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Anatomy & Physiology > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between endocrine and exocrine secretions?

A

endocrine: dumps secretions INTO the bloodstream
exocrine: exocrine dumps secretions ONTO surfaces such as the skin

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2
Q

Why is the same chemical (epinephrine for example) called a neurotransmitter in one area and a hormone in another?

A

neurotransmitters come from nerve cells in the brain
while hormones are produced in endocrine glands and released into the bloodstream

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3
Q

Know the structural classification of each hormone (remember, it is much easier to just remember the amino-
acid derivatives and lipid derivatives)

A

steroid hormones (lipid derivatives)
Estrogens
testosterone
androgens
aldosterone
cortisol
thyroxin
triiodothyronine

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4
Q

What are the steroid hormones made from?

A

cholesterol

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5
Q

What makes a lipid derivative hormone behave differently than the water-soluble protein based hormones? Why are
the thyroid hormones the exception?

A

lipids cross thru plasma membrane w/o receptor
thyroid hormones has it’s own messaging system and goes into cell

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6
Q

Is a hormone bound to a transport protein active?

A

no, they are in storage

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7
Q

How does a hormone find its target cell? (lock and key
analogy)

A

hormones are the keys
target cells are the locks
the only things that can respond to the hormones are their target cells

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8
Q

What are the 3 ways that the hypothalamus (part of the nervous system) can control the endocrine system?

A

1) hypo. produces regulatory hormones that control the anterior pituitary
2) hypo. makes ADH and oxytocin
3) hypo. controls the adrenal medulla and releases epinephrine and norepinephrine

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9
Q

what is a regulatory hormone?

A

hormone produced by the hypothalamus

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10
Q

What 2 hormones are made by the hypothalamus? Where are they stored?

A

ADH and oxt.
stored and released at the posterior pituitary gland

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11
Q

TSH

A

thyroid stimulating hormone
comes from anterior pituitary
stimulates the release of thyroid hormones, regulates metabolism

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12
Q

ACTH

A

adrenocorticotropic hormone comes from anterior pituitary
induces target cells to produce glucocorticoids, regulates metabolism and stress responses

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13
Q

Luteinizing hormone

A

comes from anterior pituitary
targets the reproductive system and stimulates production of sex hormones (progesterone and testosterone)

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14
Q

prolactin

A

comes from anterior pituitary
promotes milk PRODUCTION by targeting mammary glands

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15
Q

What is a second messenger?

A

small molecules/ions that relay signals received by first messengers, the ones that can’t come in

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15
Q

GH

A

comes from anterior pituitary
targets ALL cells but mostly liver, bone, and muscles cell to increase protein synthesis and mobilize fat reserves

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16
Q

what is the most important second messenger?

A

cAMP

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17
Q

what part of the adrenal gland can the hypothalamus control?

A

adrenal medulla

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18
Q

FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)

A

comes from anterior pituitary
targets reproductive system and stimulates sperm & egg production
estrogen

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19
Q

MSH (melanocyte-stimulating hormone)

A

comes from anterior pituitary
stimulates melanocytes to make melatonin

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20
Q

name all the hormones from the anterior pituitary

A

GH
MSH
LH
FSH
prolactin
ACTH
TSH

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21
Q

name the hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary

A

ADH and oxytocin

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22
Q

ADH (antidiuretic hormone)

A

stored and released in the posterior pituitary gland but produced in the hypothalamus
increases reabsorption of water in the kidneys by opening water channels (makes the body not pee)

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23
Q

Oxytocin

A

stored and released in the posterior pituitary gland but produced in the hypothalamus
causes muscle contractions during labor and ejection of breast milk

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24
Q

T4

A

thyroxine
from the thyroid gland
regulate oxygen consumption and metabolism

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25
Q

T3

A

triiodothyronine
from the thyroid gland
regulate oxygen consumption and metabolism

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26
Q

PTH (parathyroid hormone)

A

comes from parathyroid gland
raises blood calcium levels

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27
Q

calcitonin

A

comes from parathyroid gland
lowers blood calcium levels

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28
Q

name all the parathyroid hormones

A

calcitonin, t3, t4, and pth

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29
Q

name all the adrenal hormones

A

aldosterone and stress hormones (cortisol)

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30
Q

aldosterone

A

from adrenal gland
increases sodium reabsorption at the kidneys to increase blood volume and pressure

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31
Q

cortisol (stress hormone)

A

from adrenal gland
mobilize energy for the fight or flight response (increases blood sugar)

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32
Q

pineal gland hormones

A

melatonin

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33
Q

melatonin

A

comes from pineal gland
pineal gland will sense if theres light or darkness, light = nothing produced, dark = hormone produced by pineal gland

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34
Q

what hormones do the pancreas (endocrine portion) produce

A

insulin (beta cells) and glucagon (alpha cells)

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35
Q

Insulin

A

hormone produced by the pancreatic islets
lowers blood sugar after a meal (think IN)

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36
Q

glucagon

A

hormone produced by the pancreatic islets
raises blood sugar in between meals (think GONE)

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37
Q

what hormones do the kidney produce?

A

calcitriol and erythropoietin (EPO)

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38
Q

calcitriol

A

hormone produced by the kidneys
increases calcium at the kidneys

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39
Q

EPO

A

erythropoietin
produced by kidneys
increase red blood cells

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40
Q

What are the 3 phases of the general adaptation syndrome (stress response)?

