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Vet Anatomy > Exam 5 > Flashcards

Exam 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What are sense receptors

A

Peripheral endings of sensory neurons that obtain information about the environment and are specific for the type of stimulus they detect

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2
Q

What are chemoreceptros

A

Receptors that detect ions or molecules the smell and taste senses rely on these

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3
Q

What are mechanoreceptors

A

They detect changes in pressure, position, or acceleration senses such as touch, stretch, hearing, and equilibrium

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4
Q

What are electromagnetic receptors

A

They detect infrared radiation, visible light, or magnetic fields

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5
Q

What are thermoreceptors

A

Detect hot or cold temperatures

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6
Q

What are pain receptors

A

Detect severe heat and pressure and chemicals released by inflamed tissue

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7
Q

What are the general senses

A

Visceral, touch, temperature, pain, and proprioception

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8
Q

What are special senses

A

Taste, smell, hearing, equilibrium, and vision

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9
Q

What are visceral sensations

A

Miscellaneous category of interior body sensations such as hunger, thirst, and hollow-organ fullness

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10
Q

What are the receptors used by visceral sensations

A

Chemical and mechanical

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11
Q

What are the receptors used by touch

A

Mechanical

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12
Q

What type of receptors are used for sensing temperature

A

Thermal

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13
Q

What type of receptors are used for sensing pain

A

Mechanical, chemical, or thermal

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14
Q

What type of receptors are used for sensing proprioception

A

Mechanical

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15
Q

What are the tactile senses

A

Touch which is the sensation of something in contact w/ the surface of the body and pressure which is the sensation of something pressing on the body surface

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16
Q

What are the 2 types of temperature senses

A

Superficial w/ receptors in the skin that detect changes in skin temperature and central w/ receptors in the hypothalamus that monitors the temperature of the blood

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17
Q

What are specific pain receptors

A

Nociceptors that are widely distributed inside and on the surface of the body that are simple nerve endings or more specialized structures to detect mechanical forces and temperature

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18
Q

What is the main purpose of nociceptors

A

To protect the body from damage

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19
Q

What are the parts of the pain process

A

Transduction, transmission, modulation, and perception

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20
Q

What is transduction

A

Takes 1 energy source and converts it into a different one by taking a pain stimulus and turns it into a nerve impulse

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21
Q

What is transmission

A

The nerve transmits the pain signal to the spinal cord

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22
Q

What is modulation

A

The spinal cord takes an impulse and determines the priority of the pain then sends it to the brain

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23
Q

What is perception

A

When an impulse has finally arrived to the brain and pain is perceived

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24
Q

How does pain blockers such as an epidural work to reduce pain

A

It stops modulation and interrupts the perception process decreasing the pain after and during a procedure

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25
Q

What are the 3 different pain locations

A

Superficial, deep, and visceral

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26
Q

What are the 2 types of pain duration

A

Acute or chronic

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27
Q

What is proprioception

A

Awareness of where the limb is in space that utilizes stretch receptors in the skeletal muscle, tendons, ligaments, and joint capsules to keep the CNS informed

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28
Q

What type of receptors stimulate taste

A

Chemical

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29
Q

What type of receptors stimulate smell

A

Chemical

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30
Q

What type of receptors stimulate hearing

A

Mechanical

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31
Q

What type of receptors stimulate equilibrium

A

Mechanical

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32
Q

What type of receptors stimulate vision

A

Electromagnetic

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33
Q

What is taste

A

Gustatory sensation is detected by 3 different types of papillae (receptors) sweet, salty, and bitter

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34
Q

What is smell

A

Olfactory cells in the epithelial patches in the nasal passages contains receptors and odor molecules dissolve in mucus

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35
Q

What path does olfactory information take making it more acute than taste

A

Passes directly to the cerebral cortex by the olfactory bulbs

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36
Q

What is hearing

A

The mechanical receptors take vibrations of air molecules and convert it into nerve impulses that are interpreted by the brain as sound

