FC To Review Flashcards
There are 5 steps along the pain pathway to alert a patient to a painful stimulus.
Which of the following is the step that turns a noxious stimulus into an electrical signal in nerves, which then along the pathway is perceived as pain?
Transmission
Transduction
Perception
Projection
Modulation
Answer: Transduction
Transduction is the conversion of a stimulus, usually mechanical, thermal, or chemical, into an electrical signal by pain receptors located on nerve endings in the skin, subcutaneous tissues, viscera, etc.
The electrical impulse is transmitted via afferent sensory nerves to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord.
This is where the response to the painful stimulus is directed, when appropriate (e.g., a withdrawal reflex), or amplified, facilitated and/ or suppressed here (i.e., modulation).
The signal is then projected to higher centers, usually via the spinothalamic or the spinoreticular tracts. Further modulation occurs in the thalamus, reticular formation, and limbic system.
Finally, it reaches the cerebral cortex, where perception produces physical and emotional responses.
Which one of the following regional nerve blocks does not affect sensory function but blocks motor function of the upper eyelid, and is indicated to allow complete ophthalmic examination in the horse?
Supraorbital
Ocular
Zygomatic
Auriculopalpebral
Frontal
Answer: Auriculopalpebral
The auriculopalpebral nerve, located along the dorsal zygomatic arch of the eye, provides motor innervation to the upper orbicularis oculi muscle.
Anesthesia of this nerve prevents the horse from being able to blink the eye and facilitates complete ophthalmic examination.
The frontal nerve is a branch of the trigeminal nerve and provides sensory innervation to the upper eyelid.
Click here to see a good summary on ophthalmology surgical emergencies in horses, with images, courtesy of the American College of Veterinary Surgeons (ACVS).
Refs: Smith, Large Animal Internal Medicine, 4th ed. pp. 793-8.
Auriculopalpebral Block in Equine Medicine
Definition
• Auriculopalpebral Block: A local anesthetic technique used to block the auriculopalpebral nerve, facilitating ophthalmic procedures by preventing eyelid movement.
Purpose
• Indications: Used for ocular examinations, minor surgical procedures around the eye, and alleviating blepharospasm. • Mechanism: Blocks motor function of the orbicularis oculi muscle, causing temporary paralysis of the upper eyelid.
Procedure
• Technique: Administer local anesthetic (e.g., lidocaine) near the auriculopalpebral nerve at the zygomatic arch. • Effect: Immediate eyelid immobility lasting for approximately 1-2 hours.
https://www.acvs.org/large-animal/ophthalmology-surgical-emergencies-in-horses/
Which combination is the safest and most humane anesthetic protocol for ovariohysterectomy in a dog or cat?
Midazolam, ketamine, atropine
Lidocaine, carprofen, etomidate
Butorphanol, acepromazine, sevoflurane
Dexmedetomidine, glycopyrrolate,
bupivacaine, hydromorphone
Morphine, diazepam, propofol, isoflurane
Answer: Morphine, diazepam, propofol, isoflurane
Use a combination of an analgesic (e.g., morphine), anxiolytic (e.g., diazepam), intravenous induction agent (e.g., propofol), and inhalant anesthesia (e.g., isoflurane) to provide the safest, most humane protocol for ovariohysterectomy (OHE) in a dog or cat.
Combining multiple agents, known as multimodal anesthesia, greatly improves pain and stress control.
Examples of common analgesics include opioids and non-steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs). Commonly used anxiolytics include acepromazine, benzodiazepines (e.g., midazolam, diazepam), and alpha-2 adrenergic agonists (e.g., dexmedetomidine).
Remember, not all anxiolytics and anesthetics have analgesic properties. Failure to provide adequate analgesia results in pain and a requirement for higher doses of other anesthetic agents, which increases the risk of cardiovascular side effects.
Do not use inhalant anesthesia (i.e., mask induction) alone for induction. It causes increases both in patient stress and risk of significant cardiovascular depression and aspiration pneumonia due to an unprotected airway. Use inhalant agents for anesthetic maintenance following induction with an injectable anesthetic or consider total intravenous anesthesia.
What is the U.S. Drug Enforcement Agency controlled schedule for the anesthetic drug alfaxalone?
Answer: IV
Alfaxalone is a U.S. Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) schedule IV controlled substance.
Alfaxalone is a neuroactive steroid used in cats and dogs for the induction and maintenance of general anesthesia. It may be administered IV or IM and, similar to propofol, it does not provide any analgesia.
