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Final - All chapters Flashcards

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1
Q

In the presence of oxygen, the _________ effect is amplified with _______ LET radiation.

A

indirect, low

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2
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the multi-target model of cell lethality?

a. The critical target is considered to be the cells RNA.
b. Cells have more than one critical target, each of which has to be inactivated for cell death to occur.
c. The cell can accumulate radiation dose.
d. Only cell death can be measured with accuracy.

A

Cells have more than one critical target, each of which has to be inactivated for cell death to occur.

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3
Q

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about target theory?

The key sensitive target molecule is DNA.
Hits occur only by indirect effect.
Radiation interaction with the targets is random.

A

1 & 3

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4
Q

Which of the following phases of the cell cycle is considered most radioresistant?
a. M phase
b. late S phase
c. G1 phase
d. I phase

A

late S phase

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5
Q

Irradiating human cells with a high LET radiation follows which model?

A

Single target, single hit

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6
Q

T/F: The lethal effects of cell irradiation are measured by cell death.

A

False
Measured by cell survival

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7
Q

Oxygen would enhance the effects of which type of radiation the most?

A

xray

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8
Q

When irradiated with x rays, human cells follow which model?

A

Multi-target, single-hit model

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9
Q

T/F: The effect oxygen has on high LET radiation is considered irrelevant.

A

True

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10
Q

This term is related to a cell’s capacity to recover from a sublethal dose.

A

DQ

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11
Q

This term is referred to as the threshold dose.

A

DQ

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12
Q

This term is represented by the width of the shoulder on a multi-target, single-hit curve.

A

DQ

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13
Q

This term is the dose necessary to reduce the survival rate of a cell population to the equivalent of D37.

A

D0

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14
Q

This term is a statistical measure that refers to a radiation dose level sufficient enough to kill 63% of cells in a population.

A

D37

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15
Q

This term is constant to cell radiosensitivity.

A

D0

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16
Q

This term is also known as the mean lethal dose.

A

D0

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17
Q

T/F: Grenz rays were a type of x-ray that were used to treat cancer.

A

False

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18
Q

What is the SED50 for humans?

A

5 Gy

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19
Q

T/F: The latent period occurs right after an acute exposure to radiation.

A

False

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20
Q

This type of multi-hit chromosome aberration occurs when adjacent chromosomes suffer one hit each and recombine with each other:

A

Dicentric

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21
Q

T/F: The LD50/30 is the amount of radiation to kill 30% of the population in 50 days.

A

False

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22
Q

T/F: Isochromatids are the least common type of single-hit aberration.

A

True

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23
Q

Which of the following is not a type of acute radiation sickness:

a. Hematologic syndrome
b. CNS syndrome
c. Hematopoietic syndrome
d. GI syndrome

A

c. Hematopoietic syndrome

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24
Q

Another name for deterministic effects is:

A

nonstochastic

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25
Q

This mean survival time for which type(s) of acute radiation syndrome is dose dependent:

Hematologic syndrome
Gastrointestinal syndrome
Central Nervous System syndrome

A

1 & 3

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26
Q

Ovaries and testes respond differently to radiation exposure because of:

A

gametogenesis

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27
Q

T/F: A dose of 5 Gy to the testes would result in temporary sterility.

A

False

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28
Q

________ desquamation is considered the clinical tolerance for radiation therapy.

A

Moist

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29
Q

T/F: Acute radiation lethality follows a non-linear, threshold curve.

A

True

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30
Q

What is the correct order in which the following will occur after an acute exposure to radiation:

Manifest Illness
Prodromal period
Latent period

A

2
3
1

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31
Q

T/F: Multi-hit chromosome aberrations are observed at rapidly increasing levels in exposures greater than 1 Gy.

A

True

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32
Q

Erythrocytes are _________ sensitive to radiation because of their longer life span.

