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Vet Anatomy > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is digestion

A

The part of the process where large molecules are broken down into their smaller components and can be absorbed at a molecular level

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2
Q

What are the 2 breakdown processes of digestion

A

Mechanical and chemical

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3
Q

What are the 4 tissues layers of the GIT

A

Mucosa, submucosa, muscular, and serosa

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4
Q

What is the mucosa layer

A

The most inner layer that is covered by epithelium, a basement membrane referred to as the lamina propria, and a muscularis mucosae that aids in contraction

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5
Q

What composes the submucosa layer of the GIT

A

Dense connective tissue

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6
Q

What is the muscular layers of the GIT

A

Smooth muscle layers responsible for peristalsis

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7
Q

What is the serosa layer of the GIT

A

Makes contact w/ the serosal layer of the peritoneum

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8
Q

What are the 2 systems send signals to the GIT

A

The CNS and the endocrine system

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9
Q

What is the brain of the gut

A

The enteric nervous system that has an intrinsic endocrine/paracrine component

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10
Q

What does the Brain of the Gut do

A

Controls motor and secretory functions of GIT and is influenced by the ANS

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11
Q

What are the 2 aspects of the Brain of the Gut

A

The submucosal plexus and myenteric plexus

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12
Q

What is the submucosal plexus

A

Aka Meissner’s plexus is in the submucosa and controls secretions such as digestive enzymes and blood flow

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13
Q

What is the myenteric plexus

A

Aka the Auerbach’s plexus is btw the circular and longitudinal layers of smooth muscle controls movement thru local flexes affecting the contraction of muscle tissue and peristalsis

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14
Q

Where is the soft palate

A

Starts right behind the hard palate and goes all the way down to the epiglottis and larynx

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15
Q

What is the oral fissure

A

Opening into mouth marked by the lips

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16
Q

What is the philtrum

A

Cleft dividing upper lip

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17
Q

What is another word for whiskers

A

Vibrissae

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18
Q

What is the hard palate composed of

A

The palantine, maxillary, and incisive bones

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19
Q

What is the soft palate comprised of

A

Muscle and CT

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20
Q

What is the crown of a tooth

A

The part of the tooth you can see

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21
Q

What is the root of the tooth

A

The portion berried beneath the gum line

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22
Q

What is the apex of the tooth

A

The bottom tip of the root where the pulp, blood vessels, and nerve root enter the tooth

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23
Q

What is the pulp

A

The living tissue of the tooth is equivalent to the bone marrow of the tooth

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24
Q

What is the occlusal surface

A

The free surface of the tooth

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25
Q

What is the vestibular surface

A

The surface next to the oral vestibule brokedown into the labial and buccal surfaces

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26
Q

What is the oral vestibule

A

The space btw lips, cheeks, and outer surface of teeth

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27
Q

What is the oral cavity

A

Bordered by inner surface of teeth, hard palates, and soft palates

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28
Q

What is the labial surface

A

the vestibular surface of the incisor and canine teeth

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29
Q

What is the buccal surface

A

Vestibular surface of the premolars and molars

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30
Q

What is the lingual surface

A

Surface next to the tongue

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31
Q

What is the contact surface

A

Surfaces in contact w/ neighboring teeth brokedown into mesial and distal surfaces

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32
Q

What is the mesial surface

A

Is the contact surface towards the midline in the arcade

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33
Q

What is the distal surface

A

Is the contact surface further away from the midline

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34
Q

What are the 2 classifications of teeth

A

Brachyodont and hypsodont

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35
Q

What are brachyodont teeth

A

The incisor teeth found in carnivores, humans, pigs, and ruminants, small crowns, well developed roots, and do not grow continually

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36
Q

What are hypsodont teeth

A

Found in horse’s incisors and cheek teeth, boar’s canine teeth, rodents, and lagomorphs, large reserve of crown beneath gingiva, and grow continually

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37
Q

What are the 2 types of hypsodont teeth

A

Radicular and aradicular

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38
Q

What are radicular hypsodont teeth

A

Apices of roots remain open for a long time, apices eventually close and stop growing, and found in cheek teeth of horses

