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A&P 2 > Final AaaahhhhhHHHHH > Flashcards

Final AaaahhhhhHHHHH Flashcards

1
Q

The external openings to the nasal cavities can be referred to as:

	a. nostrils.
	b. anterior nares.
	c. external nares.
	d. all of the above.
A

d. all of the above.

nostrils, anterior nares, and eternal nares

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2
Q

Which of the following does not distribute air?

	a. Nose
	b. Alveolus
	c. Trachea
	d. Bronchus
A

b. Alveolus

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3
Q

Which of the following is true of the cribriform plate?

	a. It separates the internal nose from the mouth.
	b. It separates the nasal and cranial cavities.
	c. It forms a midline separation in the nasal cavity.
	d. It forms the lateral aspects of the nose.
A

b. It separates the nasal and cranial cavities.

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4
Q

The small openings in the cribriform plate function to:

	a. allow air to move between the nostrils.
	b. allow branches of the olfactory nerve to enter the cranial cavity and reach the brain.
	c. provide a filtering system for the inspired air.
	d. do both A and B.
A

b. allow branches of the olfactory nerve to enter the cranial cavity and reach the brain.

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5
Q

The hollow nasal cavity is separated by a midline partition called the:

	a. turbinates.
	b. septum.
	c. cribriform plate.
	d. conchae.
A

b. septum.

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6
Q

Which of the following is not lined with a ciliated mucous membrane?

	a. Primary bronchi
	b. Posterior nares
	c. Trachea
	d. Vestibule
A

d. Vestibule

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7
Q

The largest of the paranasal sinuses is the:

	a. ethmoid.
	b. maxillary.
	c. sphenoid.
	d. frontal.
A

b. maxillary.

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8
Q

Olfactory epithelium is found:

	a. lining the nasopharynx.
	b. covering the superior turbinate.
	c. lining the paranasal sinuses.
	d. in all of the above.
A

b. covering the superior turbinate.

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9
Q

The anatomical division of the pharynx that is located behind the mouth from the soft palate above to the level of the hyoid bone below is called the:

	a. nasopharynx.
	b. oropharynx.
	c. sphenopharynx.
	d. laryngopharynx.
A

b. oropharynx.

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10
Q
  1. The lower border of the cavity of the larynx is formed by the:
    a. glottis.
    b. thyroid cartilage.
    c. cricoid cartilage.
    d. epiglottis.
A

c. cricoid cartilage.

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11
Q
  1. The eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the:
    a. nose.
    b. nasopharynx.
    c. trachea.
    d. oropharynx.
A

b. nasopharynx.

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12
Q
  1. The approximate length of the trachea, or windpipe, is _____ cm.
    a. 5
    b. 17
    c. 24
    d. 11
A

d. 11

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx?
    a. Their origin is the hyoid bone.
    b. They move the larynx as a whole.
    c. They serve in voice production.
    d. Both A and B are correct.
A

c. They serve in voice production.

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14
Q
  1. The function of surfactant is to:
    a. trap foreign particles as they enter the bronchial tree.
    b. transport carbon dioxide from the blood to the air.
    c. prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration.
    d. transport oxygen from the air to the blood.
A

c. prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration.

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a paranasal sinus?
    a. Frontal
    b. Maxillary
    c. Mandibular
    d. Sphenoid
A

c. Mandibular

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16
Q
  1. Air inhaled through the mouth would be _____ than air inhaled through the nose.
    a. warmer
    b. dirtier
    c. moister
    d. All of the above are correct.
A

b. dirtier

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17
Q
  1. The cribriform plate is part of the:
    a. nasal conchae.
    b. ethmoid bone.
    c. nasal bone.
    d. palatine bone.
A

b. ethmoid bone.

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the paranasal sinuses?
    a. They are air filled.
    b. They are named after the bones in which they are located.
    c. They drain or open into the oropharynx.
    d. All of the above are true of the paranasal sinuses.
A

c. They drain or open into the oropharynx.

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19
Q
  1. Which is the most proximal part of the air distribution system that no longer contains cartilage?
    a. Bronchioles
    b. Secondary bronchi
    c. Primary bronchi
    d. Alveolar ducts
A

a. Bronchioles

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20
Q
  1. Which pair of tonsils is located in the oropharynx?
    a. Pharyngeal tonsils
    b. Palatine tonsils
    c. Lingual tonsils
    d. Both B and C
A

d. Both B and C

Lingual tonsils & Palatine tonsils

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21
Q
  1. Which describes the role of surfactant in the respiratory system?
    a. Surfactant provides a layer of protective mucus that covers a large portion of the membrane that lines the respiratory tree, thereby purifying the air during inhalation.
    b. Surfactant helps reduce surface tension within the alveoli, thus preventing each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration.
    c. Surfactant helps increase surface tension within the alveoli, thus preventing each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration.
    d. Surfactant helps increase surface area, which increases the rate of gas exchange within the alveoli.
A

b. Surfactant helps reduce surface tension within the alveoli, thus preventing each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration.

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22
Q
  1. The upper respiratory tract includes all of the following structures, except:
    a. Nasal conchae
    b. Primary bronchi
    c. Oropharynx
    d. Nasopharynx
A

b. Primary bronchi

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a function of the larynx?
    a. Important for vocalization of sounds
    b. Prevents food from entering lower airways
    c. Common pathway for respiratory and digestive tracts
    d. Filters, warms, humidifies air
A

c. Common pathway for respiratory and digestive tracts

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24
Q
  1. The structure known as the “Adam’s apple”, which is located in the neck, is also known as:
    a. Epiglottis
    b. Cricoid cartilage
    c. Arytenoid cartilage
    d. Thyroid cartilage
A

d. Thyroid cartilage

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25
Q
  1. The smallest branches of the bronchial tree are:
    a. Primary bronchi
    b. Secondary bronchi
    c. Tertiary bronchi
    d. Bronchioles
A

d. Bronchioles

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26
Q

The function of surfactant is to:

a. Transport the oxygen from the air to the blood
b. Transport the carbon dioxide from the blood to the air
c. Prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration
d. Trap foreign particles as they enter the bronchial tree

A

c. Prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration

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27
Q

Which of the following structures is (are) part of the conducting zone?