A

less

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33
Q

What is the LD50/60 for humans:

A

3.5 Gy

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34
Q

In which of the following multi-hit chromosome aberration is DNA actually re-arranged:

a. Ring
b. Dicentric
c. Reciprocal Translocation
d. Separation of Bases

A

c. Reciprocal Translocation

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35
Q

T/F: Lymphocytes are the human cell type that is most commonly used for cytogenic analysis.

A

True

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36
Q

Requires a dose of .01 Gy

A

Delay of Menstruation

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37
Q

Requires a dose of 10 to 50 Gy

A

G.I. Syndrome

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38
Q

Requires a dose of 2 to 10 Gy

A

Hematologic Syndrome

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39
Q

Has a mean survival time that remains constant

A

G.I. Syndrome

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40
Q

Requires a dose of 5 Gy

A

Permanent Sterility

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41
Q

Requires a dose of > 50 Gy

A

CNS Syndrome

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42
Q

T/F: The diagnostic beam always results in whole body exposure.

A

False

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43
Q

The two most radiosensitive cells are:

A

lymphocytes and spermatogonia

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44
Q

Multi-hit chromosome aberrations follow which dose response curve:

A

non-linear, non- threshold

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45
Q

Which of the following is the most radiosensitive period for a fetus?

A

1st trimester

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46
Q

What is the latent period for radiation-induced leukemia?

A

4 - 7 years

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47
Q

The latent period range for radiation induced cataracts is?

A

5 - 30 years, with an average of 15 years

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48
Q

The BEIR committee concluded that less than _____ may not be harmful.

A

0.1 Gy/yr

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49
Q

Radium watch dial painters in the 1920s and 1930s demonstrated which type of cancer?

A

Bone

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50
Q

Cataracts follow which type of dose response relationship?

A

nonlinear, threshold

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51
Q

The amount of radiation exposure that causes twice the frequency of a genetic mutation in a population is called?

A

Doubling Dose

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52
Q

In which of the following populations has Leukemia been observed:

1.Radiologists
2.Ankylosing Spondylitis Patients
3.TB Patients

A

1 & 2

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53
Q

Which of the following terms describes radiation damage which increases the probability of causing a late effect, but will not increase the severity of the effect?

a. Non-stochastic
b. Congenital
c. Chronic
d. Stochastic

A

d. Stochastic

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54
Q

A fetus receives .02 Gy of radiation exposure during the first two weeks of gestation and a spontaneous abortion did not result. What would the most likely response would be?

A

Nothing

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55
Q

What is the minimum radiation dose below which no genetic or cancer effects would occur?

A

No such levels

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56
Q

Radiation induced skin cancer follows a ___________ dose response relationship.

A

threshold

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57
Q

What is the best estimate for radiation-induced life-span shortening?

A

10 days/0.01 Gy

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58
Q

Miners developed lung cancer after being exposed to which type of radiation?

A

Radon

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59
Q

T/F: Radiation induced mutations are recessive.

A

True

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60
Q

T/F: Liver cancer was observed in patients that received Conray, a contrast agent used in angiography studies.

A

False

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61
Q

T/F: There is strong evidence that links radiation exposure to genetic effects in humans.

A

False

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62
Q

Radiation-induced leukemia follows a _________, ________ dose response curve.

A

linear, non-threshold

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63
Q

Which of the following statements regarding stochastic effects is false?

a. They are also known as late term effects.
b. They follow a linear, threshold dose response curve.
c. They are chronic in nature.
d. All the statements are false.

A

b. They follow a linear, threshold dose response curve.

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64
Q

The difference between observed cases and expected cases best defines:

A

Excess risk

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65
Q

If a technologist is exposed to 4 mGy/hr for 45 minutes during a fluoroscopy exam, what will her total exposure be?

A

3 mGy

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66
Q

The NCRP is the:

A

National Council of Radiation Protection

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67
Q

When using the inverse square law during fluoroscopy, the patient should be considered a/an _____________ source of radiation.

A

point

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68
Q

Exposure is measured by multiplying ______________ by ________________.

