Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology > Final exam > Flashcards

Final exam Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

6 groups of microbes

A

Bacteria
Archaea

Fungi
Protozoan
Algae
Small multicellular animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Bacteria

A

Unicellular, prokaryote
Cell wall composed of peptidoglycans

  • Requires sufficient moisture
  • Obtains energy through organic molecules or photosynthesis or inorganic molecules (nitrogen/phosphorus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Archaea

A

Unicellular, prokaryote
Cell wall

  • Found in extreme conditions
  • Not pathogenic to humans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fungi

A

Unicellular/multicellular eukaryotes
Obtains energy by decomposing dead organisms
Can be pathogenic (ringworm)

ex: Mold (multicellular) and Yeast (unicellular)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Protozoa

A

Unicellular eukaryotes
Mobile

Found in water, some live in hosts
AKA: Parasites
Ex: Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Algae

A
  • Unicellular/Multicellular, eukarytotic
  • Photosynthetic (chloroplasts)
  • Important in ecology/enviornment
  • Not usually pathogenic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Algae is not typically _____ but there’s 2 exceptions:

A

Pathogenic

  1. An immunosuppressed person
  2. Algae Bloom
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Small Multicellular Organisms

A
  • Multicellular eukaryotes
  • Adult worms can be visible to the naked eye, but immature stages are microscopic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are Koch’s Postulates?

A
  1. Suspected causative agent must be found in every case of the disease & absent in healthy hosts
  2. Agent must be isolated and grown outside of the host
  3. When agent is introduced to a healthy, susceptible host, the experimental host must get the disease
  4. Same agent must be found in the diseased experimental host
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pasteur

A

Disproved the idea of spontaneous generation/abiogenesis

Found what caused fermentation; discovered process now called “pasteurization”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Lister

A

Antiseptic technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Jenner

A

Responsible for 1st vaccination (against smallpox)

He was aware that infection actually produced immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ehrlich

A

Magic bullets (antibiotics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fleming

A

Discovered the 1st antibiotic to treat disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nightingale

A

Nursing and hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Linneaus

A

Responsible for the binomial system of nomenclature (naming system)
DKPCOF
Genus
Species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Leeuwenhoek

A

“Father of Microbiology”
1st to observe live microorganisms (through his magnifying lenses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Abiogenesis

A

Spontaneous generation theory that living things came from nonliving matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pasteurization

A

Process of heating it just enough to kill spoilage or pathogenic microorganisms.

Doesn’t alter the quality of food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the 4 common processes of all living things?

A

Growth
Reproduction
Responsiveness
Metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The cell wall of a gram-positive bacteria forms a ____, rigid structure. It has many layers of ________, which refers to a chemical molecule that is part ___ and part _______.

A

The cell wall of a gram-positive bacteria forms a thick, rigid structure. It has many layers of peptidoglycan molecules, which refers to a chemical molecule that is part protein and part polysaccharide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Gram-positive bacteria:

The peptidoglycan layer also contains teichoic acid and (1) _____ _____. What does (1)______ ___ do?

A

Lipoteichoic acid

It attaches the cell wall to the cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Gram-positive bacteria:
The ______ part of peptidoglycan consists of long chains of repeating alternating molecules called ___ and ____. The layers are held together by ______ ________.

A

polysaccharide

NAG and NAM

tetrapeptide crossbridges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The cell walls of a gram-negative bacteria consist of a ____ ________ ___ surrounded by an outer membrane. Similar to gram-positive bacteria, they have alternating ___ and ____ structures, but they don’t have ______ _____.

A

The cell walls of a gram-negative bacteria consist of a thin peptidoglycan layer surrounded by an outer membrane. Similar to gram-positive bacteria, they have alternating NAG and NAM structures, but they don’t have lipoteichoic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The outer membrane of a gram-negative bacteria is a _______. Its inner layer is composed of _____ molecules and ____.

A

The outer membrane of a gram-negative bacteria is a bilayer Its inner layer is composed of phospholipid molecules & proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Gram-negative bacteria:
The outer layer of the outer _____ is composed of both phospholipid molecules and ________(___). The lipid portion of LPS is known as _____ __

A

The outer layer of the outer membrane is composed of both phospholipid molecules and lipopolysaccharide (LPS). The lipid portion of LPS is known as lipid A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where is lipid A found?

A

The outer cell membrane of a gram-negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Lipid A is also called an _______ (this is released when the cell ____ and can cause fever, vasodilation, inflammation, shock, and blood clotting)

A

Lipid A is also called an endotoxin (this is released when the cell dies and can cause fever, vasodilation, inflammation, shock, and blood clotting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tetrapeptide cross-bridges connect..

A

NAM to NAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

3 appendages can be found on the exterior of bacterial cell walls:

A

Flagella, Fimbriae, Pili

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Flagella

A
  • Used for movement
  • Basal body attaches hook to a cell wall and cell membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Flagella arrangements

A

Monotrichous: one
Amphiritichous: two on opposite ends
Lophotrichous: 2+ on the same end
Peritrichous: all around/surrounding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Fimbriae and pili are both used for _____ and are made up of protein molecules called ____. What’s the difference between the two?

A

Fimbriae and pili are both used for ATTACHMENT and are made up of protein molecules called PILINS.

Pili attachment is for a specific purpose called conjugation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Types of movement for flagella

A

Runs (propels foward): counterclockwise

Tumbles: Clockwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How are ribosomes different in prokaryotes and eukaryotes

A

Bacteria/prokaryotes have 70S ribosomes while eukaryotes have 80S ribosomes (with 70S only being in mitochondria/chloroplasts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Glycocalyx functions

A

Prevents desiccation (drying out), evade phagocytosis, attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Glycocalyx are found..

A

attached to the outermost layer of the cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Glycocalyx:

If the sticky substance is ____ and ____ attached to the bacterial cell wall, the glycocalyx is described as a _____
v.s
If the sticky substance is ____ and ____ attached to the bacterial cell wall, the glycocalyx is described as a _____

A

Organized and firmly attached = capsule
Unorganized and loosely attached = slime layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The outer cell membrane of bacteria is made up of a cholesterol-like molecule called a

A

Hoponoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

4 comparisons between bacterial (prokaryotic) and eukaryotic cells

A

Bacteria:
No nucleus
Flagella rotate
Cell walls (present in most) contain peptidoglycans
Endospores are present in some

Eukaryotes:
Nucleus
Flagella undulate
Cell walls- present in plants, algae, and fungi- NO peptidoglycans
No endospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

LPS is made up of

A

a lipid on one end and polysaccharide on the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Endospores are considered the _________________________ to ______. Many endospores produce toxins that can cause fatal diseases such as ____ and ____.

