1.20 per bushel. At the end of the contract, if the price of corn has fallen to $1.10 per bushel, which of the following statements is TRUE?
QID: 1507362Mark For Review
A
Jake makes delivery.
B   
Jake takes delivery.
C   
The contract expires worthless.
D
Jake neither takes delivery nor makes delivery.
A

Jake takes delivery.

As the purchaser of the contract, Jake has an obligation to take delivery. On the other hand, the party that initially sold the contract has an obligation to make delivery.

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21
Q
A TIPS is issued at par and has a coupon of 4.0%. What's its principal value if the CPI increases 3%?
QID: 2100444Mark For Review
A
$1,040
B
$40
C   
$1,030
D   
$1,070
A

$1,030

TIPS are bonds that are issued by the U.S. Treasury and are designed to protect investors from inflation. When inflation rises, as measured by the Consumer Price Index (CPI), the principal on a TIPS bond will increase by the same amount that the CPI rises. In this question, the bond started with a par (principal) amount of $1,000. If the CPI increases by 3%, the new principal amount is $1,030 ($1,000 x 3% = $30, and $1,000 + $30 = $1,030).

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22
Q
What type of investment analysis uses financial data that's specific to one issuer to make investment decisions?
QID: 2100434Mark For Review
A
Discounted cash flows
B
Odd lot theory
C   
Fundamental analysis
D   
Technical analysis
A

Fundamental analysis

Fundamental analysis involves an analysis of a company’s financial statements (i.e., balance sheets and income statements) in order to make investment decisions. Conversely, technical analysis uses pricing trends and patterns to make investment decisions. Discounted cash flow modeling involves projections of future cash flows (e.g., corporate earnings, bond interest payments) and uses the present value formula to discount them back to their present value.

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23
Q

A client invests $10,000 into Company A, $10,000 into Company B, and $10,000 into Company C.
— Company A’s stock paid a $200 dividend and dropped 20%.
— Company B’s stock paid a $600 dividend and rose 5%.
— Company C’s stock paid no dividend and rose 7%.

What is the client’s total return?

QID: 1507371Mark For Review
A   
-2.9%
B   
0%
C
8%
D
22%
A

0%

Using the total beginning value of all investments, $30,000, the total ending value is $29,200, and the total annual earnings of $800, the client’s total return may be calculated.

29,200 - 30,000 + 800 / 30,000 = 0%

There has been no change in the total value (i.e., the total return is zero) since the decrease in total market value is offset by the amount received in investment income.

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24
Q
What is the motivation behind setting up an UTMA account?
QID: 1507399Mark For Review
A
To fund higher education
B   
To provide gifts to the child/owner
C
For tax savings
D   
To reduce the estate of the donor
A

To provide gifts to the child/owner

Due to the popularity of 529 plans, the effectiveness of custodian accounts has diminished. Any of the earnings that are generated in an UTMA are subject to taxation. The primary purpose for establishing a UTMA is to provide gifts of cash and/or securities for a child’s future benefit.

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25
Q
Value investing is:
QID: 2100433Mark For Review
A   
Risky because it's contrarian
B
Safe because value companies are unlikely to go bankrupt
C
Safe because value companies are profitable
D
Risky because it's always bearish
A

Risky because it’s contrarian

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26
Q
How is surrender value calculated?
QID: 2101122Mark For Review
A
Face value minus surrender value
B
Death benefit minus surrender charges
C
Value at maturity
D   
Cash value minus surrender charges
A

Cash value minus surrender charges

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27
Q
How much will an investor receive from a deferred interest bond at maturity?
QID: 2100465Mark For Review
A
Par Value - Accrued Interest
B
Market Value + Accrued Interest
C
Market Value - Accrued Interest
D   
Par Value + Accrued Interest
A

Par Value + Accrued Interest

Deferred interest bonds—which are also referred to as deferred coupon bonds—don’t pay semi-annual interest. Instead, these bonds pay interest in full at maturity. If an investor owns a 4%, $1,000 par value deferred interest bond that matures in one year, he will receive $1,040 ($1,000 par + $40 interest) at the end of the year.

28
Q

An IAR is assisting an executor with an account in which the prior owner has died. Who has authority to take action in the account?
QID: 2101116Mark For Review
A
A family member who has durable power of attorney
B
The administrator of intestate succession
C
The fiduciary of the estate
D
The investment adviser representative (IAR)

A

The fiduciary of the estate

When a person dies with a will, she has named an executor who will act as a fiduciary for the estate. If a person dies without a will, a court will appoint an administrator to act as a fiduciary for the estate. Notice that the question mentions the term “executor,” which makes fiduciary the best response. Durable powers of attorney don’t remain in effect after a person dies.

