Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 11 body systems

A

Skeletal, integumentary, nervous, cardio, resp, digestive, musculoskeletal, endocrine, sensory, urinary, and repro

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2
Q

What are bones

A

Hard, semi rigid, calcified connective tissue forming the skeleton they are dynamic tissue that has a blood, lymph, and nerve supply

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3
Q

What three categories of bone is the skeleton divided into

A

Axial, appendicular, and splanchnic

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4
Q

What are axial bones

A

Vertebral column, ribs, sternum, skull, and hyoid apparatus

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5
Q

What are appendicular bones

A

Bones of the limbs and their attachments

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6
Q

What are splanchnic bones

A

The os penis in dogs and the os cordis in cows

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7
Q

What are the functions of bones

A

Provides framework, provides levers for muscles, provides attachments for muscles, protects internal organs, contains marrow/provides for blood cell formation, and stores Ca/P

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8
Q

What organic matter is bone comprised of

A

Ossein a collagen comprised of proteins that provides flexible matrix to hold, support minerals, and provides nourishment

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9
Q

What inorganic material is bone comprised of

A

Tricalcium phosphate makes up 2/3 of bony composition

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10
Q

What percent of the body’s Ca is in bones

A

Over 99% the rest is in the blood stream

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11
Q

What is cortical bone

A

Compact bone that forms the outer layer of all bones and shafts of long bone, is composed of haversian systems, contain lacunae, canaliculi, and volkmann’s canal

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12
Q

What surrounds the central Haversian canal

A

Concentric layers of lamellae that contain blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves

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13
Q

What are lacunae

A

Space between the matrix that appear like black holes

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14
Q

What are canaliculi

A

Tubes connecting lacunae

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15
Q

What is Volkmann’s canal

A

it is bypassed vessels that are between the haversian canals

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16
Q

What are cancellous bone

A

Delicate plates and spicules of bone tissue that forms lattice or matrix just underneath the compact bone, forms the bulk of short bones as well as the ends of bones, contains bone marrow

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17
Q

What is the periosteum

A

Membrane that covers the outer surface of bones that is broken up into an outer layer that is made of fibrous tissue and an inner layer where osteoblasts participate in bone growth and healing fractures

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18
Q

What is the endosteum

A

Membrane lines that have a hollow interior surfaces and contains osteoblasts and osteoclasts

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19
Q

What are the functions of osteoblasts

A

Form bone, secrete matrix of bone, supply minerals necessary to harden it, and eventually convert into osteocytes

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20
Q

What are osteoclasts

A

Cells that eat/destroy bone releasing Ca into the blood, and descend from monocytes

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21
Q

How do osteoblasts build bone matrix

A

They secrete collagen then calcification occurs

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22
Q

How is an osteocyte developed

A

An osteoblast walls itself up in ossified bone

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23
Q

What is endochondral bone ossification

A

When cartilage template is replaced by bone either in the primary growth center of the diaphysis during fetal development or in the secondary growth center in the epiphysis

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24
Q

How does skeletal maturity vary w/ size

A

Larger breeds reach maturity around 18 months while smaller breeds mature around 9 months

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25
Q

What negative correlation has been discovered w/ neutering dogs prior to skeletal maturity

A

Tearing their CCL

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26
Q

What will be affected if dogs hit obesity during bone development

A

Their bone density

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27
Q

What are the main two functions of bone remodeling

A

Repair damage and regulate blood Ca/P levels

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28
Q

What hormones regulate osteoclasts and osteoblasts

A

Calcitonin, PTH, estrogen, and testosterone

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29
Q

Where is new bone formed

A

At the periosteum

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30
Q

Where is bone resorption

A

In the endosteum

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31
Q

What is hypercalcemia

A

High blood Ca resulting in calcitonin to be released from the thyroid stimulating osteoblasts, inhibits osteoclasts, and increases renal Ca excretion

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32
Q

What is hypocalcemia

A

Low blood Ca resulting in PTH being released from the parathyroid inhibiting osteoblasts, stimulates osteoclasts, and decreases renal Ca excretion