A

exposure rate, exposure time

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69
Q

The best approach to manage occupational radiation exposure is to:

A

Follow the concept of ALARA

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70
Q

T/F: Effective dose is the equivalent to whole-body dose.

A

True

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71
Q

The first radiation health physicists worked with:

A

the atom bomb

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72
Q

T/F: Dose to an individual is directly related to technique used, not to duration of exposure.

A

False

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73
Q

Health physics is concerned with minimizing radiation dose to:

a. radiation physicists
b. all of the above
c. the public
d. radiation workers

A

b. all of the above

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74
Q

T/F: TVL is defined as the thickness of absorber that reduces radiation intensity to 1/8th its original value.

A

False

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75
Q

If a technologist is receiving2 mGy/hr standing 1 foot from the patient during fluoroscopy what is his rate of exposure when he steps back to a; distance of 2 feet from the patient?

A

.50 mGy/hr

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76
Q

The three cardinal principals of radiation protection involve:

A

time, distance and shielding

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77
Q

T/F: he concept of effective dose accounts for the relative radiosensitivity of various tissues and organs.

A

True

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78
Q

T/F: Equivalent whole-body dose is the weighted average of the radiation dose to various organs and tissues.

A

True

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79
Q

The assumed constant Kilovolt Peak for diagnostic imaging is?

A

100kVp

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80
Q

How tall must primary protective barriers be?

A

7’

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81
Q

The maximum variation in linearity is +/-:

A

10%

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82
Q

Reproducibility of output intensity should be accurate to within +/-:

A

5%

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83
Q

T/F: The quality control area of an imaging department would be considered an uncontrolled area:

A

False

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84
Q

The exposure switch for portable x-ray machines should be on a cord that is at least ________ long.

A

1.8 m (6’)

85
Q

Radiologic Technologists receive: most of their occupational dose from:

A

fluoroscopic exams

86
Q

The light localized variable aperture collimator must be accurate to within +/-:

A

2% of the SID.

87
Q

Which type of dosimeter uses Lithium Fluoride (LiF) as its phosphor?

A

Thermoluminescent Dosimeter (TLD)

88
Q

Primary protective barriers must consist of ______ “ of lead or _____ “ of masonry:

A

1/16
4

89
Q

T/F: The two types of primary radiation are scatter and leakage.

A

False

90
Q

T/F: In fluoroscopy, the x-ray beam intensity at the tabletop should not exceed 2.1 mR/min for each mA of operation at 80 kVp

A

True

91
Q

The bucky slot cover should have a total lead equivalent of:

A

.25mm

92
Q

T/F: A secondary barrier always has a use factor (U) of 1:

A

True

93
Q

A cumulative timer in fluoroscopy should produce an audible or visual signal when _______ of cumulative beam on time has been reached.

A

5 mins

94
Q

Which of the following is not considered a type of gas-filled detector?

a. proportional counter
b. scintillation detector
c. Geiger-Muller counter
d. ionization chamber

A

b. scintillation detector

95
Q

The level of radiation activity of a room best defines:

A

workload

96
Q

The protective tube housing keeps leakage radiation to less than:

A

1 mGy/hr at 1 meter

97
Q

The minimum SSD for stationary fluoroscopy is:

A

15”

98
Q

Which of the following fall under the “frequent” level of occupancy?
1. corridors
2. work areas
3. waiting rooms
4. restrooms

A

1 and 4 only

99
Q

The minimum amount of filtration for fluoroscopy is:

A

2.5 mm Al eq.

100
Q

T/F: An optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter can detect radiation doses as low as 1 mrem.

A

True

101
Q

The most common way to report patient dose from diagnostic x-rays is:

A

entrance skin exposure

102
Q

Medical imaging that captures the remnant beam to produce the image is now termed:

A

projection imaging

103
Q

T/F: Mean Marrow Dose levels for children are higher than that of adults.

A

False

104
Q

T/F: Alternate nonionizing modalities should only be an option when the dealing with a pregnant patient.