A

most difficult biological structure to destroy
anthrax and tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Found in the _______ of some bacteria are endospores, which are used as a ________ strategy against ______ _____, such as when nutrients (especially ___ and ___) are exhausted or if there isn’t sufficient _____.

A

Found in the CYTOPLASM of some bacteria are ENDOSPORES which are used as a DEFENSE strategy against UNFAVORABLE CONDITIONS, such as when nutrients (especially Carbon and Nitrogen) are exhausted or if there isn’t sufficient MOISTURE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Where are endospores found?

A

Cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Endospores are formed by a process called _____ which takes between 8-10 ____. Endospores can remain dormant for thousands of years and when conditions become ___ for growth, endospores ___ to produce new _____ ___ (cells that grow and reproduce).

A

Endospores are formed by a process called SPORULATION which takes between 8-10 HOURS. Endospores can remain dormant for thousands of years and when conditions become FAVORABLE for growth, endospores GERMINATE to produce new VEGETATIVE CELLS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

If the color is in the positive ion, these stains are known as

A

basic dyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

If the color is in the negative ion, these stains are known as

A

acidic dyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Bacterial cells are slightly negatively charged. Based on this information, what type of dye is best used to view bacteria?

A

basic dyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Since acidic dyes carry negative electric charges, and bacteria cells are also negative, they are not ____ to bacterial cells. As a result, it can’t stain the bacterial cells and instead stains the ________

A

Since acidic dyes carry negative electric charges, and bacteria cells are also negative, they are not attracted to bacterial cells. As a result, it can’t stain the bacterial cells and instead stains the background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The procedure of a gram stain
1. _______(a basic dye w purple color) is applied and is referred to as a _____
2. Rinsed off the slide with water
3. Slide is then covered with ____, which is a ______ (purpose is to _______)
4. Next, the slide is washed with ____, a _____ ____. This breaks down the ____ of gram ______ cells.
5. It’s then rinsed off the slide with water, and the slide gets stained with ____ (a basic dye with red color). _______ is referred to as a _________ because it has a contrasting color to the primary stain.

A
  1. CRYSTAL VIOLET (a basic dye w purple color) is applied and is referred to as a PRIMARY STAIN
  2. Rinsed off the slide with water
  3. Slide is then covered with IODINE, which is a MORDANT (purpose is to INTENSIFY the color of the primary stain)
  4. Next, the slide is washed with ALCOHOL, a DECOLORIZING AGENT. This breaks down the cell wall of gram-NEGATIVE cells.
  5. It’s then rinsed off the slide with water, and the slide gets stained with SAFRANIN (a basic dye with red color). SAFRANIN is referred to as a COUNTERSTAIN because it has a contrasting color to the primary stain.
  6. The slide is rinsed with tap water, blotted dry, and observed under the microscope.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

After the primary stain (_____) and the mordant (____) are used…

A

(crystal-violet)
(iodine)
all cells are stained purple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

After the decolorizing agent (____) is used, it removes the _____ ___ from ONLY the ______ ____ _____, making the _____ ______ become ______

A

alcohol
purple color
gram-negative bacteria (2x)
become colorless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

After staining with a counterstain (_____), it turns the ______ gram-____ bacteria ____. Since the gram-____ bacteria retained the original _____ color, they are ___ _______ by the counterstain

A

After staining with a counterstain (SAFRANIN), it turns the COLORLESS gram-NEGATIVE bacteria PINK. Since the gram-POSITIVE bacteria retained the original PURPLE color, they are NOT AFFECTED by the counterstain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Acid-Fast Stain

A

Used for bacteria that have waxy cell walls
Ex: Mycobacterium and Nocardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Metabolic reactions usually involve the movement of electrons (which are ________ of _____). The molecule that is oxidized is the one to _____ the electron and involves _____. The molecule that is reduced ______ the electron and involves _____.

A

Metabolic reactions usually involve the movement of electrons (which are carriers of energy). The molecule that is oxidized is the one to donate the electron and involves loss. The molecule that is reduced accepts the electron and involves gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Phosphorylation is when

A

ATP is regenerated/recycled from ADP and Pi (inorganic phosphate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

3 ways phosphorylation can be accomplished:
(basically, who provides the energy for the third phosphorus? ADP + P —> ATP)

A
  • Substrate-level phosphorylation
  • Oxidative phosphorylation
  • Photophosphorylation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

transfers Pi from an organic molecule
(the bond gets broken)

A

Substrate-level phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Using energy from the redox reaction to add Pi
(there’s no bond to be broken)

A

Oxidative phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Using light energy to add Pi
(no bond broken)

A

Photophosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The overall process of cellular respiration can be summarized as

A

Glycolysis
Krebs Cycle
Electron Transport Chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Glycolysis starting molecule:

ending molecule:

A

starting: Glucose

ending: Pyruvic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What carrier molecule is used during Glycolysis and how many?

A

NADH, 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How much ATP is used in Glycolysis? How much is produced? Net amount?

A

2 ATP is used

4 ATP is produced, 2 net

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Summary of Metabolic Stages:

Glycolysis:_______—> ______
The Preparation stage: _____—> ______
The Krebs Cycle: _______—> ______
The Electron Transport Chain: once ______ _____ electrons, it is _____ to form ____

A

Glycolysis: 1 glucose molecule –> 2 pyruvate molecules
The Preparation stage: each pyruvate molecule—> acetyl CoA molecule
The Krebs Cycle: each acetyl CoA —> CO2
The Electron Transport Chain: once oxygen accepts electrons, it is reduced to form H20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Summary of Energy Yielded:

Glycolysis:
The Preparation Stage:
The Krebs Cycle:
The Electron Transport Chain:
Total:

A

Glycolysis: 2 ATP, 2 NADH
The Preparation Stage: 2 NADH
The Krebs Cycle: 2 ATP, 2 FADH2, 6 NADH
The Electron Transport Chain: 34 ATP
Total: 38 ATP molecules per glucose molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Each molecule of pyruvate coming from glycolysis must first be converted to another chemical called_______

A

acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl CoA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Key concepts of the Krebs Cycle:
Starting molecule?
How many molecules of ATP?
What method of phosphorylation?
How many molecules of FADH2?
How many molecules of NADH?
How many molecules of CO2?

A

Starting molecule?
Acetyl-CoA

How many molecules of ATP? 2

What method of phosphorylation? Substrate level phosphorylation

How many molecules of FADH2? 2

How many molecules of NADH? 6

How many molecules of CO2? 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What method of phosphorylation occurs in the Electron Transport Chain?