A

alarm
resistance
exhaustion

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41
Q

What is the primary hormone of the alarm phase?

A

epinephrine

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42
Q

what is the primary hormones of the resistance phase?

A

cortisol

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43
Q

When does the exhaustion phase begin?

A

when homeostatic regulation breaks down

only seen in extremely starved/malnourished people

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44
Q

What does it mean when someone is “resistant” to a hormone (Insulin resistance, cortisol resistance, leptin resistance, etc)

A

cells are less sensitive to a hormone because there’s too much of it

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45
Q

the body mainly uses _____ ______ to maintain homeostasis

A

negative feedback

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46
Q

Does blood play a role in the generation or regulation of body temperature?

A

regulation

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47
Q

What is the fluid portion of blood called? What percent of it is water?

A

plasma

plasma is 92% water

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48
Q

If you were looking at a tube of centrifuged blood what would you find at the bottom of the tube? The top?

A

RBCs would be at the bottom and plasma would be at the top

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49
Q

What are the 3 formed elements of blood? Why are they called formed elements instead of blood cells?

A

RBCs, white blood cells, and platelets

called formed elements because RBCs and platelets are not actually cells

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50
Q

What is the temperature of blood? What is the pH of blood?

A

temp is 100.4 F and pH is 7.35-7.45

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51
Q

How much blood does an adult male have? Adult female?

A

males have 5.5 L

females have 4.5 L

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52
Q

what’s the difference between blood plasma and interstitial fluid

A

blood plasma lies within blood vessels

interstitial fluid is the liquid between cells and tissues (outside blood vessel)

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53
Q

Where are most plasma proteins produced?

A

liver

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54
Q

name the plasma proteins

A

albumins, globulins, fibrinogens

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55
Q

out of the plasma proteins, which is the most numerous and why does it matter?

A

albumin

it’s important because it prevents leakage of fluid into tissues

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56
Q

How many RBC’s are in a microliter of the average adult makes blood?

A

4-6 million per microliter

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57
Q

What is the protein in a RBC that allows it carry oxygen through your circulation? What mineral is needed?

A

hemoglobin and iron

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58
Q

What kind of cell is released into general circulation where it matures into a RBC?

A

reticulocyte

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59
Q

With regard to blood typing, what is an antigen?

A

it is a surface marker on the OUTSIDE of a RBC

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60
Q

With regard to blood typing, what is an antibody?

A

proteins found in plasma that detect germs and alert the immune system

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61
Q

Your patient has Type A blood. What kind of surface antigens do they have? What kind of antibodies would be in their plasma?

A

they have A antigens and B antibodies

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62
Q

What is the most common blood type in America?

A

O+

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63
Q

What role does Rh factor play? Why does it only matter during a woman’s 2nd pregnancy (if at all)?

A

Rh is where the + or - comes from

Rh can affect a woman’s pregnancy the 2nd time if the mother is Rh- but the baby is Rh+. the moms antibodies will attack the baby

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64
Q

neutrophils are elevated during

A

bacterial infections

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65
Q

neutrophils are the least common WBC

true or false

A

false, they are the most common

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66
Q

eosinophils are elevated during

A

allergic reactions and parasitic infections

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67
Q

eosinophils release antihistamines

true or false

A

true

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68
Q

basophils release histamine and….

A

heparin

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69
Q

why do basophils release histamine but eosinophils releases antihistamines?

A

because the immune system will overreact and kill itself without antihistamines releasing in response to histamine

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70
Q

Monocytes become…

A

tissue macrophage

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71
Q

lymphocytes are elevated during

A

viral infections

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72
Q

name the types of lymphocytes

A

Nk cells, T-cells, and B-cells

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73
Q

what WBC usually shows up first because they’re more numerous

A

neutrophils

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74
Q

Which of the white blood cells (Leukocytes) are classified as granulocytes?

A

basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils

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75
Q

What type of cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity?

A

T-cells

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76
Q

what type of cells are involved in humoral immunity?

A

B-cells

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77
Q

All blood cells come from myeloid stem cells except for which type? What kind of stem cell do they come from?

A

lymphocytes, they are made from lymphoid stem cells

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78
Q

What kind of cells does a B-cell become before it make antibodies?

A

small lymphocytes

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79
Q

Platelets are fragments of a much larger cell. What is it called?

A

megakaryocyte

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80
Q

How long does the average platelet “live”?

A

7-10 days

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81
Q

Blood clotting is a complex positive feedback driven process, but the end result is the conversion of water soluble fibrinogen into what?

A

fibrin

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82
Q

What is fibrinolysis?

A

dissolving of a clot

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83
Q

A loss of blood volume would stimulate which kidney hormone to increase red blood cell production?

A

erythropoietin (EPO)

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84
Q

What is the difference between an artery and a vein (and it is not oxygenated versus deoxygenated blood)?

A

arteries carry blood away from the heart (almost every artery carries oxygen-rich blood except for pulmonary artery carrying blood to lungs)

veins carry blood back to the heart

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85
Q

What is the key thing that occurs at capillaries that doesn’t occur at arteries and/or veins?