A

False

105
Q

T/F: Mean Marrow Dose is a concept used to estimate the risk of radiation induced leukemia in a population.

A

True

106
Q

Any time a patient receives a skin dose exceeding ___ Gy, it is referred to as a sentinel event and must be reported.

A

15

107
Q

The type of radiation monitor most frequently used to measure patient exposure is the:

A

TLD

108
Q

For the average fluoroscopy exam, the ESE is:

A

40 mGy/min

109
Q

Which method of ESD measurement uses a family of curves to estimate patient exposure:

A

nomogram

110
Q

Which of the following are ways in which patient dose may be expressed:
1. Bone Marrow Dose
2. Entrance Skin Exposure
3. Gonadal Dose
4.Tissue Dose

A
111
Q

In the U.S. the Genetically Significant Dose from diagnostic x-ray is:

A

0.2 mGy/yr

112
Q

T/F: Digital Radiographic Tomosynthesis can take 6-10 exposures with approximately the same patient dose as a single digital radiograph.

A

True

113
Q

Which of the following is the easiest measure of patient dose to estimate:

A

entrance skin exposure

114
Q

T/F: Bone marrow dose cannot be measured and is estimated from ESE.

A

True

115
Q

The average ESD per view for mammography is:

A

8 mGy/view

116
Q

Which of the following are reasons that extremity radiography is not a high radiation dose concern:

No gonadal exposure
Use of low technique
Minimal contribution to MMD

A

1, 2, & 3

117
Q

In order to reduce patient dose, we should use the ___ kVp, ___ mAs, and the ___ screen speed.

A

highest, lowest, fastest

118
Q

The 100-250 Gy Rule applies to:

A

the unknowingly pregnant patient

119
Q

A .5mm Pb shield will reduce a 75 kVp beam by:

A

88%

120
Q

T/F: Shielding should only be utilized for patients that are of childbearing years.

A

False

121
Q

In contact mammography, the ESE should not exceed _______ mGy per view.

A

1mGy

122
Q

T/F: In order to elicit a fetal response to radiation, the fetal dose must be above 250 mGy.

A

True

123
Q

The ACR Appropriateness Criteria is based on:

A

effective dose

124
Q

All of the following are particularly sensitive organs that require shielding when in or near the primary beam except the:

A. breast tissue
B. thymus gland
C. lens of the eye
D. gonads

A

B. thymus gland

125
Q

By positioning a patient PA, we reduce the dose to the breast tissue to approximately ________ of the AP projection

A

1%

126
Q

The NCRP has determined that medical dose to the average US citizen has increased to ___ mSv per year.

A

3.2

127
Q

As technologists, we should shoot for a repeat rate no higher than:

A

5%

128
Q

Glandular Dose in Mammography is estimated to be ______ of the ESD.

A

15%

129
Q

The high dose effect that would occur at a dose of 2 to 6 Gy is the:
a. Hematologic Syndrome
b. Gastrointestinal Syndrome
c. Central Nervous Syndrome
d. Prodromal Stage

A

a. Hematologic Syndrome

130
Q

The most radioresistant phase of the cell cycle is:
a. Interphase
b. Mitosis
c. DNA Replication
d. Gap 1

A

c. DNA Replication

131
Q

According to Target Theory:
a. Only direct effects can cause hits
b. RNA is considered the target molecule
c. Only indirect effects can cause hits
d. DNA is considered the target molecule

A

d. DNA is considered the target molecule
d. Amino Acids

132
Q

Of the following, which are considered the “Building Blocks” of protein synthesis?
a. Chromatin
b. Lipids
c. Carbohydrates
d. Amino Acids

A

d. Amino Acids

133
Q

In a DNA molecule, the sequence of __________ determines the characteristics of every organism.
a. Sugars
b. Base Pairs
c. Phosphates
d. Hydrogen bonds

A

b. Base Pairs

134
Q

Which of the following tissues is most radioresistant:
a. Lymph
b. Nerve
c. Skin
d. Thyroid

