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BSCI201 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the functions of the nervous system?

A

Sensory input, Integration, Output

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2
Q

T/F Afferent nerves conduct motor signals away from CNS.

A

F; conduct sensory signals towards CNS

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3
Q

What are efferent nerves?

A

motor and effector neurons that conduct signals away from CNS

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4
Q

What are the two parts of the nervous system and what are they composed of?

A

CNS-> Brain and spinal cord, dorsal body cavity surrounded by meninges
PNS -> Spinal nerves, cranial nerves, and sensory receptors

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5
Q

what are the supporting cells of the CNS?

A

Astrocytes -> involved in forming blood-brain barrier
oligodendrocytes -> myelination
Ependymal cells-> line ventricles, create current for CSF
Microglia-> Macrophages

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6
Q

What are the supporting cells of the PNS?

A

Satellite cells
Schwann cells

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7
Q

Label the parts of an action potential, include ion movement patterns at stages of AP

A

Stimulus, Depolarization, Repolarization, Hyperpolarization
absolute refractory period, relative refractory period

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8
Q

Where are ttracts found?

A

CNS

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9
Q

What are some functions of myelin?

A

protection, electrical insulation, increase speed of nerve impulse transmission

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10
Q

How does Novocain work?

A

binds to VG sodium channels to inhibit AP, message of pain can’t be sent. Given as shot to induce local anesthesia

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11
Q

What is propagation?

A

The movement of electrical signals down an axon

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12
Q

What factors impact the speed of propagation?

A

Capacitance of membrane
diameter of axon
resistance to electrical flow

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13
Q

T/F Myelination decreases capacitance and makes propagation faster.

A

T

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14
Q

Will a larger axon or smaller axon exhibit faster propagation?

A

Larger

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15
Q

What is the difference between saltatory and continuous conduction?

A

Saltatory is faster, electrical impulses travel under myelin sheath, action potentials generated at nodes of ranvier. sodium channels only open in nodes of ranvier
continuous is in unmyelinated and you need more action potentials to travel across whole axon

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16
Q

List the types of nerve fibers

A

Group A -> Large and heavily myelinated -> motor neurons, 150 m/s
Group B -> intermediate diameter and lightly myelinated, 15 m/s, preganglionic autonomic fibers
Group C -> smallest diameters and unmyelinated, 1 m/s, postganglionic autonomic fibers

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17
Q

Describe how saxitoxin and anatoxin work.

A

Saxitoxin -> paralytic shellfish poisoning, toxin binds to VG sodium channels and prevents them from opening, when digested and travel through body elicits toxic effects occur
Anatoxin -> irreversibly binds to ACh receptors and muscles constantly contract, involuntary contraction leads to paralysis when we run out of ATP and calcium

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18
Q

Is the onset of rigor mortis sooner with saxitoxin or anatoxin?

A

anatoxin is sooner onset since the stored calcium is used at a higher rate. saxitoxin is same onset as natural causes since the calcium reserve isn’t used

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19
Q

Where is regeneration possible?

A

Axons of the PNS

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20
Q

Why is regeneration only possible in the PNS? (3 reasoons)

A
  1. No Schwann cells in the CNS, Schwann cells/neurilemma form a regeneration tube to guide the growth of new axons
  2. Microglia in the CNS are not as effective at debridement as immune cells in PNS
  3. oligodendrocytes and astrocytes release growth-inhibiting proteins
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21
Q

Describe the regeneration process.

A
  1. Injury to the axon, know that damage continues distally down the axon (nutrients from cell body can’t deliver thru damage)
  2. macrophages clean out the dead axon distal to injury
  3. axon sprouts grow through a regeneration tube
  4. axon regenerates and a new myelin sheath forms
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22
Q

How fast does regenereation occur?

A

1.5 mm a day

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23
Q

What are the protective structures of the spinal cord?

A

vertebral column, meninges, cerebrospinal fluid

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24
Q

Name the three layers of the meninges

A

dura mater (strongest, two layers of fibrous connective tissue
arachnoid mater (middle layer, weblike extensions)
pia mater( delicate, vascularized connective tissue that clings tightly to brain)

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25
Q

What are the functions of cerebrospinal fluid?

A

acts as a liquid cushion
provides nutrients from blood
removes metabolic wastes

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26
Q

What are the 4 protective structures of the brain?

A

Cranium -> 8 cranial bones
Meninges -> 3 layers (dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater)
Cerebrospinal fluid
Blood-brain barrier

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27
Q

What makes the blood-brain barrier a selective barrier?