The DEA schedules drugs into one of five categories based on their accepted medical use and the abuse/dependence potential.
Schedule I drugs have a high risk for abuse and are the most restricted. Schedule V drugs have the least potential for abuse.
Which part of a cow’s digestive system has many folds in the lining, like leaves or the pages in a book?
Abomasum
Omasum
Rumen
Reticulum
Cecum
Answer: Omasum
The omasum is composed of many layers of folds, which look like leaves or pages in a book. These increase fluid absorption.
There are four compartments in the ruminant stomach: reticulum, rumen, omasum (together comprising the “forestomachs”), and abomasum.
The rumen and reticulum contain microorganisms to ferment and digest nutrients (hence the term “forestomach” fermenters vs. horses are considered “hindgut fermenters” because their large colon and cecum serve this purpose). The abomasum is a glandular “true” stomach that contains acid for further digestion.
Which part of a cow’s digestive system has many folds in the lining, like leaves or the pages in a book?
Abomasum
Omasum
Rumen
Reticulum
Cecum
Answer: Omasum
The omasum is composed of many layers of folds, which look like leaves or pages in a book. These increase fluid absorption.
There are four compartments in the ruminant stomach: reticulum, rumen, omasum (together comprising the “forestomachs”), and abomasum.
The rumen and reticulum contain microorganisms to ferment and digest nutrients (hence the term “forestomach” fermenters vs. horses are considered “hindgut fermenters” because their large colon and cecum serve this purpose). The abomasum is a glandular “true” stomach that contains acid for further digestion.
A three-year-old Dachshund presents with acute onset of severe thoracolumbar pain, arched back, and hypermetria, ataxia, and weakness in the pelvic limbs. Ambulation is normal in the thoracic limbs.
The cutaneous trunci reflex caudal to T13 is absent on the right and absent caudal to L3 on the left.
Of the following choices, where is the likely location of this dog’s lesion?
T11-12, mostly right side
C7-T1 mostly right side
L7-S1 mostly left side
Cannot determine without more information
L2, mostly left side
Answer: T11-12 mostly right side
This dog’s lesion is roughly at T11-12, mostly on the right. The loss of the cutaneous trunci reflex occurs about 1-4 (usually 2) spinal cord segments caudal to the actual lesion.
Dorsal cutaneous branches do not exit the spinal cord at around
L3-4 so the the loss of the reflex on the left at L3 is normal.
The lateral thoracic nerve, which innervates the ipsilateral cutaneous trunci muscle, exits the spinal cord at C7-1. So with a brachial plexus avulsion you may see an ipsilateral loss of the cutaneous trunci response (“twitching”) while lightly pinching on the skin on the ipsilateral side, however the contralateral side will respond!
Cutaneous Trunci Reflex in Veterinary Neurology
Definition
The cutaneous trunci reflex is a test to assess the integrity of the spinal cord, particularly the thoracolumbar region.
Procedure
• Method: Gently squeeze the skin lateral to the spine with a hemostat, starting from the lumbosacral region and moving cranially. • Normal Response: Bilateral contraction of the cutaneous trunci muscles, resulting in a skin twitch over the thorax and abdomen.
Clinical Significance
• Lesion Localization: Absence of reflex caudal to a lesion, while the reflex remains normal cranial to it. • LMN Involvement: Indicates involvement of the lateral thoracic nerve (C8-T2 spinal segments).
Application
• Use: Useful for diagnosing spinal cord injuries and differentiating them from peripheral nerve injuries.
Which one of the following sites would be the most appropriate to place an intraosseous catheter in a bird?
Ulna
Humerus
Synsacrum
Femur
Coracoid
Answer: Ulna
The distal ulna is the site most frequently utilized for an intraosseous catheter in birds. The proximal tibiotarsal bone is another frequent site.
Do NOT use the humerus and femur. They are pneumatized bones and would deliver fluids into the respiratory tract, essentially drowning the bird.
What is clinical significance of the reciprocal apparatus?
Maintains balance when one leg is off the ground
Neuromotor mechanism behind pupillary light reflex
Allows a horse to rest while standing
Ensures coordination of movement between eyes
Flexion in stifle causes flexion in hock
Answer: Flexion in stifle causes flexion in hock
The reciprocal apparatus of the pelvic limb means that flexion in stifle causes flexion in hock. It consists of the fibularis (peroneus) tertius muscle on the cranial aspect of the crus and the superficial digital flexor on the caudal aspect.