A

b. Nerve

135
Q

Why is free radical formation considered such a threat to humans?
a. Free radicals produce scatter radiation
b. Free radicals can penetrate any type of shielding
c. Free radicals have been proven to have carcinogenic effects
d. Free radicals have been observed to produce toxic effects

A

d. Free radicals have been observed to produce toxic effects

136
Q

Which of the following would be considered the most radio-resistant?
a. A fetus
b. A teenager
c. An adult
d. An elderly person

A

c. An adult

137
Q

The target theory states that if ionization occurs in or near a key molecule,
a. enzymes and proteins will be irreparably damaged
b. Restitution is still highly likely
c. DNA may be inactivated and the cell will die
d. Two ion pairs will be produced

A

c. DNA may be inactivated and the cell will die

138
Q

The term Epilation is used to refer to:
a. Loss of hair
b. Reduced white blood cell count
c. Cataract formation
d. Reddening of the skin

A

a. Loss of hair

139
Q

Immature Somatic Cells are called:
a. Genetic cells
b. Base Cells
c. Stem Cells
d. Germ Cells

A

c. Stem Cells

140
Q

The skin erythema dose (SED50) for humans is approximately:
a. 0.5Gy
b. 1Gy
c. 3Gy
d. 5Gy

A

d. 5Gy

141
Q

What does the term “Indirect effect” of ionizing radiation refer to?
a. Genetic effects are produced
b. The ionizing event happens on the key target molecule
c. Scatter radiation is produced
d. The ionizing event occurs at one location and produces effects at a distant location

A

d. The ionizing event occurs at one location and produces effects at a distant location

142
Q

How many matched pairs of chromosomes does a normal human cell contain?
a. 13
b. 23
c. 26
d. 46

A

b. 23

143
Q

The technical term for the division of genetic cells is:
a. Mitosis
b. Interphase
c. Reproduction
d. Meiosis

A

d. Meiosis

144
Q

Which of the following describes the shape of a DNA molecule?
a. Ovoid
b. Double Helix
c. Single Helix
d. Spherical

A

b. Double Helix

145
Q

Which of the following physiological effects are associated with and most likely to occur as a result of a patient who is a victim of the hematologic syndrome of acute radiation syndrome?
a. Thrombus formation and remission
b. headaches and coma
c. Nausea and bloody diarrhea
d. Decreased leukocytes and thrombocytes

A

d. Decreased leukocytes and thrombocytes

146
Q

Which of the following cell groups are considered highly radiosensitive?
a. Lymphocytes, spermatogonia, erythroblasts, and intestinal crypt cells
b. Muscle cells, nerve cells, and chondrocytes
c. Endothelial cells, osteoblasts, spermatids, and fibroblasts
d. Muscle cells and osteoblasts

A

a. Lymphocytes, spermatogonia, erythroblasts, and intestinal crypt cells

147
Q

Which action of ionizing radiation is most harmful to the human body?
a. Indirect effect
b. Direct effect
c. Mitotic effect
d. Double effect

A

a. Indirect effect

148
Q

There is a high probability that a radiation hit will produce chromatid deletion in both arms of the chromosome:
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

149
Q

Which of the following types of radiation has the highest Linear Energy Transfer (LET)?
a. Gamma Rays
b. Alpha Particles
c. 1 MeV Electrons
d. Fast Neutrons

A

b. Alpha Particles

150
Q

The DQ in the cell survival curve describes the:
a. Number of targets actually hit
b. Organelle Damage
c. DNA Damage
d. Threshold dose of the irradiated cells

A

d. Threshold dose of the irradiated cells

151
Q

The most radiosensitive part of the cell cycle is the ________ Phase.
a. S
b. G1
c. M
d. G2

A

c. M

152
Q

The least radiosensitive part of the cell cycle is the _______ phase.
a. S
b. G1
c. M
d. G2

A

a. S

153
Q

As radiation dose increases, the severity of deterministic effects is not effected.
a. True
B. False

