Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is external respiration

A

Occurs in the lungs

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2
Q

What is internal respiration

A

Occurs in peripheral tissue

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3
Q

What are secondary functions of the respiratory system

A

Voice production, body temperature, regulation, acid base balance regulation, and sense of smell

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4
Q

What is phonation

A

Voice production that begins in the larynx (voice box) and the vocal cords stretches across lumen of the larynx, vibrates as air passes over them, and produces basic sound of animal’s voice

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5
Q

How is body temperature regulated by the respiratory system

A

Involves many body systems utilizing superficial blood vessels lining the nasal passages

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6
Q

How does panting affect temperature regulation

A

It increases evaporation of fluids to cool circulating blood

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7
Q

How does the respiratory system balance acid-base

A

It influences the amount of CO2 in the blood by the rate of breathing to maintain a normal blood pH of 7.4 (7.35-7.45)

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8
Q

What are the structures in the URT

A

Nose, nasal passages, sinuses, pharynx, larynx, and trachea

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9
Q

What are the nares

A

External openings of the respiratory tube that contains nasal passages btw the nares and pharynx

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10
Q

What is the nasal septum

A

The midline of the nose

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11
Q

What are the turbinates (nasal conchae)

A

Divide each nasal passages into 3 main passageways such as the ventral nasal meatus, middle nasal meatus, and dorsal nasal meatus

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12
Q

What type of tissue lines the nasal passages and why

A

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium, cilia, mucus, and blood vessels the modified epithelium aids in filtering inhaled air and the cilia beat up mucus to be coughed up or swallowed

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13
Q

What are the main functions of the nasal passages

A

Condition inhaled air by warming, humidifying, and filtering the air to reduce trauma and inflammation in the LRT

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14
Q

What are sinuses

A

Ciliated outpouchings of the nasal passages that are named for the skull bones that house them such as the frontal and maxillary

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15
Q

What is the pharynx

A

The throat is the common passageway for respiratory and digestive systems that is divided at rostral end by the soft palate and opens at the caudal end into the esophagus and larynx

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16
Q

What is the nasopharynx

A

The respiratory rostral end of the pharynx that is above the soft palate

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17
Q

What is the oropharynx

A

The digestive rostral end of the pharynx that is below the soft palate

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18
Q

What is the larynx

A

Connects the pharynx w/ the trachea, is supported by the hyoid bone, and is made of cartilage segments epiglottis, arytenoid cartilages (2), thyroid cartilage, and cricoid cartilage

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19
Q

What is the role of the epiglottis

A

Covers the larynx opening when swallowing

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20
Q

Where do the vocal cords attach to

A

The arytenoid cartilages

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21
Q

What is the role of muscles attached to the cartilages of the larynx

A

To adjust tension in the cords changing pitch

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22
Q

What are false vocal cords in non ruminants

A

Second set of CT bands also known as the vestibular folds

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23
Q

What are the functions of the larynx

A

Part of the upper airway, voice production, prevention of inhalation of foreign matter, and control of airflow to and from the lungs

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24
Q

What is the roaring horse or larpar

A

Abnormal laxity of one or both sides of the larynx

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25
Q

What is the trachea

A

Short wide tube of fibrous tissue and smooth muscle held open by cartilage rings that extends from the larynx into thorax at base of heart where it is then referred to as the tracheal bifurcation

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26
Q

What is the purpose of the trachea’s C-shaped rings

A

To prevent collapse during inhalation

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27
Q

What are the structures of the LRT

A

Bronchial tree broken up into the bronchi, bronchioles, and alveolar ducts and the alveoli

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28
Q

What are the bronchi

A

The 2 main stems that are covered in smooth muscle

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29
Q

How does the ANS control the diameter of the bronchi

A

By adjusting the muscle fibers in their walls causing either bronchodilation or bronchoconstriction

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30
Q

What does spasms of bronchoconstriction result in

A

Asthma

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31
Q

What are the alveoli

A

Tiny thin walled sacs surrounded by capillaries, their sacs are lined w/ a thin layer of fluid that contains surfactant, and this is where external respiration takes place in alveoli

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32
Q

What is surfactant

A

Lowers the surface tension at the air/liquid interface and prevents alveolar collapses at the end of respiration