A

capillaries are where we exchange things

(dropping off oxygen and picking up CO2, etc)

arteries and veins are the transport system

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86
Q

the path blood takes through the heart

A

IVC or SVC –> right atrium –> tricuspid valve –> right ventricle –> pulmonary valve –> pulmonary artery –> lungs

RIGHT SIDE OF HEART (pulmonary circuit)

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87
Q

the path blood takes BACK through the heart

A

lungs –> pulmonary vein –> left atrium –> mitral valve –> left ventricle –> aortic valve –> aorta

LEFT SIDE OF HEART (systemic circuit)

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88
Q

the path blood takes THROUGH the heart is done through

A

pulmonary circuit (right side of heart)

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89
Q

the path blood takes BACK through the heart is done through

A

systemic circuit (left side of heart)

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90
Q

What is the mediastinum?

A

space between the lungs, where the heart, thymus, etc lies

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91
Q

Visceral vs parietal pericardium.
What is another name for the visceral pericardium?

A

visceral - organs (layer on heart)

parietal - body wall (layer that lines the cavity the heart is in)

helps friction be reduced when heart is pumping

another name is epicardium

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92
Q

What are the 3 ways that we have classified cardiac muscle tissue? For example, do cardiac muscle cells have a single nucleus or multiple nuclei?

A

1) striated (organized)

2) involuntary

3) cardiac muscle cells only have one nucleus

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93
Q

What is an intercalated disc? Why do they matter?

A

they are special connection points between heart muscle cells

important bc the discs are electric, one stimulus is able to cause the entire heart muscle to contract

they function as ONE UNIT

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94
Q

What is the function of the valves?

A

prevent backflow of blood

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95
Q

name all the valves of the heart

A

right AV valve (tricuspid valve)

pulmonary valve (pulmonary semilunar valve)

left AV valve (bicuspid valve or mitral valve)

aortic valve (aortic semilunar valve)

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96
Q

Which chambers of the heart are more muscular, the atria or the ventricles?

A

ventricles because they have to pump more blood

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97
Q

moderator band

A

small piece of the electrical system of the heart

powers papillary muscles, makes them tense up

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98
Q

Why is the left ventricle more muscular than the right ventricle?

A

left ventricle is 300x thicker

left ventricle has to pump blood blood all throughout the body through resistance, meaning it’s stronger

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99
Q

If a valve fails, leading to regurgitation of blood, your doctor would hear it while ______________ your heart and call it a _____________.

A

auscultating, murmur

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100
Q

when a moderator band tells papillary muscles to _____________ ….

A

tense up, the papillary muscles tug on the chordae tendineae which straightens up the bicuspid and tricuspid valve

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101
Q

the path of the conducting system of the heart

A

SA node (pacemaker) –> AV, small delay –> AV bundle –> Bundle Branches –> Purkinje fibers (turn around and travel back up)

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102
Q

Where is the SA node (the heart’s pacemaker)?

A

the back wall of the right atrium that sends signal DOWN the heart

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103
Q

Where in the conducting system is there a delay in the electrical signal? How long is the delay?

A

the delay is at the AV node bc the SA node depolarizes both atria

the delay is 100 milliseconds long

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104
Q

On an EKG/ECG, what is the P wave?

A

when the 2 atria depolarize

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105
Q

On an EKG/ECG, what is the QRS complex?

A

ventricles depolarize

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106
Q

On an EKG/ECG, what is the T wave?

A

ventricles repolarizing

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107
Q

Why can’t you see where the atria repolarize on an EKG?

A

the ventricles are depolarizing at the same time

the atria repolarization is hidden because the ventricles are more powerful

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108
Q

If you see a problem on an EKG, what is it called?

A

arrhythmia

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109
Q

systole vs diastole

A

Systole = contraction

Diastole = relaxation

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110
Q

Your normal heart sounds are labeled S1-S4. Which two are the most important?

A

S1 (lub, 2 AV valves closing) and S2 (dupp, 2 semilunar valves closing)

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111
Q

stroke volume

A

how much blood (ml) you move per beat

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112
Q

Cardiac output

A

stroke volume x heart rate

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113
Q

What is your cardiac reserve?

A

resting output vs maximal output

average resting cardiac output: 5 L per min

athlete resting cardiac output: 30 L per min

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114
Q

What are the key differences between the structure of
arteries and veins? How does this relate to their function?

A

arteries: thick, tough, and elastic to withstand high pressure
veins: thin with a widen open lumen to offer as little resistance to blood flow as possible

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115
Q

What function do the valves in veins perform?

A

prevent backflow of blood

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116
Q

Sympathetic stimulation (fight or flight) causes vasoconstriction. Doesn’t that make blood vessels bigger or smaller? Does that lead to an increase or decrease in blood pressure?

A

vasoconstriction makes blood vessels smaller. this makes the blood pressure higher.

vasodilation makes blood vessels bigger.

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117
Q

There are 3 types of capillaries (continuous, fenestrated, and sinusoids). Which have the smallest openings? The largest? What do sinusoids need that the other 2 do not?

A

continuous capillaries are the smallest, the most numerous

fenestrated capillaries can let medium sized things through

sinusoids are the largest, they have gaps between the cells. They need macrophages lining them because of the big gaps.

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118
Q

What is a portal system?