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37
Q

Where is the middle ear

A

In the tympanic bulla

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38
Q

Where is the inner ear

A

W/in the middle ear

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39
Q

What is the pinna’s role in hearing

A

It collects sound waves

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40
Q

What shape is the external auditory canal

A

L shaped

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41
Q

Where is the tympanic membrane

A

Separates the external ear from the middle ear

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42
Q

What is the tympanic membrane

A

The eardrum is a paper thin connective tissue membrane that stretches tightly across the opening btw the external auditory canal and the middle ear cavity

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43
Q

Can the tympanic membrane grow back if it ruptures

A

Yes

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44
Q

What is the middle ear

A

The eustachian tube that is filled w/ air that contains 3 ossicles that are caused to vibrate by the eardrum transmitting to the cochlea and 2 muscles

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45
Q

What are the 3 ossicles in the middle ear

A

Malleus (hammer), incus (anvil), and stapes (stirrup)

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46
Q

Where is the malleus

A

The outermost bone that is attached to tympanic membrane

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47
Q

Where is the incus

A

The middle bone in the middle ear

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48
Q

Where is the stapes

A

Attached to the membrane covering the oval window of cochlea

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49
Q

What are the muscles in the middle ear

A

The tensor tympani and stapedius

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50
Q

What are the functions of the muscles in the middle ear

A

They are involuntary muscles that aid in protecting the cochlea by tensing against the ear drum to reduce intensity of soundwaves to prevent hearing loss

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51
Q

What are the functions in the inner ear

A

Hearing and equilibrium

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52
Q

What is the cochlea

A

A snail shell shaped spiral cavity in the temporal bone

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53
Q

What is the Organ of Corti

A

A portion of a specific nerve ending that is filled w/ endolymph and contains hair cells that transduces sound to send to brain

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54
Q

What things are all found in the Organ of Corti

A

Endolymph, hair cells, supporting cells, and tectorial membrane

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55
Q

What are the steps of hearing

A

Sound wave vibrations cause the tympanic membrane and ossicles in the middle ear to vibrate, perilymph around the cochlear duct vibrates, cochlear duct moves, tectorial membrane and hair cells of the Organ of Corti rub against each other, nerve impulses are generated, and impulses travel to the brain and are interpreted as sound

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56
Q

What is equilibrium

A

Maintaining balance by keeping track of the head’s position and movements using the vestibule and semicircular canals

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57
Q

What is the vestibule

A

Located btw cochlea and semicircular canals that has 2 saclike spaces the utricle and saccule also has the macula

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58
Q

What is the macula

A

Sensory epithelium that lines the utricle and saccule and contains hair cells that are covered by gelatinous matrix and contains otoliths

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59
Q

What is the function of the macula

A

Gravity causes otoliths and gelatinous matrix to put constant pressure on the sensory hairs causing them to bend this generates a nerve impulse that gives the brain info about the position of the head

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60
Q

What are the semicircular canals

A

Located on the other side of the vestibule from the cochlea containing fluid filled membranous tubes that are arranged in 3 planes at right angles to each other giving 3D axis

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61
Q

What is the ampulla

A

The enlarged bulb area near the utricle end of each semicircular canal

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62
Q

What is the crista ampullaris

A

A receptor similar to macula that houses the cupula

63
Q

What is the cupula

A

A cone shaped area of supporting cells and hair cells w/ their processes sticking up into gelatinous structure

64
Q

What are the steps of sensing motion

A

The head moves, fluid movement lags in one plane of semicircular canals, fluid movement pulls on cupula, hairs are bent, nerve impulse is generated, and brain receives info about motion of the head

65
Q

What are the three layers of the eyeball

A

Outer fibrous layer (cornea and sclera), middle vascular layer (choroid, iris, and ciliary body), and inner nervous layer (retina)

66
Q

What is the cornea

A

It is transparent to admit light to the interior of the eye, has an orderly arrangement of collagen fibers, and only contains receptors

67
Q

What is the sclera

A

The white of the eye

68
Q

What is the limbus

A

The junction of the cornea and sclera

69
Q

What is the choroid

A

Lies btw sclera and retina, consists mainly of pigment and blood vessels, and contains the tapetum lucidum a highly reflective area in the rear of the eye