A

B. False

154
Q

At low doses of radiation, most cellular damage is the result of:
a. Main-chain scission
b. Cross-linking
c. Point Lesions
d. Cell Death

A

c. Point Lesions

155
Q

DNA duplication occurs during which phase of the cell cycle?
a. Prophase
b. Mitosis
c. Anaphase
d. S Phase

A

d. S Phase

156
Q

How does the LET of radiation affect its relative biologic effectiveness (RBE)?
a. Higher LET Radiations have higher RBE values
b. Higher LET radiations have lower RBE values
c. Higher LET radiations cause RBE values to stabilize
d. There is no correlation between LET and RBE

A

a. Higher LET Radiations have higher RBE values

157
Q

The type of irradiation damage most likely to cause abnormalities in base sequences, and thus cell mutation, would be:
a. Single-Strand breaks
b. Cross-Linking
c. Double-Strand Breaks
d. Base Damage

A

d. Base Damage

158
Q

What is the name of the molecule that has one or more unpaired electrons and is usually chemically reactive?
a. Ion
b. Polypeptide
c. Amino acid
d. Free Radical

A

d. Free Radical

159
Q

The process of genetic cell division is called:
a. Mitosis
b. Synthesis
c. Meiosis
d. Reproduction

A

c. Meiosis

160
Q

Which stage of the cell cycle is known as the “Resting Stage”?
a. Prophase
b. Mitosis
c. Meiosis
d. Interphase

A

d. Interphase

161
Q

The dose to produce temporary epilation to the scalp is approximately:
a. 0.5 Gy
b. 1 Gy
c. 3 Gy
d. 7 Gy

A

c. 3 Gy

162
Q

It is assumed that biological effects from diagnostic radiology exposures follow the ______________ dose-response model.
a. Linear Threshold
b. Linear Non-threshold
c. Nonlinear Threshold
d. Nonlinear Non-threshold

A

b. Linear Non-threshold

163
Q

The Least radio-resistant cells in the human body are:
a. epithelial cells
b. Nerve Cells
c. Osteocytes
d. Lymphocytes

A

d. Lymphocytes

164
Q

The Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau states that:
1. Younger cells are more radiosensitive
2. Rapidly dividing cells are more radiosensitive
3. Mature cells are less radiosensitive
4. Rapidly growing cells are more radiosensitive

a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2, and 4
c. 1, 3, and 4
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

165
Q

Which of the following measures the rate of energy lost along the track of an ionizing particle?
a. Relative Biologic effectiveness
b. Linear energy transfer
c. Oxygen enhancement Ratio
d. Cell survival curve

A

b. Linear energy transfer

166
Q

The term interphase death means:
a. Cells die prior to entering interphase
b. Cells die while replicating
c. Cells die in between mitotic phases
d. The organism dies

A

c. Cells die in between mitotic phases

167
Q

The lethal dose of ionizing radiation for humans is usually given as follows:
a. LD 50/30
b. LD 50/60
c. LD 30/90
d. LD0

A

b. LD 50/60

168
Q

Meiosis is also known as the process of:
a. Gametal division
b. Reduction division
c. Selective division
d. Reproduction division

A

b. Reduction division

169
Q

Which of following is the term used to describe the separation of water into hydrogen and oxygen following irradiation?
a. Synthesis
b. radiolysis
c. Radiothesis
d. Free radical production

A

b. radiolysis

170
Q

The LD 50/60 dose to the whole body with no medical support is approximately:
a. 0.5 Gy
b. 1 Gy
c. 3.5 Gy
d. 6 Gy

A

c. 3.5 Gy

171
Q

Water constitutes approximately ____% of the body.
a. 60
b. 75
c. 80
d. 90

A

c. 80

172
Q

If a DNA base sequence is altered, which of the following would occur?
a. Gene Mutation
b. Gene duplication
c. Gene replication
d. Formation of chromatin

A

a. Gene Mutation

173
Q

In mitosis, chromosomes split into two halves. These halves are called?
a. Centromeres
b. Chromatids
c. Sister chromosomes
d. isochromatids