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33
Q

What are common symptoms of hypercalcemia

A

Typically animals are asymptomatic but polyuria/polydipsia can be present

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34
Q

What are the common symptoms of hypocalcemia

A

Tremors, seizures, and cardiac arrest

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35
Q

What are common causes of hypercalcemia

A

Cancer, CKD, giving Ca supplements, and toxicity

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36
Q

What are common causes of hypocalcemia

A

Toxins, phosphate enemas, and antifreeze

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37
Q

What are the different shapes of bones

A

Long, flat, short, and irregular

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38
Q

What are long bones

A

Cylindrical elongated bones w/ long ends that usually support structures in extremities

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39
Q

What are flat bones

A

Protects organs and is composed of 2 layers of compact bone w/ spongey bone in the middle

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40
Q

What are short bones

A

Cube shaped that diffuse concussion ex carpal and tarsal

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41
Q

What is an example of irregular bones

A

The spine

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42
Q

What animals are red and yellow bone marrow more common in

A

Red is more common in younger animals while yellow is more common in adults

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43
Q

What is an articular surface

A

The point of contact between two bones aka joint

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44
Q

What are processes

A

Lumps, bumps, and other projections on a bone where muscle attaches

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45
Q

What is a foramen

A

A hole where nerves or vessels pass thru

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46
Q

What is a fossa

A

Depressed are typically occupied by muscles or tendons

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47
Q

What covers articular surfaces

A

Hyaline cartilage

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48
Q

What are the different articular surfaces

A

Condyle such as the distal end of the humerus, head, and facet which is a flat surface

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49
Q

What is hyaline cartilage

A

A combination of chondrocytes and matrix that is found on joint surfaces, epiphyseal plate, and costochondral junctions

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50
Q

What is elastic cartilage

A

A combination of chondrocytes, matrix, and yellow elastic tissue found in the external ear, larynx, and epiglottis

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51
Q

What is fibrocartilage

A

A combination of chondrocytes, matrix, and fibrous CT found in intervertebral discs and the menisci of the stifle

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52
Q

What is important thing to remember about cartilage

A

IT HAS NO VASCULAR SUPPLY

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53
Q

What is signalment

A

Patient demographic info such as species, sex, breed, and age

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54
Q

What is the signalment for fractures and why

A

Intact males because they are more likely to get loose and attempt to go thru anything to get to a female in heat

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55
Q

What is intervertebral disc disease (IVDD)

A

Inflammation, calcification, or traumatic injury of the discs seen commonly in genetically dwarf dogs

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56
Q

What is type 1 IVDD

A

Classic random herniated disc cases where the core of the disc moves upward out of the spinal canal

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57
Q

What is type 2 IVDD

A

Arthritic cases that are chronic and slow developing herniated discs that typically occur in big dogs such as german shepards

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58
Q

What is an open fontanelle

A

A congenital defect where a soft spot remains at the junction of sutures on the skull common in toy breeds

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59
Q

What is medial luxating patella

A

When the V trough of the condyles are shallow on the femur and tendons are more medial allowing for the knee cap to move in and out of place commonly found in toy breeds

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60
Q

What is osteochondritis dissecans (OCD)

A

The growth rate is inappropriate compared to the amount of Ca/P available causing the leading hyaline cartilage to die keeping it from ossifying and doing its job commonly found in large breed puppies that are obese

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61
Q

What is legg calve perthes disease

A

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head is unknown stopping of the vasculature in the femoral head resulting in bone death often presents in lameness or fractures commonly seen in Poms

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62
Q

What are the two types of luxations

A

Traumatic or dysplastic

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63
Q

What is the most common cause of traumatic luxations

A

HBC can be either popped back into place or surgically fixed

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64
Q

What is the signalment for hip dysplasia

A

Labs, goldens, and all poodles

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65
Q

What is the signalment for sarcomas and osteosarcomas

A

Large breeds specifically rottweilers

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66
Q

What are the only two moveable joints in the skull

A

The mandible and hyoid apparatus

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67
Q

What two types of bones are the skull comprised of and what is their goal

A

Flat and irregular bones protect the brain and special sense organs

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68
Q

What are the three regions of the facial bones

A

Oral, nasal, and orbital

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68
Q

What is the cranium

A

The specific part of the skull that protects the brain

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69
Q

What are the external bones of the cranium

A

Occipital (1), interparietal bones (2), parietal bones (2), temporal bones (2), and frontal bones (2)