a. Alveolar ducts
b. Alveolus
c. Terminal bronchioles
d. None of the structures listed above are part of the conducting zone

A

c. Terminal bronchioles

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28
Q

The route for normal air exchange through the respiratory system is:

a. Nose, larynx, oropharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
b. Nose, oropharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli
c. Nose, epiglottis, pharynx, trachea, bronchioles, alveoli
d. Nose, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi, alveoli

A

b. Nose, oropharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli

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29
Q

Which muscles are used for forced expiration?

	a. Sternocleidomastoid and intercostals
	b. Abdominal muscles and internal intercostals
	c. External intercostals and pectoralis muscles
	d. Sternocleidomastoid and abdominal muscles
A

b. Abdominal muscles and internal intercostals

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30
Q

The vital capacity is equal to the sum of the:

	a. inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and inspiratory capacity.
	b. inspiratory capacity and the residual volume.
	c. inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume.
	d. tidal volume, residual volume, and expiratory reserve volume.
A

c. inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume.

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31
Q
  1. The term used to describe the volume of air exchanged during normal inspiration and expiration is:
    a. vital capacity.
    b. inspiratory and expiratory reserve volume.
    c. residual volume.
    d. tidal volume.
A

d. tidal volume.

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32
Q
  1. If the tidal volume of a given individual is 500 ml, then the anatomical dead space is approximately _____ ml.
    a. 100
    b. 200
    c. 50
    d. 150
A

d. 150

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33
Q

A type of breathing characterized by gradually increasing tidal volume for several breaths followed by several breaths with gradually decreasing tidal volume is:

	a. Biot breathing.
	b. apnea.
	c. dyspnea.
	d. Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
A

d. Cheyne-Stokes respiration.

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34
Q

Which of the following will cause brief apnea?

	a. Sudden painful stimulus
	b. Increase in carbon dioxide in the blood
	c. Sudden cold stimulus applied to the skin
	d. Both A and C
A

d. Both A and C

Sudden painful stimulus & Sudden cold stimulus applied to the skin

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35
Q

The tendency of the thorax and lungs to return to the preinspiration volume is called:

	a. compliance.
	b. elastic recoil.
	c. ventilation.
	d. expiration.
A

b. elastic recoil.

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36
Q

The inspiratory center is located in what part of the nervous system?

	a. Cerebellum
	b. Pons
	c. Medulla
	d. Cerebrum
A

c. Medulla

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37
Q
  1. The apneustic center is located in what part of the nervous system?
    a. Pons
    b. Cerebellum
    c. Cerebrum
    d. Medulla
A

a. Pons

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38
Q

Which explains the relationship between the gas pressure gradient of the atmosphere and the alveolar air that allows inhalation?

	a. When atmospheric pressure is less than the pressure within the lung, air flows up this gas pressure gradient. Then air moves from the atmosphere into the lungs.
	b. When atmospheric pressure is greater than the pressure within the lung, air flows away from this gas pressure gradient. Then air moves from the lungs out into the atmosphere.
	c. When atmospheric pressure is greater than the pressure within the lungs, air flows down this gas pressure gradient. Then air moves from the atmosphere into the lungs.
	d. When atmospheric pressure is less than the pressure within the lung, air flows down this gas pressure gradient. Then air moves from the atmosphere into the lungs.
A

c. When atmospheric pressure is greater than the pressure within the lungs, air flows down this gas pressure gradient. Then air moves from the atmosphere into the lungs.

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following would you expect to happen to cellular respiration during exercise?
    a. Increased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a decrease in plasma PCO2, which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause a decrease in respiration rate.
    b. Exercise causes a decrease in cellular respiration by shifting peripheral chemoreceptors in the heart to cause retention of oxygen.
    c. Increased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a rise in plasma PCO2, which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause an increase in respiration rate.
    d. Decreased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a rise in plasma PCO2, which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause a decrease in respiration rate.
A

c. Increased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a rise in plasma PCO2, which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause an increase in respiration rate.

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40
Q
  1. Hypoventilation is characterized by low levels of carbon dioxide.
    True
    False
A

False

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41
Q
  1. As lung compliance decreases, the efficiency of respiration increases.
    True
    False
A

False

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42
Q

A collapsed lung has no air in it and will sink if placed in water.
True
False

A

False

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43
Q
  1. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a broad term used to describe conditions of progressive obstruction of expiratory airflow.
    True
    False
A

True

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44
Q

Peak flow can be measured by a simple, handheld spirometer.
True
False

A

True

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45
Q

Pulmonary ventilation refers to the:

a. Movement of air into and out of the lungs
b. Mechanical device to assist with pulmonary function
c. The process of gas exchange within the lungs
d. The process by which air moves from an area of low pressure to an area of high pressure between the atmosphere and the lungs

A

a. Movement of air into and out of the lungs

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46
Q

During expiration the diaphragm:

a. Ascends, decreasing the thoracic cavity and decreasing thoracic pressure
b. Descends, decreasing the thoracic cavity and decreasing thoracic pressure
c. Descends, increasing the thoracic cavity and decreasing thoracic pressure
d. Ascends, decreasing the thoracic cavity and increasing thoracic pressure

A

d. Ascends, decreasing the thoracic cavity and increasing thoracic pressure

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47
Q

Which of the following which would have the highest partial pressure of oxygen?

a. Rapidly contracting skeletal muscle fibers
b. Alveolar air immediately after inhalation
c. Blood flowing to the lung from the right side of the heart
d. Blood returning to the heart from the tissue cells

A

b. Alveolar air immediately after inhalation

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48
Q
  1. An increased carbon dioxide content of blood results in:
    a. An increased oxygen concentration in the red blood cell
    b. Decreased blood pH
    c. Increased blood pH
    d. Both A and B
A

b. Decreased blood pH

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49
Q
  1. By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, approximately what percentage of the blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen?
    a. 40%
    b. 60%
    c. 80%
    d. 100%
A

d. 100%

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50
Q

Which of the following is not a way oxygen is transported in the blood?

a. As oxyhemoglobin
b. Combined with a bicarbonate ion
c. Dissolved in the plasma
d. All of the above are used to transport oxygen in the blood

A

b. Combined with a bicarbonate ion

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51
Q

The most important factor in determining the percent oxygen saturation of hemoglobin is:

a. The partial pressure of oxygen
b. Acidity
c. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide
d. Temperature