Because of these two opposing “cords,” flexion or extension of the tarsus (hock) or stifle will cause a reciprocal flexion or extension of the other joint.
Don’t confuse the reciprocal apparatus with the STAY apparatus, a combination of non-tiring tendons and ligaments on both the fore and hind limbs that allow muscle bellies to bypass tension so that a horse may rest while standing with little fatigue.
Click here to see the stifle locking mechanism of the stay. apparatus, courtesy of the Atlanta Equine Clinic.
Which of the following structures is marked with the yellow circle?
Spermatids
Seminiferous tubule
Tunica albuginea
Leydig cell
Intersitium
Answer: Seminiferous tubule
The entire structure outlined in yellow is a seminiferous tubule of a testis, where spermatogensis occurs. #1 is the lumen of the tubule.
Leydig cells (#7, also called interstitial cells) are located in the intersitium between the seminiferous tubules.
The Leydig cells produce most of the body’s testosterone in response to luteinizing hormone secreted from the pituitary.
Sertoli cells are indicated by #5. These are also called “nurse” cells because they produce hormones and proteins to facilitate spermatogenesis.
What are the anatomic structures that comprise the umbilical o cord in a foal?
Two umbilical arteries, one umbilical vein, and two urachi
One umbilical vein, two umbilical arteries, and one urachus
One umbilical artery, two umbilical veins, and two urachi
Two umbilical arteries, two umbilical veins, and two urachi
Two umbilical veins, one umbilical artery, and one urachus
Answer: One umbilical vein, two umbilical arteries, and one urachus
The umbilical cord of a foal is comprised of one umbilical vein, two umbilical arteries, and one urachus.
The umbilical vein brings nutrient- and oxygen-rich blood from the placenta to the fetus; it enters the fetal liver to join the portal vein.
The umbilical arteries are the vascular return from fetus to dam.
They originate off of the internal pudendal artery and pass ventrally on either side of the bladder.
The urachus is the tubular connection present in the fetus between the bladder and the umbilicus. During gestation, urine flows from the bladder through the urachus into the allantoic sac.
As the fetus gets closer to term, more and more urine flows through the urethra, until ideally at birth all urine exits the bladder through the urethra and the urachus should involute.
Which one of the following organisms is typically implicated in verminous myelitis in horses?
Sarcocystis neurona
Stephanurus dentatus
Cuterebra spp.
Strongylus vulgaris
Baylisascaris procyonis
Answer: Strongylus vulgaris
Strongylus vulgaris is the most common helminth associated with verminous myelitis (aberrant helminth migration) in horses. Signs vary, but are usually acute and asymmetric and may be progressive.
Possible organisms include:
Strongylus vulgaris, Halicephalobus (Micronema) deletrix, and Setaria spp. - horses
Parelaphostrongylus tenuis - sheep, goats, llamas
Hypoderma bovis - cattle
Stephanurus dentatus - pigs
Cuterebra spp. - cats
Baylisascaris procyonis - dogs and humans
Don’t confuse equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM), caused by Sarcocystis neurona (and, less commonly, Neospora hughesi) with verminous myelitis caused by helminths (worms).
How would you change exposure settings to make an x-ray film lighter?
Increase kVp, decrease mA, increase time
Increase kVp, increase mA, increase time
Decrease KVp, decrease mA, decrease time
Decrease kVp, increase mA, increase time
Decrease the film-focal distance
Answer: Decrease KVp, decrease mA, decrease time
To make a film lighter, decrease kilovoltage (KVp), milliamperes (mA), or time (seconds).
Decreasing milliampere-seconds (mAs) decreases the number of photons hitting the film, which exposes it less.
Lower kVp decreases photon energy (penetrating power of the x-rays through tissue).
Shorter time generates fewer electrons which also decreases exposure and therefore decreases darkness on the X-ray film once it is developed.
A four-year-old male neutered domestic shorthair cat is presented for left thoracic limb lameness. He is an indoor-outdoor cat who was normal four days ago. The owner noted the lameness upon returning from a trip out of town.
Physical exam reveals left carpal swelling, radiographs of the area are shown below.
What pathological process is most likely?
Neoplasia
Congenital malformation
Infection
Osteochondrosis
Projectile foreign body (shotgun pellet)
Answer: Infection
The joint-crossing lytic damage seen between the carpal joint and fourth and fifth metacarpal bones is consistent with osteomyelitis (infection), although biopsy for histopathology and culture is required for definitive diagnosis. Osteomyelitis may be bacterial or fungal in origin.