A

Oxidative phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Electron Transport Chain:
Each NADH creates __ __
Each FADH creates __ __
In total, there are ___ ATP molecules that can be generated from one ____ ____

A

3 ATP

2 ATP

34 ATP
glucose molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Electron transport chain:
In aerobic respiration, ____ is the final electron acceptor. In anaerobic respiration, it’s an ______ _____ that acts as the final electron acceptor

A

Oxygen

Inorganic molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

2 main pathways of energy production

A

cellular respiration
fermentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Only ____ leads to fermentation, not ____

A

Only yeast leads to fermentation, not bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

End products of fermentation

A

Lactic acid and ethanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How much ATP does fermentation produce?

A

2 atp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When does fermentation occur?

A

When there is an absence of final electron acceptors (no oxygen, no inorganic molecule)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What acts as a final electron acceptor in fermentation?

A

Pyruvic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Metabolism is divided into two types of chemical reactions:

What’s the difference between these two?

A

Catabolic: breaks down large molecules into smaller products, exergonic (releases energy), ex: proteins –> a.a

Anabolic: turns smaller products into large molecules, requires energy to make bonds (endergonic), ex: a.a—> protein or fatty acid –> lipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

To move the electrons around (for oxidation-reduction reactions), a carrier is often used. The important ones are:

The electron is usually associated with a _______ atom since it only has _____ ______. So the carriers pick up and drop off the _____

A

NAD+
NADP+
FAD

The electron is usually associated with a HYDROGEN atom since it only has ONE ELECTRON. So the carriers pick up and drop off the HYDROGENS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Apoenzyme

A

The name of the protein portion when the enzyme is combined with other molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The apoenzyme is ____ if not bound to nonprotein ______

A

inactive
cofactors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Cofactors are ____ molecules, like ___ or ___. If the cofactor is an ______ molecule, it’s called a _____.

A

Cofactors are INORGANIC molecules, like Zn or Fe. If the cofactor is an ORGANIC molecule, it’s called a COENZYME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Important coenzymes:

A

NAD
FAD
CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Holoenzyme

A

Yields from when apoenzyme binds with its cofactors/coenzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

3 basic requirements that all cells need for metabolism:

A

a carbon source, an energy source, and an electron source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Carbon sources and where they get their energy from

A

Autotrophs- CO2
Heterotrophs- organic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Energy sources and where they get their energy from

A

Chemotrophs- organic
Phototrophs- light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Electron (H) sources and where they get their energy from

A

Organotrophs- organic
Lithotrophs- inorganic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Plants and algae are considered

A

photoautotrophic (CO2 and light)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Humans, bacteria, animals, fungi, etc. are considered

A

chemoheterotrophs (both organic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Obligate aerobes

A

Requires oxygen to live and grow
Oxygen is used as the final electron acceptor when making energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Obligate anaerobes

A

Unable to use oxygen for growth because it lacks enzymes (like catalyse)
Oxygen can actually be toxic for them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Facultative anaerobes

A

Prefers oxygen, but can survive without it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Aerotolerant anaerobes

A

Has small levels of enzymes but doesn’t use oxygen
Prefers no oxygen but will tolerate it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Microaerophiles

A

able to survive with low levels of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Nitrogen Fixation- what is it and why is it important?

A

When microbes are able to convert the nitrogen in the air (N2) into NH3
This is essential since it’s providing a usable form of nitrogen for other organisms to use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Complex media

A

Most common, generalized (so most bacteria grow well in complex media)

Ex: Nutrient agar and tryptic soy agar (TSA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Enriched media is also generalized, but with an added ingredient: blood. Enriched media is used to encourage the growth of a particular bacteria species of interest. It’s typically used to cultivate bacteria from samples such as:

A

blood, urine, and sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Examples of selective media

A

Sabouraud dextrose agar
MacConkey agar
EMB agar (Eosin-methylene blue agar)
HE agar (Hektoen enteric agar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Examples of differential media:

A

MacConkey agar
HE agar
Blood agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Sabouraud dextrose agar only selects for

A

the growth of fungi while inhibiting bacterial growth
- supplemented with antibiotics (added ingredient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

MacConkey agar only selects for

A

gram-negative bacteria while inhibiting the growth of gram-positive bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What inhibits the growth of gram-positive bacteria for MacConkey agar?

A

Both bile salts and crystal violet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

EMB agar only selects for

A

the growth of gram-negative bacteria while inhibiting the growth of gram-positive bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What inhibits the growth of gram-positive bacteria for EMB agar?

A

Eosin and methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

HE agar selects for

A

the growth of gram-negative bacteria ONLY while inhibiting the growth of gram-positive bacteria due to its chemical ingredients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What ingredient inhibits gram-positive bacteria for HE agar?

A

only bile salt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

MacConkey agar differentiates whether the bacteria can _______ ______. What color change occurs?

A

ferment lactose = turns pink (G-)
do not ferment lactose = cream (G-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

HE agar differentiates based on

A

lactose fermentation and sulfur utilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What color does lactose-fermenting gram-negative bacteria turn on HE agar?

What about non-lactose fermenting gram-negative bacteria?

A
  1. salmon-orange
  2. retains blue-green color
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

HE agar can differentiate bacteria based on their ability to utilize ____. When hydrogen sulfide reacts with iron, it forms ____ ____ on the HE agar.

A

sulfur
black precipitates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Eosin-Methylene blue is both a selective and differential media. It assesses for lactose fermentation: positive will look ____/____/metallic while negative will have ___ ____/media

A

positive will look purple/black/metallic while negative will have no color/media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is a biofilm?

A

A complex relationship among numerous microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Binary fission steps:

Chromosome _____ (attaches to cell membrane)
Cell ______, ______chromosome
____ cell wall/cell membrane form ____
____ is completed, separating into___ _____ microbes.

A

Chromosome REPLICATES (attaches to cell membrane)
Cell ELONGATES, SEPARATING chromosome
NEW cell wall/cell membrane form SEPTUM
SEPTUM is completed, separating into 2 IDENTICAL microbes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

4 phases of bacterial growth

A

lag phase
log phase
stationary phase
death phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Lag Phase

A
  • Little change in # of microbes
  • Adapting to environment
  • Lasts hours to days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Log Phase

A
  • Exponential growth (2^n)
  • Cells most active
  • Best time to gram stain
  • Best time to assess effectiveness of antibiotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Stationary Phase

A
  • Growth slows
  • Deaths = divisions- equilibrium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Death Phase

A
  • Deaths > divisions
  • Accumulation of wastes, depletion of nutrients, change in pH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

3 groups based on the preferred temperature of a microbe

Which is most likely to be pathogenic and why?

A

Psychrophiles- likes cold
Mesophiles- in between
Thermophiles- likes heat

Mesophiles because they like human temperatures the best

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Care must be taken when culturing a microorganism otherwise contamination may occur. The goal is to culture an Axenic culture. What does axenic mean?