A

a. The partial pressure of oxygen

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52
Q

The tendency of the thorax and lungs to return to the pre-inspiration volume is called:

a. Compliance
b. Elastic recoil
c. Expiration
d. Ventilation

A

b. Elastic recoil

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53
Q
  1. The characteristic of stretch in pulmonary tissues to allow full inspiration is called
    a. Compliance
    b. Elastic recoil
    c. Expiration
    d. Ventilation
A

a. Compliance

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54
Q
  1. Which CNS areas influence rate and depth of respiration
    a. Medulla oblongata
    b. Cerebral cortex
    c. Pons
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

Medulla oblongata, Cerebral cortex, Pons

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55
Q

Which of the following statements regarding gas exchange in the lungs is correct?

a. PO2 of alveolar air is less than the PO2 of incoming blood; oxygen diffuses down its pressure gradient into blood
b. PO2 of alveolar air is greater than the PO2 of incoming blood; oxygen diffuses up its pressure gradient into blood
c. PO2 of alveolar air is greater than the PO2 of incoming blood; oxygen diffuses down its pressure gradient into blood
d. PO2 of alveolar air is less than the PO2 of incoming blood; oxygen diffuses up its pressure gradient into blood

A

c. PO2 of alveolar air is greater than the PO2 of incoming blood; oxygen diffuses down its pressure gradient into blood

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56
Q

Amount of air exhaled after normal inspiration
A. Inspiratory capacity E. Inspiratory reserve volume
B. Tidal volume F. Functional residual capacity
C. Residual volume G. Total lung capacity
D. Expiratory reserve volume H. Vital capacity

A

B. Tidal volume

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57
Q

Amount of air that can be forcibly inhaled after normal inspiration (approx. 3.3 liters)
A. Inspiratory capacity E. Inspiratory reserve volume
B. Tidal volume F. Functional residual capacity
C. Residual volume G. Total lung capacity
D. Expiratory reserve volume H. Vital capacity

A

E. Inspiratory reserve volume

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58
Q

Amount of air that cannot be forcibly exhaled (approx. l.2 liters)
A. Inspiratory capacity E. Inspiratory reserve volume
B. Tidal volume F. Functional residual capacity
C. Residual volume G. Total lung capacity
D. Expiratory reserve volume H. Vital capacity

A

C. Residual volume

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59
Q

The sum of all four lung volumes, the total amount of air a lung can hold
A. Inspiratory capacity E. Inspiratory reserve volume
B. Tidal volume F. Functional residual capacity
C. Residual volume G. Total lung capacity
D. Expiratory reserve volume H. Vital capacity

A

G. Total lung capacity

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60
Q

IRV + TV + ERV; depends on multiple factors, including the size of the thoracic cavity and posture
A. Inspiratory capacity E. Inspiratory reserve volume
B. Tidal volume F. Functional residual capacity
C. Residual volume G. Total lung capacity
D. Expiratory reserve volume H. Vital capacity

A

H. Vital capacity

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61
Q

Amount of air at the end of a normal respiration
A. Inspiratory capacity E. Inspiratory reserve volume
B. Tidal volume F. Functional residual capacity
C. Residual volume G. Total lung capacity
D. Expiratory reserve volume H. Vital capacity

A

F. Functional residual capacity

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62
Q

Largest volume of additional air that can be forcibly exhaled (approx. l – l.2 liters)
A. Inspiratory capacity E. Inspiratory reserve volume
B. Tidal volume F. Functional residual capacity
C. Residual volume G. Total lung capacity
D. Expiratory reserve volume H. Vital capacity

A

D. Expiratory reserve volume

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63
Q

Maximal amount of air that can be inspired after a normal expiration
A. Inspiratory capacity E. Inspiratory reserve volume
B. Tidal volume F. Functional residual capacity
C. Residual volume G. Total lung capacity
D. Expiratory reserve volume H. Vital capacity

A

A. Inspiratory capacity

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64
Q 
May result from an upper respiratory tract infection traveling through the eustachian tube to the middle ear
A.	Laryngitis		E. Acute bronchitis
B.	Pneumonia		F. Sleep apnea
C.	Rhinitis			G. Tuberculosis
D.	Pharyngitis		H. Otitis media
A

H. Otitis media

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65
Q 
Cold, flu and allergens may cause this condition; rest, antihistamines and decongestants may help manage or eliminate it
A.	Laryngitis		E. Acute bronchitis
B.	Pneumonia		F. Sleep apnea
C.	Rhinitis			G. Tuberculosis
D.	Pharyngitis		H. Otitis media
A

C. Rhinitis

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66
Q 
Acute inflammation of the tracheobronchial tree; usually caused by infection and accompanied by cough and malaise
A.	Laryngitis		E. Acute bronchitis
B.	Pneumonia		F. Sleep apnea
C.	Rhinitis			G. Tuberculosis
D.	Pharyngitis		H. Otitis media
A

E. Acute bronchitis

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67
Q 
Infection, smoking and alcohol use may be the cause of the condition resulting in vocal fold edema
A.	Laryngitis		E. Acute bronchitis
B.	Pneumonia		F. Sleep apnea
C.	Rhinitis			G. Tuberculosis
D.	Pharyngitis		H. Otitis media
A

A. Laryngitis

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68
Q 
Cessation of breathing that may result in fatigue, irritability and decreased concentration due to chronic hypoxia
A.	Laryngitis		E. Acute bronchitis
B.	Pneumonia		F. Sleep apnea
C.	Rhinitis			G. Tuberculosis
D.	Pharyngitis		H. Otitis media
A

F. Sleep apnea

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69
Q 
May be due to viral or bacterial infection and be accompanied by dysphagia
A.	Laryngitis		E. Acute bronchitis
B.	Pneumonia		F. Sleep apnea
C.	Rhinitis			G. Tuberculosis
D.	Pharyngitis		H. Otitis media
A

D. Pharyngitis

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70
Q 
Acute inflammation of the lungs caused by bacteria, viruses and fungi
A.	Laryngitis		E. Acute bronchitis
B.	Pneumonia		F. Sleep apnea
C.	Rhinitis			G. Tuberculosis
D.	Pharyngitis		H. Otitis media
A

B. Pneumonia

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71
Q 
Highly contagious and infectious disease transmitted in the air; associated with cough, chest pain and weight loss
A.	Laryngitis		E. Acute bronchitis
B.	Pneumonia		F. Sleep apnea
C.	Rhinitis			G. Tuberculosis
D.	Pharyngitis		H. Otitis media
A

G. Tuberculosis

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72
Q
  1. The walls of the GI tract are composed of ____ layers of tissue.
    a. two
    b. four
    c. five
    d. three
A

b. four

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73
Q
  1. All of the following are classified as accessory organs of the digestive system except the:
    a. liver.
    b. pancreas.
    c. mouth.
    d. tongue.
A

c. mouth.