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70
Q

What is the occipital bone and what are it anatomical characteristics

A

A single bone that forms the base of the skull and it contains the foramen magnum and 2 occipital condyles

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71
Q

What is the foramen magnum

A

Big hole where the spinal cord exits the center of the skull connecting it to the spinal column

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72
Q

What are the 2 occipital condyle

A

Round smooth surfaces on lateral of both sides of the foramen magnum where the atlas vertebra articulates

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73
Q

What are the 2 parietal bones

A

The big C shape bones of the skull that form the dorsolateral walls of the cranium that varies in size depending on the species

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74
Q

What are the 2 interparietal bones

A

The 2 small bones located on dorsal midline btw occipital and parietal bones typically shaped like triangles only found in horses and cats

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75
Q

What are the 2 temporal bones

A

The 2 bones located ventral to parietal bones that form lateral walls of cranium that contains middle and inner ear structures, forms TMJ joints w/ mandible, and external acoustic meatus that is visible from the outside skull

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76
Q

What are the 2 frontal bones

A

The 2 bones that form the forehead region of the skull and part of the socket that holds the eye, the horn core develops here for horned breeds of cattle, the paranasal sinus is contained here, and forms the entire roof of the cranium in the pig and cattle due to smaller parietal bones

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77
Q

What are the 2 internal bones of the cranium

A

Sphenoid and ethmoid

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78
Q

What is the sphenoid bone

A

Forms the bottom of the cranium where the pituitary fossa houses the pituitary gland of the brain and the sphenoid sinus in most animals

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79
Q

What is the ethmoid bone

A

A single bone rostral to sphenoid bone that contains cribiform plate for olfactory nerves to pas through

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80
Q

What are the external facial bones

A

2 incisive bones, 2 nasal bones, 2 maxillary bones, 2 lacrimal bones, 2 zygomatic bones, 1-2 mandible bones, and rostral bone in pigs

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81
Q

What are the 2 incisive bones

A

House incisor teeth that is the most rostral part of the skull

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82
Q

What are the 2 nasal bones

A

The bones that make up the nasal cavity that vary in length based on breed

83
Q

What is dolichocephalic

A

Long faced dogs

84
Q

What is brachycephalic

A

Short faced dogs

85
Q

What are the 2 maxillary bones

A

Houses the upper canine teeth, premolars, molars, and forms the hard palate

86
Q

What are the 2 lacrimal bones

A

The medial portion of eye orbit that holds lacrimal sac

87
Q

What does the 2 zygomatic bones

A

They make up the zygomatic arch

88
Q

What are the internal facial bones

A

2 palatine, 2 pterygoid, vomer, and 4 turbinates

89
Q

What are the 2 palatine bones

A

The caudal portion of hard palate

90
Q

What are the 2 pterygoid bones

A

They support the lateral wall of the pharynx

91
Q

What is the vomer bone

A

The midline of the skull that forms the nasal septum

92
Q

What are the 4 turbinates

A

They make up the thin scroll like bones that fill space of nasal cavity known as the nasal conchae

93
Q

What are the bones that make up the hyoid apparatus

A

Tympanohyoid cartilage, stylohyoid bone, epihyoid bone, ceratohyoid bone, basihyoid bone, thyrohyoid bone

94
Q

What is the function of the hyoid apparatus

A

Support and aid in swallowing

95
Q

What is the vertebrae

A

Irregular bones that function to protect the spinal cord, support the cranium, and provide muscle attachments

96
Q

What are the three type of processes

A

Spinous, transverse, and articular

97
Q

What are intervertebral discs

A

Fibrocartilage connecting bodies of adjacent vertebrae

98
Q

What is the vertebral arch

A

Dorsal part of vertebra that arises from the body that lines up to form the spinal canal and is broken up into 7 processes