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33
Q

What is the alveolar membrane or the gas/blood barrier

A

The walls of the alveolus that has simple squamous epithelium, goes to its basement membrane, goes to the walls of the capillaries consisting of the endothelium, to its basement membrane

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34
Q

How is each lung lobe attached to each other

A

By its root and pulmonary ligament

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35
Q

What are characteristics of a normal lung

A

Elastic, contains considerable amount of air, light in weight, floats in water, soft & spongy, crepitates when squeezed, and pale pink in color

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36
Q

How are lobes distinguished externally and internally

A

Externally by visible grooves and clefts and internally by major branches of bronchi

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37
Q

What is the basic lung pattern across most species

A

3 lobes in the left lung (cranial, middle, and caudal) and 4 lobes in the right lung (cranial, middle, caudal, and accessory)

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38
Q

What lung lobes are missing in horses

A

The medial lung lobes

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39
Q

What is the hilus

A

Small well defined area on medial side where air, blood, lymph, and nerves enter/leave the lung

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40
Q

What is the pleura

A

Thin glistening serous membrane arranged in 2 sacs w/ a space btw them (mediastinal space)

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41
Q

What is parietal pleura line

A

The mediastinum and the walls of the thorax

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42
Q

What intrapleural space

A

The space btw the parietal and visceral pleura

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43
Q

Why does the intrapleural space contain a small amount of serous fluid

A

To allow frictionless motion of the lungs

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44
Q

What is the thorax bounded by

A

The thoracic vertebrae, ribs, intercostal muscles, and sternum

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45
Q

What are the main contents of the thorax

A

Lungs, heart, large blood vessels, nerves, trachea, esophagus, lymphatic vessels, and lymph nodes

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46
Q

What is the mediastinum

A

Portion of the thorax btw the lungs

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47
Q

What is contained in the mediastinum

A

Heart, trachea, esophagus, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic structures

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48
Q

What is the cranial mediastinum

A

Part of the mediastinum cranial to the heart

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49
Q

What is the middle mediastinum

A

Part of the mediastinum containing the heart

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50
Q

What is the caudal mediastinum

A

Part of the mediastinum caudal to the heart

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51
Q

What is the diaphragm

A

Thin sheet of skeletal muscle that forms the caudal boundary of the thorax and acts as a respiratory muscle

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52
Q

What are the functions of the negative intrathoracic pressure

A

Provides a partial vacuum pulling the lungs tightly out against the thoracic wall, allows the lungs to follow movements of the thoracic wall/diaphragm, and aids in return of blood to the heart

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53
Q

How is inspiration an active process

A

Muscles cause thoracic cavity to enlarge increasing the volume leading to a drop in pressure drawing air in

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54
Q

Why does air flow in the lungs during inspiration

A

Because pressure w/in the lungs becomes lower than the atmospheric pressure

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55
Q

Why does air flow out of the lungs during expiration

A

Because the intrapulmonic pressure exceeds the atmospheric pressure at the time

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56
Q

What is respiratory frequency

A

Number of respiratory cycles per minute

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57
Q

What can affect the respiratory frequency

A

Body size, age, exercise, excitement, environmental temperatures, pregnancy, degree of filling of the digestive tract, and state of health

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58
Q

What happens when expansion of the lungs are restricted

A

Adequate ventilation is maintained by increased frequency

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59
Q

What is tidal volume

A

Volume of air inspired and expired in one breath

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60
Q

What is minute volume

A

Volume of air inspired and expired in one minute

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61
Q

What is residual volume

A

Volume of air remaining in the lungs after full exhalation

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62
Q

What is hemoglobin

A

The principle component for oxygenation in RBCs it is composed of 4 heme groups combined w/ one molecule of globin, each heme group contains an iron atom that combines w/ 1 oxygen molecule

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63
Q

What things affect the oxygen carrying capacity of an erythrocyte

A

Change in pH (decrease), change in CO2 concentration (increase), change in blood temperature (increases), nitrate poisoning, and carbon monoxide poisoning

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64
Q

What does exchange of gases depend on

A

Ventilation, diffusion, and blood flow in pulmonary vessels

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65
Q

How does nitrate poisoning affect the oxygen carrying capacity of an RBC or Hb

A

The heme is oxidized to its ferric state so it can’t carry O2 and is referred to as methemoglobin

66
Q

How does carbon monoxide poisoning affect the oxygen carrying capacity of an RBC or Hb