A

Pure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Control plate and nothing grows on it

A

axenic and aseptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Control plate has growth, but only one species of bacteria is growing:

A

axenic but not aseptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Fastidious bacteria are

A

hard to grow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Quorum sensing in a biofilm is responsible for what 4 things?

A
  • Communication between microbes
  • Able to determine population and species of microbes
  • Helps to control certain genes within each microbe
  • Microbes assume specific functions to benefit community
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Blood agar differentiates bacteria based on red blood cell _____, in other words, whether or not a bacteria can _____ (break down) red blood cells.

A

hemolysis
hemolyze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Alpha-hemolysis

A

partially hemolyze (green/gray media)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Beta-hemolysis

A

completely hemolyze
(clear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Gamma-hemolysis

A

unable to hemolyze (no change)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Basically, with each division of binary fission, the population ____. This is represented as __ (indicates _____ growth)

n = generation

A

Basically, with each division of binary fission, the population doubles. This is represented as 2^n (indicates exponential growth)

n = generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Generation Time

A

The time required for a bacterial cell to double (divide)

Most have a doubling time of 1-3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is a plasmid?

A

a small DNA molecule that replicates independently of the other chromosomes often carrying information required for replication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

4 different types of plasmids

A

Fertility
Resistance
Bacteriocin
Virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Fertility

A

instructions for conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Resistance

A

antibiotic resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Bacteriocin

A

kills competitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Virulence

A

enzymes/toxins that enable pathogenicty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Plasmids do not ________________

A

Plasmids do not control normal metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Operons are composed of a

A

a Promoter, a series of genes, and an adjacent regulatory element called an operator.

140
Q

The operator is important in determining when the operon is ______ ______ ______

A

actively producing proteins

141
Q

To start making any gene, you need a

A

promoter

142
Q

The regulatory gene controls the _____ and needs a _____ to start

A

operator, promoter

143
Q

The operator controls the _____

A

operon

144
Q

Lac Operon:
-______, turns __ when conditions are right
-Operon is normally ___ at all other times due to the production of a _______ ____
-Repressor protein blocks the _____
-When lactose is present, the bacteria can now ______ it
-Lactose is converted to ______
-________ _______ ___ ______ _____
-_______ of the lac operon can now occur

A

-Inducable, turns on when conditions are right
-Operon is normally off at all other times due to the production of a repressor protein
-Repressor protein blocks the operator
-When lactose is present, the bacteria can now catabolize it
-Lactose is converted to allolactose
-Allolactose inactivates the repressor protein
-Transcription of the lac operon can now occur

145
Q

Tryptophan Operon:
-_______: turns __ when conditions are favorable
-Operon is normally __, allowing bacteria to make its own tryptophan
-Repressor protein is made continuously but is normally _____
-When _______ is in the environment the repressor is ______
-Turns ___ the _____

A

Repressible: turns off when conditions are favorable
-Operon is normally on, allowing bacteria to make its own tryptophan
-Repressor protein is made continuously but is normally inactive
-When tryptophan is in the environment the repressor is activated
-Turns off the operon

146
Q

Transmission in which the bacteria acquire new genes from the same generation which it can then now pass on to the next generation vertically (gives to their ‘friends’)

A

Horizontal transmission

147
Q

3 methods of horizontal transmission:

A

Transformation
Transduction
Conjugation

148
Q

Transformation is …
The bacteria capable of this are called _____

A

Absorption of DNA from the environment
The bacteria capable of this are called competent

149
Q

Transduction

A

A replicating virus, (called a Bacteriophage-the general term for a virus that attacks the prokaryote), transmits DNA from one cell that is picked up to another

150
Q

Conjugation
-Uses ___ ___
-_____ ___ can be associated with __ ____ OR gene can be _______ ___ ___ ______ (called ___)

A

-Uses sex pilus
-Fertility gene can be associated with F plasmid OR gene can be integrated into the chromosome (called Hfr)

151
Q

Operons that turn genes on in response to changes in the environment are categorized as:

A

Inducable

152
Q

Operons that turn genes off in response to changes in the environment are categorized as:

A

Repressible

153
Q

Physical Methods of Microbial control

A

Moist Heat
Dry Heat
Low Temperature
Desiccation
Filtration
Osmotic Pressure
Radiation

154
Q

Chemical Methods of Microbial control

A

Phenolics
Halogens
Alcohols
Heavy Metals
Surfactants
Oxidizing Agents

155
Q

Sanitation

A

Reducing the # of pathogens

156
Q

Sterilization

A

The removal of all microorganisms, including endospores

157
Q

Disinfection

A

A chemical treatment to kill/inhibit growth on inanimate objects

158
Q

Degerming

A

The mechanical removal of most of the microorganisms in a limited area by scrubbing

159
Q

Phenolics

A
  • Denatures proteins and disrupts the cell membranes
  • Triclosan: phenol and phenolics
  • Found in garbage and diapers
160
Q

Alcohols

A
  • Kill bacteria and fungi but not endospores
  • Denatures proteins and disrupts plasma membrane
161
Q

Halogens

A
  • Damages proteins with denaturation
  • Iodine (oldest/most effective antispetic)
  • Chlorine (disinfects water, present in bleach)
  • Flouride (toothpaste)
  • Bromine (hot tubs)
162
Q

Surfactants-3 types

A

Soap
Acid-anionic detergents
Cationic detergents

163
Q

Surfactants-mechanism of action

A

Disrupts cell membrane

164
Q

Quats are considered a _____ ______. What do Quats do?

A
  1. Cationic detergent
  2. They disrupt the cell membrane and is bacteriocidal except for endospores
165
Q

Other than endospores, what else can Quats not destroy and why?

A

Mycobacteria due to the waxy cell membrane

166
Q

Static

A

inhibits growth but does not kill the microbe

167
Q

Cidal

A

kills the microbe

168
Q

Selective Toxicity (2 things about it)

A
  • Drug will only affect microorganisms without damaging human
  • Mechanism of action will affect cell structure or metabolism but not both
169
Q

5 ways an antimicrobial drug can work:

A
  1. The inhibition of cell wall synthesis
  2. The inhibition of protein synthesis
  3. Disruption of the plasma membrane
  4. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
  5. Inhibiting metabolic pathways
170
Q

All penicillins have a _____ _____ structure containing a _____ _____ _____. So, _____ _____ are..

A

All penicillins have a common core structure containing a beta-lactam ring. So, beta lactams are inhibitors of cell wall synthesis

171
Q

Examples of beta-lactams

A

Penicillin, Penicillin derivatives, and Cephalosporins.