29
Q

What’s the formula for calculating total return?
QID: 2100437Mark For Review
A
(Ending Value - Starting Value + Investment Income)/Starting Value
B
Coupon Rate - Inflation Rate
C
(Return on Investments - Risk Free Rate)/Standard Deviation
D
Risk Free Rate + Beta(Return on Market - Risk Free Rate)

A

(Ending Value - Starting Value + Investment Income)/Starting Value

30
Q

Which of the following is NOT defined as an IAR?
QID: 2101113Mark For Review
A
A person who gives advice and is employed by an investment adviser
A
A person who solicits new business for an investment adviser
B
A person that manages portfolios and assets for its clients
D
A person who manages IARs at an investment advisory firm

A

A person that manages portfolios and assets for its clients

This is a challenging question, but three of the choices listed are clearly considered investment adviser representatives (IARs).

On the other hand, a person managing portfolios could be either an individual or a business. Keep in mind, if the person is a business (firm), it’s considered an investment adviser (IA) and not an investment adviser representative (IAR).

31
Q

If a 62-year-old married woman is about to start taking Social Security payments, which of the following is TRUE?
QID: 2100446Mark For Review
A
She locks in the payment she will receive.
B
She can take a spousal benefit, which will grow until age 70.
C
Her payment will decrease if she delays taking benefits.
D
Since she started taking benefits at age 62, she will not receive cost of living adjustments.

A

She locks in the payment she will receive.

An individual may start taking Social Security benefits once she reaches age 62. However, if she waits, she will receive larger payments. Once an individual begins taking benefits, she locks in the base amount that she will receive. The age at which a person begins taking benefits doesn’t prevent her from receiving cost of living adjustments.

32
Q

Which of the following is TRUE if the price of a discount bond falls?
QID: 1507369Mark For Review
A
The spread between the yield-to-maturity and yield-to-call will increase and the yield-to-call will rise.
B
The spread between the yield-to-maturity and yield-to-call will increase and the yield-to-call will fall.
C
The spread between the yield-to-maturity and yield-to-call will decrease and the yield-to-maturity will rise.
D
The spread between the yield-to-maturity and yield-to-call will decrease and the yield-to-maturity will fall.

A

The spread between the yield-to-maturity and yield-to-call will increase and the yield-to-call will rise.

When bond prices fall, both the yield-to-maturity and yield-to-call will rise. Short-term yields will always move more than long-term yields. Since the call date is always before maturity, the yield-to-call is a shorter-term than the yield-to-maturity on the same bond. To summarize, the yield-to-call will always move more than the yield-to-maturity. In this question, the yield-to-call is already higher than the yield-to-maturity since the bond is trading at a discount. When the price falls even further, the yield-to-call will increase more than the yield-to-maturity and therefore the spread between them will increase.

33
Q

When can an agent of a broker-dealer and a client share in an account?
QID: 2100441Mark For Review
A
If the agent and client are family members
B
If the client has $1,000,000 in net worth
C
If the agent is exposed to risk that’s proportionate to his investment in the account
D
The only requirement is for the agent’s supervisor to approve the arrangement

A

If the agent is exposed to risk that’s proportionate to his investment in the account

In order to share in a client’s account, an agent needs to obtain approval from the client and a supervisor of the broker-dealer. In addition, the agent can only take profits in proportion to his investment in the account.

34
Q
Which of the following items is found on a balance sheet?
QID: 2100453Mark For Review
A   
Equipment
B
Interest payments
C
Sales
D   
Expenses of the company
A

Equipment

Equipment is specifically found in the Fixed Assets section of the balance sheet. Each of the other choices are included on a company’s income statement.

35
Q
A 30-year-old client needs protection for his family in the event of his death. Currently, his income is low, but he does want to develop cash value. As he moves forward in his career, he may want access to his cash value and have the ability to adjust the policy as his insurance needs change. Which insurance recommendation is the MOST appropriate?
QID: 1507378Mark For Review
A   
Universal life
B
Term life
C
Whole life
D
Variable life
A

Universal life

Universal life insurance produces cash value which is able to be accessed by a client, while also offering flexibility in regard to premium payment. Unlike whole life, a universal policy’s death benefit can be increased or decreased as the insured’s needs change. Considering the client’s income, a variable policy has too much risk. Although term life insurance is likely the most affordable policy, it doesn’t generate any cash value.