99
Q

What are the 7 processes of the vertebral arch

A

Spinous process, transverse processes, 2 cranial articular processes, and 2 caudal articular processes

100
Q

What is the vertebral foramen

A

Space formed by arch and body vertebral canal

101
Q

What is the intervertebral foramen

A

Opening btw vertebrae formed by caudal and cranial notches of adjacent vertebrae

102
Q

What are the cervical vertebrae

A

The first 7 vertebrae in the spine that support the head and allow for a wide range of motion

103
Q

What are the thoracic vertebrae

A

The 13 (dog, cat, and cattle) or 18 (horses) vertebrae that make up the middle section of the spine that should match up with the amount of ribs present, have a super tall spinous process, and super small transverse process

104
Q

What are the lumbar vertebrae

A

The 7 (dog/cat) or 6 (cattle/horse) that makes up the lower spine between the ribs and sacrum they have a super tall transverse process and short stubby spinous process

105
Q

What are the sacral vertebrae

A

The 3 (dog/cat) or 6 (cattle/horse) vertebrae that make up the sacrum that connects to the pelvis

106
Q

What are the coccygeal vertebrae

A

The bones that make up the tail 20-23 (dog), 5-23 (cat), 18-20 (cows), and 15-21 (horse) the number of vertebrae in the tail is completely based on species/breed are short and square so the transverse and spinous process are about the same length

107
Q

What is C1

A

The atlas has big wings that allow it to spin around the dens of the axis

108
Q

What is C2

A

The axis has a large spinous process and dens

109
Q

What are the ribs

A

Flat bones that form lateral walls of the thorax has spongy red marrow, aids in respiration, protects the viscera, and the dorsal heads articulates w/ thoracic vertebrae

110
Q

What is intercostal space

A

Space btw adjacent ribs

111
Q

What is the costal cartilage

A

Ventral ends of the ribs

112
Q

What is costochondral junction

A

Area where cartilage meets bony rib

113
Q

What is sternal (true) rib

A

Costal cartilage attaches to sternum

114
Q

What are asternal (false) rib

A

Cartilage doesnt articulate w/ sternum but attaches to the costal arch

115
Q

What are the floating rib

A

Ventral end is free found in the dog

116
Q

What is the costal arch

A

Arch of cartilage that go upwards towards the sternum

117
Q

What is the sternum

A

The breastplate that contains the manubrium (most cranial), sternebrae, and xiphoid also forms the floor of the thorax

118
Q

What are the bones in the thoracic limb

A

Shoulder girdle, humerus, ulna, radius, and manus

119
Q

What are the bones in the shoulder girdle

A

Scapula and clavicle

120
Q

What is the scapula

A

Only bone of the shoulder girdle that is well developed in the domestic animals

121
Q

What is the coracoid

A

Bone that is fused to the scapula in most animals except for chickens

122
Q

What species have a clavicle (collar bone)

A

Primates, moles, and cats

123
Q

What is the flat bone of the scapula

A

Longitudinal ridge also known as the spine

124
Q

What is the glenoid cavity

A

Shallow, concave articular surface articulates w/ humerus that forms the socket portion of the shoulder joint

125
Q

What does the brachium consist of

A

The humerus is a long bone connecting the shoulder to the elbow that has tubercles, condyles, and epicondyles

126
Q

What are tubercles

A

Processes where muscles attach

127
Q

What are condyles

A

Distal articular surfaces

128
Q

What are epicondyles

A

Knobs that are non articular where ligaments attachments

129
Q

What is the olecranon fossa

A

Articulates w/ olecranon of the ulna at the elbow joint

130
Q

What is bones consist of the antebrachium

A

The forearm contains radius and ulna

131
Q

What is the ulna

A

The bone that forms the major portion of the elbow joint w/ the olecranon process and the trochlear notch

132
Q

What is the olecranon process

A

The point of the elbow

133
Q

What is the trochlear notch

A

It wraps around part of the humerus

134
Q

What is the radius

A

The main weight bearing bone of antebrachium that articulates w/ humerus and ulna