172
Q

Chloramphenicol side effect:

A

bone marrow suppression

173
Q

Aminoglycoside side effects

A
  • Ototoxic (deafness)
  • Nephrotoxic (kidneys)
174
Q

Tetracyclines side effect:

A

Teeth discoloration

175
Q

Azole side effect

A

Hepatotoxic (liver)

176
Q

Macrolides side effect:

A

Heart

177
Q

Inhibiting metabolic pathways:
In order to produce DNA/RNA, bacteria need _____ _____. ____ disrupts DNA/RNA _______, but humans ______________

A

Bacteria need folic acid
- PABA
- Humans do not use PABA and therefore have minimal toxicity to these medications

178
Q

Ergosterol: similar in composition to ________ which is found in _____-_____ bacteria

A

similar in composition to cholesterol which is found in gram negative bacteria

179
Q

Multiple resistance is often referred to as a

A

Superbug

180
Q

Resistance to many drugs simultaneously

A

Multiple resistance

181
Q

Cross-resistance

A

resistance to drugs of similar action

182
Q

The use of antibiotics has not _____ resistance but rather has ______ for it

A

The use of antibiotics has not produced resistance but rather has selected for it

183
Q

Which spectrum of action may allow for secondary or superinfections

A

Broad

184
Q

When a virus particle is located _______ (outside a cell) it is comprised of 2 basic components: a protein coat called a _____ which surrounds a ______ _____ core. There may be a third component, a phospholipid membrane called an ______, surrounding the capsid.

A

When a virus particle is located extracellularly (outside a cell) it is comprised of 2 basic components: a protein coat called a CAPSID which surrounds a nucleic acid core. There may be a third component, a phospholipid membrane called an ENVELOPE, surrounding the capsid.

185
Q

The capsid is composed of protein subunits called ______. The capsomeres are arranged in different ways creating three basic viral shapes. These are:

A

The capsid is composed of protein subunits called CAPSOMERES. The capsomeres are arranged in different ways creating three basic viral shapes. These are:

  1. Helical
  2. Polyhedral
  3. Complex
186
Q

General pattern of a typical virus life cycle:

A
  1. Attachment
  2. Entry of nucleic acids/enzymes
  3. Synthesis of new nucleic acids and capsids
  4. Assembly
  5. Release
187
Q

The general pattern is called ____ _____

A

Lytic replication

188
Q

Some viruses, once intracellular, go into a period of ____ where they remain ____ only to surface at a later date.

A

Some viruses, once intracellular, go into a period of LATENCY where they remain DORMANT only to surface at a later date.

189
Q

Where does the life cycle get altered with latency?

A

A pause occurs between entry and synthesis
1. Attaches
2. Enters
3. Pauses
4. Synsthesis
5. Assembly
6. Release

190
Q

Latency is often represented by the ______ _____

A

Lysogenic replication

191
Q

Prions are a proteinaceous agent and are considered _____ ____ that cause neurologic lesions in ____ ____

A

Prions are a proteinaceous agent and are considered infectious proteins that cause neurologic lesions in multiple species

192
Q

Prions:
- ___ _______
- Can only be destroyed by ______
- Cause for disease development:
- Any pattern to age?
- Any pattern to symptoms?

A
  • No treatment
  • Can only be destroyed by incineration
  • Cause for disease development: inheritance or ingestion
  • Any pattern to age? age-related, 50
  • Any pattern to symptoms? amyloid plaques/ death
193
Q

The prion converts normal ___ cellular PrP into __ (bad). Ultimately, prions ____ _____

A

The prion converts normal alpha cellular PrP into beta (bad). Ultimately, prions don’t replicate

194
Q

T/F- Prions replicate very slowly

A

False, they don’t replicate!

195
Q

Resident microbiota

A
  • Been there since we were born
  • Harmless under normal conditions (non-pathogenic)
196
Q

Transient Microbiota are only _____ and do not persist in body due to 3 things:

A

temporary
1. Elimination by body’s defense cells
2. Hygiene
3. Competition from other microbe

197
Q

Commensalism

A

Benefits microbe, no harm to host
Ex: mites on eyelashes

198
Q

Mutualism

A

Benefits microbe, benefits the host
Ex: E.coli

199
Q

Parasitism

A

Benefits microbe, harms the host
Ex: tapeworm

200
Q

There’s an offset of parasitism called _____ in which there is..

A

Amensalism: no benefit to microbe, but the host is still harmed

201
Q

If the pathogenic microorganism is not a normal microbiota the question is where is the pathogen normally found?

A

Reservoir

202
Q

3 primary reservoirs:

A

Human reservoir
Animal reservoir
Nonliving/environmental reservoir

203
Q

The majority of infections are from ____ ____ due to

A

Human reservoirs due to temp. and species specificity

204
Q

There are three types of asymptomatic carriers:

A
  1. Incubation carriers: not yet showing signs
  2. Convalescent carriers: active stages of recovery
  3. Chronic carriers: recovered but still shedding
205
Q

Types of contact transmission

A

Direct contact transmission
Indirect contact transmission
Droplet transmission

206
Q

Vehicle Transmission-
Vehicle transmission is the spread of pathogen from its reservoir to the host by a _____, such as..

A

Vehicle transmission is the spread of pathogen from its reservoir to the host by a vehicle, such as water, food, or air.

207
Q

Besides the vehicles that we mentioned above (water, food, or air), blood and other ___ ____ can also serve as a vehicle.

A

bodily fluids

208
Q

Vector Transmission-
Vectors are referred to animals that carry pathogens from the _____ to the ___. The most important group of disease vectors are _____, such as flies, mosquitoes, fleas, ticks…etc. Some of these arthropods are ______vectors whereas others are ______vectors.

A

Vectors are referred to animals that carry pathogens from the reservoir to the host. The most important group of disease vectors are arthropods, such as flies, mosquitoes, fleas, ticks…etc. Some of these arthropods are mechanical vectors whereas others are biological vectors

209
Q

Mechanical vectors pick up pathogens on their body parts, such as their feet, and carry them from one place to another. They ____ transmit pathogens present on their body to new hosts. Basically, the pathogens are ___ the bug, not __ it.

A

Mechanical vectors pick up pathogens on their body parts, such as their feet, and carrying them from one place to another. They passively transmit pathogens present on their body to new hosts. Basically, the pathogens are on the bug, not in it.

