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Vet Anatomy > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the characteristics of muscle tissue

A

Excitability, contractibility, extensibility, and elasticity

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2
Q

What are the primary functions of muscle

A

Provide motion, maintain posture, and generate heat

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3
Q

What happens to skeletal muscle when damaged

A

It is repaired or replaced by connective tissue new skeletal muscle fibers are not formed

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4
Q

What happens to skeletal muscle if the nerve supply to the muscle is destroyed

A

The muscle atrophies

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5
Q

What is a fascicle

A

A bundle of muscle fibers

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6
Q

What is the endomysium

A

A connective sheath that covers each muscle fiber

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7
Q

What is the perimysium

A

Connective sheath that covers a fascicle

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8
Q

What is the epimysium

A

Connective sheath that covers the entire muscle

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9
Q

What is the fascia

A

Binds muscles to each other and keeps them in position and separates them

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10
Q

What is the deep fascia

A

Surrounds a group of muscles and goes in btw the ind muscles

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11
Q

What is superficial fascia

A

Loosely connected to muscle and is usually next to the skin

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12
Q

What is the belly of the muscle

A

The thickest part of the muscle

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13
Q

What is a digastric muscle

A

If the muscle is divided by an intermediate tendon so that it actually has 2 bellies

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14
Q

What are the skeletal muscle attachments comprised of

A

Tendons and aponeuroses are formed from continuations of the epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium

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15
Q

What is aponeuroses

A

Attached to bones or muscles by broad sheets of fibrous tissue

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16
Q

What is the origin of a skeletal muscle

A

The more stable attachment site that does not move much when the muscle contracts

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17
Q

What is the insertion site for skeletal muscles

A

Site that undergoes the most movement when a muscle contracts

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18
Q

What is a agonist skeletal muscle

A

The prime mover that directly produces a desired movement

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19
Q

What is an antagonist skeletal muscle

A

Directly opposes the action of an agonist

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20
Q

What is the synergist skeletal muscle

A

Contracts at same time as agonist to assist its action such as the deep and superficial digital flexor muscles

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21
Q

What are fixator skeletal muscles

A

Stabilizes joints to allow other movements such as digital flexors + extensors allowing flexion of digits w/o flexing wrist

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22
Q

What is a synergistic action

A

Muscles working together to produce smooth and controlled movement indirectly aiding the action of the prime mover

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23
Q

What is rotation

A

The movement of a part around its long axis

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24
Q

What is circumduction

A

The movement of an extremity that describes the surface of a cone

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25
Q

What is supination

A

Movement of the forearm so the palmar side is rotated upward or forward

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26
Q

What is pronation

A

The movement of the palmar side of the paw or foot downward or backward

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27
Q

What are the characteristics that goes into the name of a skeletal muscle

A

Action, shape, location, direction of fibers, number of heads, and attachment sites

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28
Q

What is the function of the masseter muscle and where is it located

A

It enables mastication and is located on the side of the cheeks

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29
Q

What muscles are responsible for raising the head and neck

A

The splenius and trapezius

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30
Q

Where is the trapezius located

A

It is on the dorsal aspect of the neck

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31
Q

Where is the splenius muscle located

A

It is the most cranial muscle in the middle of the neck taking up the top 3rd of the neck

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32
Q

What is the function and location of the brachiocephalicus muscle

A

It extends the head and neck and is located on the ventral aspect of the neck

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33
Q

What is the function of the sternocephalicus and where is it located

A

It flexes the head and neck and it is ventral of the brachiocephalicus

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34
Q

What are the functions of the abdominal skeletal muscles

A

Support abdominal organs, help flex the back, participate in defecation, urination, parturition, vomiting, and regurgitation increasing intraabdominal pressure, and contributes to respiration as a fail safe

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35
Q

What are the layers of the abdominal skeletal muscles

A

External abdominal oblique muscle, internal abdominal oblique muscles, rectus abdominis, and transversus abdominis

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36
Q

What is the linea alba

A

The left and right parts of the abdominal muscles that come together in the center of the abdomen

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37
Q

What is the function of the thoracic limb skeletal muscles

A

Functions mainly for locomotion

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38
Q

What are the adductor muscles in the thoracic limb

A

Latissimus dorsi (pull up) and pectoral muscles (bear hug)