135
Q

What are the different sets of bones in the manus

A

Carpus, metacarpals, and digits

136
Q

What are the carpal bones

A

It is 2 rows of short bones a proximal and distal row

137
Q

How are the proximal row of carpal bones named

A

Medial to lateral radial, intermediate, ulnar, and accessory

138
Q

How is the distal row of carpal bones named

A

Medial to lateral 1-4

139
Q

What makes the pig carpal bones different

A

In a general term the pig has 8 bones

140
Q

What makes the dog/cat carpal bone different

A

Their radial and intermediate carpal bones are fused together

141
Q

What is different about the horses carpal bones

A

The horse tends to have 8 carpal bones but occasionally 1 or 5 will be present in the distal row

142
Q

What is different about ruminants carpal bones

A

They tend to have 6 carpal bones

143
Q

What are the metacarpal bones

A

The hand bones that extend from distal carpal bones to proximal phalanges, numbered medial to lateral, and numbers vary by species

144
Q

What are the ruminant metacarpals

A

One fused metacarpal bones consisting of metacarpal 3 and metacarpal 4

145
Q

What is a digit consist of

A

3 phalanges and their sesamoids

146
Q

How many digits do cattle and pigs have

A

2 well developed digits that support their weight (3 and 4) and 2 dewclaws (2 and 5)

147
Q

Where is the ungual process located

A

On the distal phalanx

148
Q

How many sesamoid bones does a cow have

A

2 proximal and 1 distal for each digit

149
Q

What are the bones that make up the pelvic limb

A

Pelvic girdle, femur, stifle sesamoids, tibia, fibula, and pedis

150
Q

What is the pelvic girdle consist of

A

Os coxae, pubic symphsis, acetabulum, and obturator foramen

151
Q

What is the os coxae

A

The two largest flat bones composed of the ilium, ischium, and pubis

152
Q

What is the pubic symphsis

A

The growth plate that unites the 2 os coxae bones

153
Q

What is the acetabulum

A

A cup shaped cavity that articulates w/ the head of the femur

154
Q

What is the obturator foramen

A

Hole in each os coxae where arteries, veins, and nerves pass thru to go down the leg

155
Q

What are the important parts of the femur

A

The head fits into the acetabulum of the pelvis, the trochanters attaches to the hip and thigh muscles, the distal end forms the stifle joint, and contains the trochlea

156
Q

What is the trochlea

A

Articular groove containing the patella

157
Q

What are the 2 sesamoid bones of the stifle

A

The patella and the fabellae

158
Q

What is the patella

A

The kneecap is a large sesamoid bone protecting the distal tendon of quadriceps femoris muscle

159
Q

What is the fabellae

A

2 small sesamoid bones located caudal to the stifle w/in the proximal gastrocnemius muscle tendons of dogs and cats

160
Q

What is the tibia

A

The main weight bearing bone of the lower leg that helps form the stifle joint and the hock, has a tibial tuberosity, and the tibial crest

161
Q

What is the tibial crest

A

The attachment site for patellar ligament

162
Q

What is the common fracture site in young puppies

A

The tibial tuberosity this is called an avulsion fracture

163
Q

What is the fibula

A

A thin complete bone of the lower leg that runs parallel to the tibia on the lateral aspect, it is non weight bearing, serves as a muscle attachment site, and has the lateral malleolus

164
Q

What is the lateral malleolus

A

Knob like process near the tarsus

165
Q

What are the different group of bones that is apart of the pes

A

The tarsus/hock, metatarsals, and digits are all apart of the foot

166
Q

What is the tarsus/hock

A

Made of a group of 5-7 short bones in 2.5 rows a proximal row that has 2 bones, a central tarsal bone between the proximal and distal rows, and a distal row numbered medial to lateral

167
Q

What are the 2 bones in the proximal row of the tarsus

A

The talus (medial) and the calcaneus (lateral)

168
Q

What is the only difference between the metacarpal and metatarsal bones

A

There is no metatarsal 1 bone in dogs and cats unless they happen to have a back dewclaw