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39
Q

What are aradicular hypsodont teeth

A

Lack of true root, grow continuously throughout life of animal, and found in lagomorphs and some rodents

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40
Q

What is enamel

A

Thin layer over the surface of the tooth, devoid of organic material, made of calcium phosphate and carbonate apatite crystals, hardest substance in the body, covers only the crown in brachydont teeth, and covers the body but not the root in hypsodont teeth

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41
Q

What is the cementum

A

Covers only the roots of brachyodont teeth and covers roots and crown in hypsodont teeth

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42
Q

What is dentin

A

Forms the bulk of the tooth under the enamel, similar to bone in composition, and surrounds the pulp cavity

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43
Q

What is the pulp cavity

A

Center of tooth where the nerve and vessels are located

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44
Q

What is the periodontal membrane

A

Dense fibrous CT that connects the wall of the alveoli and tooth’s cementum this is the bain of every vet’s existence when extracting teeth

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45
Q

What are deciduous teeth

A

Small whiter teeth that are present in the jaw at birth and erupt thru gums at different times depending on species

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46
Q

What is heterodont dentition

A

Numbered 1-4 in order incisors, canines, premolars, and molars

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47
Q

What are incisors for

A

Grabbing/nibbling

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48
Q

What are canines used for

A

Tearing/shearing

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49
Q

What are premolars used for

A

Shearing/grinding

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50
Q

What are molars used for

A

Grinding

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51
Q

Will cats and dogs have the same amount of teeth that they were born w/

A

No they are born w/ less teeth then what they have as adults

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52
Q

How are deciduous teeth labeled on a dental formula

A

W/ lower case letters

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53
Q

What of the only type of tooth that does not have deciduous teeth

A

Molars

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54
Q

What is the triadan system

A

First broken up into quadrants 100s upper right, 200s upper left, 300s lower left, and 400s lower right then start counting at the midline and count back

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55
Q

What are teeth landmarks

A

Canines are always 04’s, largest/last premolar is always 08’s, and 1st molar is always 09’s

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56
Q

What teeth are cats missing

A

All 05’s and now lower 06’s

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57
Q

What is the apex of the tongue

A

The flap that lifts up

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58
Q

What is the body of the tongue

A

Attached to body of mouth

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59
Q

Where is the root of the tongue

A

Back by the larynx not palatable unless choking the animal

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60
Q

What is the tongue comprised of

A

Muscle tissue

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61
Q

What is found on the dorsal surface of the tongue and is more noticeable in cats

A

Papillae

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62
Q

What are the functions of the papillae

A

Mechanical such as grooming and moving food into the pharynx and specialized functions such as taste sensations, pain, temperature, touch, and thermoregulation thru panting

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63
Q

What is saliva

A

Deposited into oral cavity via ducts, production varies depending on species, and can be watery, viscous, or mixed depending on the composition

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64
Q

What can saliva be composed of

A

Mainly water, but also protein, glycoproteins, antibodies, organic molecules, electrolytes such as salivary bicarbonate, and enzymes like lysozyme an antibacterial and amylase like digest starch for carbs

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65
Q

What are the functions of saliva

A

Lubrication, antibacterial action, pH regulation, thermoregulation, and enzymatic digestion

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66
Q

What are the 4 main paired salivary glands

A

Parotid, mandibular, sublingual, and zygomatic

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67
Q

What is the esophagus

A

A muscular tube connecting the caudal pharynx to the cardia of the stomach is lined w/ folded mucosa and has a tunica muscularis w/ 2 layers

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68
Q

What are the 2 layers of the esophagus’ tunica muscularis

A

Circular and longitudinal

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69
Q

What species have a combination of smooth and striated muscle in their esophagus

A

Horses and pigs

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70
Q

Where does the esophagus pass through the diaphragm

A

The hiatus

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71
Q

Where is the esophagus found on the neck

A

To the left of the midline

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72
Q

What are the 2 parts of the connecting peritoneum

A

Mesentery and omentum

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73
Q

What is the mesentery

A

Redundant portion of the visceral peritoneum holding them to the caudal portion of the abdominal cavity