36
Q
Which of the following types of business is often listed on an exchange?
QID: 2100466Mark For Review
A   
Master limited partnership
B
S-Corporation
C   
Limited liability company
D
Sole proprietorship
A

Master limited partnership

Master limited partnerships can be established for businesses operating in commodities or real estate industries. As with limited partnerships, they are owned by limited and general partners and provide for the flow through tax treatment of income. However, master limited partnerships are often listed on national stock exchanges, which offers the partners more liquidity than traditional limited partnerships.

37
Q
Which of the following distribution methods will ensure that each branch of family receives an equal share of an estate?
QID: 2100456Mark For Review
A   
Per capita
B   
Per stirpes
C
Inter vivos
D
Testamentary
A

Per stirpes

Per stirpes distributions are done per branch of a family and, in some instances, members of the same generation of a family will receive different amounts from an estate. A per capita distribution of an estate ensures that each member of a generation will receive the same amount as any other. Inter vivos and testamentary are terms that are associated with trust accounts, but not estates.

38
Q
What type of insurance policies have level premiums and level death benefits?
QID: 2101123Mark For Review
A
Whole life and variable life
B
Universal life and term life
C   
Whole life and universal life
D   
Term life and whole life
A

Term life and whole life

Both term life and whole life insurance policies have fixed premiums and fixed death benefits. On the other hand, the premiums on universal life policies can be changed and the death benefits of variable life policies can fluctuate.

39
Q
FGW Investment Advisers created an aggressive investment strategy that outperformed the market over the past four years. Recently, FGW's performance has been poor which has resulted in a loss of a few clients. In order to maintain the interest of the remaining clients, FGW holds an information session. What economic argument could FGW use to explain the reason for the poor performance?
QID: 1507063Mark For Review
A
The Dow Theory
B   
The Efficient Market Hypothesis
C
The Modern Portfolio Theory
D   
The Capital Asset Pricing Hypothesis
A

The Efficient Market Hypothesis

The Efficient Market Hypothesis states that financial markets are efficient and that the prices of securities reflect all known information and will adjust instantly to reflect any new information. Therefore, outperforming the market over an extended period is unlikely.

40
Q

What does the Sharpe Ratio measure?
QID: 1507387Mark For Review
A
The expected return on an investment versus the actual return
B
A portfolio’s correlation with the market as a whole
C
The expected market price of an asset versus the actual price
D
Return of an asset based on the amount of risk being assumed

A

Return of an asset based on the amount of risk being assumed

The Sharpe Ratio is a risk-adjusted rate of return which measures how much an investor earned on an investment compared with the risk being taken to achieve the return.

41
Q
Carrie has three children and recently lost her husband. Her children each have two children of their own. If Carrie wants to set up a trust which allocates an equal share of her assets to each branch of her family, she should set it up as:
QID: 1507375Mark For Review
A
A bypass trust
B   
A per capita trust
C   
A per stirpes trust
D
A sprinkling trust
A

A per stirpes trust

In a per stirpes distribution, each branch of a family receives an equal share of an estate. In this question, Carrie’s three children represent separate branches of her family. If Carrie dies and her children are still living, each child will receive one-third of her estate. If one of Carrie’s children dies before her, her deceased child’s heirs will equally split thedecedent’s one-third of the estate. On the other hand, a per capital (by head) distribution allocates estate assets to all surviving members equally, regardless of how close or distant the relationship.

42
Q
Which of the following is a leverage ratio?
QID: 2100438Mark For Review
A   
Total Debt/Total Equity
B
Assets - Liabilities
C
Current Assets - Current Liabilities
D
Current Assets/Current Liabilities
A

Total Debt/Total Equity

43
Q
All of the following are needed to perform a discounted cash flow analysis, EXCEPT:
QID: 2101070Mark For Review
A   
Future cash flows
B
Discount rate
C
Par value of the bond
D   
Credit rating of the bond's issuer
A

Credit rating of the bond’s issuer

44
Q
A project manager needs an internal rate of return of 8%. Her evaluation of a proposed project indicates that it has a net present value (NPV) of zero. Based on this information, the project's estimated internal rate of return (IRR) must be:
QID: 1507065Mark For Review
A
Lower than 8%
B   
Equal to 8%
C
Greater than 8%
D
Impossible to determine based on the information provided
A