A

artery - arteriole - capillary - another capillary bed - venule - vein

moving a lot of material in a small area

119
Q

Is there more blood in your arterial or venous system?

A

more blood in the venous system

120
Q

How much of your blood is in the venous reserve?

A

20-21% of your blood is in this venous reserve

we have this in case we lose arteriole blood

121
Q

Your blood pressure has to be high enough to overcome____________

A

peripheral resistance

122
Q

Key contributors to vascular (peripheral) resistance?

A

vessel length - the longer the vessel is the harder the heart has to beat

viscosity - how well blood flows, too viscous makes heart beat harder

turbulence - plaque in arteries makes heart works harder -> high BP

123
Q

What is normal blood pressure (in mm Hg)? What pressure is hypertension?

A

120/80 is normal

hypertension is 140/90

124
Q

What role does filtration and reabsorption play in the movement of fluids in the body. Why is there more filtration than reabsorption at the capillaries? Why is this important?

A

filtration (arteriole) and reabsorption (venous, because of osmosis)

there is more filtration because the arteries are longer, this is important because this fluid becomes interstitial fluid

125
Q

where are the cardiovascular centers of the brain?

A

medulla oblongata

126
Q

Why is the endothelium of the tunica intima of your blood vessels so important? What disease state stems from endothelial dysfunction/damage?

A

the endothelium is important because it helps absorb and nourish blood vessels.

atherosclerosis (hardening of arteries) leading to heart disease is stemmed from endothelial dysfunction

127
Q

What are the basics of the renin-angiotensin system. What role does Angiotensin II play in maintaining (or increasing) blood pressure?

A

the renin-angiotensin system starts in the kidneys where they have special cells called juxtaglomerular cells that can sense a drop in BP causing the release of renin(lead the production of angiotensin I)

angiotensin II (raises BP) stems from angiotensin I from an enzyme called angiotensin converting enzyme. this plays a role in BP because most BP meds (ACE inhibitors) target this process.

128
Q

examples of portal systems

A

hypophyseal portal system (connects hypothalamus to pituitary gland)

hepatic portal system (allows liver to grab things it needs and get rid of things it doesn’t)

129
Q

What makes lymphatic fluid different than blood plasma?

A

blood plasma is 92% water but has a lot of proteins

lymphatic fluid is the 3.6L that was interstitial fluid but entered a lymphatic vessel causing it to become lymphatic fluid

130
Q

Lymphatic vessels are not circular like the circulatory system. They begin with __________ lymphatics

A

terminal

131
Q

Are lymphatic vessels more like arteries or veins?

A

veins

thin walls, large lumens

132
Q

Are the “valves” in lymphatic vessels really valves? Do they still behave like valves?

A

they are not technically valves but they behave like a trap door

they function like valves

133
Q

Which parts of the body drain into the thoracic duct? The right lymphatic duct? Where do they both drain into?

A

the right lymphatic duct is the right upper side of your body

thoracic duct is everything else

they drain into your subclavian veins and into circulatory system and to your heart

134
Q

Why are they called T-cells and B-cells?

A

t-cells are thymus dependent

b-cells are bone marrow dependent

135
Q

With T-cells, what role do cytotoxic T-cells play? Helper T-cells? Suppressor T-cells?

A

the cytotoxic t-cells - killers, cell mediated immunity (directly attacks)

helper t-cells - activates cytotoxic t cells and b cells

suppressor t-cells - makes sure response isn’t too big

136
Q

B-cells become Plasma cells. What do plasma cells make?

A

plasma cells make antibodies

137
Q

Natural Killer cells are primarily involved in ___________________, and allows them to attack and (hopefully) destroy cancer cells and virus infected cells

A

immunological surveillance - looks for cells with abnormal surfaces

138
Q

What is MALT?

A

mucosa associated lymphatic tissue

anywhere with a lot of mucus (digestive, reproductive, etc)

examples would be tonsils and appendix

139
Q

How many tonsils are there?

A

5

ferrengia tonsils (adnoid)

2 palatine tonsils

2 lingual tonsils

140
Q

Lymph nodes are filters. What percent of antigens are filtered out?

A

99% or more

141
Q

What is the first step of your body’s immune response? Remember that you cannot fight an enemy that you do not know is there

A

the 1st step is antigen recognition and antigen presentation

142
Q

The thymus gland plays a key role in the maturation of the immune system. What happens to the thymus gland as you reach puberty and beyond?

A

the thymus gland gets smaller as you age and is less effective

143
Q

What is the function of the red pulp portion of the spleen? The white pulp portion?

A

red pulp filters out damaged RBCs

white pulp has all of the WBCs, monitoring

144
Q

What is the difference between a specific and a non-specific defense?

A

non-specific doesn’t care what is there (skin, stomach acid)

specific defenses go after a specific target

145
Q

What kind of white blood cells are involved in the specific defense system?

A

t-cells and b-cells

146
Q

Do interferons play a role in stopping bacterial or viral infections?

A

viral infections

decrease viral replication, stimulate NK cells and macrophages, engulfs and destroys virus infected cells

147
Q

What kind of proteins are complement proteins? The complement system “compliments” the action of_____________

A

complement proteins are plasma proteins

antibodies and phagocytes

they can burrow holes into abnormal cells

148
Q

What are the 4 cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

redness, heat, swelling, pain

149
Q

What do mast cells release? What does it do?