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39
Q

What is the abductor muscle in the thoracic limb

A

Deltoid muscle (shoulder caps)

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40
Q

What are the brachial muscles

A

Biceps brachii and triceps brachii

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41
Q

What are the carpal and digital muscles

A

Extensor carpi radialis and deep digital flexor

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42
Q

Where is the latissimus dorsi muscle located

A

Runs along the craniodorsal part of the abdomen

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43
Q

Where is the deep pectoral muscle located

A

It is on the cranioventral aspect of the abdomen near the thoracic limb

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44
Q

Where is the ulnar carpal flexor and extensor muscle

A

On the caudal side of the thoracic limb

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45
Q

Where is the extensor muscles of carpus and digits

A

On the cranial aspect of the thoracic limb

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46
Q

Where are the triceps muscles located

A

Proximal to the extensor and ulnar muscles

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47
Q

Where are deltoid muscles located

A

Cranial to the tricep muscles near the point of the shoulder

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48
Q

What is the function of the pelvic limb skeletal muscles

A

Locomotion

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49
Q

What are the extensor muscles in the hip joint

A

Gluteal muscles and hamstring muscle group

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50
Q

What are the muscles in the hamstring muscle group

A

Biceps femoris, semimembranosus muscle, and semitendinosus muscle

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51
Q

Where is the biceps femoris

A

On the lateral caudal aspect of the proximal femur

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52
Q

Where is the semitendinosus muscle

A

Medial to the biceps femoris

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53
Q

Where is the semimembranosus muscle

A

Medial to the proximal end of the semitendinosus muscle

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54
Q

What are the extensor muscles of the stifle joint

A

The quadriceps femoris

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55
Q

What are the different parts of the quadriceps femoris

A

Rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, and vastus medialis

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56
Q

Where is the rectus femoris located

A

On the medial superficial aspect of the femur

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57
Q

Where is the vastus intermedius

A

Sits under the rectus femoris

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58
Q

Where is the vastus lateralis

A

On the lateral aspect of the rectus femoris

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59
Q

Where is the vastus medialis

A

On the medial aspect of the rectus femoris

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60
Q

What are the muscles in the tarsus and digits

A

The gastrocnemius muscle including the achilles tendon

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61
Q

Where is the gastrocnemius muscle

A

On the caudal aspect of the tibia and fibiula

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62
Q

What is the function of the skeletal muscles used in respiration

A

Increase and decrease size of thoracic cavity

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63
Q

What are the inspiratory muscles

A

Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

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64
Q

What are the expiratory muscles

A

Internal intercostal muscles and abdominal muscles

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65
Q

What are the 3 respiration fail safes

A

The external intercostal muscles, internal intercostal muscles, and abdominal muscles

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66
Q

What are the red muscle fibers

A

Produce tonic contractions that are sustained over long periods of time but have little force and are aerobic such as slow twitch fibers

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67
Q

What are white fibers

A

Contract phasically w/ the strength of contraction building to a peak then relaxing and are anaerobic such as fast twitch fibers

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68
Q

What is a sarcolemma

A

The cell/fiber membrane of a muscle fiber that have invaginates w/in cell making T-tubules

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69
Q

What is the sarcoplasm

A

The cytoplasm of a muscle fiber

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70
Q

What does each fiber contain

A

Longitudinal myofibrils packed together like pencils

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71
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

The endoplasmic reticulum in muscle fibers that store Ca there are a lot of these on myofibrils

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72
Q

What are myofibrils composed of

A

Actin and myosin

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73
Q

What is a sarcomere

A

Contractile units of muscle cells that are laid end to end w/in one myofibrils

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74
Q

What are Z discs

A

Shared end caps of sarcomeres

75
Q

What are A bands

A

Actin + myosin filaments

76
Q

What are H bands

A

Myosin filaments only

77
Q

What are I bands

A

Actin filaments only

78
Q

What is the Z line

A

Aligned z discs that are aligned w/ actin filaments

79
Q

What is a motor unit

A

Nerve cell + axon + muscle fiber

80
Q

What type of muscles are capable of precise motor action

A

The ones w/ many motor units/fiber

81
Q

What sized muscles have fewer motor units

A

Large muscles

82
Q

What kind of muscles have huge numbers of muscle fibers per motor unit

A

Large powerful moving muscles

83
Q

What is the neuromuscular junction

A

The site where ends of motor nerve fibers connect to muscle fibers that contain the synaptic vesicles at the end of the nerve fiber containing acetylcholine