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74
Q

What is the omentum

A

Large adipose tissue surface that covers the intraperitoneal organs

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75
Q

Where are kidneys located

A

Tucked away in the retroperitoneum space

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76
Q

What is the lesser omentum

A

Lesser curvature of stomach connected to duodenum and liver

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77
Q

What is the greater omentum

A

Greater curvature of stomach connected to abdominal wall

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78
Q

What happens when there is trauma to organs covered by omentum

A

The omentum travels to the organ and surrounds it providing more vascularity to the area to protect other organs and tissues around the trauma

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79
Q

What is the function of the stomach

A

Storage of ingested food, mechanical/chemical breakdown of food, and production of intrinsic factor for vitamin B12 absorption in SI

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80
Q

What is chyme

A

Semi liquidified food that comes from the stomach

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81
Q

What shape does the monogastric stomach and where is it located

A

C shaped located just behind the diaphragm

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82
Q

What is the glandular portion of the monogastric stomach

A

The gastric pits primarily located in the body of the monogastric stomach

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83
Q

What are the three sections of the monogastric stomach

A

Cardia, fundus, and body

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84
Q

What is the distal portion of the monogastric stomach

A

Pylorus which has less glands here and pushes food along

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85
Q

What is the rugae

A

Transient folds in the gastric mucosa that allows the stomach to expand when filled w/ food increasing SA for absorption and secretion of the glandular products

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86
Q

What are gastric pits

A

Different glandular cells each w/ different secretions in horses these are only found in the pyloric region

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87
Q

What are the different gastric pits

A

Mucous neck cells secrete mucus, chief cells secrete pepsinogen, and parietal cells secrete HCL and intrinsic factor

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88
Q

What is pepsin

A

A proteolytic enzyme essential to digest proteins produced by pepsinogen and HCl

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89
Q

When do chief cells produce pepsinogen

A

When food is present in the stomach

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90
Q

What is the pyloric gland region of stomach

A

The last glandular portion of the stomach that is comprised of the pyloric antrum, pyloric canal, and pylorus region

91
Q

What is the pyloric sphincter

A

The opening into the duodenum

92
Q

What are the cells in the pyloric gland region

A

Mucous secreting cells and G cells that secrete gastrin

93
Q

What is the most muscular part of the stomach

A

The pyloric gland region

94
Q

What 3 things stimulate glandular secretion in the stomach

A

Acetylcholine from cholinergic neurons, gastrin from G cells, and histamine secreted by ECL cells

95
Q

What is the cephalic phase of secretion

A

Anticipation of eating a meal

96
Q

What is the gastric phase of secretion

A

Secretion of gastric glandular cells that begins when food enters the stomach

97
Q

What stimulates the cephalic phase

A

Enteric nervous system stimulates via the vagus nerve

98
Q

What does the enteric nervous system stimulate the release of in the cephalic phase

A

Acetylcholine

99
Q

What casscade of events does the release of acetylcholine, gastrin, and histamine after being released and binding to receptors

A

Directly triggers chief cells secreting pepsinogen into the stomach directly trigging G cells that secrete gastrin (hormone) into the bloodstream directly triggering parietal cells to secrete H+ and Cl- ions and histamine released by ECL cells

100
Q

What is bilious vomiting syndrome

A

The cephalic phase is consistently occuring making it the contributing vector this is more common in working breeds

101
Q

What can bilious vomiting syndrome be treated w/

A

Frequent meals, increased fiber to slow digestion, omeprazole, or acid therapy to decrease production

102
Q

What is the process of the gastric phase of secretion

A

Glandular cells stimulated by stretching of stomach wall, peptides formed by protein breakdown via pepsin triggers vagal reflexes to and from brain as well as local enteric reflexes acetylcholine is released stimulating secretion of histamine and gastrin which stimulates more histamine all three act on parietal cells to produce more H+ and Cl- ions

103
Q

How acidic can stomach acid be

A

pH of 2

104
Q

What is monogastric stomach motility

A

Muscle contractions of stomach wall help break down food particles and gastric contents released into small intestine at controlled rate it is a specialized smooth muscle pacemaker cells and fluctuations in resting membrane potential lead to muscle contraction