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74
Q
  1. Which of the following organs has a mucosa layer composed of stratified squamous epithelium that resists abrasion?
    a. Esophagus
    b. Large intestine
    c. Stomach
    d. Small intestine
A

a. Esophagus

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75
Q
  1. The flap of tissue suspended from the midpoint of the posterior border of the soft palate is the:
    a. uvula.
    b. gingiva.
    c. fauces.
    d. frenulum.
A

a. uvula.

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76
Q
  1. The type of tissue designed for absorption and secretion found throughout much of the GI tract is _____ epithelium.
    a. stratified squamous
    b. simple columnar
    c. pseudostratified
    d. simple squamous
A

b. simple columnar

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77
Q
  1. An incision into the wall of the GI tract would cut, in order, from superficial to deep:
    a. serosa, muscularis, submucosa, and mucosa.
    b. serosa, submucosa, muscularis, and mucosa.
    c. muscularis, submucosa, mucosa, and serosa.
    d. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, and serosa.
A

a. serosa, muscularis, submucosa, and mucosa.

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78
Q
  1. A permanent set of teeth normally consists of _____ teeth.
    a. 36
    b. 32
    c. 26
    d. 30
A

b. 32

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79
Q
  1. Hydrochloric acid is released from cells in the:
    a. stomach.
    b. pancreas.
    c. small intestine.
    d. large intestine.
    e. All of the above are correct.
A

a. stomach.

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80
Q
  1. Which of the following is not associated with the large intestine?
    a. Appendix
    b. Transverse colon
    c. Cecum
    d. Pyloric sphincter
A

d. Pyloric sphincter

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81
Q
  1. The myenteric plexus is found in which layer of the GI wall?
    a. Serosa
    b. Muscularis
    c. Mucosa
    d. Submucosa
A

b. Muscularis

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82
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an anatomical part of the small intestine?
    a. Duodenum
    b. Ileum
    c. Jejunum
    d. Cecum
A

d. Cecum

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83
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is anatomically the longest?
    a. Esophagus
    b. Duodenum
    c. Jejunum
    d. Ileum
A

d. Ileum

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84
Q
  1. Surgical removal of the gallbladder is referred to as:
    a. choledochorrhaphy.
    b. cholecystectomy.
    c. cholecystitis.
    d. cholelithiasis.
A

b. cholecystectomy.

85
Q
  1. The most essential part of bile is:
    a. bile pigments.
    b. bile salts.
    c. bilirubin.
    d. cholesterol.
A

b. bile salts.

86
Q
  1. Bile is secreted by:
    a. hepatic cells.
    b. Kupffer cells.
    c. crypts of Lieberkühn.
    d. parietal cells.
A

a. hepatic cells.

87
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a function of the liver?
    a. Secretion of insulin
    b. Detoxification
    c. Production of bile
    d. Storage of iron and vitamins
A

a. Secretion of insulin

88
Q
  1. The hormone glucagon is produced by:
    a. beta cells.
    b. Brunner glands.
    c. alpha cells.
    d. acinar units.
A

c. alpha cells.

89
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is not true?
    a. The walls of the gallbladder have rugae similar to the ones found in the stomach wall.
    b. The gallbladder can hold between 30 and 50 ml of bile.
    c. The gallbladder lies on the undersurface of the liver.
    d. The gallbladder empties bile into the stomach to assist in fat digestion.
A

d. The gallbladder empties bile into the stomach to assist in fat digestion.

90
Q
  1. Which statement explains what happens to toxic substances after detoxification by liver cells?
    a. They are used to dilute food and other substances and facilitate mixing of foods in the small intestine.
    b. They are changed into nontoxic compounds by a series of chemical reactions.
    c. They are used to increase pH for optimum amylase function.
    d. Small amounts are carried by mucus and sodium bicarbonate to the small intestine for use in digestion.
A

b. They are changed into nontoxic compounds by a series of chemical reactions.

91
Q
  1. The muscular, mucus-lined collapsible tube that transmits food to the stomach is the
    a. Larynx
    b. Pharynx
    c. Esophagus
    d. Trachea
A

c. Esophagus

92
Q
  1. The function of the rugae of the stomach is
    a. Stretching
    b. Secretion
    c. Propulsion
    d. Rugalation
A

a. Stretching

93
Q
  1. The sphincter that controls movement of food entering the stomach is the
    a. Pyloric
    b. Cardiac
    c. Upper esophageal
    d. Gastric
A

b. Cardiac

94
Q
  1. The sphincter that controls movement of food from the stomach entering the small intestine is the
    a. Pyloric
    b. Cardiac
    c. Upper esophageal
    d. Gastric
A

a. Pyloric

95
Q
  1. The smallest salivary gland secretes saliva with a high mucus content and is called the
    a. Submental
    b. Submandibular
    c. Parotid
    d. Sublingual
A

d. Sublingual

96
Q
  1. The divisions of the stomach are the
    a. Cardia, gastrin, belly and body
    b. Body, fundus, belly and pylorus
    c. Cardia, pylorus, body and fundus
    d. Body, gastrin, fundus and pylorus
A

c. Cardia, pylorus, body and fundus

97
Q
  1. Which of the following functions occurs in the upper digestive tract?
    a. Propulsion
    b. Secretion
    c. Ingestion
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