A

Astrocytic feet create tight junctions, allow for fat-soluable and nutrients to enter through facilitated diffusion.

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28
Q

What is a concussion?

A

violent jarring or shaking that results in a disturbance of brain function

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29
Q

Why does dehydration increase risk of a serious concussion?

A

could reduce CSF and increase risk of shaking or jarring of brain

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30
Q

What is photogenic sneezing?

A

bright light leading to sneezing when the optic nerve is activated due to the nerves close proximity to the trigeminal nerve which triggers sneezing.
activation of trigeminal nerve via optic nerve

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31
Q

Describe basic brain developmennt

A

Neural tube -> primary brain vesicles form -> secondary brain vesicles form -> forebrain grows, at faster rate

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32
Q

Where is contralateral control facilitated?

A

medulla oblongata is where the motor cortex pyramids criss-cross

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33
Q

What is contralateral control?

A

The idea of motor neurons from the right hemisphere of the brain controlling the left side of the body due to criss-crossing of the tracks in the medulla oblongata

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34
Q

What are the three regions of the brrain stem?

A

Midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

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35
Q

What are the four major regions of the brain?

A

Cerebrum, brain stem, cerebellum, diencephalon

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36
Q

What are the types of sensory receptors?

A

photoreceptors, mechanoreceptor, chemoreceptors

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37
Q

What lines the eyelids?

A

palpebral conjunctiva

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38
Q

What covers the white of the eyes?

A

bulbar conjunctiva

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39
Q

List the areas that tears move across.

A

Lacrimal gland -> lacrimal punctum -> canaliculus -> lacrimal sac -> nasolacrimal duct

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40
Q

What are the three layers of the eye?

A

Fibrous, Vascula, Sensory (retina)

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41
Q

What muscle constricts the pupil?

A

sphincter papillae

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42
Q

What muscle dilates the pupil?

A

Dilator papillae

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43
Q

What is the sympathetic contraction of the muscles that control pupil size?

A

dialter papillae, dilation of the pupil

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44
Q

How do you distinguish the pupil from the iiris?

A

Iris is colored region around pupil (space)

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45
Q

In what conditions does the pupil dilate?

A

Distant vision, dim light

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46
Q

In what conditions does the pupil constrict?

A

close vision, bright light

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47
Q

What are the two layers of the retina?

A

Pigmented layer and neural

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48
Q

T/F rods are used for color vision?

A

F; cones used to provide color vision, rods provide images in shades of gray

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49
Q

What do cones of the eye need to operate?

A

Bright light

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50
Q

Are there more rods or cones in our eye?

A

Rods

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51
Q

What is the trichromatic theory of vision?

A

Several colors are seen depending on which/how many of the three types of cones are activated

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52
Q

What are the three types of cones?

A

S(small) -> 420 nm, blue
M (medium) -> 520 nm, green
L (large) -> 560 nm, red

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53
Q

Describe signal transmission within the retina?

A

light hyperpolarizes photoreceptor cells
bipolar cells depolarize and release neurotransmitter on ganglion cells
ganglion cells generate APs that are transmitted in the optic nerve

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54
Q

How are the pathways of electrical signals and light different?

A

They are the opposite of each other

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55
Q

What is the pathway of light?

A

Ganglion -> bipolar cells -> photoreceptors

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56
Q

What is the pathway of electrical signals initiated by lightt

A

photoreceptor -> bipolar cells -> ganglion cells

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57
Q

Describe the process of light pathways triggering changes.

A

light enters cornea and pupil (travels thru aqueous humor)
light passes lens
light bends as it enters cornea and pupil and lens (mostly in lens)
light converges as it moves through posterior segment and vitreous humor, then make contact with retina
ganglion -> bipolar -> photoreceptors
photoreceptors respond, trigger electrical changes
photoreceptors -> bipolar cells -> ganglion -> optic nerve

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58
Q

What is the disc?

A

Location where the optic nerve leaves the eyes, no photoreceptors -> blind spot

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59
Q

Where is light refracted (3 places)

A

at cornea
entering lens
leaving lens

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60
Q

How does the lens refract light upon entering and leaving?

A

Lens is biconvex, transparent, flexible, elastic, avascular

61
Q

What protein makes the lens fibers transparent?

A

crystallin

62
Q

How does the lens change over age?

A

becomes denser, more convex, and less elastic

63
Q

What are two problems of refraction?

A

Myopia (nearsightedness) and hyperopia (farsightedness)

64
Q

Nearsightedness is also known as

A

myopia

65
Q

Farsightedness is also known as

A

hyperopia

66
Q

How is myopia corrected?