210
Q

Biological vectors not only carry pathogens from reservoir to the host, but they themselves have also been _____ with the pathogens. Therefore, the pathogens are ___ the bug, not ___ it. Biological vectors usually transmit pathogens by ____

A

Biological vectors not only carry pathogens from reservoir to the host, but they themselves have also been infected with the pathogens. Therefore, the pathogens are in the bug, not on it. Biological vectors usually transmit pathogens by biting

211
Q

If a person coughs and transmits a microbe through a ventilation system it’s ____. However, if they coughed within 3 ft of you, it’s _____

A

Vehicle

Contact

(droplet vs aerosol)

212
Q

List the 5 stages of infectious disease

A
  1. Incubation period
  2. Prodromal period
  3. Illness
  4. Decline
  5. Convalescence
213
Q

Describe the incubation period

A

no signs or symptoms (infected but not affected)

214
Q

Describe the prodromal period

A

vague, general symptoms

215
Q

Illness

A

most severe signs and symptoms

216
Q

Decline

A

declining signs and symptoms

217
Q

Convalescence

A

no signs or symptoms

218
Q

Most of our Resident Microbiota can actually benefit us by a phenomenon called ______ ______(1)

_____ _____(1) is a way for the members of our Resident Microbiota to protect us from these intruders. Microbial antagonism involves _____ between our Resident Microbiota and the invading pathogens. One consequence of such competition is that our Resident Microbiota can protect the host by ______ any invading pathogens coming from outside the human body from establishing their ______

A

Microbial antagonism is a way for the members of our Resident Microbiota to protect us from these intruders. Microbial antagonism involves competition between our Resident Microbiota and the invading pathogens. One consequence of such competition is that our Resident Microbiota can protect the host by preventing any invading pathogens coming from outside the human body from establishing their residence

219
Q

Resident Microbiota normally __ ___ cause disease.
But under certain conditions, some members of our Resident Microbiota can become harmful and cause disease when the proper “_______” arises. These microorganisms are known as _______ _____

A

Resident Microbiota normally do not cause disease.
But under certain conditions, some members of our Resident Microbiota can become harmful and cause disease when the proper “opportunity” arises. These microorganisms are known as opportunistic pathogens.

220
Q

What conditions turn our Resident Microbiota to an opportunistic pathogen?

A
  1. Immune suppression
  2. Stressful conditions
  3. Introduction of resident microbiota into an unusual location
221
Q

Every pathogen must have at least one reservoir. A reservoir is the ___ of a pathogen or the____ ____ of a pathogen. A reservoir is a place for the pathogen to survive, multiply (reproduce), and to stay before and after infecting a host. Some pathogens have more than one reservoir.

A

Every pathogen must have at least one reservoir. A reservoir is the source of a pathogen or the primary habitat of a pathogen. A reservoir is a place for the pathogen to survive, multiply (reproduce), and to stay before and after infecting a host. Some pathogens have more than one reservoir.

222
Q

Zoonoses

A

Diseases that spread from another animal host to humans

223
Q

Zoonoses is acquired through various routes:

A
  1. Direct contact with animals or their waste
  2. Eating affected animals
  3. Blood-sucking anthropods
224
Q

Common portals of entry

A

Skin, Mucous Membranes, Placenta, and Parenteral (blood)

225
Q

The portals of exit are the same as portal of entry (Skin, Mucous Membranes, Placental, and Parenteral) EXCEPT:

A

Placental

226
Q

(Portal of entry)- Majority of infections come from

A

Mucous membranes

227
Q

Signs are ____ manifestations of disease ____ or ____ by others

A

Signs are objective manifestations of disease observed or measured by others

228
Q

Symptoms are ____ characteristics of disease that are ___ by the patient

A

Symptoms are subjective characteristics of disease that are felt by the patient

229
Q

Examples of symptoms

A

pain, headache, fatigue, nausea

230
Q

Examples of signs

A

fever, vomiting, a rash

231
Q

Hereditary

A

Caused by genetics

232
Q

Iatrogenic

A

Caused by a medical procedure

233
Q

Nosocomial

A

Caused by the hospital (hospital aquired)

234
Q

Idiopathic

A

Unknown cause

235
Q

Congenital

A

Present at birth

236
Q

Infectious

A

Caused by a pathogen, bacteria, etc.

237
Q

The CDC (Center for Disease Control) provides weekly reports listing the ______and _________ for numerous diseases. Incidence is the _____ of ____ ____ whereas Prevalence is the _____ ____ of cases. One of the most important diseases in these reports is for ____- ______ _____ _____.

A

The CDC (Center for Disease Control) provides weekly reports listing the INCIDENCE and PREVALENCE for numerous diseases. Incidence is the number of new cases whereas Prevalence is the total number of cases. One of the most important diseases in these reports is for HAI’s- Healthcare Associated Infections.

238
Q

Endemic disease

A

Disease is constantly present (stable)

239
Q

Epidemic disease

A

Larger number of people affected in a short period of time

240
Q

Epidemic disease

A

Larger number of people affected in a short period of time

241
Q

Pandemic disease

A

Occurring in multiple countries within a short period of time

242
Q

Structural barrier-
Microorganisms that form our normal microbiota only live on the surface of our body (it can be either external or internal surface), this body surface is made up of _____ ____. There are two main types of epithelial surfaces: the ____ and the ____

A

Microorganisms that form our normal microbiota only live on the surface of our body (it can be either external or internal surface), this body surface is made up of epithelial cells. There are two main types of epithelial surfaces: the skin and the mucous membrane.

243
Q

(1) The first kind of mechanical barrier is due to the ______ ______ of the epithelial cells lining the surfaces of ____ and ____. These epithelial cells can produce mucus that entraps microorganisms. Cilia on epithelial cells constantly move this mucus toward the mouth, where the mucus along with the trapped microorganisms is swallowed and eliminated

A

The first kind of mechanical barrier is due to the mucociliary movement of the epithelial cells lining the surfaces of nose and throat. These epithelial cells can produce mucus that entraps microorganisms. Cilia on epithelial cells constantly move this mucus toward the mouth, where the mucus along with the trapped microorganisms is swallowed and eliminated

244
Q

(2) The second kind of mechanical barrier is due to the movement of our body fluids (such as blood, urine, tears, semen…..etc). For example, in the ____, the rapid flow of urine washes away most microorganisms that happened to establish residence on the lining of urethra. Another example would be our ___ washing microorganisms off the conjunctiva

A

(2) The second kind of mechanical barrier is due to the movement of our body fluids (such as blood, urine, tears, semen…..etc). For example, in the urethra, the rapid flow of urine washes away most microorganisms that happened to establish residence on the lining of urethra. Another example would be our tears washing microorganisms off the conjunctiva

245
Q

Biochemical barrier (or chemical barrier)-
Biochemical barriers are..

A

chemicals produced by cells on the surface of the human body against microorganisms

246
Q

Examples of biochemical barriers

A
  • Keratin
  • Perspiration
  • Lysozymes
  • Sebum
  • Acids (HCl)
247
Q

Genetic barrier-
Some hosts are..