A

Carboxyhemoglobin is formed because CO occupies the site normally occupied by oxygen and Hb has a much greater affinity for CO than for O2

67
Q

What is partial pressure

A

Pressure of each individual gas

68
Q

What part of the brain controls breathing

A

Medulla oblongata

69
Q

How is the mechanical control system for breathing controlled

A

Thru stretch receptors in the lungs

70
Q

What is the mechanical process of breathing

A

Nerve impulses sent to the respiratory center indicate when lungs inflate to certain point, muscle contractions that produce inspiration are stopped, muscle contractions to produce expiration are initiated, another set of nerve impulses is sent when the lungs deflate to a certain point, and expiration is stopped beginning the process of inspiration again

71
Q

What is the chemical control system of breathing

A

When the system affects breathing pattern when something in the body is out of balance this is monitored by chemical receptors in the carotid artery, aorta, and brain stem that monitor CO2 content, pH, and O2 content

72
Q

What does slight hypoxia trigger

A

The respiratory center to increase rate and depth of breathing

73
Q

What does severe hypoxia trigger

A

Neurons of respiratory system becomes so depressed that impulses cannot be sent to respiratory muscles and can cause breathing to decrease or stop completely

74
Q

What are metabolic waste products

A

Potentially harmful substances to the body that must be eliminated

75
Q

What are routes for waste product elimination

A

Respiratory system (CO2 and water vapor), sweat glands (water, salts, and urea), digestive system (bile salts and pigments), and urinary system (urea, salts, water, and other soluble waste products)

76
Q

What is the urinary system

A

Single most important route for removal of waste products removing nearly all soluble waste from the blood, transports soluble waste out of the body, and the major route for elimination of excess water

77
Q

What are the parts of the urinary system

A

Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra

78
Q

What are the functions of the kidneys

A

Maintenance of homeostasis through blood filtration, reabsorption, and secretion, fluid balance regulation w/ ADH and aldosterone, acid base balance regulation, production of hormones such as erythropoietin and prostaglandins, and BP regulation

79
Q

What are the kidneys surrounded by

A

Perirenal fat

80
Q

What is the renal pelvis

A

Pelvis receives urine from ducts and transmits urine to the ureters and is expanded at the proximal end of the ureters

81
Q

What are the kidneys incapsuled in

A

A fibrous connective tissue

82
Q

What is the renal cortex

A

The outer layer of the kidney parenchyma beneath the capsule

83
Q

What is the renal medulla

A

The inner layer of the kidney parenchyma projecting into the renal pelvis w/ one or more papillae that contains collecting ducts and nephric loops

84
Q

What is the renal papilla

A

The apices of the renal pyramids (kidney lobule)

85
Q

What is the calyx

A

Funnel shaped to direct urine into the renal pelvis

86
Q

What is a nephron

A

The basic functional unit of the kidney the number of these varies w/ the size of the animal that is composed of the renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), loop of henle, and distal convoluted tubule (DCT)

87
Q

What is the renal corpuscle

A

Located in the renal cortex it is a dilated origin of a renal tubule w/ a tuft of capillaries that contains a glomerulus surrounded by the Bowman’s capsule

88
Q

What is the function of the glomerulus

A

Filters blood in first stage of urine production forming the glomerular filtrate about 20% of substances are reabsorbed here

89
Q

What is the proximal convoluted tubule

A

The continuation of capsular space of Bowman’s capsule where the glomerular filtrate is now called the tubular filtrate, it is lined w/ cuboidal cells, concentrate and excrete waste products from the blood into the tubular lumen

90
Q

Why is the PCT lined w/ cuboidal cells

A

Because most substances are reabsorbed here including 85% of the salt and water, 80% of the bicarb, glucose, and AA

91
Q

What is the loop of henle

A

A continuation from PCT, descends in the medulla, makes a U-turn, and heads back into cortex, the ascending wall becomes thicker again, and contains the most concentrated urine w/ the highest concentration at the lowest end of the loop

92
Q

What is the distal convoluted tubule (DCT)

A

The continuation of ascending loop of Henle that empty into the collecting ducts in the renal pelvis, is the primary site of ADH action, and regulates the potassium and acid base balance

93
Q

How does the SNS alter kidney function

A

It can stimulate vasoconstriction of renal vessels to temporarily decrease urine making