A

they release histamine and heparin

they allow your immune system to have a reaction (histamine) and allows more fluid to go to an area so more immune cells show up(heparin)

150
Q

What kind of cells produce scar tissue?

A

fibroblasts and collagen

151
Q

Notice that there is a fair amount of overlap between this chapter and the chapter on blood cells. For example, T-cells are involved in _______ mediated immunity, and B-cells are involved in _________ mediated immunity

A

cellular, humoral

152
Q

What is the purpose of memory cells (memory T-cells and memory B-cells)?

A

they are why vaccines work, response should be quicker and stronger

153
Q

What kind of T-cells have CD4 receptors? CD8 receptors?

A

helper t-cells have CD4 receptors

cytotoxic t-cells have CD8 receptors

154
Q

In what ways are helper T-cells needed? Do they do more than just help T-cells?

A

they activate t-cells and b-cells

155
Q

What do suppressor T-cells prevent? What is their other name?

A

they are also called regulatory t-cells or T-regs

prevent overactive immune response

156
Q

What part of an antibodies structure determines which antibody it is (IgG versus IgA etc)?

A

constant segment - what type of antibody

variable segment - what target they’re looking for

157
Q

The 5 classes of antibodies are IgG, IgE, IgD, IgM, and IgA. Which of them…
Plays a key role in allergic reactions?
Is in glandular secretions?
Plays a role in the sensitization of B-cells?
Is the most numerous?
Is the first to show up?
Are passed to the infant through breast milk?

A

IgE in allergic reactions

IgA in glandular secretions

IgD in sensitization of b cells

IgG is the most numerous (only antibodies to make it through placenta)

IgM is the first to show up (not very good)

all are passed through breast milk

158
Q

What are the key differences between primary and secondary immune responsel

A

primary immune response - slower, IgM show up first but they’re weak, takes 10-14 days to mount response

secondary immune response - quicker, dominated by IgG antibodies, shouldn’t get sick

159
Q

What are the key issues with allergies, autoimmune diseases, and immunodeficiency diseases?

A

allergies - hypersensitivity (overactive immune response)

autoimmune disease - loss of tolerance, immune system attacks normal tissue

immunodeficiency - weak immune system

160
Q

What is anaphylactic shock?

A

airways constrict, vasodilation of all blood vessels making the body not have enough blood

treatment is epinephrine

161
Q

Where does the upper respiratory system end and the lower respiratory system begin?

A

larynx and below is lower respiratory, anything above it is upper

162
Q

The goal of your respiratory system is to transport and
prepare air for the gas exchange surface of the lungs, aka
__________

A

alveoli

163
Q

What are the parts of the respiratory defense system?
What do they do?

A

mucus: traps pathogens
immune cells: engulfs pathogens and alerts immune system
ciliary escalator: takes unwanted material from mucus and takes it out of your lungs and expels it

164
Q

The function of the nasal conchae is to create
_______________ in the nasal cavity

A

turbulence

165
Q

As the air swirls around in the nasal cavity, what 3 things
are happening to it?

A

being filtered, warmed, and humidified
nasal conchae creates swirling of air

166
Q

Which laryngeal cartilage is larger in men than women
(hint: Adams apple)

A

thyroid cartilage

167
Q

What is the function of the epiglottis?

A

covers trachea or glottis when you swallow

168
Q

What is the opening of the trachea called?

A

glottis

169
Q

What holds the trachea open at all times?

A

15-20 C shaped cartilage rings

170
Q

How many bronchi are there (primary, secondary,
tertiary)? How many bronchopulmonary segments are in
each lung?

A

primary: 2 one for each lung
secondary: 5 1 for each lobe
tertiary: 19 for bronchopulmonary segments
10 in right lung, 9 in left lung

171
Q

Why is the right primary bronchus larger than the left?

A

because right lung is bigger

172
Q

Why does the left lung only have 2 lobes?

A

because of the heart, it’s in the way

173
Q

Sympathetic activation causes __________________
which opens the airways

A

bronchodilation

174
Q

What is the function of surfactant? What kind of cells produce it?

A

surfactant reduces surface tension
type 2 alveolar cells produce it

175
Q

What is tidal volume? What is the average amount of air
moved during the tidal volume?

A

tidal volume is the amount of air we move in a normal breathe (500 mL)

176
Q

What is the most important respiratory muscle?

A

diaphragm - 75% of quiet breathing is caused by this contracting

177
Q

Define anabolism

A

something that leads to growth and requires energy
build up of something

178
Q

catabolism

A

break down of something that releases energy (food)

179
Q

ingestion

A

putting something in your mouth and eating it
starting process

180
Q

mechanical processing

A

chewing, churning in stomach

181
Q

digestion

A

chemically breaking down food

182
Q

secretion

A

secrete 6-7 fluids a day
buffers, mucus

183
Q

absorption

A

once we’ve digested food, we can now absorb it

184
Q

excretion

A

what we cant digest and absorb

185
Q

What makes an organ an accessory digestive organ?

A

digestive system is just your GI tract
everything else is an accessory organ
salivary glands, gallbladder, pancreas, liver

186
Q

visceral peritoneum

A

layer on organ

187
Q

parietal pertioneum

A

lining on the cavity

188
Q

What does the word retroperitoneal mean? How are these organs (or organ parts) protected?