A

genetically immune to the diseases of other hosts

248
Q

Genetic barrier, Species Specific Exs

A
  • HIV (human) vs FIV (felines
  • Ebola virus
  • Heartworms
249
Q

Innate immunity

A
  • Present and functional at birth
  • Nonspecific
  • No memory
250
Q

Adaptive immunity

A
  • Present and nonfunctional at birth
  • Specific
  • Memory
251
Q

Our body’s second line of defense against microbial invasion or infection has to do with our body’s natural, nonspecific immune responses. These immune responses include four components:

A

inflammation, phagocytosis, interferon, and complement

252
Q

Inflammation can be identified by four classic symptoms: _______________. A fifth symptom, the loss of ____, is often added to these classic symptoms but can be attributed to the swelling and pain.

A

Inflammation can be identified by four classic symptoms: redness, heat, swelling, and pain. A fifth symptom, the loss of function, is often added to these classic symptoms but can be attributed to the swelling and pain.

253
Q

Goals of inflammation:

A
  • Remove the agent causing inflammation
  • Keep damage localized
  • Allow it to heal
  • Alert adaptive immunity
254
Q

3 sequential stages of inflammation (and local or systemic):

A

Vascular Changes (local)
Edema/Swelling (local)
Fever Development (systemic)

255
Q

What does interferon do?

A

Inhibits the reproduction/synthesis of the viruses

256
Q

Interferons are released by a cell once infected to

A

protect neighboring cells

257
Q

Actions of complement / 3 different groups of protein:

A
  • C3a/ C5a
  • C3b
  • C5 - C9
258
Q

C3a/ C5a

A

chemotaxis

259
Q

C3b

A

opsonization

260
Q

C5-C9

A

Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)- actually kills the microbe by punching holes in it, causing lysis

261
Q

5 sequential stages of phagocytosis:

A
  1. Chemotaxis
  2. Ingestion
  3. Fusion
  4. Killing
  5. Elimination
262
Q

Recognition of invader due to signal molecules on the microbe surface

A

Chemotaxis

263
Q

Ingestion- membrane extensions surround microbe forming a ____

A

membrane extensions surround microbe forming a phagosome

264
Q

Fusion-______ fuses with phagosome creating a _______

A

lysosome fuses with phagosome creating a phagolysosome

265
Q

In both types of immunity (humoral/cell-mediated), the attack of the pathogen occurs as a result of the ______ of an ______. The antigen is a molecule that triggers an immune response. The antigen is usually a surface protein however it could also be a carbohydrate or a lipid. There are 3 basic categories of antigens:

A

As a result of the recognition of an antigen
- Exogenous antigens
- Endogenous antigens
- Autoantigens

266
Q

Exogenous antigens

A

found outside a body’s cells (including toxins and other components of microbial cell walls, membranes, flagella, pili)

267
Q

Endogenous antigens

A

produced by microbes that reproduce inside a body’s cells

268
Q

Autoantigens

A

self made antigens

269
Q

2 types of lymphocytes and what they’re responsible for

A

T Lymphocytes (T cells)- responsible for cell-mediated immunity which is a response against intracellular pathogens

B Lymphocytes (B cells)- responsible for humoral immunity which is a response against extracellular pathogens

270
Q

Important points- T Cell Activation:

  • Infected cells are displaying _____ _ ______ antigens
  • APC displays both _____ __ and ____ __
  • Interleukin ____ produced by APC causes Th to become ___
  • Interleukin ___ produced by both Th1 and T8- activates ___
A
  • Infected cells are displaying MHC 1 endogenous antigens
  • APC displays both MHC 1 and MHC 2
  • Interleukin 12 produced by APC causes Th to become Th1
  • Interleukin 2 produced by both Th1 and T8- activates T8
271
Q

Components of T cell Activation

A

Cytotoxic T
Helper T
Memory T
Regulatory T

272
Q

Types of lymphocytes used in B cell activation

A

B lymphocytes
Plasma cells
Helper T
Memory B

273
Q

Key points of B cell Activation:
- _____ (both dendritic and B cell) displays _____
- Interleukin ___ causes Th to become ___
- Interleukin __ from Th also activates ______ to become _____ ____
- _______ made by plasma cells attack _______ antigens

A
  • APC’s (both dendritic and B cell) displays MHC 2
  • Interleukin 4 causes Th to become Th2
  • Interleukin 4 from Th also activates B cell to become plasma cells
  • Antibodies made by plasma cells attack exogenous antigens
274
Q

Remember that B cells are responsible for humoral immunity, which is the

A

production of antibodies to attack extracellular epitopes (exogenous antigens)

275
Q

5 types of antibodies

A

IgG
IgA
IgM
IgE
IgD

276
Q

IgM

A

1st antibody produced; acute

277
Q

IgG

A

most common and longest lasting; chronic

278
Q

IgA

A

associated with body secretions; mucous membranes

279
Q

IgE

A

involved in response to parasitic infections & allergies

280
Q

A child has been infected with pinworms

A

IgG

281
Q

Got the rabies vaccine a year ago

A

IgG

282
Q

Just got coughed on from a person with the flu

A

IgM

283
Q

4 functions/mechanisms of attack for antibodies

A

Phagocytosis
Lysis
Agglutination
Neutralization

284
Q

The molecule that triggers an immune response

A

antigen

285
Q

The antibodies that are produced by plasma cells come in a variety of different forms. The basic structure is a Y shaped molecule composed of __ heavy chains and ___ light chains. Each chain has a ______ region on it that creates an _______ ______ _____ that is ______ for each specific ______. The stem of the Y shaped antibody has some variation that is the premise for the difference between the types of antibody produced.

A

The antibodies that are produced by plasma cells come in a variety of different forms.The basic structure is a Y shaped molecule composed of 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains. Each chain has a variable region on it that creates an ANTIGEN BINDING SITE that is unique for each specific epitope.