94
Q

How does the renal artery change as it enters the hilus

A

Subdivides to become series of afferent glomerular arterioles

95
Q

How are peritubular capillaries organized in the kidney

A

They run down w/ the nephron collection down to the loop of Henle where oxygen transfers to cells of nephron

96
Q

At what level does tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion occur at

A

At the peritubular capillaries

97
Q

What are the mechanisms of renal action

A

Filtration of the blood, reabsorption of useful substances back into the bloodstream from urine, and secretion of waste products

98
Q

Where is the blood filtrated

A

Occurs in renal corpuscle

99
Q

How is the blood filtered in the nephron

A

High BP in the glomerular capillaries forces some plasma into the capsular space of Bowman’s capsule forming the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) that depends on the rate of blood flow to kidney

100
Q

What does the kidney reabsorb from urine

A

Useful substances such as Na, K, Ca, Mg, glucose, AA, Cl, bicarbonate, and H2O are absorbed from the tubules of the nephron to the peritubular capillaries

101
Q

What is secreted in the DCT

A

Waste products such as H, K, and ammonia are eliminated along w/ some medications

102
Q

How is the urine volume regulated

A

It is determined by the amount of water contained in tubular filtrate when it reaches the renal pelvis that is controlled by actions of ADH and aldosterone

103
Q

What happens if ADH is absent

A

Polyuria occurs resulting in diabetes insipidus

104
Q

What is the purpose of ADH

A

Increasing the reabsorption of water from the DCT and collecting ducts so low osmotic pressure of dilute blood inhibits the release of ADH from the pituitary gland and high osmotic pressure stimulates the release of ADH

105
Q

What other drugs or stress chemicals stimulate the release of ADH

A

Acetylcholine, nicotine, adrenaline, and barbiturates

106
Q

What is the purpose of aldosterone

A

Increases the reabsorption of water due to active reabsorption of Na in DCT and collecting ducts stimulating the cells to reabsorb Na

107
Q

How is water retained in the nephron under normal conditions

A

80% is retained in the PCT, 5% is reabsorbed in the loop of Henle, and 15% is influenced by ADH or aldosterone

108
Q

What are the steps of the kidneys maintaining BP

A

RAAS system responds when blood pressure falls, renin is released and splits enzyme angiotensin, increased amounts of Na and water reabsorbed back into bloodstream causing an increase in blood volume, and as blood volume increases so does BP

109
Q

What are the ureters

A

Tubes that are a continuation of the renal pelvis that exits the kidney at the hilus and then connect to the urinary bladder that

110
Q

What is the trigone

A

Arrangement of openings of ureters into the bladder and opening from bladder into the urethra

111
Q

What are the 3 layers of the kidney

A

Outer fibrous layer, middle muscular layer that propels urine by peristalsis, and inner epithelial layer that allows ureters to stretch when urine passes thru

112
Q

Why do the ureters enter the bladder at an oblique angle

A

So the openings collapse when the bladder is full to prevent backup of urine into the ureters

113
Q

What are ectopic ureters

A

Ureter that terminates some place other than the urinary bladder resulting in urinary incontinence

114
Q

What is the bladder

A

Stores urine as it is produced releasing urine periodically from the body it is composed of a muscular sac (apex) and neck (trigone)

115
Q

What is the detrusor muscle

A

Smooth muscle that is the sac of the bladder that contracts to expel urine

116
Q

What provides voluntary control over the urination process

A

The circular sphincter that is around the neck of the bladder

117
Q

What is urination

A

Micturition/uresis is the expulsion of urine from the urinary bladder into the urethra for elimination from the bladder

118
Q

What are the 3 steps of urination

A

Urine accumulation, detrusor muscle contraction, and sphincter muscle control

119
Q

What type of receptors are in the bladder

A

Stretch receptors signal when it is full

120
Q

What happens when the involuntary bladder muscles contract

A

After the spinal reflex is activated the motor impulse is sent to detrusor muscle contracting the smooth muscle in the bladder wall if the animal is not potty trained this is when the bladder empties

121
Q

What happens when the voluntary bladder muscles are being stimulated

A

Voluntary control of sphincter around the neck of the bladder offers temporary control of urination, the fuller the bladder the more pressure on the sphincter muscle, eventually the sphincter muscle relaxes, and urine is released