70
Q

What is the iris

A

The pigmented smooth muscular diaphragm that controls the amount of light that enters the posterior part of the eye and contains the pupil which is the opening in the center of iris

71
Q

What is the ciliary body

A

A ring shaped structure behind the iris that contains tiny muscles that adjust the shape of the lens to allow near and far vision

72
Q

What is the fundus

A

The caudal interior surface of the eye that contains the retina and ophthlamic disc

73
Q

What is the retina

A

The neuro component of the fundus that contains rods and cones

74
Q

What are the different layers of the retina

A

Pigment, photoreceptor, bipolar cell, ganglion cell, and nerve fibers

75
Q

What is the optic disc

A

The blind spot of the eye where nerve fibers on inside of the retina converge and leave the eye to form the optic nerve

76
Q

What are photoreceptor cells

A

Neurons w/ dendrites modified into sensory receptors for light broken up into rods and cones

77
Q

What are rods

A

Photoreceptors that can’t distinguish colors and do not provide sharp vision, are sensitive to dim light, better at detecting motion than cones, most abundant in the periphery of the retina, and they have several hundred stacked membranous disks that contain the pigment rhodopsin

78
Q

What are cones

A

Photoreceptors that see color, they produce sharp images but require bright light, cones are the most dense in an area in the back of the eye called the fovea, there are 3 types of cones red, green, or blue

79
Q

What type of cones do dogs have

A

Blue and yellow

80
Q

What is the lens

A

A soft translucent layers of fibers that are elastic and biconvex this helps focus a clear image on the retina through the accommodation process

81
Q

What can change the shape of the lens

A

The ciliary muscles

82
Q

What is lenticular sclerosis

A

A normal decrease in elasticity of the lens that occurs w/ age and causes hazy looks starting around 7-9 years old

83
Q

What are cataracts

A

Eye disease that blocks light from the retina causing blindness, a glassy marble appearance, retina degeneration leading to leaking of the eye proteins, and glucoma

84
Q

What are the 2 compartments of the eye

A

The aqueous chamber and the vitreous body

85
Q

What is the aqueous chamber

A

Located in front of the lens, subdivided into the anterior and posterior chambers by the iris, and contains the clear water fluid that is the aqueous humor

86
Q

What is the path of the aqueous humor

A

It is produced in the posterior chamber by the ciliary body and drained in the anterior chamber by the Canal of Schlemm

87
Q

What is a glaucoma

A

Can present as acute which looks like a normal eye due to a rapid increase in pressure or chronic which is a gradual increase in pressure leading to a white swollen eye

88
Q

What is the vitreous compartment

A

Contains clear gelatinous fluid called the vitreous humor filling the whole back of the eye behind the lens and ciliary body

89
Q

What is the conjunctiva

A

The thin, moist, transparent membrane that covers the front portion of the eyeball (bulbar conjunctiva) and lines the interior surfaces of the eyelids (palpebral conjunctiva)

90
Q

What is the conjunctival sac

A

Space btw bulbar and palpebral portions of the conjunctiva

91
Q

What are eyelids

A

Upper and lower folds of skin lined by conjunctiva

92
Q

What are the lateral and medial canthus

A

Corners where the eyelids come together and contains extra CT that makes the eyelid an almond shape

93
Q

What are tarsal/meibomian glands

A

Their tiny openings that are found along the eyelid margin they produce a waxy substance to prevent tears from overflowing onto the face

94
Q

What is the third eyelid

A

Nictitating membrane that is a T shaped plate of cartilage covered by conjunctiva located medially btw the eyelids and the eyeball and contains lymph nodules and accessory lacrimal gland on the ocular surface

95
Q

What is horner’s syndrome

A

Globe of eye gets sunken back due to disfunction of the sympathetic nerves of the eye

96
Q

What is the lacriminal apparatus

A

Structures that produce and secrete tears and train tears away from the surface of the eye

97
Q

What is the tear drainage system

A

Lacrimal puncta, lacriminal sacs, and nasolacrimal duct

98
Q

What are tears

A

Liquid film that moistens and protects the surface of the eye

99
Q

What do tears from the inner mucous layer contain

A

Antibacterial substances

100
Q

Where are tears produced in the middle tear layer

A

From the lacrimal glands and accessory lacrimal glands of the third eyelid to keep the cornea moist