In chronic osteomyelitis that does not respond to medical management amputation maybe the best Tx option.
Bone tumors, such as osteosarcoma, usually do not cross the joint.
A four-year-old male neutered domestic shorthair cat is presented for left thoracic limb lameness. He is an indoor-outdoor cat who was normal four days ago. The owner noted the lameness upon returning from a trip out of town.
Physical exam reveals left carpal swelling, radiographs of the area are shown below.
What pathological process is most likely?
Neoplasia
Congenital malformation
Infection
Osteochondrosis
Projectile foreign body (shotgun pellet)
Answer: Infection
The joint-crossing lytic damage seen between the carpal joint and fourth and fifth metacarpal bones is consistent with osteomyelitis (infection), although biopsy for histopathology and culture is required for definitive diagnosis. Osteomyelitis may be bacterial or fungal in origin.
In chronic osteomyelitis that does not respond to medical management amputation maybe the best Tx option.
Bone tumors, such as osteosarcoma, usually do not cross the joint.
Which two organisms are most associated with early embryonic
loss and infertility in cattle?
Neosporosis, Listeria monocytogenes
Mycoplasma bovis, Foothill abortion
Actinomyces pyogenes, bovine viral diarrhea
Leptospira hardjo, Aspergillus fumigatus
Tritrichomonas foetus, campylobacteriosis
Answer: Tritrichomomas foetus, campylobacteriosis
Campyplobacteriosis and Tritrichomonas foetus are associated with early embryonic loss and infertility in cattle.
Bovine genital campylobacteriosis (Campylobacter fetus sbsp. venerealis) primarily causes venereal disease that leads to infertility. Occasionally it can cause late abortions too, but most commonly it causes infertility.
Bovine trichomoniasis ( Tritrichomonas foetus) causes early embryonic loss in cattle.
Both diseases have similar presentations.
Which of these organism choices has a reproductive cycle cats ?
Toxoplasma gondii
Haemophilus influenzae
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
Neorickettsia helminthoeca
Mycobacterium avium sbsp. paratuberculosis
Answer: Toxoplasma gondii
Toxoplasma gondii has a reproductive cycle in cats.
Toxoplasmosis is a multisystemic protozoal disease that affects primarily young animals and the immunosuppressed (think cats with FIV, humans on chemotherapy).
T. gondi is an important cause of abortion in sheep, goats, and sometimes pigs.
A young calf is presented for lameness with a hot, swollen left hock.
What is the most likely etiology of this finding?
Staphylococcus aureus
Umbilical infection
Liver abscess
Damaged skin over lateral condyle
Kick wound from pen-mate
Answer: Umbilical infection
Cases of septic arthritis in calves/foals/lambs most often occur from hematogenous spread following an umbilical infection.
Also called “navel ill” or “omphalophlebitis,” infection of the umbilical stump/remnants is a common condition in neonatal large animals.
Treatment can be medical (long-term antimicrobials) or surgical (removal of infected structures + antimicrobials).
Arthritis in Large Animals - Comprehensive Study Guide
Definition
• Arthritis: Inflammation of joints, including traumatic arthritis, osteochondritis dissecans, subchondral bone cysts, septic arthritis, and osteoarthritis.
Types and Causes
• Traumatic Arthritis: Resulting from injuries like fractures, ligament tears, and cartilage trauma. • Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD): Defect in endochondral ossification, leading to cartilage flaps and cysts. • Subchondral Bone Cysts: Result from osteochondrosis or trauma. • Septic Arthritis: Bacterial infection via hematogenous spread, trauma, or iatrogenic causes. • Osteoarthritis: Chronic degeneration due to wear and tear, untreated joint injuries, or infections.
Symptoms
• General: Lameness, joint pain, synovial effusion, joint deformity, and decreased range of motion. • Specific Signs: Depends on the type and severity of arthritis.
Diagnosis
• Methods: Clinical examination, radiography, ultrasonography, arthroscopy, synovial fluid analysis, and serologic tests.
Treatment
• Medical: Rest, NSAIDs (e.g., phenylbutazone), corticosteroids (e.g., betamethasone, triamcinolone), hyaluronic acid, polysulfated glycosaminoglycans (PSGAGs), antibiotics for septic cases. • Surgical: Arthroscopic removal of osteochondral fragments, repair of major fractures, and joint lavage for septic arthritis.