105
Q

How do fluctuations in the resting membrane potential occur in monogastric stomach motility

A

By acetlycholine elevates resting potential (norepinephrine does the opposite) and entry of Ca++ ions into muscle cell initiates contraction

106
Q

What is the function of the fundus of the monogastric stomach motility

A

It extends to accommodate large volumes of food

107
Q

What is the function of the body of the monogastric stomach motility

A

It is a large mixing chamber

108
Q

Where are monogastric stomach peristaltic contractions weak

A

In the fundus and the body

109
Q

How do peristaltic contractions change in the stomach

A

Progressively stronger as food moves towards the pylorus

110
Q

What is retropulsion

A

Kicks back large food particles back to the body of the stomach

111
Q

What controls gastric motility

A

Neurotransmitters and hormones

112
Q

How do neurotransmitters control gastric motility

A

Fibers of vagus nerve synapse on cells in gastric myenteric plexus decreasing motility when food enters and increases when food approaches pyloric region and acetylcholine is released in the pyloric region increasing peristaltic contractions

113
Q

How do hormones control gastric motility

A

Gastin leads to exitatory functions

114
Q

What is gastric emptying

A

Rate is controlled by the strength and degree of pyloric antral muscle contractions w/ gastrin increasing contraction strength and stomach distention increases rate of contraction

115
Q

How do hormones affect gastric emptying

A

They are released by a dilated duodenum delaying gastric emptying by inhibiting pyloric antral contractions, constricting pyloric sphincter, decrease stomach motility, and decrease secretion of stomach enzymes

116
Q

What hormones affect gastric empyting

A

Secretin, cholecystokinin (CCK), and gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)

117
Q

What digestion occurs in the stomach

A

Mechanical digestion is essential to increasing food SA and chemical digestion occurs in the luminal and membranous chemical digestion via hydrolysis

118
Q

What is hydrolysis

A

Macromolecules broken into short chain polymers

119
Q

What is chemical digestion of CHO

A

CHO digestion begins w/ amylase in saliva continuing in stomach and SI

120
Q

What is protein digestion

A

Begins in the stomach continuing into the SI and pepsinogen activated by HCl to pepsin

121
Q

Why are forestomachs non glandular

A

Because they have microorganisms for fermentation in rumen and reticulum so complex CHO such as cellulose are broken down

122
Q

What is the reticulum

A

First of chambers located cranial to the rumen, contents easily enter and exit to rumen, honeycomb wall appearance, and heavy foreign objects will accumulate here

123
Q

What is hardware disease

A

Metal accumulation in the reticulum that can evenually poke thru the wall of the stomach affecting the heart

124
Q

What is the rumen

A

Occupies most of the left side of abdominal cavity, microorganisms ferment CHO and cellulose, papillae in mucosa increase SA for absorption, and pillars divide rumen into 3 different sectors

125
Q

What is the omasum

A

Looks like many plies or the book stomach, connects reticulorumen to abomasum, folds of mucosa w/ papillae on surfaces, absorption of water and salts here, and links to the esophageal groove

126
Q

What is the esophageal groove

A

Links the esophagus w/ omasum in young ruminants so the milk ingested bypasses the reticulorumen

127
Q

What would happen if the esophageal groove did not close

A

Bacteria in reticulorrumen would ferment milk and lactic acid produced would inhibit normal microbial action

128
Q

What is the abomasum

A

Elongated true stomach, lined w/ glandular tissue, functions like simple monogastric stomach, and has a continuous flow of ingesta in bring food directly into the duodenum

129
Q

What is secreted in young ruminants abomasum and why is it secreted

A

Renin is secreted causing milk protein coagulation prolonging time for pepsin to break down proteins

130
Q

What is reticulorumen motility consist of

A

Primary contractions, rumination contractions, and secondary contractions

131
Q

What is the primary contraction of reticulorumen motility

A

Mixing contractions, ensure content movements btw reticulum and rumen, separate particles based on size

132
Q

What is ruminaton contractions in reticulorumen motility

A

Ingesta moves from reticulorumen back into oral cavity for additional saliva and continued chewing called rumination