101
Q

What is the purpose of the outer oily layer

A

Produced from tarsal/meibomian glands to reduce evaporation of underlying tear layer preventing tears from flowing over the lid margin

102
Q

What are the eye muscles

A

Small skeletal muscles that attach to the sclera capable of wide range of movements

103
Q

What are the 3 different hormone groups

A

Peptide, steroid, and monoamine

104
Q

What are peptide hormones

A

Hydrophilic chains of AA that have receptors located on cell membranes of target cells

105
Q

What are steroid hormones

A

Synthesized from cholesterol they are hydrophobic so they attach to transport proteins and their receptors are located w/in the cell

106
Q

What are monoamine hormones

A

Derived from AA and retain an amine group they have receptors for catecholamines located on cell membranes and receptors for thyroid hormones located in the nucleus

107
Q

What is negative feedback

A

Activity decreased by rising levels of hormone

108
Q

What is positive feedback

A

Activity increased by falling levels of hormone

109
Q

What is the hypothalmus

A

Part of the diencephalon of the brain it controls activities of the pituitary gland and uses a portal system of blood vessels linking to the anterior portion of pituitary gland

110
Q

How does the hypothalamus trigger the release of different hormones in the anterior pituitary hormone

A

Modified neurons secrete releasing and inhibiting factors into portal blood vessels each specific for a particular hormone

111
Q

What hormones are produced in the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin

112
Q

What is another word for the anterior pituitary

A

Adenohypophysis

113
Q

What is another name for the posterior pituitary

A

Neurohypophysis

114
Q

What are the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary

A

Growth hormone, prolactin, thyroid stimulating hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, FSH, LH, and melanocyte stimulating hormone

115
Q

What is growth hormone

A

Somatotropin promotes body growth in young animals to regulate metabolism of proteins, lipids, and CHO in all body cells encouraging anabolism of proteins, causing release of lipids in storage and their catabolism, and discourages cells from using CHO

116
Q

What is prolactin

A

Helps trigger/maintain lactation production and release continues as long as teat continues to be stimulated by nursing or milking

117
Q

What occurs w/o stimulation from prolactin

A

Milk production stops and mammary gland shrinks back to a non lactating size

118
Q

What is TSH

A

Thyrotropic hormone stimulates growth and development of thyroid gland causing it to produce its hormones its secretion is regulated by negative feedback from the thyroid by interacting among hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, and thyroid glands

119
Q

What is ACTH

A

Stimulates growth and development of adrenal cortex and release of some of its hormones, production is regulated by negative feedback from hormones of the adrenal cortex, and can be released quickly as result of stress

120
Q

What is melanocyte stimulating hormone

A

Associated w/ control of color changes in pigment cells of reptiles, fish, and amphibians

121
Q

What is ADH

A

Vasopressin increases blood pressure by conserving blood volume is released when hypothalamus detects dehydration producing more concentrated urine

122
Q

What does ADH deficiency cause

A

Diabetes insipidus leading to polyuria and polydipsia

123
Q

What is the thyroid gland

A

Bilobed on either side of the larynx connected by the isthmus it produces thyroid hormone and calcitonin

124
Q

What are the effects of thyroid hormone

A

Regulates metabolic rate of all body’s cells w/ a calorigenic effect increasing metabolism to generate body heat allowing animals to maintain constant internal body temp and affects metabolism of proteins, CHO, and lipids affecting anabolism of synthesis of proteins, maintaining homeostasis of blood glucose levels, and encourages catabolism of lipids

125
Q

What is calcitonin

A

Produced by C cells located btw thyroid follicles lowering blood calcium levels resulting in excess calcium to be deposited in bones and exerts opposite effect of parathyroid hormone

126
Q

What is the common reasoning for thyroid hormone deficiency

A

Iodine deficiency

127
Q

What is the result of thyroid hormone deficiency

A

Even tho T3&T4 arent able to be produced TSH is still being released causing the thyroid gland enlarges causing a goiter this can also be caused by hyperthyroidism