Prevention and Management
• Preventive Measures: Proper nutrition, controlled breeding, injury prevention, early treatment of joint injuries. • Long-term Management: Regular monitoring, appropriate use of medications, and possible surgical interventions.
CGPT: Specific Diseases Associated with Sepsis in Foals
Which one of the following nutritional factors is associated with the development of osteochondrosis in young horses?
Copper deficiency
Zinc deficiency
General undernutrition/starvation
Early weaning
Calcium deficiency
Answer: Copper deficiency
Copper deficiency has been associated with osteochondrosis.
Osteochondrosis is an important developmental disorder of articular cartilage in horses and many other animals.
Osteochondrosis is thought to be the result of a focal disturbance in endochondral ossification. The etiology is multifactorial, including rapid growth, overnutrition, mineral imbalance, genetic influences, and cartilage trauma. When the diseased cartilage is inflamed and separates from the underlying bone it is called OCD.
Clinical signs are effusion of affected joints and potentially lameness or, rarely, neurologic signs (if cervical lesion).
Management may be conservative for mild cases (restricted exercise, reduction in feed intake, correction of mineral imbalances) or surgical for more advanced lesions.
A 3-year-old female spayed Labrador retriever is presented in southern Alabama for a suspected snakebite. The owner thinks the bite may have occurred during their morning walk an hour ago.
The dog appears clinically normal. The owner killed the snake and brought it for identification: it is an eastern coral snake.
Which of the following abnormalities is most likely if envenomation happened?
Hemolysis, paralysis
Coagulopathy, severe swelling around the bite
Hypernatremia, hemorrhagic diarrhea
Seizures, hypoglycemia
Muscle rigidity, hyperkalemia
Answer: Hemolysis, paralysis
Expect hemolysis, lower motor neuron paralysis, and mental depression with coral snake (Micrurus spp.) envenomation. Clinical signs can progress extremely rapidly (within minutes) to the point of respiratory paralysis, necessitating mechanical ventilation. But onset of clinical signs can be delayed up to 36 hours!
In contrast, pit viper envenomation is most commonly associated with coagulopathy and rapid, severe swelling around the bite.
Coral snake bites are far less common than those of pit vipers (rattlesnakes, copperheads, cottonmouths) due to their limited geographic distribution.
Click here to see an image of an eastern coral snake. Think âRed-on-yellow, kill a fellow. Red-on-black, friend of Jackâ to remember which snakes are poisonous.
What is the definitive treatment for heartworm disease in a cat?
Melarsomine
None
Milbemycin
Ivermectin
Corticosteroids
Answer: None
There is no definitive treatment for Dirofilaria immitis (heartworm) infection in cats. In dogs, melarsomine is the treatment for adult heartworms and ivermectin or milbemycin are the treatments for microfilariae.
There is no safe dose of melarsomine in cats.
Corticosteroids may be used to help treat interstitial lung disease and vomiting in cats that can occur secondary to heartworm infections. However, steroids treat clinical signs, not the underlying disease.
Heartworm Disease in Cats - Comprehensive Study Guide
Definition
• Heartworm Disease: Caused by Dirofilaria immitis, primarily affects the pulmonary arteries, causing severe pulmonary inflammation and sometimes sudden death in cats.
Causative Agent
• Dirofilaria immitis: Filarial nematode transmitted by mosquitoes.
Pathophysiology
• Lifecycle: Microfilariae develop into infective larvae inside mosquitoes, transmitted to cats through mosquito bites. Larvae migrate to the pulmonary arteries, where they mature and cause inflammation. • Host Response: Cats can have a severe immune reaction to both juvenile and adult worms, leading to heartworm-associated respiratory disease (HARD).
Symptoms
• Early Signs: Coughing, dyspnea, vomiting, lethargy. • Advanced Signs: Acute respiratory distress, sudden death.
Diagnosis
• Tests: Antigen and antibody tests, thoracic radiography, echocardiography.
Treatment
• No Adulticides: Melarsomine is not used due to toxicity. • Management: Supportive care with corticosteroids, oxygen therapy, and bronchodilators. • Prevention: Monthly prophylaxis with macrocyclic lactones (ivermectin, milbemycin, moxidectin, selamectin).
Umbilical hernias may be more common in which one of the following bovine breeds?
Holstein
Hereford
Angus
Jersey
Brown Swiss
Answer: Holstein
Umbilical hernias are a common finding in neonatal calves, especially in calves of the Holstein breed.