84
Q

What is the physiologic process of muscle contraction

A

The nerve impulse comes down the motor nerve fiber once the impulse reaches the end bulb of the nerve fiber acetylcholine is released into the synaptic space and binds to receptors on the sarcolemma surface, the impulse travels along the sarcolemma and thru the T tubules to interior of the cell, and the impulse reaches the sarcoplasmic reticulum resulting in another chain of physiologic events

85
Q

What physiologic process occurs after the sarcoplasmic reticulum recieves an impulse

A

Ca ions released into sarcoplasm, Ca diffuses into myofibrils and starts contraction, and energy is supplied by ATP

86
Q

What is the physiologic process of muscle relaxation

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum begins pumping Ca back in again by pulling Ca out of the myofibrils using ATP as energy, contraction stops, and the muscle returns to its original length

87
Q

How are actin and myosin arranged when the muscle fibers are relaxed

A

They slightly overlapped

88
Q

What happens w/ actin and myosin when the muscle contracts

A

Cross bridges ratchet back and forth, actin filaments pulled toward center of myosin filaments, and the sarcomere is shortened

89
Q

What is the all or nothing principle

A

When stimulated ind muscle fiber contracts completely or not at all, the nervous system controls the number of muscle fibers stimulated, and increased strength results from recruiting more fibers

90
Q

What is a twitch contraction

A

A single muscle fiber contraction that has a latent phase, contracting phase, and relaxation phase

91
Q

What is the chemistry of muscle contraction

A

ATP provides energy by hydrolysis from myosin filament produced by mitochondria, creatine phosphate converts ADP back to ATP, catabolism of glucose and oxygen help to produce ATP and CP, glucose is stored in muscle as glycogen, and oxygen is stored as myoglobin w/in the muscle fiber

92
Q

What is aerobic metabolism

A

Adequate oxygen supply for energy needs of muscle fiber and max energy extracted from each glucose molecule

93
Q

What is anaerobic metabolism

A

Need for oxygen exceeds available supply forming lactic acid as a biproduct of incomplete glucose breakdown

94
Q

What is muscle tone

A

Muscle rarely relaxes completely the fibers exhibit a persistent state of partially sustained contractions

95
Q

What is muscle fatigue

A

During strenuous exercise and or lengthy contractions when conditions for contractility deteriorate depleting of energy stores, accumulation of wastes, and insufficient nutrition of the muscle

96
Q

How do muscles produce heat

A

Muscle activity generates heat, mechanisms such as panting or sweating eliminate excess heat, and spasmodic muscle contractions that increase heat production such as shivering

97
Q

What 3 things cause muscle fatigue

A

Decrease O, glucose, and creatine

98
Q

At what rate do groups of cardiac cells contract

A

At the rate of the most rapid cell in the group

99
Q

Where is the sinoatrial node located and function

A

Located in the wall of the right atrium it generates impulse to start each heartbeat

100
Q

Why are there nerves in the cardiac muscle

A

To regulate the rhythm of the SA node using the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems

101
Q

What are multi unit smooth muscle cells

A

Small discrete groups of cells that operate together for fine functions

102
Q

What are the 2 types of smooth muscle cells

A

Visceral and multi unit

103
Q

What is the organization of actin and myosin in smooth muscle cells

A

They are arranged as small contractile units that crisscross the cell

104
Q

What are at the end of each end of smooth muscle cells

A

Dense bodies

105
Q

What are the characteristics of visceral smooth muscle cells

A

Contraction is peristalsis, contracts w/o external stimulation reacting to strectching, and is affected by the sympathetic and parasympathetic

106
Q

What does contraction of multunit smooth muscle cells require

A

Contraction requires impulses from autonomic nervous system

107
Q

What are the 3 different types of blood vessels

A

Arteries, veins, and capillaries

108
Q

What is the function of the cardiovascular system

A

To supply blood and drain the blood from all tissues providing O2 and nutrients along w/ removing CO2 and certain metabolites