A

retroperitoneal means behind peritoneal cavity
they’re protected by being attached to the posterior abdominal wall
examples: duodenum, pancreas, rectum, ascending and descending colon

189
Q

What is a mesentery? What is its function?

A

mesentery is a double layer of a peritoneal membrane
it holds the organs in place so they stay in place

190
Q

What is the difference between peristalsis and
segmentation?

A

peristalsis is movement from one area to another
segmentation is a churning process that takes place in one area to help mech. break down food

191
Q

What is your enteric nervous system?

A

subconscious part of nervous system that oversees digestion

192
Q

Remember the type of epithelia that covers each part of the GI tract from the Tissue chapter. What parts are stratified squamous? Simple columnar? What areas are keratinized? What areas have microvilli?

A

beginning and end of GI tract are stratified squamous epithelium (mouth, anus, esophagus)
middle of GI tract is simple columnar (stomach, small intestine, large intestine)
keratinized tissue would be the roof of your mouth
microvilli are located in simple columnar cells of the stomach, large intestine

193
Q

How many pairs of salivary glands do you have? Why are they so important? Which glands produce the majority of your saliva?

A

3 pairs of salivary glands
they’re important bc they produce salivary amylase, lingual lipase, and water to swallow food
70% of saliva comes from submandibular glands

194
Q

What is the primary function of Lysozyme in saliva?

A

control oral bacteria

195
Q

What is the technical term for chewing?

A

mastication

196
Q

How many primary dentition (baby teeth) do we have? Permanent dentition (adult teeth)?

A

20 dentition teeth
32 permanent teeth

197
Q

What are the 2 primary muscles of mastication?

A

temporalis muscles and masseter

198
Q

What are the 3 parts of the pharynx?

A

nasal pharynx (top)
oropharynx (middle)
laryngeal pharynx (bottom)

199
Q

What is the technical term for swallowing?

A

deglutition

200
Q

There are 3 directions food and drink could possible go.
Which 2 are closed off during swallowing? How?

A

food can go out of your nose, through the glottis in trachea (down wrong pipe), into esophagus (correct place)
when you swallow, internal nostrils and glottis are covered

201
Q

What is unique about the smooth muscle of the stomach?

A

the stomach has a third layer of smooth muscle

202
Q

How can the stomach be full of a powerful acid and a
protein digesting enzyme without being destroyed?

A

a layer of mucus full of bicarbonate that protects the stomach from gastric juice

203
Q

What are the 4 parts of the stomach?

A

cardia
fundus (highest portion)
body (biggest)
pylorus (attaches to duodenum)

204
Q

Know what the parietal cells and chief cell secrete

A

parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor
chief cells secrete pepsinogen

205
Q

When does digestion truly begin? (called the cephalic
phase)

A

when we think about food

206
Q

What are the 3 parts of the small intestine? What is the
key feature about each part?

A

duodenum - mixing, where chyme is mixed with bicarbonate
jejunum - where most digestion & absorption takes place,
ileum - longest portion, has peyer’s patches (immune component)

207
Q

what are the endocrine functions of the pancreas? What are the exocrine functions of the pancreas?

A

ENDOCRINE glands dump secretions into bloodstream, only 1%, insulin
EXOCRINE glands dump secretions through ducts

208
Q

What are the 4 lobes of the liver?

A

left lobe
right lobe
caudate lobe
quadrate lobe

209
Q

what is a liver cell called?

A

hepatocyte

210
Q

What are the functional units of the liver called?

A

liver lobule

211
Q

We cannot cover every one of the hundreds of things that the liver does, but what are the 3 categories of functions that it does perform?

A

bile production
metabolic regulation
logical regulation (cleans up old RBCs)

212
Q

What is the function of bile? Where is it made? Where is it stored?

A

function is to emulsify fats (doesn’t digest fat)
made in liver
stored in gallbladder

213
Q

What are the 2 primary functions of the large intestine?

A

reabsorption of water
temp storage of feces

214
Q

What are the pouches of the colon called?

A

haustra

215
Q

What is the key vitamin produced by the bacteria in the large intestine?

A

vitamin K

216
Q

Understand the defecation reflex

A

normally passing a stool

217
Q

when inhaling, you have to __________ the volume/size of the thoracic cavity to _____________ the pressure

A

increase, decrease

218
Q

when exhaling, you have to ___________ the volume/size of the thoracic cavity to ______________ the pressure

A

decrease, increase

219
Q

you inhale when the pressure in your lungs is ___________ than atmospheric pressure

A

lower

220
Q

you exhale when the pressure in your lungs is _____________ than atmospheric pressure

A

higher

221
Q

What 2 muscles are involved in quiet inspiration? Are there any muscles involved in quiet exhalation?

A

quiet inspiration: diaphragm and external intercostals
quiet exhalation: no, no muscles used

222
Q

How do you calculate respiratory minute volume?

A

tidal volume x respiratory rate

223
Q

Is costal/chest breathing better or worse than
diaphragmatic/belly breathing? Why?

A

costal/chest breathing is worse for you because you exhaust your neck

224
Q

What is inspiratory reserve volume? Expiratory reserve
volume?