A

With a concave lens

67
Q

How is hyperopia corrected?

A

with a convex lens

68
Q

What is cataracts?

A

protein buildup at the lens (impact increases over time)

69
Q

What is the impact of cataracts?

A

lens turns a yellow/brownish color, adds brownish tint to vision

70
Q

What are risk factors of cataracts?

A

Age, DM, smoking, frequent exposure to intense sunlight

71
Q

What is the benefit of having two eyes

A

brain can triangulate image, allowing for depth perception (3-D vision)

72
Q

Why do we see floaters as we age?

A

vitreous humors turns from gel into more of a liquid and shrinks
falls away from retina
cell or debris released in vitreous humor
debris blocks light and casts shadows as photoreceptors are not activated
dark spots in vision

73
Q

What happens at rest in the eye?

A

photoreceptors release glutamate which inhibits bipolar cells from depolarizing which inhibits ganglion cells from depolarizing, leading to no action potentials being sent down the optic nerve

74
Q

What inhibits bipolar cells from depolarizing?

A

Glutamate -> released by photoreceptors at rest (in dark)

75
Q

What happens in the ye and the presence of light?

A

photoreceptors hyperpolarize and stop releasing glutamate, allowing bipolar cells to depolarize, followed by ganglion cells -> APs sent down optic nerve

76
Q

What characteristics of sound waves create a high pitch?

A

short wavelength -> high frequency -> high pitch

77
Q

what contributes to loudness of a sound?

A

High amplitude

78
Q

What are the structures of the ear

A

external (pinna) -> helix, auricle, lobule, external acoustic meatus

79
Q

What divides the external ear and middle ear?

A

Ear drum (tympanic membrane)

80
Q

describe the path of soundwaves that lead to hearing

A

Pinna -> external acoustic meatus -> tympanic membrane vibration -> meatus -> incus-> stapes -> perilymph -> endolymph -> motion between basilar membrane and tectorial membrane -> hair cell movement -> bending of stereo cilia -> potassium channels open -> electrical signals develop and transferred to cochlear nerve

81
Q

Where is perilymph found?

A

scala vestibuli and scala tympani

82
Q

Where is endolymph found?

A

scala media

83
Q

What are the regions of the cochlea?

A

scala vestibuli, scala media, scala tympani

84
Q

What are the two membranes of the scala media?

A

tectorial and basilar membrane, hair cells with stereo cilia in between membranes

85
Q

What is in the endolymph?

A

Large [K+]

86
Q

What is the benefit of having two ears?

A

localization of sound

87
Q

What does localization of sound depend on?

A

relative intensity and relative timing of sound waves reaching both ears

88
Q

What type of receptors help us perceive taste and smell?

A

Chemoreceptors

89
Q

How do chemoreceptors receive signals from odorants?

A

inhaled air with dissolved odor molecules travel through aqueous mucous layer before entering olfactory epithelium

90
Q

what type of neurons are prevalent in olfaction sensations?

A

bipolar

91
Q

What ion channel is open as odorants bind to receptor proteins in olfactory membrane?

A

Na and Ca

92
Q

what is the physiology of smell?

A

dissolved odorants bind to receptor proteins
ion channels open (Na and Ca), thru intermediary steps
depolarization of receptor -> action potential

93
Q

Where are taste buds found ?

A

tops of fungiform papillae
side walls of foliate papillae and vallate papillae

94
Q

T/F specific taste regions are found across the tongue

A

F

95
Q

What are the taste sensations?

A

Sweet -> sugars, alcohol
sour -> hydrogen ions
bitter-> alkaloids
umami -> glutamate and aspartate
salt -> metal ions

96
Q

T/F Mechanisms of taste sensation differ based on the specific taste sensation

A

T

97
Q

What are the other receptors that can impact our taste?

A

Thermoreceptors (heat0
mechanoreceptors (texture)
nociceptors (pain)
olfaction -> via association

98
Q

Why is it harder to taste things when you have a cold?

A

Larger mucous membrane acts as a physical barrier

99
Q

How do hormones elicit reactions

A

Travel through blood stream and bind to target receptor

100
Q

Difference between paracrine and autocrine messengers?

A

Paracrine -> released and travels to neighboring cell
autocrine -> released and binds to same cell

101
Q

What are the types of chemical messagers?

A

paracrine, autocrine, neurotransmitter, neurohormone, hormone, cytokine

102
Q

What are the 4 types of hormone interactions?