A

b. Chromatids

174
Q

The process of cell division of reproductive germ cells is called:
a. Meiosis
b. Mitosis
c. Transcription
d. Synthesis

A

a. Meiosis

175
Q

The stage of high-dose radiation effects in which the individual appears to have recovered but may still exhibit symptoms at a later date is called the:
a. Prodromal stage
b.Latent Period
c. Manifest Illness
d. Recovery Stage

A

b.Latent Period

176
Q

Relative Biologic Effectiveness (RBE):
a. Describes a measure of the rate at which energy is deposited as a charged particle travels through matter
b. Is a quantitative value of how much biologic damage radiation can cause
c. Is defined as the dose of radiation that produces a given biologic response under anoxic conditions divided. by the dose of radiation that produces the same biologic response under aerobic conditions
d. States that the stem cells are more radiosensitive than mature cells

A

b. Is a quantitative value of how much biologic damage radiation can cause

177
Q

Which of the following measures the rate of energy lost along the track of an ionizing particle?
a. Relative biologic effectiveness
b. Linear energy transfer
c. Cell survival curve
d. Oxygen enhancement ratio

A

b. Linear energy transfer

178
Q

The high dose effect that occurs at doses ranging from 2 Gy to 10 Gy is the:
a. Central Nervous syndrome
b. Prodromal Stage
c. Hematologic Syndrome
d. Gastrointestinal Syndromec.

A

c. Hematologic Syndrome

179
Q

The _______ is the first stage in acute radiation syndrome:
a. Latent period
b. Prodromal period
c. Manifest illness
d. Recovery

A

b. Prodromal period

180
Q

Which of the following terms is used in describing cell damage from radiation that is not sufficient to kill the cell?
a. Interphase recovery
b. Interphase damage
c. Sublethal recovery
d. Sublethal damage

A

d. Sublethal damage

181
Q

Which of the following body molecules are most commonly acted upon directly by ionizing radiation to produce indirect effects?
a. Lipids
b. Proteins
c. Carbohydrates
d. Water

A

d. Water

182
Q

Higher acute doses will result in ____ latent periods:
a. Shorter
b. Longer
c. Unchanged
d. None of the above

A

a. Shorter

183
Q

The types of DNA molecule damage include:
1. Main-chain scission, one side rail broken
2. Main-chain scission, both side rails broken
3. Main-chain scission, resulting in cross-linking
4. Rung breakage, cause bases to separate
5. A change in or loss of a base

a. 4 only
b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 1, 2, 4 and 5
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
e. None of the above

A

d. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

184
Q

Which of the following contains the human hereditary blue print?
a. The nucleolus
b. RNA
c. Ribosomes
d. Genes

A

d. Genes

185
Q

Which of the following systems is the most radiosensitive vital organ system in human beings?
a. Reproductive
b. skeletal
c. Gastrointestinal
d. Hematopoietic

A

d. Hematopoietic

186
Q

In which area of the cell is the majority of RNA located?
a. Nucleolus
b. Mitochondria
c. Lysosomes
d. Cytoplasm

A

d. Cytoplasm

187
Q

Nonthreshold:
a. Means that an observed response is directly proportional to the dose
b. Means that an observed response is not directly proportional to dose
c. Assumes that there is a radiation level reached under which there would be no effects observed
d. Assumes that any radiation dose produces an effect

A

d. Assumes that any radiation dose produces an effect

188
Q

How does oxygen retention affect cell radiosensitivity?
a. Increases radiosensitivity
b. Decreases radiosensitivity
c. Does not affect radiosensitivity
d. Negates Radiosensitivity

A

a. Increases radiosensitivity

189
Q

In order for an indirect hit to occur, the initial ionizing event must happen to the DNA molecule.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

190
Q

Based upon the Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau, the fetus is highly radiosensitive because of:
a. Low proliferation rates
b. High Mitotic activity
c. Large numbers of mature and highly differentiated cells
d. Its environment