122
Q

What is the urethra

A

Continuation of the neck of the bladder that carries urine from the bladder runs thru the pelvic canal and to the external environment

123
Q

What are characteristics of female urethras

A

Shorter and straighter, opens on floor of vestibule of the vulva, lined w/ transitional epithelium allowing it to expand, and strictly a urinary function

124
Q

What are characteristics of the male urethra

A

Longer and curved, runs along the ventral aspect of the penis, lined w/ transitional epithelium allowing it to expand, and has both urinary and reproductive functions

125
Q

What are things that can cause urinary incontinence

A

Hormone responsive, polyps or tumors, ectopic ureters, uroliths, and spinal injury

126
Q

What is a blocked cat

A

When the urethral outflow is obstructed due to urolith or mucus lodge in the urethra

127
Q

Where does spermatogenesis occur

A

In the seminiferous tubules of the testes

128
Q

Where are androgens produced

A

In the Cells of Leydig of the seminiferous tubules

129
Q

What is the band of CT that attaches the testes to the scrotum

A

Gubernaculum

130
Q

What are the 2 layers of CT that surround the testes and spermatic cord

A

The visceral vaginal tunic (proper vaginal tunic) and parietal vaginal tunic (common vaginal tunic)

131
Q

What is the tunica albuginea

A

Fibrous connective tissue capsule that encloses each testis divided into tiny lobules by the septa

132
Q

What is the rete testis

A

Connects the seminiferous tubules w/ the ductus deferens

133
Q

What is the sertoli cells

A

Support developing spermatids and shield from body’s immune system

134
Q

What are the 2 portions of the male urethra

A

The pelvic and penile

135
Q

What is the purpose of accessory reproductive glands

A

To produce an alkaline fluid to help counteract acidity of female reproductive tract this fluid is filled w/ electrolytes, fructose, and prostaglandins

136
Q

What are the 3 accessory reproductive glands

A

Seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral glands

137
Q

What is the only species that does not have bulbourethral glands

A

Dogs

138
Q

What does the penis comprise

A

Muscle, erectile tissue, connective tissue, a large blood supply, and many sensory nerve endings

139
Q

What are the 3 main parts of the penis

A

Roots, body, and glans

140
Q

What are the roots of the penis

A

2 bands of crura that attach the penis to the brim of the pelvis

141
Q

What is the body of the penis

A

Corpus cavernosum contains 2 bundles of erectile tissue w/ sinuses that engorge w/ blood and the corpus spongiosum

142
Q

What is the glans

A

Distal end of the penis w/ numerous sensory nerves

143
Q

What is the prepuce

A

Sheath of skin that encloses the penis when it is not erect

144
Q

What is phimosis

A

Stricture of the preputial orifice

145
Q

What is the paraphimosis

A

Protrusion of the penis through a constricted preputial orifice and the inability to retract it

146
Q

What is the sigmoid flexure

A

Present in bulls, bucks, rams, and boars where the erection results from straightening the S shape of non erect penis

147
Q

What pulls the penis back into the prepuce after erection in the sigmoid flexure species

A

The retractor penis muscle

148
Q

What is the suspensory ligament

A

Attaches the ovary to the retroperitoneum

149
Q

What is the mesosalphinx

A

Supports the oviduct

150
Q

What is the round ligament

A

Attaches the uterine horn to the inguinal ring

151
Q

What is the corpus luteum

A

Temporary endocrine gland from ovulated follicle

152
Q

What is a primary follicle

A

Immature oocyte surrounded by single layer of flattened follicular cells

153
Q

What forms around a growing follicle and why

A

Glycoprotein zona pellucida layer to protect during fertilization by preventing polyspermy, protects blastocyst, and prevents premature implantation

154
Q

When is the antrum formed

A

During the growing follicle phase

155
Q

What forms around the zona pellucida in a mature follicle

A

Corona radiata it supplies proteins to the ovum

156
Q

What is the corona radiata surrounded by

A

The cumulus oophorus

157
Q

What species are induced ovulators

A

Cats, rabbits, and ferrets

158
Q

What is follicular atresia

A

When a follicle does not fully develop this can occur at any stage of development

159
Q

What catches the ova

A

Fimbriae in the infundibulum

160
Q

What are the 3 layers of the uterus

A

Endometrium, myometrium, and perimetrium

161
Q

What type of suture is used w/ uterine prolapse

A

Buhner