A

antagonism, additive, synergism, permissiveness

103
Q

what is an example of synergism?

A

glucagon, cortisol, and epinephrine on blood glucose

104
Q

Example of permissiveness?

A

estrogen needed to express oxytocin and receptors

105
Q

How can the hormones be chemically classified?

A

amino acid base or steroid based

106
Q

Which hormones are lipophilic/hydrophobic

A

steroid hormones

107
Q

which hormones are lipophobic

A

protein hormones arre lipophobic and hydrophillic

108
Q

what factors impact the magnitude of hormone response?

A

concentration of hormone, number of receptors, affinity

109
Q

What factors impact hormone levels?

A

rate of hormone secretion
rate of hormone metabolism
hormone bound to plasma proteins -> longer half-life

110
Q

agonists vs antagonists

A

agonists bind and mimic response, antagonists bind and have no response (block response)

111
Q

How does naloxone help heroin overdose?

A

naloxone is a beta-endorphin antagonist so blocks heroin from binding. higher affinity for naloxone than heroin

112
Q

List the primary endocrine glands (8)

A

hypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, pancreas, gonads, pineal

113
Q

List the secondary endocrine glands

A

heart, kidneys, GI tract, liver, skin, adipose

114
Q

What is released from the hypothalamus?

A

neurohormones that control release of hormones from pituitary

115
Q

Which gland releases FSH?

A

Anterior pituitary -> targets ovaries and testes, triggered by GnRh, helps males develop sperm, females and oocyte

116
Q

Which gland releases LH

A

anterior pituitary, triggered by GnRh, targets ovaries and testes, ovulation in females, sperm testosterone production in males

117
Q

Which gland releases prolactin/

A

anterior pituitary, targets mammary glands, lactation

118
Q

Which gland releases GH

A

Anterior pituitary, dwarfism in hyposecretion, gigantism in hypersecretion in children, acromegaly in hypersecretion in adults

119
Q

Which gland releases ACTH

A

anterior pituitary

120
Q

Which gland releases TSH

A

anterior pituitary

121
Q

Which gland releases ADH

A

posterior pituitary

122
Q

Which gland releases oxytocin

A

posterior pituitary

123
Q

Which gland releases melatonin

A

pineal

124
Q

Which gland releases PTH

A

parathyroid, triggered by low calcium levels, acts to increase calcium levels

125
Q

Which gland releases epinephrine, aldosteorne, corrtisol

A

adrenal

126
Q

Which gland releases glucagon and insulin

A

pancreas

127
Q

Which gland releases ANP

A

heart

128
Q

renin

A

kidneys

129
Q

Which gland releases gastrin and secretin and cholecystokinin

A

GI tract

130
Q

Which gland releases cholecalciferol

A

skin

131
Q

Which gland releases leptin

A

adipose

132
Q

How is balance and equlibirum achieved when we spin and move our head around?

A

semicircular canals that are filled with endolymph causes hairs to bend and activate action potentials

133
Q

What does parkinson’s disease affect

A

substantia nigra which controls basal nuclei

134
Q

What does huntington’s affect

A

basal nuclei

135
Q

What are the parts of the diencephalon?

A

Thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus

136
Q

What does the thalamus do

A

“sorting hat” -> sorts fits and rays inputs

137
Q

what does the hypothalamus do

A

controls autonomic nervous system (BP, Heart rate, pupil size, digestive tract mobility_, perception of emotions, body’s thermostat, hunger/thirst

138
Q

Where is the pineal gland?

A

Epithalamus of diencephalon

139
Q

What divides the left and right hemisphere of the brain?

A

longitudinal fissure

140
Q

What connects the left and right hemispheres of the brain?

A

corpus callosum

141
Q

What divides the temporal lobe from parietal and frontal lobes

A

lateral sulcus

142
Q

what divides the parietal lobe from occipital

A

parieto-occipital sulcus

143
Q

What is an example of an association tract?

A

connection between Broca’s and Wernicke’s

144
Q

Damage to the Broca’s area results in what

A

inability to produce speech, can make sense of language

145
Q

Damage to Werrnicke’s area results in waht

A

can’t make sense of sounds into language but can produce sounds

146
Q

What are the functional areas of the motor areas of the cerebrum

A

primary motor cortex, premotor rcortex, broca’s area, frontal eye field

147
Q

Where is the primary motor cortex found?

A

precentral gyrus

148
Q

What is blocked in Parkinson’s

A

Dopamine from substantia nigra to basal ganglia

BSCI201 (11 decks)

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