Equal to 8%

45
Q
Which of the following is suitable for an investor who wants an investment that's marketable, highly liquid, and provides income?
QID: 2101119Mark For Review
A   
Certificate of deposit (CD)
B   
Preferred stock
C
Auction-rate security
D
Index ETF
A

Preferred stock

Preferred stocks provided income in the form of dividends and, since the shares will trade on the same exchange as the issuer’s common stock, they are very liquid. Although ETFs are liquid, ETFs that are based on an index won’t provide much income. Auction-rate securities are illiquid investments. Since the certificate of deposit is not a negotiable CD, it’s not a liquid investment. CDs cannot be bought and/or sold in the market; instead, they can be redeemed prior to maturity with a penalty assessed. Negotiable or marketable CDs (which was not a choice) are liquid investments, but the minimum denomination is $100,000 and they often trade in $1 million denominations.

46
Q

An investment adviser’s (IA’s) only client is a 3(c)(1) fund that has $110 million in assets under management (AUM). Which of the following statements regarding the registration requirements of the IA is TRUE?
QID: 2100461Mark For Review
A
The investment adviser is federally covered and must register with the SEC by filing Form ADV Parts 1 and 2 with the IARD.
B
The investment adviser is an exempt reporting adviser (ERA) and is not required to register with the SEC, but must notice file with the state Administrator(s) and pay a fee.
C
The investment adviser is regulated under the Uniform Securities Act and must register with the state Administrator(s) by filing Form ADV Parts 1 and 2 with the IARD.
D
The investment adviser is not required to register with either the state Administrator(s) or the SEC.

A

The investment adviser is an exempt reporting adviser (ERA) and is not required to register with the SEC, but must notice file with the state Administrator(s) and pay a fee.

The IA is an exempt reporting adviser (ERA) and is exempt from registration, but must notice file with the state Administrator(s) and pay a filing fee. ERAs are exempt from registration with the SEC if they manage private funds that have less than $150 million in AUM. Private funds are typically referred to as hedge funds. Unlike mutual funds, private funds are exempt from SEC registration if they have 100 or fewer investors. This exemption for private funds is provided in Section 3(c)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940.

47
Q

As of the close of business on Monday, a state-regulated IA has fallen below its minimum financial requirement. When must the IA file a statement of financial condition?
QID: 1507062Mark For Review
A
On the business day following the date that it reported the issue to the state Administrator.
B
On the business day following the date that it fell below the minimum.
C
On the business day that the deficiency occurs.
D
No filing is necessary since only federal covered advisers are required to file a statement of financial condition.

A

On the business day following the date that it reported the issue to the state Administrator.

If an IA falls below the minimum financial requirement, it must provide notice to the state Administrator by the next business day. The IA must then file a statement of its financial condition by the next business day after providing notice. The statement of financial condition includes:

  • A trial balance
  • A statement which indicates all client funds or securities which are not segregated
  • A computation of the aggregate amount of client ledger debit balances
  • A statement as to the number of accounts
48
Q

What does a debt-to-equity ratio of 1-to-1 signify?
QID: 2100448Mark For Review
A
The company is highly leveraged
B
The company’s debt is larger than its equity
C
The company’s equity is larger than its debt
D
The company has not utilized any leverage

A

The company is highly leveraged

The debt-to-equity ratio measures the leverage of a company. A normal debt-to-equity ratio can vary depending on the industry; however, a ratio of 1-to-1 or more typically signifies that the company is highly leveraged. Since the debt-to-equity ratio is 1-to-1 in the question, the debt and equity are the exact same amount.

49
Q

The ABC Growth Fund charges a 12b-1 fee. This fee is based on:
QID: 1507365Mark For Review
A
The sales charge assessed when shares are redeemed
B
The fund’s average annual NAV
C
The fund’s POP as of the close of business on the date of purchase
D
The sales charge that the client pays when shares are purchased

A

The fund’s average annual NAV

A 12b-1 fee is assessed against the average annual NAV of a mutual fund and is used to cover the costs associated with promotion, distribution, and the trailing commissions (trailers) that are paid to registered personnel. The 12b-1 fee is a part of the operating expense ratio of a mutual fund and the fee is ultimately paid by the shareholders.