133
Q

What are the 4 steps of rumination

A

Regurgitation, reinsalivation, remastication, and reswallowing

134
Q

What is secondary contractions of reticulorumen motility

A

Eructation (belching), responsible for the release of gases such as CO2 and methane produced during fermentation, w/o gas release bloat occurs, and area of brainstem controls reticuloruminal activity

135
Q

What is the reticulorumen ecosystem

A

A wide variety of bacteria, protozoa, and fungi that is acquired after birth and is controlled by diet, amount of food consumed, and interactions btw mother and baby

136
Q

What do the microorganims consume in their environment

A

They quickly consume oxygen and food

137
Q

What does a ruminants diet contain

A

Mostly roughage providing complex CHO such as cellulose, hemicellulose, and pectin plus some concentrates providing nonstructural CHO such as starches, frustosans, and simple sugars

138
Q

How can the ruminant digest the microorganisms

A

As a source of protein

139
Q

How do microorganisms use the nutrients they consume

A

For their own growth and development

140
Q

What is used to digest complex CHOs

A

The cellulolytic bacteria lyces the cell walls breaking them down and hydrolysis by catalse enzymes to simple sugars

141
Q

How are starches and soluble sugars digested

A

Hydrolysis by amylolytic bacteria to monosaccharides and polysaccharides that are absorbed by microvilli and further metabolized to pyruvate and convert into VFAs

142
Q

What is the main source of energy for ruminants

A

VFAs

143
Q

How are lipids digested in ruminants

A

Microorganisms in the reticulorumen hydrolyze triglycerides, glycolipids, and free FAs producing VFAs such as acetic acid, propionic acid, and butyric acid

144
Q

Why should lipids be a small portion of a ruminants diet

A

Because high lipid diets are toxic to the bacteria causing decrease in appetite, reducing motility of reticulorumen, and decreased fermentation of cellulose

145
Q

How is protein digested in the ruminant

A

By the microbes in the reticulorumen microbial peptidase breaks down proteins to peptide chains,the synthesize AA from ammonium, and by converting non protein nitrogen (NPN) compounds then they are further broken down in SI by enzymes to AA which are absorbed and transported to the liver producing urea

146
Q

Where does urea go to after being produced by the liver

A

To the rumen for reuse in making microbial proteins

147
Q

Why are ruminants predisposed to a glucose deficiency

A

Because ruminal microbes process CHO before they are exposed to intestinal enzymes

148
Q

What does gluconeogenesis look like in ruminants

A

Occurs in the liver from non CHO sources such propionate, butyric acid, acetate, and absorbed AA

149
Q

What is the SI

A

A tube that carries chyme away from stomach and deposits it in the large intestine

150
Q

What is the SI suspended from

A

The ball wall by mesentery

151
Q

What is the function of the duodenum

A

Receives chyme through pyloric sphincter

152
Q

What is the function of the jejunum

A

The longest part and is where most chemical digestion and absorption occurs especially for monogastrics

153
Q

What is the function of the ileum

A

Contains the prominent Peyer’s patches and empties into the large intestine at the cecum (horses), colon (dogs and cats), or cecum and colon (ruminants and pigs)

154
Q

What are plications

A

Folds in the mucosal lining

155
Q

What is found in the mucosa of the SI

A

Villi which contain microvilli forming a brush border

156
Q

What are intestinal crypts

A

Crypts of Langerhans is the space between villi

157
Q

Where is the only location of cell division

A

The crypts of Langerhans

158
Q

What are lacteals

A

Lymphatic capillaries that carry absorbed lipids and fat soluble substances to the thoracic duct and into the vena cava

159
Q

What do blood capillaries do in the SI

A

Collect some absorbed nutrients and transports them to the liver

160
Q

What stimulates the secretion of cholecystokinin (CCK)

A

High AA or FA concentrations or low pH of chyme entering duodenum

161
Q

What are the functions so cholecystokinin (CCK)

A

Inhibits gastric emptying, causes increased secretion of bicarbonate and pancreatic digestive enzymes, and stimulates secretion of enteropeptidase converting pancreatic enzyme trypsinogen to trypsin