Propulsion, Secretion, & Ingestion

98
Q
  1. This accessory digestive organ secretes hormones and digestive enzymes; it is an endocrine and exocrine gland
    a. Small intestine
    b. Gallbladder
    c. Pancreas
    d. Liver
A

c. Pancreas

99
Q
  1. The main function of this organ is to store and concentrate bile which promotes digestion of lipids
    a. Small intestine
    b. Gallbladder
    c. Pancreas
    d. Liver
A

b. Gallbladder

100
Q
  1. This organ produces bile and plays a role in metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and lipids
    a. Small intestine
    b. Gallbladder
    c. Pancreas
    d. Liver
A

d. Liver

101
Q

The villi of the digestive system

a. Complete a small amount of absorption
b. Complete about 90% of absorption
c. Produce vitamins B and K
d. Store vitamins and minerals
e. Are off the coast of Spain

A

b. Complete about 90% of absorption

102
Q 
Erosive inflammatory condition caused by H. pylori bacteria; was long-considered to result from excess acid secretion in the digestive system
A.	Mumps				F. Sjogren syndrome
B.	GERD				G. Leukoplakia
C.	Cleft palate			H. Emesis
D.	Ulcer				I.  Hepatitis
E.	Cirrhosis				J. Diverticulosis
A

D. Ulcer

103
Q 
Autoimmune condition that results in dry eyes and lack of saliva
A.	Mumps				F. Sjogren syndrome
B.	GERD				G. Leukoplakia
C.	Cleft palate			H. Emesis
D.	Ulcer				I.  Hepatitis
E.	Cirrhosis				J. Diverticulosis
A

F. Sjogren syndrome

104
Q 
May be caused by toxins, parasites, viral or bacterial infection. Different forms vary in modes of transmission and severity
A.	Mumps				F. Sjogren syndrome
B.	GERD				G. Leukoplakia
C.	Cleft palate			H. Emesis
D.	Ulcer				I.  Hepatitis
E.	Cirrhosis				J. Diverticulosis
A

I. Hepatitis

105
Q 
Precancerous condition in the mucus membranes of the oral cavity; tobacco use is strongly linked to this condition
A.	Mumps				F. Sjogren syndrome
B.	GERD				G. Leukoplakia
C.	Cleft palate			H. Emesis
D.	Ulcer				I.  Hepatitis
E.	Cirrhosis				J. Diverticulosis
A

G. Leukoplakia

106
Q 
A common condition that may be treated with weight loss, smoking cessation or abstaining from triggering foods or drinks. OTC and Rx medications may be prescribed for condition management
A.	Mumps				F. Sjogren syndrome
B.	GERD				G. Leukoplakia
C.	Cleft palate			H. Emesis
D.	Ulcer				I.  Hepatitis
E.	Cirrhosis				J. Diverticulosis
A

B. GERD

107
Q 
This condition may occur as toxic effects of alcohol or other drugs accumulate and form non-functional scar tissue
A.	Mumps				F. Sjogren syndrome
B.	GERD				G. Leukoplakia
C.	Cleft palate			H. Emesis
D.	Ulcer				I.  Hepatitis
E.	Cirrhosis				J. Diverticulosis
A

E. Cirrhosis

108
Q 
A congenital defect that has cosmetic and functional effects; modern surgical reconstruction is effective in minimizing negative effects of the condition
A.	Mumps				F. Sjogren syndrome
B.	GERD				G. Leukoplakia
C.	Cleft palate			H. Emesis
D.	Ulcer				I.  Hepatitis
E.	Cirrhosis				J. Diverticulosis
A

C. Cleft palate

109
Q 
Vomiting; may be accompanied by nausea
A.	Mumps				F. Sjogren syndrome
B.	GERD				G. Leukoplakia
C.	Cleft palate			H. Emesis
D.	Ulcer				I.  Hepatitis
E.	Cirrhosis				J. Diverticulosis
A

H. Emesis

110
Q 
Abnormal out-pouching of the intestinal wall largely attributed to a diet chronically lacking in fiber; may become inflamed and painful
A.	Mumps				F. Sjogren syndrome
B.	GERD				G. Leukoplakia
C.	Cleft palate			H. Emesis
D.	Ulcer				I.  Hepatitis
E.	Cirrhosis				J. Diverticulosis
A

J. Diverticulosis

111
Q 
Viral infection that causes inflammation of the parotid salivary gland unilaterally or bilaterally. Often thought to be a condition of childhood, adults may be infected and experience more serious symptoms
A.	Mumps				F. Sjogren syndrome
B.	GERD				G. Leukoplakia
C.	Cleft palate			H. Emesis
D.	Ulcer				I.  Hepatitis
E.	Cirrhosis				J. Diverticulosis
A

A. Mumps

112
Q
  1. Which of the following is not one of the openings that must be blocked when food moves from the pharynx into the esophagus?
    a. Nasopharynx
    b. Mouth
    c. Larynx
    d. Oropharynxi
A

d. Oropharynxi

113
Q

Which of the processes of mechanical digestion involves the esophagus?

		a. Deglutition
		b. Peristalsis
		c. Churning
		d. Both A and B
A

d. Both A and B

Deglutition & Peristalsis

114
Q

Which step of deglutition is under voluntary control?

		a. Pharyngeal stage
		b. Esophageal stage
		c. Gastric phase
		d. Oral stage
A

d. Oral stage

115
Q
  1. The hormone that inhibits gastric muscle, slowing passage of food into the duodenum, is called:
    a. chyme.
    b. gastric inhibitory peptide.
    c. cholecystokinin.
    d. enterogastrone.
A

b. gastric inhibitory peptide.

116
Q
  1. Structurally, enzymes are:
    a. proteins.
    b. lipids.
    c. carbohydrates.
    d. inorganic compounds.
A

a. proteins.

117
Q
  1. Hydrolysis refers to:
    a. breaking down a molecule of water to hydrogen and oxygen gas.
    b. using water to split larger compounds into smaller ones.
    c. using water to build larger compounds from smaller ones.
    d. none of the above.
A

b. using water to split larger compounds into smaller ones.

118
Q
  1. Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as:
    a. maltase.
    b. amylase.
    c. lipase.
    d. proteases.
A

b. amylase.

119
Q
  1. Which of the following is a disaccharide?
    a. Glycogen
    b. Starch
    c. Sucrose
    d. Glucose
A

c. Sucrose

120
Q
  1. The enzyme pepsin begins the digestion of:
    a. fat.
    b. protein.
    c. nucleic acids.
    d. carbohydrates.
A

b. protein.

121
Q
  1. Cellulose is a residue of digestion that comes from:
    a. undigested connective tissue.
    b. meat proteins.
    c. undigested fats.
    d. carbohydrates.
A

d. carbohydrates.