50
Q
Ten years ago, Tom bought 100 shares of ABC stock at $150 ($15,000 basis). Eight years later, ABC stock was trading at $250 and he gave his brother Vince 40 of his shares. Two years later, Tom passed away and Vince inherited Tom's remaining 60 shares when ABC stock was trading at $350. If Vince immediately disposes of all 100 shares at $400, the tax consequences are:
QID: 1507377Mark For Review
A
A long-term capital gain of $15,000
B   
A long-term capital gain of $13,000
C
A long-term capital gain of $25,000
D   
A stepped up basis on all shares
A

A long-term capital gain of $13,000

Vince’s cost basis for the 40 shares that are gifted to him is $150 (Tom’s original cost). Therefore, when these 40 shares are ultimately sold at $400 (two years after receipt), the $250 gain per share x 40 shares equals a $10,000 long-term gain. Vince’s cost basis for the remaining 60 shares is based on the market value at the time of death, which in this case is $350 per share. Since the remaining 60 shares are also being sold at $400, the gain is $3,000 (60 shares x $50 per share). Any securities that are received through inheritance are assigned a long-term holding period. Therefore, the $10,000 gain plus the $3,000 gain are combined to represent a $13,000 long-term capital gain.

51
Q
Which of the following is a measure of risk according to the Modern Portfolio Theory?
QID: 2100463Mark For Review
A
Beta
B   
Standard deviation
C
Alpha
D
Correlation coefficient
A

Standard deviation

52
Q
A dollar-weighted return is also referred to as:
QID: 2101071Mark For Review
a   
Time-weighted return
B   
Internal rate of return
C
Inflation-adjusted or real rate of return
D
Total or holding period return
A

Internal rate of return

A dollar-weighted returns is the same as the internal rate of return (IRR). It represents the discount rate that will make the present value of future cash flows (i.e., interest payments and principal) equal to the current market price (i.e., current value).

53
Q

The Dividend Discount Model is BEST described as:
QID: 1507384Mark For Review
A
A relative valuation model that compares companies in the same sector.
B
A model that determines whether a growth stock is overvalued.
C
A model that determines a stock’s price based on past dividends.
D
A model that determines a stock’s price based on future dividends.

A

A model that determines a stock’s price based on future dividends.

The Dividend Discount Model indicates that the current value of a stock should be based on its future dividends which are discounted to present value. If the current market value of a stock is less than the discounted value of future dividends, it is considered a bargain. From a practical standpoint, the model has value for utility stocks, REITs, and companies that pay steady dividends.

54
Q
A broker-dealer must be registered with:
QID: 1507380Mark For Review
A   
The SEC
B
The MSRB
C   
FINRA
D
BrokerCheck®
A

The SEC

A broker-dealer must be registered with the SEC as well as with any state in which it has retail clients who are residents of the state. The SEC then stipulates that a firm must also be a member of a self-regulatory authority (SRO), such as FINRA, the MSRB, or a registered national securities exchange. Although many broker-dealers are also registered with FINRA, this registration is not specifically required.

55
Q
For estate purposes, which of the following ensures that no grandchild will receive a different amount of the estate than another grandchild?
QID: 2100455Mark For Review
A   
Per capita
B   
Per stirpes
C
Inter vivos
D
Testamentary
A

Per capita

A per capita distribution of an estate ensures that each member of a generation will receive the same amount as any other. Per stirpes distributions are done per branch of a family and, in some instances, members of the same generation of a family will receive different amounts from an estate. Inter vivos and testamentary are terms that are associated with trust accounts, but not estates.

56
Q

Which of the following statements describes a weak form efficient market?
QID: 2101111Mark For Review
A
Past market prices and data are fully reflected in securities prices.
B
All public information, including historical data, is reflected in securities prices.
C
All public and private information is reflected in securities prices.
D
Market prices are rational and based on an assumption that investors will attempt to maximize their potential returns for the risk being assumed.

A

Past market prices and data are fully reflected in securities prices.

The Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH) explains three different forms – strong, semi-strong, and weak form efficiency. In a weak form efficient market, all past prices and data are fully reflected in current prices. In a semi-strong form efficient market, all public data, including historical pricing, is reflected in current prices. In a strong form efficient market, both public and non-public (i.e., inside) information is reflected in current prices. The assumption that investors want to minimize risk and maximize returns is made in the Modern Portfolio Theory, not the Efficient Market Hypothesis.

57
Q
Which of the following investments is acceptable in an IRA?
QID: 1507388Mark For Review
A
Crude oil futures
B
Landscape art
C   
Shares of a REIT
D
Life insurance
A

Shares of a REIT

58
Q
What's the current ratio of a company that has current assets of $10, fixed assets of $20, current liabilities of $5, long-term liabilities of $5, and shareholders' equity of $20?
QID: 2100454Mark For Review
A
5-to-1
B
0.5-to-1
C
0.25-to-1
D   
2-to-1
A

2-to-1

To calculate current ratio, current assets are divided by current liabilities. In this question, the current ratio is 2-to-1 ($10 current assets/$5 current liabilities).