A

b. High Mitotic activity

191
Q

There is a possibility of recovery from any acute radiation exposures.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

192
Q

Radiation induced chromosomes damage may be evaluated during which of the following phases?
a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase

A

b. Metaphase

193
Q

Which of the following is (are) used to account for the differences in tissue sensitivity to ionizing radiation when determining the effective dose (E)?
1. tissue weighting factor
2. radiation weighting factor
3. absorbed dose

A

1, 2, & 3

194
Q

According to the NRCP, the monthly gestational dose equivalent limit for the embryo/fetus of a pregnant radiographer is?
a. .15mSv
b. .5mSv
c. .25 mSv
d. .75mSv

A

b. 0.5mSv

195
Q

What is the established annual occupational dose-equivalent for the lens of the eye?
a. 5mSv
b. 10mSv
c. 50 mSv
d. 150 mSv

A

d. 150 mSv

196
Q

According to the NRCP, the annual occupational whole-body dose equivalent limit is?
a. 1mSV
b. 50mSv
c. 150mSv
d. 500mSv

A

b. 50mSv

197
Q

An optically stimulated luminescent dosimeters contains which of the following detectors?
a. gadolinium
b. aluminum oxide
c. lithium fluoride
d. photographic film

A

b. aluminum oxide

198
Q

Occupational radiation monitoring is required when it is possible that the individual might receive more than:
a. 5mSv
b. 10mSv
c. 1/10th of the annual dose limit
d. 1/th the annual dose limit

A

c. 1/10th of the annual dose limit

199
Q

Which of the following is recommended for the pregnant radiographer?
a. change dosimeters weekly.
b. Wear a 2nd dosimeter under the lead apron at waist level
c. Wear 2 dosimeters and switch their positions accordingly
d. The pregnant radiographer must leave radiation areas for the duration of the pregnancy

A

b. Wear a 2nd dosimeter under the lead apron at waist level

200
Q

According to the NCRP, the annual occupational dose equivalent to the thyroid skin and hands and feet is:
a. 50mSv
b. 150mSv
c. 500mSv
d. 1500mSv

A

c. 500mSv

201
Q

Which of the following personnel monitoring devices used in diagnostic radiography is considered to be the most sensitive and accurate?
a. TLD
b. Film badge
c. OSL
d. Pocket dosimeter

A

c. OSL

202
Q

Which of the following are true regarding TLD’s?
1. They are reusable
2. It can measure doses as low as 1mrem
3. It uses a lithium fluoride crystal

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 & 3 only
d. 2 & 3 only
e. 1, 2, & 3

A

c. 1 & 3 only

203
Q

The % of x-ray attenuation at 100 kVp with a .5 mmPb apron is?
a. 66%
b. 51%
c. 75%
d. 99%

A

c. 75%

204
Q

What is the radiation weighting factor for energy levels ranging from 2Mev-20MeV?
a. 1
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20

A

c. 10

205
Q

The standard radiation monitoring device should be worn?
a. Outside the apron, chest level
b. Inside the apron, chest level
c. Outside the apron, waist level
d. Inside the apron, waist level

A

a. Outside the apron, chest level

206
Q

Protective apparel must be a minimum of how many mm of Pb?
a. .25
b. .5’
c. 1
d. None of the above

A

a. .25

207
Q

Which of the following lead to higher dose levels for occupational workers?
1. Longer beam on time in fluoroscopy
2. low kVp used in mammography
3. finely collimated beam in CT
a. 1 only
b. 1 & 3 only
c. 1 & 2 only
d. 1, 2, & 3

A
208
Q

Which of the following tissues types does not have a weighting factor of .05?
a. bladder
b. breast
c. liver
d. gonads

A

d. gonads

209
Q

Dose limits are based on the ____ dose response relationship.
a. linear, threshold
b. linear, nonthreshold
c. nonlinear, threshold
d. nonlinear, nonthreshold

A

b. linear, nonthreshold

Rad Bio (10 decks)

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