122
Q
  1. The hormone that stimulates the release of bicarbonate substance from the pancreas is:
    a. secretin.
    b. cholecystokinin-pancreozymin.
    c. enterogastrone.
    d. gastrin.
A

a. secretin.

123
Q
  1. The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is:
    a. cholecystokinin.
    b. gastrin.
    c. insulin.
    d. enterogastrone.
A

a. cholecystokinin.

124
Q
  1. Bicarbonates are useful in the GI tract to:
    a. activate pepsin.
    b. break down fats.
    c. activate secretin.
    d. neutralize hydrochloric acid.
A

d. neutralize hydrochloric acid.

125
Q
  1. Rotavirus can cause what life-threatening condition in infants?
    a. Cholera
    b. Pyloric stenosis
    c. Constipation
    d. Diarrhea
A

d. Diarrhea

126
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true of segmentation?
    a. It moves food back and forth in one segment of the GI tract.
    b. It moves food through the GI tract.
    c. It facilitates absorption.
    d. It mixes food with digestive juices.
A

b. It moves food through the GI tract.

127
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of metabolism?
    a. It involves both a physical and a chemical breakdown of foods.
    b. It involves synthesis and decomposition.
    c. It occurs both inside and outside of cells.
    d. Energy is released from the process of anabolism and catabolism.
A

b. It involves synthesis and decomposition.

128
Q
  1. Catabolism is a _____ process involving the _____ of energy.
    a. decomposition; use
    b. synthesis; use
    c. decomposition; release
    d. synthesis; release
A

c. decomposition; release

129
Q
  1. The process of splitting glycogen is called:
    a. glycogenesis.
    b. glycogenolysis.
    c. gluconeogenesis.
A

b. glycogenolysis.

130
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct order of the body’s energy fuel preference, starting with the first choice and ending with the third choice?
    a. Fats, carbohydrates, proteins
    b. Carbohydrates, fats, proteins
    c. Proteins, carbohydrates, fats
    d. Carbohydrates, proteins, fats
A

b. Carbohydrates, fats, proteins

131
Q
  1. The Citric Acid cycle takes place in the:
    a. mitochondria.
    b. cytoplasm.
    c. Golgi apparatus.
    d. ribosome.
A

a. mitochondria.

132
Q
  1. When the blood glucose level starts to decrease toward lower than normal:
    a. liver cells increase the rate at which they convert glycogen, amino acids, and fats to glucose.
    b. there is an increase in glycogenolysis.
    c. there is an increase in gluconeogenesis.
    d. all of the above occur.
A

d. all of the above occur.
(a. liver cells increase the rate at which they convert glycogen, amino acids, and fats to glucose.
b. there is an increase in glycogenolysis.
c. there is an increase in gluconeogenesis.)

133
Q
  1. Which of the following is most indicative of a normal blood sugar level?
    a. 110 to 125 mg/100 ml
    b. 80 to 90 mg/100 ml
    c. 135 to 150 mg/100 ml
    d. 60 to 80 mg/100 ml
A

b. 80 to 90 mg/100 ml

134
Q
  1. The process of gluconeogenesis occurs in the:
    a. liver.
    b. skeletal muscle.
    c. brain.
    d. All of the above are correct.
A

a. liver.

135
Q
  1. The process by which proteins are synthesized by the ribosomes in all cells is called protein:
    a. catabolism.
    b. transcription.
    c. metabolism.
    d. anabolism.
A

d. anabolism.

136
Q
  1. Which of the following hormones is not hyperglycemic?
    a. Glucocorticoids
    b. Glucagon
    c. Insulin
    d. Epinephrine
A

c. Insulin

137
Q

The process of swallowing is known as:

a: mastication
b: deglutition
c: segmentation
d: peristalsis

A

b: deglutition

138
Q

Which is a true statement?

a. The oral stage of swallowing is involuntary and under the control of the cerebral cortex.
b. The pharyngeal stage of deglutition is voluntary.
c. The esophageal stage of swallowing is involuntary.
d. Both B and C are correct.

A

c. The esophageal stage of swallowing is involuntary.

139
Q

The purpose of peristalsis is to:
a. break apart chunks of food and mix it in digestive juices
b, enable swallowing.
c. propel food forward along the Gl tract.
d absorb food.

A

c. propel food forward along the Gl tract.

140
Q 
The final product of carbohydrate digestion is a:
a. disaccharide.
b, fatty acid.
c. monosaccharide.
d. polysaccharide.
A

c. monosaccharide.

141
Q 
The major final product that results from the digestion of carbohydrates is:
a maltose.
Lacose
c. sucrose.
d. glucose.
A

d. glucose.

142
Q

The process of fat emulsification consists of:
a. absorption of fats.
b. chemically breaking down fat molecules.
c, the secretion of digestive juices for fat digestion.
d. breaking fats into small droplets.

A

d. breaking fats into small droplets.

143
Q

Which phase(s) of gastric secretion is(are) stimulated by the sight, taste, and smell of food?

a. Intestinal phase
b. Cephalic phase
c. Gastric phase
d. All of the above

A

b. Cephalic phase

144
Q

The major site for the absorption of the end products of digestion is the:

a. cecum.
b. large intestine
c. small intestine.
d. stomach.

A

c. small intestine.

145
Q

Which of these is not an example of mechanical digestion?
a. Moistening the food
b. Changing food from large to small particles
c. Propelling food through the digestive tract
d All of the above are examples of mechanical digestion.

A

a. Moistening the food

146
Q 
The process of emulsification is important in the digestion of:
a. disaccharides.
b, proteins.
c. polysaccharides.
d fats.
A

d fats.

147
Q

Segmertation is different from peristalsis because:
a, there is no difference between segmentation and peristalsis.
b. segmentation only occurs in the stomach.
c. it does not move food through the digestive tract.
d. it is a type of mechanical digestion

A

c. it does not move food through the digestive tract.

148
Q 
Which of the following protein-digesting enzymes is made in the stomach?
a Pepsin
b Peptidase
Chymotrypsin
d. Trypsin
A

a Pepsin

149
Q 
The enzyme amylase is produced by the:
a, stomach.
b. pancreas.
c. salivary glands.
d. Both B and C are correct.
A

d. Both B and C are correct.

pancreas & salivary glands.