169
Q

What is arthrology

A

Study of joints

170
Q

What is a joint

A

Connection between any of the skeleton’s rigid parts

171
Q

What are the three categories of joint structures

A

Fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial

172
Q

What are fibrous joints

A

Immovable joints firmly united by fibrous tissue and has no joint cavity

173
Q

What is synarthroses

A

Sutures of the skull

174
Q

What is syndesmosis

A

A ligamentous joint that has an attachment btw the costal cartilages in the costal arch

175
Q

What is gomphosis

A

The fibrous connection btw the teeth and jaw bone it is not a true joint but it is joint like

176
Q

What are cartilage joints

A

They are united by hyaline or fibrocartilage or a combination of the two

177
Q

What is amphiarthrosis

A

A slightly movable joint formed by either CT or fibrocartilage

178
Q

What is symphysis

A

Fibrocartilage that occurs on the midline

179
Q

What are synovial joints

A

Diarthroses is a freely movable joint w/ articular surfaces on bones that are covered in articular cartilage, has a joint cavity that is enclosed by a joint capsule which contains synovial membrane and fluid, and ligaments stabilize movement

180
Q

What is snyovial fluid

A

Fluid that lubricates the joints filling the joint space that transports nutrients to the hyaline articular cartilage and removes wastes is made by synovial membrane

181
Q

What are ligaments

A

Strong bands of white fibrous CT that is pliable but inelastic used to keep joint surfaces in alignment but allows movement

182
Q

What is intracapsular ligaments

A

Located w/in the articular capsule of a joint

183
Q

What is interosseous ligaments

A

Connects the non articular parts of adjacent surfaces of bones

184
Q

What is extracapsular ligaments

A

Located outside of the joint capusle

185
Q

What is collateral ligaments

A

They create an x across the joint

186
Q

What is the typical cause of a CCL rupture

A

Degenerative disease of the ligament typically found in breeds that weight 60lbs or more allowing for rupture during normal dog activities

187
Q

How is a CCL rupture diagnosed and treated

A

W/ a positive drawer sign and is treated w/ surgery or medical management/rehab

188
Q

What is the most common cause of hindlimb lameness in dogs

A

Cranial cruciate ligament rupture

189
Q

What are articular discs and menisci

A

Plates of fibrocartilage partially or completely dividing a joint cavity allowing for greater range of motion and decreases concussion

190
Q

Where are discs found

A

In the stifle and temporomandibular joint

191
Q

What are sesamoid bones

A

Short bones found w/in articular ligaments

192
Q

What is a bursa

A

Sac like joint capsule btw 2 tissues to reduce friction like a pillow sits on C1 of horses

193
Q

What is a synovial sheath

A

A bursa that wraps completely around a tendon and reduces friction btw the tendon & underlying bones

194
Q

What is flexion

A

Decreases angle btw 2 bones

195
Q

What is extension

A

Increases angle btw 2 bones

196
Q

What is adduction

A

Movement toward the median plane

197
Q

What is abduction

A

Movement away from the median plane

198
Q

What is rotation

A

Twisting on own axis

199
Q

What is circumduction

A

Movement of extremity so distal end moves in a circle

200
Q

What are uniaxial joints

A

1 axis of rotation allowing movement at right angles to the bones involved (flexion and extension)

201
Q

What are biaxial joints

A

2 horizontal axes at right angles to each other (flexion, extension, and circumduction)

202
Q

What are multiaxial joints

A

Ball and socket/ spheroidal joints that allow for abduction, adduction, rotation, and circumduction

203
Q

What are hinge joints

A

Ginglymus joints have one joint surface that swivels around another being uniaxial (flexion and extension)

204
Q

What are gliding joints

A

Arthrodial joints have a rocking motion of one bone on another being biaxial (flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction)

205
Q

What are pivot joints

A

Trochoid joints is where one bone rotates on another being uniaxial (rotation movement)

206
Q

What are ball and socket joints

A

Spheroidal joints allow all 6 types of synovial joint movements being multiaxial