162
Q

What stimulates the secretion of secretin

A

High FA concentrations or low pH of chyme entering duodenum

163
Q

What are the functions of secretin

A

Decreases HCl production in the stomach and increases pancreatic and biliary bicarbonate secretions

164
Q

What is produced by the endocrine portion of the pancreas

A

Pancreatic islets such as alpha cells (glucagon) and beta cells (insulin)

165
Q

What does glucagon do

A

Increases blood glucose through gluconeogenesis

166
Q

What does insulin do

A

Decreases blood glucose by increasing the glucose absorption in the tissues of the body

167
Q

What is produced by the exocrine portion of the pancreas

A

the groups of acini has ducts that merge to converge into the pancreatic duct producing excretions containing bicarbonate and digestive proenzymes

168
Q

What causes an increase in exocrine secretions from the pancreas

A

The cephalic phase, neural stimuli, and endocrine stimuli

169
Q

What exocrine enzymes from the pancreas are vital for digestion

A

Lipase breaks down lipids, amylase breaks down carbs, nuclease breaks down nucleic acids, and proteases break down peptides

170
Q

What are characteristics of proteases

A

They are secreted as proenzymes and are inactive until activated by CCK

171
Q

What is exocrine pancreatic deficiency

A

When the pancreas doesnt make enough digestive enzymes poster child is german shepards

172
Q

What is the largest digestive gland in the body

A

The liver

173
Q

What are the functions of the liver

A

Secretes substances essential for digestion and absorption of nutrients, synthesizes nutrients and regulates their release into the bloodstream, excretes toxic substances originating w/in and from outside the body, converts AA into ketoacids, and produces plasma proteins, cholesterol, and blood coagulation factors

174
Q

What are the 2 surfaces of the liver

A

Diaphragmatic and visceral surface

175
Q

What is the diaphragmatic surface of the liver

A

The side of the liver that faces the diaphragm

176
Q

What is the falciform ligament

A

Attaches the liver to a diaphragm

177
Q

How is the liver strategically placed

A

To process blood leaving GIT preventing toxic substances from entering general circulation

178
Q

What 3 things can deposit contents in the duodenum

A

The common bile duct, pancreatic duct, and accessory pancreatic duct

179
Q

What the most amount of lobes a liver can have

A

Up to 6

180
Q

Where is the liver triad located

A

At the lobule periphery

181
Q

What comprises the triad

A

Hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery, and bile ducts

182
Q

What are sinusoids

A

Large leaky capillaries where the hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein come together to bring blood to the liver

183
Q

What are kupffer cells

A

Macrophages that live in sinusoids that engulf foreign objects

184
Q

What are the functions of the hepatocytes

A

Excrete proteins to enter bloodstream through pores in adjacent sinusoids and excrete bile into canaliculi that travels in the opposite direction of the blood to the common bile duct

185
Q

What carries the blood from the liver to the vena cava

A

The central vein

186
Q

What are the functions of the gallbladder

A

Concentrates and stores biles until needed in the duodenum to digest high fat and peptide concentrations and provides means for the liver to excrete waste products even when animal is not eating

187
Q

What is bile composed of

A

Bile salts, phospholipids, cholesterol, and bile pigments

188
Q

What are the steps of enterohepatic circulation

A

Begins w/ secretion of bile salts into the canaliculi, bile salts draw water out of hepatocytes and become a liquid bile, bile is released into duodenum to emulsify fate, bile salts are reabsorbed when they reach the ileum, bile salts enter hepatic portal vein and return to liver, liver reabsorbes bile salts and recycles them back to bile

189
Q

What releases bile into the duodenum

A

The Sphincter of Oddi

190
Q

How is enterophepatic circulation a postivie feedback loop

A

More bile salt returning to the ileum stimulates more bile production

191
Q

What influences the amount of bile is synthesized by hepatocytes

A

The amount of bile salts that recirculate from intestine to liver

192
Q

What happens when stimuli for CCK is gone

A

CCK secretion stops, Sphincter of Oddi closes reducing bile flow into duodenum, bile diverted into gallbladder, reabsorption of bile salts is diminished, and bile acid synthesis is diminished