150
Q

Why caf it be said that absorption is the reason for digestion?
a. Even though digestion includes the processes of mechanical and chemical breakdown of ingested food, the optimum goal of digestion is to absorb nutrients.
b. Fluid balance, maintenance of core body temperature, numerous circadian rhythms, and regulation of pH and metabolic rates are included as parts of the absorption process.
c. Absorption involves the grinding action of the teeth and the mechanical mixing of food as it passes through the gastrointestinal
tract, thus allowing regulation of digestion.
d. The absorption process facilitates the emulsification of fats by breaking large fat drops into small droplets.

A

a. Even though digestion includes the processes of mechanical and chemical breakdown of ingested food, the optimum goal of digestion is to absorb nutrients.

151
Q

Which statement best explains the process of absorption?

a. Absorption is the movement by the muscular components of the digestive tube, including processes of mechanical digestion; examples include peristalsis and segmentation.
b. Absorption is the passage of substances (notably digested foods, water, salts, and vitamins) through the intestinal mUcoSa the blood or lymph.
c. Absorption releases digestive juices (containing enzymes, acids, bases, mucus, bile, or other products that facilitate digestion).
d. Absorption is the process of taking food into the mouth and starting it on its journey through the digestive tract.

A

b. Absorption is the passage of substances (notably digested foods, water, salts, and vitamins) through the intestinal mUcoSa the blood or lymph.

152
Q

Which of the following is true of energy released by the breakdown of food substances?

a. It is used to decompose ATP.
b. It is used directly for cell functioning.
c. It is used to synthesize ATP.
d. It is changed to heat energy and used for cell functioning.

A

c. It is used to synthesize ATP.

153
Q 
The preferred energy fuel of the body is:
a, amino acids.
b. fatty acids.
c. fructose.
d. glucose.
A

d. glucose.

154
Q 
The profess by which proteins are synthesized by the ribosomes in all cells is called protein:
a. Catabolism.
b. metabolism
c anabolism.
d. transcription.
A

c anabolism.

155
Q

The hormone capable of causing both protein anabolism and catabolism is:
a growth hormone.
b. thyroid hormone.
c. ACTH.

A

b. thyroid hormone.

156
Q

Diets high in saturated fats and cholesterol tend to increase the blood concentration.
a VLDL
b. LDL
c. HDL

A

b. LDL

157
Q

The most common lipids in the diet are:

a. prostaglandins.
b. cholesterol.
c. triglycerides.
d. phospholipids.

A

c. triglycerides.

158
Q 
Which of the following vitamins is not stored in significant amounts in the body and must be continually supplied to the diet?
Answers
a D
b. K
c. C
d. E
A

c. C

159
Q

A deficiency in which of the following minerals leads to thyroid enlargement and a decrease in the metabolic rate.

a. Potassium
b. Phosphorus
c. lodine
d. Calcium

A

c. lodine

160
Q 
The appetite center is located in the:
a hypothalamus.
b. stomach.
c. small intestine.
d. cerebrum,
A

a hypothalamus.

161
Q

The appetite center is located in the:

a. hypothalamus.
b. stomach.
c. small intestine.
d. cerebrum.

A

a. hypothalamus.

162
Q

Which of the following vitamins can the body make?

a. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin K
c. Biotin
d. The body can make all of the above vitamins.

A

a. Vitamin D

163
Q

Each renal papilla juts into a cuplike structure called the renal pyramid.
True or False

A

False

164
Q

True or False

The outer portion of the kidney is referred to as the cortex.

A

true

165
Q

True or False

There are three openings in the floor of the urinary bladder: two from the ureters and one into the urethra.

A

True

166
Q

True or False

A glomerulus is a group of capillaries located in a Bowman capsule

A

True

167
Q

True or False

The renal corpuscle is another name for the nephron.

A

False

168
Q

True or False

The kidneys influence secretion of the hormone aldosterone.

A

True

169
Q

True or False

Both ADH and aldosterone attempt to decrease normal urine output.

A

True

170
Q

True or false

The renal pyramids are in the medulla of the kidney.

A

True

171
Q

Which of the following is/are classified as an accessory organ of the urinary system?

a. Ureters
b. Urinary bladder
c. Urethra
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

ureters, urinary bladder, urethra

172
Q

The calyces of the kidney join together to form a large collection reservoir called the:

a. Renal columns
b. Renal pyramids
c. Renal pelvis
d. Hilum

A

c. Renal pelvis

173
Q

Which of these statements is not true of the kidney?

a. The kidney is usually located next to the vertebrae from T12 to L3
b. The kidney is retroperitoneal
c. The kidney is protected by a heavy layer of fat
d. All of the above are true

A

d. All of the above are true
(The kidney is usually located next to the vertebrae from T12 to L3, The kidney is retroperitoneal, The kidney is protected by a heavy layer of fat)

174
Q

Urine formation involves all the following processes except:

a. Filtration
b. Catabolism
c. Reabsorption
d. Secretion

A

b. Catabolism

175
Q

Which of the following is not a normal constituent of urine?

a. Nitrogenous wastes
b. Hormones
c. Pigments
d. Plasma proteins

A

d. Plasma proteins

176
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of total body water?
    a. Overweight people have lower water content per kilogram of body weight than slender people.
    b. Women have higher water content than men.
    c. Total body water ranges between 30% and 40% of the total body weight.
    d. Elderly people have higher water content than younger people.
A

a. Overweight people have lower water content per kilogram of body weight than slender people.

177
Q

The total fluid or water content of the human body ranges from _____ of its total weight.

	a. 45% to 75%
	b. 75% to 85%
	c. 15% to 25%
	d. 25% to 45%
A

a. 45% to 75%

178
Q

In young adults, the percentage of body weight composed of water will average about _____ for males and _____ for females.

	a. 60%; 70%
	b. 40%; 50%
	c. 60%; 50%
	d. 70%; 60%
A

c. 60%; 50%

179
Q

Which of the following is not a method used for parenteral administration?

	a. By mouth
	b. Intravenous
	c. Intramuscular
	d. Subcutaneous
A

a. By mouth

180
Q

Parenteral solutions are given to:

	a. meet current maintenance needs for nutrients, fluids, and electrolytes.
	b. replace past losses.
	c. replace concurrent losses (additional losses that are in excess of maintenance needs).
	d. do all of the above.
A

d. do all of the above.