109
Q

What are arteries

A

Open pipes blood can be pushed in either direction through and is dependent on the pressure produced by the heart contraction

110
Q

What are veins

A

Vessels that contain less smooth muscle in the wall, contains valves, and as undirectional flow of blood

111
Q

What is base of the heart

A

The rounded cranial end

112
Q

What is the apex of the heart

A

The more pointed caudal end

113
Q

Where is the heart located

A

In mediastinum w/ the apex shifted to the left sitting more ventral

114
Q

What is the mediastinum

A

The space btw the 2 lungs

115
Q

What is the pericardium

A

The fibrous sac containing the heart parts include the pericardial sac and the serous pericardium

116
Q

What fills the pericardial space

A

Pericardial fluid

117
Q

What is the function of the pericardium

A

To prevent external friction, inflammation from surrounding structures, stabilize the heart position, and help maintain cardiac shape

118
Q

What secretes the pericaridal fluid

A

The serous surfaces

119
Q

What is pericardial effusion

A

Increase in the volume of fluid in the pericardium

120
Q

What can cause pericardial effusion

A

Pericarditis, bacterial infection, FIP, cardiomyopathy, or cardiac neoplasia

121
Q

How do you know if you are actually removing blood from the pericardium

A

It will not clot

122
Q

What are symptoms that indicate pericardial effusion

A

Pale gums, normal hematocrit, weak pulse, and difficult to ascult heart sounds

123
Q

What is the fastest way to diagnose pericardial effusion

A

Ultrasound

124
Q

What are the 3 layers of the heart wall from deep to surficial

A

Endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium

125
Q

What does the endocardium cover

A

The papillary muscles

126
Q

What are the auricles

A

Blind pouches that come off the atria

127
Q

What is the interventricular groove

A

Formed by interatrial septum and interventricular septum and contains coronary blood vessels and fat

128
Q

What are the atria of the heart

A

The 2 chambers at the base of the heart separated by the interatrial septum that blood and push out to the ventricles by contracting their walls

129
Q

What are the ventricles of the heart

A

2 chambers that sit below the atria, pumps blood out of the heart to the rest of the body, and are separated by the interventricular septum

130
Q

What is the blood flow thru the cardiovascular system

A

Vena cava, right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta, out to body, and repeat

131
Q

What are the 4 one way valves

A

Pulmonary valve (semilunar), right atrioventricular (tricuspid valve), aortic (semilunar) valve, and left atrioventricular (mitral) valve

132
Q

What is the function of the chordae tendonae

A

They prevent valves from opening backwards by attaching to the papillary muscle in the endocardium

133
Q

What is the function of the 4 valves

A

To prevent backflow into the ventricles or the atrias after blood is pushed out

134
Q

Where is the skeleton of the heart located

A

Btw the atria and ventricles comprised of 4 dense fibrous CT rings

135
Q

What are the 4 primary functions of the skeleton of the heart

A

Separates the atria and ventricles, anchors heart valves, point of attachment for myocardium, and electrical insulation btw atria and ventricles

136
Q

Why does the heart have a separate blood supply

A

The blood that circulates through the heart chambers does not provide a sufficient supply for the heart muscle

137
Q

What does the blood supply to the heart consist of

A

The coronary arteries and veins

138
Q

Where does the coronary artery descend from

A

The aorta

139
Q

Where do the coronary veins drain the blood

A

Into the right atrium

140
Q

What is the fail safe node in case something happens to the SA node

A

The atrioventricular node (AV)

141
Q

What is the conduction flow of the heart

A

SA node produces electrical stimulus, transferred to the right atrium, across the internodal bundle to the AV node and the left atrium, then the AV node sends the electrical current to the right and left AV bundle branches sending the signal to the interventricular septum, and then to the lateral walls of the right and left ventricles