A

IRV: how much more you can inhale than normal
ERV: how much more you can exhale than normal

225
Q

Why is the vital capacity of your lungs not the same as
your total lung capacity?

A

because we can’t control all the air in our lungs

226
Q

Understand how diffusion of gases occurs at both the alveoli of the lungs and at a peripheral capillary bed. Can you follow a molecule of oxygen from the air you breathe until it reaches a cell? Can you follow a molecule of CO2 from the cell it was produced until you breathe it out?

A

diffusion: CO2 diffuses OUT of lungs. Oxygen diffuses IN your lungs from pulmonary circuit. –>
Oxygen diffuses IN and hopped on hemoglobin AND OUT when it’s needed in blood. CO2 diffuses INTO blood in peripheral tissues & diffuses OUT at the lungs

227
Q

How is most of the O2 in your bloodstream carried to and fro? How about CO2?

A

almost all of your O2 is carried on hemoglobin
70% of CO2 is carried as carbonic acid (CO2 becomes a weak acid).

228
Q

Which of the above 2 gases has to be the most tightly controlled?

A

CO2

229
Q

What part of the brain controls breathing? How about rate of respiration?

A

medulla oblongata controls breathing
pons controls rate of respiration

230
Q

What effect does hyperventilation have on your blood gases? How about hypoventilation?

A

hyperventilation leads to respiratory alkalosis –> blood ph is too high
hypoventilation is the most common cause of respiratory acidosis –> blood ph is too low

231
Q

What is a pneumothorax? Atelectasis?

A

pneumothorax is the damage that separates the visceral and parietal pleura
atelectasis is a collapsed lung

232
Q

What are the 3 primary functions of the urinary system?

A

1) maintaining blood volume and blood pressure
2) maintaining blood pH
3) control plasma concentration

233
Q

Can you follow a drop of fluid on its way from the blood, to filtrate, to tubular fluid, to urine, to toilet?

A

capillaries –> glomerulus to become filtrate –> proximal convoluted tubule to become tubular fluid –> nephron loop/loop of henle –> distal convoluted tubes –> collecting system –> nephron –> renal papilla –> minor calyx –> major calyx –> renal pelvis –> ureter –> bladder –> urethra –> toilet

234
Q

What is the proper term for urination?

A

micturition

235
Q

What does it mean that the kidneys are retroperitoneal?

A

behind the peritoneal membrane
attached to posterior abdominal wall

236
Q

Know the key parts of the kidney from a sectional anatomy standpoint.

A

renal pyramid
a minor calyx
major calyx
renal pevis
ureter

237
Q

renal corpuscle

A

glomerulus and glomerular capsule
filtration (small things) is the key function

238
Q

PCT

A

proximal convoluted tubules
reabsorption –> 70% of the water almost 100% of the small good things

239
Q

nephron loop

A

water reabsorb further, 20% absorbed here

240
Q

DCT

A

distal convoluted tubules
secretion is key function
drugs & toxins

241
Q

collecting system

A

determines final concentration and volume of your urine
urine should be pale yellow

242
Q

There are 2 types of nephrons. Which is more numerous? Which is better at concentrating urine?

A

85% of nephrons are cortical nephrons the better ones are juxtamedullary nephrons

243
Q

How much filtrate is produced each day? How much fluid enters the collecting system?

A

48-50 gal of filtrate is produced at the glomerulus
less than 27 liters enters the collecting system

244
Q

What kind of cells create the filtration slits of the renal corpuscle? What are their false feet called? What kind of capillary beds would be found here?

A

podocytes (feet cells)
false feet are called pedicles
fenestrated capillaries would be here (large openings)

245
Q

What is the biggest weakness of the filtration slit/membrane?

A

filters out small good things, if we didn’t reabsorb we would die

246
Q

Urea and creatinine are the 2 key metabolic waste products that the kidney must deal with. Where do they come from?

A

urea is from breakdown of amino acids (21-23 g a day)
creatinine comes from creatinine phosphate
uric acid is the 3RD KEY METABOLIC WASTE PRODUCT (500 mg a day) too much can lead to GOUT

247
Q

What is the renal threshold/transport maximum?

A

transport maximum is how many receptors do we have and how fast are they, determines renal threshold, if glucose is in urine, patients BP has to be at least 180 or higher

248
Q

What is glomerular filtration rate? What does it tell you?

A

GFR is how much you filter thru kidneys per minute (123 millimeters a minute)
kidneys functioning at 100% should be able to filter 48-50 gal of filtrate

249
Q

Why is a small drop in blood pressure at the kidneys disastrous?

A

they’re powered by hydrostatic pressure
20% drop in renal BP would kill the kidneys

250
Q

What percent of the filtrate that is produced a day reabsorbed as a result of obligatory water reabsorption?

A

85%

251
Q

What role does ADH play in concentrating urine?

A

without it you would have diabetes
you would produce 27 Liters a day without it

252
Q

What anatomical feature of the ureters prevents the
backflow of urine?

A

they have a funnel shape, the openings are slits all designed to keep urine from flowing back

253
Q

What is a diuretic?

A

anything that increases the loss of water
ex alcohol

254
Q

How many layers of smooth muscle are in the urinary bladder? What is this muscular layer called?

A

3 layers
detrusor is the muscular layer

255
Q

What are the folds in the urinary bladder called?