181
Q
  1. Water normally leaves the body through _____ exits.
    a. five
    b. two
    c. four
    d. three
A

c. four

182
Q
  1. Abnormal conditions that cause fluid and electrolyte output to exceed input include all the following except:
    a. diarrhea.
    b. vomiting.
    c. hyperventilating.
    d. drinking liquids too fast.
A

d. drinking liquids too fast.

183
Q

The thirst center, which contains specialized cells called osmoreceptors, is located in the:

	a. pons.
	b. anterior pituitary.
	c. posterior pituitary.
	d. hypothalamus.
A

d. hypothalamus.

184
Q
  1. Which of the following electrolytes is not a cation?
    a. Chloride
    b. Calcium
    c. Potassium
    d. Magnesium
A

a. Chloride

185
Q
  1. What is the most abundant cation in extracellular fluid?
    a. Chlorine
    b. Sodium
    c. Magnesium
    d. Potassium
A

b. Sodium

186
Q
  1. What is the most abundant cation in intracellular fluid?
    a. Potassium
    b. Sodium
    c. Chlorine
    d. Magnesium
A

a. Potassium

187
Q
  1. Edema is defined as abnormally large amounts of fluid in the:
    a. capillaries.
    b. cells.
    c. veins.
    d. intercellular spaces.
A

d. intercellular spaces.

188
Q
  1. Edema may occur when:
    a. sodium is retained in the extracellular fluid as a result of increased aldosterone secretion or after serious renal disease such as acute glomerulonephritis.
    b. an increase in capillary blood pressure occurs.
    c. a decrease in the concentration of plasma proteins normally retained in the blood occurs.
    d. all of the above occur.
A

d. all of the above occur.
(sodium is retained in the extracellular fluid as a result of increased aldosterone secretion or after serious renal disease such as acute glomerulonephritis, an increase in capillary blood pressure occurs, a decrease in the concentration of plasma proteins normally retained in the blood occurs.)

189
Q

The major organ that balances sodium and potassium in the body is the:

	a. gastrointestinal tract.
	b. kidney.
	c. skin.
	d. lungs.
A

b. kidney.

190
Q
  1. Aged individuals of either sex may have less total body water because of their:
    a. reduced kidney function.
    b. decreased percentage of body fat.
    c. decreased muscle mass.
    d. Both A and B are correct.
A

c. decreased muscle mass.

191
Q
  1. An intravenous addition of sodium can be used to treat:
    a. hyponatremia.
    b. hypokalemia.
    c. hypernatremia.
    d. hyperkalemia.
A

a. hyponatremia.

192
Q
  1. Potassium-rich foods can be used to treat:
    a. hyperkalemia.
    b. hyponatremia.
    c. hypernatremia.
    d. hypokalemia.
A

d. hypokalemia.

193
Q
  1. Which type of tissue has the least amount of water?
    a. Bone
    b. Muscle
    c. Adipose
    d. Nervous
A

c. Adipose

194
Q
  1. The regulation of acid-base balance in the body fluids refers to the control of _____ ion concentration.
    a. bicarbonate
    b. potassium
    c. hydrogen
    d. chloride
A

c. hydrogen

195
Q
  1. Which of the following would indicate a neutral solution?
    a. pH 8
    b. pH 7
    c. pH 6
    d. pH 10
A

b. pH 7

196
Q
  1. Ketone bodies are associated with cellular metabolism of:
    a. vitamins.
    b. fats.
    c. proteins.
    d. carbohydrates.
A

b. fats.

197
Q
  1. Which of the following types of acids would be produced as a result of glucose catabolism?
    a. Sulfuric
    b. Phosphoric
    c. Acetoacetic
    d. Lactic
A

d. Lactic

198
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered a powerful physiological buffering system of the body?
    a. Skin
    b. Kidney
    c. Intestine
    d. Liver
A

b. Kidney

199
Q
  1. Which of the following is a true statement?
    a. Venous blood has a higher pH than arterial blood.
    b. Venous blood has a lower hydrogen ion concentration than arterial blood.
    c. Arterial blood has a higher hydrogen ion concentration than venous blood.
    d. Arterial blood has an average pH of 7.41.
A

d. Arterial blood has an average pH of 7.41.

200
Q
  1. In acidosis, the renal tubule excretion of hydrogen ions:
    a. does not change.
    b. decreases only when potassium ion excretion increases.
    c. increases.
    d. decreases.
A

c. increases.

201
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered a direct acid-forming food?
    a. Citrus fruit
    b. Vinegar
    c. Cranberries
    d. All of the above are considered direct acid-forming foods
A

c. Cranberries

202
Q
  1. If the blood pH decreases below normal, the kidney tubules secrete _____ urine.
    a. fewer hydrogen ions from blood to
    b. more hydrogen ions from blood to
    c. more sodium ions into the
    d. Both A and C will occur.
A

b. more hydrogen ions from blood to

203
Q
  1. Hyperventilation can result in loss of consciousness because:
    a. oxygen levels become too high.
    b. oxygen levels become too low.
    c. of alkalosis.
    d. carbon dioxide levels are elevated.
A

c. of alkalosis.

204
Q
  1. When the kidney secretes hydrogen ions, it primarily reabsorbs _____ ions.
    a. sodium
    b. chloride
    c. potassium
    d. calcium
A

a. sodium

205
Q
  1. Hyperkalemia may have a major effect on which of the following?
    a. Liver
    b. Heart
    c. Gastrointestinal tract
    d. Kidney
A

b. Heart

206
Q
  1. Which of the following would be important in treating metabolic alkalosis?
    a. Potassium ions
    b. Sodium ions
    c. Chloride ions
    d. Bicarbonate ions
A

c. Chloride ions

207
Q
  1. A solution with a pH of 6 would have _____ ions than a solution with a pH of 4.
    a. more hydrogen
    b. fewer hydrogen
    c. fewer hydroxide
    d. Both A and C are correct.
A

b. fewer hydrogen

208
Q
  1. Which of the following is most basic?
    a. Household ammonia
    b. Oven cleaner
    c. Great Salt Lake water
    d. Baking soda
A

b. Oven cleaner

A&P 2 (7 decks)

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