142
Q

What is systole

A

Myocardium contracting

143
Q

What is diastole

A

Myocardium relaxing and repolarizing

144
Q

What do the heart sounds represent

A

Heart valves snapping shut

145
Q

When does the lub sound occur

A

After atrial systole when the tricuspid and mitral valves shut

146
Q

When does the dub sound occur

A

After ventricular systole when the pulmonary and aortic valves snap shut

147
Q

When are abnormal heart sounds heard

A

When the 2 AV valves or 2 semilunar valves are not closing simultaneously

148
Q

What 2 things commonly cause heart murmurs

A

Valvular insufficiency and valvular stenosis

149
Q

What is valvular insufficiency

A

When one or more valves dont close all the way

150
Q

What is valvular stenosis

A

Narrowing at one or more valves

151
Q

What is the cardiac output

A

Volume of blood that is ejected out of the left ventricle over a unit of time

152
Q

What are the variables of cardiac output

A

Stroke volume (SV) or systolic discharge and heart rate

153
Q

What is the cardiac output calculation

A

CO = SV * HR

154
Q

What is the stroke volume

A

Represents strength of the heartbeat by measuring how much blood its kicking out w/ each stroke

155
Q

What are the 2 factors of stroke volume

A

Preload the volume of blood received from the atrium and the afterload the physical resistance the heart is beating against such as blood pressure

156
Q

What is contractility

A

The strength of cardiac muscle cells that can also affect stroke volume

157
Q

What is the only artery that carries deoxygenated blood

A

The pulmonary artery takes deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs

158
Q

What is the largest elastic artery

A

The aorta

159
Q

What are capillaries

A

Microscopic blood vessels from branching arterioles, occur in groups called capillary beds or networks to slow down and stager the blood flow for O and CO2 exchange, and are walls are one endothelial cell thick comprised of simple squamous epithelium

160
Q

What are the only veins that carry oxygenated blood

A

The pulmonary veins that carry oxygenated blood from the lungs and to the heart

161
Q

What do capillaries join together to form

A

Venules which join together to form veins

162
Q

What are the 2 things that work together to pump blood

A

One way valves and skeletal muscles

163
Q

What do all systemic veins drain into

A

Vena cava

164
Q

What is the pulse

A

Rate of alternating stretching and recoiling of elastic fibers in an artery as blood passes through w/ each heartbeat

165
Q

Where are pulses easies to palpate

A

Superficial arteries lying against firm surfaces

166
Q

What is blood pressure

A

Measurement of the amount of pressure that flowing blood exerts on arterial walls is dependent upon interactions w/ HR, SV, diameter/elasticity of artery, and TBV

167
Q

What is systolic blood pressure

A

Ejection of blood from left ventricle

168
Q

What is diastolic blood pressure

A

Pressure remaining in artery while ventricle is filling

169
Q

What is the mean arterial pressure

A

Average pressure during one cardiac cycle

170
Q

What are the 2 methods of measuring blood pressure

A

Oscillometric method and doppler ultrasound

171
Q

What is the oscillometric method

A

Cuff placed over artery and measures magnitude and frequency of pulsations

172
Q

What is the doppler ultrasound

A

Transducer attached to sphygmomanometer and accurately measures systolic blood pressure only

173
Q

What is the poor man’s dinomap

A

That the femoral artery can be palpated at a systolic pressure of at least 60 mmHg and the dorsal metatarsal pulse can be palpated at a systolic of at least 90 mmHg

174
Q

What does lack of a femoral pulse mean

A

Profound hypotension

175
Q

What are indirect tests to monitor cardiovascular system

A

Electrocardiography, echocardiography, auscultation of the thorax, arterial blood pressure evaluation, and thoracic rads

176
Q

What is an electrocardiography

A

Based on electrical activity of the heart, detects electrical impulses on surface of animals body, and produces an electrocardiogram

177
Q

What is a P wave

A

Time it takes depolarization to travel from SA node thru atria

178
Q

What is the QRS complex

A

Time of ventricular depolarization

179
Q

What is the T wave

A

Ventricular relaxation

180
Q

What is an echocardiograph

A

Cardiac ultrasound procedure that detects the sound waves that bounce off parts of the heart as it beats and is used to evaluate the size, shape, and movement of the heart and its parts

181
Q

What are the 2 methods of doing an echo

A

2 dimensional and doppler

182
Q

What is the 2 dimensional echo

A

Produces 2 dimensional cross section image of the heart to see it working in real time

183
Q

What does the coloration mean on a doppler echo

A

The color depends on if the blood is traveling towards or away from us

184
Q

What is the doppler echo

A

Measures blood flow through the heart and adds color to the image this is useful for the evaluation of valvular stenosis and insufficiency

Vet Anatomy (6 decks)

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