128
Q

What are common signs of hypothyroidism in dogs and cats

A

Lack of activity, hair loss, dry and dull hair, cold sensitivity, and anemia treated with levothyroxine

129
Q

What are the common signs of hyperthyroidism in dogs and cats

A

Fatigue, weight loss, hunger, nervousness, and sensitivity to heat is treated w/ radiation (thiouracil, thiourea, sulfonamides, and chlorpromazine)

130
Q

What is parathyroid hormone

A

Parathormone, produced by parathyroid glands, enhances cacium and phosphate absorption from the intestines by increasing active form of Vit D, and increases blood calcium causing kidneys to retain calcium, causes intestines to absorb calcium from food, and stimulates osteoclasts

131
Q

What does primary hyperparathyroidism result in

A

Hypercalcemia

132
Q

What are the produced in the adrenal cortex

A

Glucocorticoids (cause general hyperglycemic, help maintain BP, and help body resist effects of stress), mineralocorticoids (regulate levels of electrolytes), and sex hormones

133
Q

What is adrenal disease

A

Hyperadrenocorticism (cushing’s syndrome) and hypoadrenocorticism (addison’s disease)

134
Q

What is cushing’s syndrome

A

Excessive cortisol production it is pituitary dependent primarily occurs due to adrenocortical tumors symptoms consist of PU, PD, pot bellied appearance, think skin, alopecia, muscle wasting, and results in insulin resistance

135
Q

What is addison’s disease

A

The result of atrophy or destruction of all of the layers of the adrenal cortex referred to as the great pretender because it mimics other disease symptoms include decreased cortisol +/- aldosterone production, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia female standard poodles are the poster child after age 7

136
Q

What is the adrenal medulla

A

The inner gland that resembles nervous tissue it produces 2 hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine that are controlled by the sympathetic portion of ANS

137
Q

What are pancreatic islets

A

Islets of langerhans are alpha (glucagon), beta (insulin), delta (somatostatin)

138
Q

What does insulin do

A

Lowers blood glucose levels causing glucose, AA, and FA in the blood to be absorbed into body cells

139
Q

What does glucagon do

A

Raises blood glucose levels stimulating liver cells to convert glycogen to glucose and stimulating glycogenesis

140
Q

What are the 2 types of diabetes mellitus

A

Type 1 insulin insufficiency at pancreas (dogs) and type 2insulin resistance at site of tissues (cat)

141
Q

What are clinical signs of diabetes mellitus

A

Hyperglycemia, glucosuria, PU/PD, polyphagia, and weight loss

142
Q

What are complications of pancreatic disease

A

Cataracts, retinopathy, neuropathy, EPI, hepatic lipidosis, glomerulonephropathy, and increased risk of bacterial infections

143
Q

What is erythropoietin

A

Stimulated in the kidneys by hypoxia increasing production of RBCs resulting in increased blood oxygen level slows down secretion

144
Q

What does erythropoietin deficiency result in

A

Nonregenerative anemia of chronic kidney disease

145
Q

What is gastrin

A

Hormone produced by cells in stomach wall to act upon the stomach wall and secretion stimulated by presence of food results in secretion of hydrochloric acid and digestive enzymes increasing gastric motility

146
Q

What triggers the SI to secrete secretin and CCK

A

The presence of chyme in duodenum

147
Q

What is the function of secretin

A

Stimulates pancreas to secrete fluid to neutralize acidic chyme

148
Q

What is the function of cholecystokinin

A

Stimulates pancreas to release digestive enzymes

149
Q

What are the effects of both secretin and CCK

A

Slows movement of chyme and stimulates gallbladder to send bile to SI

150
Q

What is the thymus

A

An important part of animal’s cell mediated immunity is a larger organ in young animals that atrophies later in life it produces thymosin and thymopoietin

151
Q

What are the 3 functions of prostaglandins

A

Inflammation, pain/fever, and reproduction

152
Q

Where are prostaglandins produced

A

Skin, intestine, brain, kidneys, lungs, repro organs, and eyes

153
Q

What are prostaglandins

A

Tissue hormones that are derived from unsaturated FA

Vet Anatomy (5 decks)

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