A

rugae
same as in stomach

256
Q

What are the 3 parts of the male urethra? Which gland causes problems urinating in men?

A

1) prostatic urethra
2) membranous urethra
3) spongy/penile urethra
prostate gland causes problems in urinating

257
Q

The micturition and defecation reflexes are quite similar. Are they positive or negative feedback loop driven? Which sphincter (internal or external) is smooth muscle? What is
the key difference between the 2?

A

they are positive feedback loops
internal sphincter is smooth muscle
to urinate you have to relax, to defecate you have to put pressure

258
Q

What are the male gonads? What do they produce? (both hormones and gametes)?

A

testicales are male gonds
they produce sperm (gamete) and testosterone/androgens (hormones)

259
Q

What are the female gonads? What do they produce? (both hormones and gametes)?

A

ovaries are female gonades
estrogen/progesterone (hormone) and the egg/oocyte (gamete)

260
Q

What are the key differences between Mitosis and Meiosis? How are they alike?

A

mitosis is division of body cells, one round of division
meiosis is division of sex cells, two rounds of division

261
Q

When do the testicles descend in males? What potential anatomical problem does that cause?

A

7th month of development
testicles not descending is cryptorchidism

262
Q

What is cryptorchidism?

A

tesicles are too warm and are sterile (if both don’t descend)

263
Q

Why are the testicles outside of the body?

A

because testicles need to be colder than the rest of our body

264
Q

What is produced in the seminiferous tubules?

A

immature sperm

265
Q

What cells in the testicles produce testosterone?

A

interstitial cells

266
Q

What is capacitation?

A

process of making a functional sperm

267
Q

Which of the 3 accessory glands (seminal vesicles, prostate gland, bulbourethral gland) contribute the largest volume to semen?

A

70% of semen comes from seminal vesicles

268
Q

What is the difference between emission and ejaculation?

A

emission: secretions into tubes
ejaculation: discharging of semen

269
Q

How many corpus cavernosa are in the penis? Corpus spongiosum?

A

corpus cavernosa: 2
corpus spongiosum: 1

270
Q

Is an erection caused by vasoconstriction or vasodilation?

A

vasodilation

271
Q

Which pituitary hormone leads to the production of testosterone at the testis?

A

luteinizing hormone

272
Q

What does testosterone become when it has been aromatized?

A

conversion of testosterone into female sex hormones

273
Q

What are a couple of the reasons that women have a much larger reproductive investment than men?

A

takes a huge metabolic investment and calories away from mom

274
Q

Which pituitary hormone triggers the start of the ovarian cycle?

A

follicle stimulating hormone

275
Q

When does an embryo become a fetus?

A

8th week of pregnancy

276
Q

What are the 2 phases of the ovarian cycle?

A

folicular phase: FSH and estrogen
luteal phase: LTH and progesterone

277
Q

What are the 3 phases of the uterine cycle?

A

menstrual phase - getting rid of last months uterus
proliferin phase
secretory phase - grandular secretions

278
Q

How are the 2 connected? Menses and the proliferative phase occur during which phase of the ovarian cycle?

A

menstrual and proliferative phase occur during the first half

279
Q

How can you tell when ovulation occurs?

A

caused by spike in LH
effects temp, dip in body temp but climb in basal temp

280
Q

What role does the Corpus Luteum play?

A

becomes a temp. endocrine organ that churns out progesterone
does placentas job before placenta exists

281
Q

Where does fertilization of an oocyte typically occur?

A

ampula area in uterine tube

282
Q

What is menarche? Menopause?

A

menarche: 1st menstrual cycle
menopause: last menstrual cycle

283
Q

__________ is the primary hormone prior to ovulation

A

piuitary hormone: FSH
sex hormone: estrogen

284
Q

Is basal body temperature higher under the influence of estrogen or progesterone?

A

progesterone

285
Q

What hormone signals that fertilization and implantation
have taken place?

A

HCG
human chorionic gonadotropin

286
Q

what type of epithelium is in the urinary system

A

cuboidal epithelium

287
Q

urinary system and the role in acid/base balance

A

kidneys play a big role in maintaining pH balance
too much acid in blood –> shunt to kidneys

288
Q

hormones in urinary system

A

ADH - antidiuretic, make less urine
aldosterone - decrease urine
EPO - makes more RBCs when drop in BP
renin angiotensin - raises BP
calcitriol - works w/ parathyroid hormone, absorbs as much calcium as possible

289
Q

Know the male reproductive tract, testis to urethra

A

testis –> seminiferous tubule –> epididymis –> ductus deferens –> scrotum –> ejaculatory duct–> urethra

290
Q

Know the female reproductive tracts, ovaries to urethra

A

ovary –> uterine tube –> uterus –> birth canal –> vagina

291
Q

albumin

A

transporter and maintains osmotic concentration
prevents leakage

292
Q

globulins

A

transporter and immune function

293
Q

fibrinogen

A

blood clotting

294
Q

hematocrit

A

the percentage of blood made up of red blood cells

295
Q

why are RBCs shaped as discs?

A

to carry more oxygen and so they can slip into blood vessels (more surface area)

296
Q

universal and recipient donor?

A

universal: O-
recipient: AB+

Anatomy & Physiology (7 decks)

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