59
Q
What's a benefit of establishing a general partnership compared to establishing an S-corporation?
QID: 2101120Mark For Review
A   
General partnerships don't require incorporation with the state
B
Limited liability for owners
C
Efficient taxation
D
The business can own property
A

General partnerships don’t require incorporation with the state

60
Q
An investor buys a security for $10,000 and the security is redeemable in one year for $10,000. When the investment is redeemed at the end of the year, the owner receives $300 in income. If the CPI over the holding period is 3%, what's the investor's holding period return?
QID: 2100464Mark For Review
A
5%
B
4%
C
0%
D   
3%
A

3%

Holding Period Return is also referred to as Total Return. The formula for Total Return is: (Ending Value - Beginning Value) + Investment Income/Beginning Value. In this question, the investor paid $10,000 and received $10,000 when it was redeemed; therefore, she has no gain or loss. Since she did receive $300 in investment income, her holding period return is 3% ($300/$10,000). Although the question provides the rate of inflation (i.e., CPI = 3%), Holding Period Return isn’t adjusted for inflation and isn’t used in calculating the answer to this question.

61
Q
Net present value is best described as:
QID: 2100458Mark For Review
A   
Cost above present value
B   
Present value above cost
C
Market price above cost
D
Cost above market price
A

Present value above cost

The net present value (NPV) of an investment is the difference between its present value and its costs (i.e., current market price). The present value of an investment is typically found by taking expected benefits (i.e., future cash flows) and discounting them by using the present value formula.

62
Q
Which of the following doesn't appear on a bond confirmation?
QID: 2100445Mark For Review
A
Yield-to-maturity
B   
Current yield
C   
Yield-to-call
D
Par value
A

Current yield

When a customer buys a bond, a broker-dealer must send a trade confirmation which indicates its par value, as well as the lower of the yield-to-call or yield-to-maturity. The bond’s current yield is not required to be disclosed on the confirmation.

63
Q
One of an IAR's clients recently won a lottery and has the option of receiving $100,000 immediately or $150,000 over the next 15 years. What financial concept will help the client make the best decision?
QID: 1507058Mark For Review
A
Modern Portfolio Theory
B
Sharpe Ratio
C   
Capital Asset Pricing Model
D   
Time value of money
A

Time value of money

The best choice between receiving $100,000 today and receiving $150,000 over the next 15 years can be determined by using the time value of money. The time value of money concept can best be summarized with the saying “a dollar received today is worth more than a dollar received tomorrow.” The basic idea is that if a person receives $1 today (or $100,000, in this example), he is able to invest that money. Then, years later, the person would have his original investment plus any earnings (e.g., dividends, interest, or gains) that had been generated.

64
Q
Which of the following business structures allows the pass-through of income and loss to its members on a Form K-1?
QID: 2101067Mark For Review
A
Sole proprietorship
B   
Limited partnership (LP)
C
S-corporation
D   
Limited liability company (LLC)
A

Limited liability company (LLC)

Each of the answer choices provide for the pass-through of income for tax purposes to investors. However, only limited partnerships, LLCs, and S-corporations will report their income on a Form K-1. The reason that LLCs is the answer is because they refer to their owners as members. Owners of an S-corporation are referred to as shareholders, while owners of a limited partnership are referred to as partners.

65
Q

How is a person’s marginal tax bracket determined?
QID: 1507391Mark For Review
A
By examining her pay stub
B
By examining the amount of withholdings on her dividends
C
By applying the taxable equivalent yield formula
D
By reviewing the IRS tax table that’s available on its website

A

By reviewing the IRS tax table that’s available on its website

A taxpayer can research the tax tables on the IRS website. The tax bracket into which a person falls is determined by examining her income less her deductions.

66
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of the NAV for a closed-end fund?
QID: 2100452Mark For Review
a
The NAV fluctuates independently throughout the trading day.
B
The NAV is calculated at the end of every business day.
C
The NAV is the price at which an investor can buy shares.
D
The NAV is the price at which an investor can sell shares.

A

The NAV is calculated at the end of every business day.

As with open-end (mutual) funds, closed-end funds must calculate the NAV of their shares on a daily basis. However, the NAV doesn’t represent the price of fund’s shares; instead, closed-end fund shares trade on the exchange at a price that’s determined by the forces of supply and demand.