193
Q

What are the steps of eliminating bilirubin through bile

A

Heme is converted to free unconjugated bilirubin, free bilirubin is joined to glucuronic acid in liver to form conjugated bilirubin, released into bile and enters into small intestine, intestinal bacterial enzymes convert it to urobilinogen, most urobilinogen is oxidized to urobilin and stercobilin which is excreted from body in feces, and the remainder of urobilinogen reabsorbed into enterohepatic circulation

194
Q

What are the 3 reasons why there is an increased bilirubin levels in blood

A

Pre-hepatic bilirubinemia, hepatic bilirubinemia, and post hepatic bilirubinemia

195
Q

What is pre hepatic bilirubinemia

A

Too much heme from broken down RBCs commonly seen w/ hemolyic anemia

196
Q

What is hepatic bilirubinemia

A

Liver is congested/diseased/can’t keep up this is fatty liver patients

197
Q

What is post hepatic bilirubinemia

A

bile outflow obstruction this would be caused by the common bile duct is blocked for some reason

198
Q

Where is excess glucose stored as glycogen in the body

A

Liver, skeletal muscle, and adipose cells

199
Q

What is glycogenolysis

A

Breaking down glycogen into glucose when needed

200
Q

What is gluconeogenesis

A

Synthesis of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources such as fatty acids

201
Q

What species primarily does gluconeogenesis

A

Cows

202
Q

What is ketosis

A

The results of when FA mobilization overwhelms the oxidative capacity of the liver

203
Q

What goes into small intestine motility

A

Peristalsis propels content and segmentation is mixing action

204
Q

How are materials passively absorbed across the intestinal mucosa

A

Through simple diffusion

205
Q

How are materials actively absorbed across the intestinal mucosa

A

Active transport molecules is transported using ATP, secondary active transport, antiports, and facilitated diffusion

206
Q

What is secondary active transport

A

One molecule travels w/ another that is being actively transported

207
Q

What are anitports

A

One molecules is exchanged for another

208
Q

What is facilitated diffusion

A

Uses a carrier but not energy

209
Q

What is the 4 step active process for lipid digestion and absorption

A

Emulsification, hydrolysis, micelle formation, and absorption

210
Q

What is the emulsification step of lipid digestion and absorption

A

Lipids are warmed in stomach and bile salts in SI act like detergent

211
Q

What is the hydrolysis step of lipid digestion and absorption

A

Pancreatic enzymes lipase and colipase are released

212
Q

What is the micelle formation step of lipid digestion and absorption

A

Mass of monoglycerides, FAs, and bile salts act like ferry to transport to the enterocyte surface where they are diffused into the cell and chylomicrons are then expelled from the enterocytes

213
Q

What is the absorption step of lipid digestion and absorption

A

Chylomicrons picked up by lymphatic system

214
Q

What is the cecum

A

Blind diverticulum at the beginning of the colon that is made of the base, main body, and apex

215
Q

What does segmentation in the colon and cecum do

A

Prolongs time for contents to stay in the large intestine to absorb some nutrients and reabsorb water

216
Q

How does ingesta move thru the large intestine

A

Travels slowly being thoroughly mixed to allow for contact w/ absorptive surface motility patterns vary w/ species

217
Q

How does segmentation move ingesta

A

Back and forth

218
Q

What is antiperistalsis

A

Movement toward stomach helping slow movement

219
Q

What initiates slow waves in the large intestine

A

Pacemaker cells

220
Q

What does depolarizing waves sent to the stomach result in

A

ANtiperistaltic movements

221
Q

What does depolarizing waves sent to the rectum do

A

Creates peristaltic movements

222
Q

What are the functions of the large intestine

A

Absorption of water and ions and completion of CHO or protein microbial digestion and little absorption

223
Q

What type of receptors are stimulated when feces are transported to rectum

A

Sensory receptors

224
Q

What happens after sensory receptors are stimulated

A

Defecation reflex is initiated, colon and rectum contract, inner anal sphincter muscles relax, need to defecate is percieved, and outer anal sphincter muscle relax

Vet Anatomy (5 decks)

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