286
Q

On the antigens are variable regions called ______. The epitopes have variable shapes, sizes, and complexity. It is the epitope that the immune system recognizes when mounting an attack against the pathogen. Epitopes are only recognized by adaptive immunity cells when carried on _____

A

Epitopes

MHCs

287
Q

Epitope definition

A

3-dimensional regions that recognize antigens

288
Q

Epitopes are recognized by the lymphocytes when displayed as

A

Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) proteins

289
Q

Function of MHCs: ______ and _____ ______ for presentation to _____ ____

A

Holds and positions epitopes for presentation to immune cells

290
Q

Cells that presents the epitope to the lymphocyte is called an

A

Antigen Presenting Cell (APC)

291
Q

MHC 1

A
  • Present on all nucleated cells
  • Fixed cells (stationary, not moving around)
292
Q

MHC 2

A
  • Wandering cells with a nucleus
  • Only present on APCs
293
Q

MHC 2s include

A

macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells

294
Q

Autoantigens are displayed as

A

self MHC’s

295
Q

Endogenous and exogenous antigens are processed into ____ proteins to display _____ ______

Depending on the cell, these can be either ____ __ if a nucleated fixed cell, or ____ _ and ____ __ if an _____ ____ ____

A

are processed into MHC proteins to display foreign epitopes

Depending on the cell, these can be either MHC 1 if a nucleated fixed cell, or MHC 1 and MHC 2 if an antigen presenting cell

296
Q

The interaction between leukocytes and dendritic cells and between different leukocytes requires ________ Costimulation is a result of the surface molecules on each of the cells as well as the release of important chemical molecules. These chemical molecules are referred to as _______

A

The interaction between leukocytes and dendritic cells and between different leukocytes requires COSTIMULATION. Costimulation is a result of the surface molecules on each of the cells as well as the release of important chemical molecules. These chemical molecules are referred to as CYTOKINES

297
Q

Example of a cytokine and what it does

A

Interleukins (ILs): signal among leukocytes

298
Q

Remember that T cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunity, which is the..

A

attack of infected cells

299
Q

As a means of providing protection against pathogens not yet exposed a person can receive a _________, otherwise known as an immunization. The ________ that is administered is intended to be a ______ ______ of the pathogen so as to introduce the individual to specific foreign antigens/epitopes.

A

As a means of providing protection against pathogens not yet exposed a person can receive a VACCINATION, otherwise known as an immunization. The VACCINE that is administered is intended to be a harmless version of the pathogen so as to introduce the individual to specific foreign antigens/epitopes.

300
Q

What’s the goal of vaccines?

A

To provide the individual with memory cells against that epitope

301
Q

What can measure the effectiveness of a vaccine?

A

a titer

302
Q

Titer:
- measures _______ ______in blood serum for a specific ______
- serum being tested is serially diluted and tested for _________ activity
- ______ dilution of serum gives a positive reaction to the titer

A
  • measures antibody levels in blood serum for a specific antigen
  • serum being tested is serially diluted and tested for agglutinating activity
  • highest dilution of serum gives a positive reaction to the titer
303
Q

Basically, the titer is a reflection of _______ The actual antibody level is generally not protective against infection but instead represents the presence of ______ ______

A

Basically, the titer is a reflection of protection. The actual antibody level is generally not protective against infection but instead represents the presence of memory cells.

304
Q

Attenuated vaccine

A
  • modified live
  • uses pathogens with reduced virulence
  • ex: measles, chicken pox
305
Q

Inactivated vaccine

A
  • killed
  • often contains adjuvants (chemicals added to increase antigenicity)
  • ex: rabies, polio
306
Q

Toxoid vaccine

A
  • chemically/thermally modded toxins to stimulate active immunity
  • most useful for some bacterial diseases with exotoxins
  • ex: tetanus
307
Q

What do toxoids work against?

A

exotoxins (not attacking epitopes like others)

308
Q

Subunit vaccine

A
  • Only a portion of microbe is used in vaccine
  • ex: whooping cough, HPV
309
Q

mRNA vaccine

A
  • Only a portion of mRNA is used in vaccine
    ex: covid
310
Q

T/F: Gram-negative bacteria have 2 cell walls

A

False

311
Q

Flatworms and ringworms are

A

small multicellular organisms

312
Q

Where is the electron transport chain located in microbes?

A

Cell membrane

313
Q

What attaches a flagellum to the cell membrane?

A

Basal Body

314
Q

Fermentation is considered to be

A

substrate level fermentation

315
Q

The final electron acceptor for fermentation is ___ ___, but if it’s anaerobic it’s _____ ___

A
  1. Pyruvic acid
  2. Inorganic molecule
316
Q

2 things selective toxicity mean

A
  1. No harm to host
  2. Only one mechanism of action
317
Q

Blocking PABA disrupts metabolism of ___ ___

A

folic acid

318
Q

What is quorum sensing?

A

Communication between microbes

319
Q

Tick transmitted diseases are best treated with what group of antibiotics?

A

Tetracycline

320
Q

T/F: Most illnesses in humans are caused by a single bacterial species

A

False

321
Q

The R plasmid would most likely contain genes for:

A

Penicillinase

322
Q

A microbe that is capable of making organic molecules from CO2 is an

A

autotroph

323
Q

Teeth discoloration

A

Doxycline

324
Q

Joint damage

A

Ciprofloxacin

325
Q

How does using ozone work to sanitize water?

A

Creates free radicals that denature proteins

326
Q

Which is true of an Hfr prokaryote?
Transfers entire chromosome to the recipient
Converts recipient into an Hfr cell
Has an F plasmid
None of the above

A

None of the above

327
Q

May cause mild disease

A

Attenuated

328
Q

Targets a flagella

A

Subunit

329
Q

Inactivated

A

Adjuvant

330
Q

Translation of proteins

A

mRNA

331
Q

Tetanus is a

A

toxoid

332
Q

In cell-mediated immunity, what will be used on APCs

A

Both MHC 1 and MHC 2

333
Q

The surface of which of the following is normally axenic:
Intestines
Nose
Blood
Skin

A

Blood

334
Q

An individual who is recovering from the flu should still stay home to prevent spread because they’re still considered a

A

convalescent carrier

335
Q

Protein molecules that allow resident microbiota to attatch to epithelium surface

A

Adhesins

336
Q

When a virus leaves a cell, taking a portion of the cell membrane with it:

A

Budding

337
Q

An antiphagocytic factor that kills WBCs

A

Leukocidin

338
Q

T/F Viruses synthesize and assemble envelopes prior to release from a cell

A

False (not envelopes)

339
Q

Hepatitis C traveling in the blood to infect liver cells will have ____ ____ on the surface

A

exogenous antigens

340
Q

T/F: Cytotoxic T cells attack infected cells displaying MHC 1 exogenous antigens

A

False- it should say endogenous antigens

341
Q

What is responsible for conjugation?

A

Fertility gene (F factor)

342
Q

What’s the difference between fertility in a plasmid vs in the chromosome?

A

If it’s F+, the recipient who was F- becomes F+ and no other chromosome gets transferred

If it’s Hfr, they stay F-, but the other chromosome does transfer

343
Q

a small DNA molecule that replicates independently of the other chromosomes often carrying information required for replication.

A

plasmid

344
Q

Failure to add iodine

A

All bacteria appear G-

345
Q

Failure to apply decolorizer

A

All bacteria would appear G+

346
Q

Failure to apply safranin

A

G- is colorless and G+ appears purple (unaffected)

347
Q

Reversal of crystal violet and safranin stain

A

All bacteria would appear G+

Microbiology (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions