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Pathopharm: NAT > Final exam > Flashcards

Final exam Flashcards

1
Q

what is glaucoma

A

optic nerve damage, increases intraocular pressure

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2
Q

what is open angle glaucoma

A

CHRONIC, progressive, insufficient drainage

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3
Q

what drug is used for open angle glaucomas

A

timolol (beta blocker), brimondine, cholingergic agonists

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4
Q

what are the adverse effects of timolol (beta blocker)

A

bradycardia, hypotension, contraindication with asthma (bronchospasm)

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5
Q

what does a cholinergic agonist do

A

constricts pupil and opens up drains

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6
Q

is a cholingeric agonist 1st or 2nd line with open angle

A

second

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7
Q

what is angle closure glaucoma

A

SUDDEN, PAINFUL, displacement of iris (no draining)

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8
Q

what can happen with angle closure glaucoma

A

blindness in 1-2 days if untreated

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9
Q

how do you treat angle closure glaucoma

A

surgery or drugs (mannitol, latanoprost)

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10
Q

what does latanoprost do

A

increases outflow of aqueous humor

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11
Q

what is an adverse effect of latanoprost (prostaglandin)

A

can turn iris brown

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12
Q

which alpha2-adrenegic agonist is for short-term therapy

A

apraclondine: doesn’t cross BBB

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13
Q

what is pilocarpine

A

cholinergic agonist, causes mitosis, emergency treatment for angle closure

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14
Q

adverse effects of pilocarpine

A

retinal detachment

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15
Q

what does dorzolaminde do

A

topical, decreases production, TERATOGENIC, ELECTROLYTE IMBALANCE

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16
Q

what is age related macular degeneration

A

painless, progressive, ELDERLY, blurs central vision

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17
Q

how to manage age related macular degeneration

A

antioxidants + zinc, multiple vitamins

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18
Q

what is restates

A

suppresses immune response

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19
Q

what is fluorescein

A

glows to see if there is something in pt eye

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20
Q

what is acute Otis media

A

middle ear infection

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21
Q

how do you treat Otis media

A

amoxicillin or high dose amoxicillin clarulanate (antibiotic resistant)

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22
Q

why do we not treat minor ear infections in children

A

it increases antibiotic resistance and they will go away on their own

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23
Q

how can breastfeeding help Otis media

A

suckling makes the fluid go out and the antibodies

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24
Q

what is Otis externa

A

outer ear/swimmers ear

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25
Q

how do you prevent Otis externa

A

dry ears good, no qtips, use washcloths, don’t remove ear wax, no ear plugs

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26
Q

what is the function of the skin

A

regulates temp, protects, absorbs, synthesizes vitamin d, first line of defense

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27
Q

what is atopic dermatitis

A

eczema, chronic inflammation of the skin

28
Q

what does atopic dermatitis look like

A

red, pruritic, inherited

29
Q

what is the treatment for atopic dermatitis

A

hydrocortisone cream (glucocorticoid) and prednisone

30
Q

what is psoriasis

A

abnormal T cell activation, SILVERY SCALES

31
Q

what do the nails look like with psoriasis

A

thick, pitted, ridged

32
Q

what does psoriatic arthritis do to psoriasis

A

increases risk for infection

33
Q

what is the treatment for psoriasis

A

glucocorticoids, immunosuppressants, SUNLIGHT

34
Q

what is the immunosuppressant for psoriasis and what do you need to check

A

adalimumab, TB screen, increases chance of lymphoma

35
Q

does the treatments for psoriasis increase risk for cancer

A

yes

36
Q

what is impetigo and who has it

A

staph, autoimmune, infants and children

37
Q

how does impetigo transmit

A

close contact or fomites

38
Q

what does impetigo look like

A

HONEY COLORED CRUSTS

39
Q

how do you treat impetigo

A

topical antibiotics

40
Q

what is varicella zoster virus and how do you get it

A

shingles; have to have chicken pox first

41
Q

what are the symptoms of varicella zoster virus

A

RED RASH, pain, burn, numb, tingle

42
Q

what is special about the red rash with varicella zoster virus

A

never crosses midline, follows the nerve

43
Q

how do you treat varicella zoster virus

A

contact precautions, vaccines, acyclovir (topical)

44
Q

what does acyclovir do to varicella zoster virus

A

shortens duration and severity

45
Q

what is acne

A

bacteria in hair follicles

46
Q

how do you prevent acne

A

wash face 2-3 times a day with soap and water –> benzoyl peroxide –> drugs

47
Q

what does benzoyl peroxide do

A

kills anaerobic p acnes: slowly releases O2, OTC

48
Q

what are the side effects of benzoyl peroxide

A

redness, peeling, skin warmth

49
Q

what is isotretinoin used for

A

cystic acne

50
Q

what happens with accutane/isotretinoin

A

ipledge: take 2 forms of bc

51
Q

what are the adverse effects of isotretinoin

A

teratogenic: birth defects

52
Q

what are the risk factors of skin cancer

A

SUN EXPOSURE: sunscreen + no tanning beds, age, genetics, smoking

53
Q

what does basal cell carcinoma have

A

pearly lesion, Moh’s procedure

54
Q

what is malignant melanoma and tell about it

A

highest metastatic, multicolored + irregular, chemo and surgically removed

55
Q

S+S of UTI

A

polyuria, dysuria, hematuria, cloudy + foul smelling urine, high WBC, confusion (elderly), E. coli

56
Q

risk factors for women for UTI

A

short urethra and close to anus

57
Q

risk factors for men for UTI

A

prostatic hypertrophy and urine retention

58
Q

other risk factors for UTI

A

incotinence, contamination of fecal material

59
Q

how do you prevent UTI

A

wipe front to back, pee after sex, increase H20, good hygiene, no scented soaps, decrease baths

60
Q

what is acute pyelonephritis

A

upper UTI: inflammation of the kidneys

61
Q

what are S+S of acute pyelonephritis

A

flank pain, high fever, dysuria

62
Q

what is acute cystitis

A

lower UTI, bladder and urethra

63
Q

how do you treat acute cystitis

A

nitrofurantoin

64
Q

what are the adverse effects of nitrofurantoin

A

hepatoxic, yellow brown urine, teratogenic, avoid other hepatotoxic meds (acetaminophen)

65
Q

what is contraindicated with nitrofurantoin

A

creatinine clearance (CrCl) levels below 60

66
Q
A

Pathopharm: NAT (7 decks)

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