They are typically easily reducible and uninfected. Infected masses may occur in any breed and be difficult to reduce and accompanied by other clinical signs such as heat in the area, drainage, fever, inappetance, and ill thrift.
It is possible to have infected umbilical remnants while the exterior umbilical structures appear completely normal, and deep palpation, ultrasound, and/or bloodwork may be necessary to rule out occult infections. Infections may also weaken the umbilical area and lead to hernias.
Tx: Surgical repair with resection of infected structures is the treatment of choice for umbilical hernias in the calf.
Click here to see a good summary on umbilical masses and hernias in calves, with images, courtesy of the American College of Veterinary Surgeons (ACVS).
A 17-year-old mare is presented for chronic left-sided nasal discharge of 2-3 months duration. The mare is bright and alert and in otherwise good body condition.
The discharge is white-yellow, thick, and malodorous. The left submandibular lymph node is mildly enlarged.
Which of the following would be an appropriate course of action?
Take skull radiographs
Antihistamines (hydroxazine); wet down hay prior to feeding
Obtain nasal swab for culture and PCR
Perform dental float
Submit serum to screen for strangles (Streptococcus equi equi)
Answer: Take skull radiography
Skull radiographs should be recommended for this horse with a likely sinus infection.
Radiographs may show fluid lines, abnormal tooth roots or fractured teeth, masses (e.g., sinus cysts, progressive ethmoid hematomas, tumors, granulomas), or abnormal bone associated with the underlying disease. Additional diagnostics include endoscopy, CT, sinoscopy, and thorough dental exam.
Chronic unilateral, malodorous (fetid), yellow-white discharge is highly suggestive of a sinus infection. Horses have six pairs of paranasal sinuses.
Sinus infections can be primary (associated with upper respiratory tract infection) or, more commonly, secondary (to tooth root infection, sinus cyst, sinus mass).
In horses, sinusitis is most often due to tooth root infections, since the roots of the four caudal-most cheek teeth extend into the maxillary sinus cavity.
Rx: Trephination and lavage of the sinus cavity with systemic antimicrobial therapy.
If sinusitis is secondary to a confirmed tooth root infection or mass (e.g., cyst) within the sinus, sinus flap with tooth repulsion or removal of abnormal material is indicated.
Click here for an excellent overview of sinusitis in horses with radiographic and surgical images, courtesy of the American College of Veterinary Surgeons (ACVS).
Omphalophlebitis in Foals - Comprehensive Study Guide
Definition
• Omphalophlebitis: Inflammation and infection of the umbilical vein, often leading to sepsis in neonatal foals.
Causative Agents
• Bacteria: Commonly include Escherichia coli, Klebsiella spp., Enterococcus spp., Streptococcus, and anaerobes like Bacteroides and Clostridium.
Pathophysiology
• Infection Process: Bacteria ascend through the umbilical stump into the umbilical veins, leading to local inflammation, abscess formation, and potential systemic infection.
Symptoms
• Clinical Signs: Swelling, heat, and pain around the umbilicus, purulent discharge, systemic signs of sepsis, fever, lethargy, and potentially signs of peritonitis or septic arthritis.
Diagnosis
• Techniques: Physical examination, ultrasonography to visualize umbilical structures, and bacterial culture from aspirated fluid or tissue samples.
Treatment
• Antibiotics: Systemic antibiotic therapy for 10-14 days based on culture and sensitivity results. • Local Treatment: Topical antiseptics such as silver nitrate or procaine penicillin G for the umbilical stump. • Surgery: Umbilical resection if there is significant abscessation or persistent infection.
Prognosis and Prevention
• Prognosis: Generally good with prompt and appropriate treatment, but severe cases with systemic involvement have a poorer prognosis. • Prevention: Good hygiene during and after birth, proper management of the umbilical stump, and regular monitoring of foals.
This 5-day-old calf was born normally to a primiparous dam, but was found down today.
The animal is stiff, has opisthotonos, and is hyperreactive to tactile, visual, and auditory stimuli.
There is no visual deficit, but the calf has inducible nystagmus which varies with changes in head position.
Movement of the neck triggers tonic clonic convulsions. Rectal temperature is 105.5°F (40.8°C)..[N=101.5-103.5°F, N=37.8-39.7°C].
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
Nervous coccidiosis
Polioencephalomalacia
Neosporosis
Bacterial meningitis
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
Answer: Bacterial meningitis
Stiffness, inducible nystagmus, and intermittent tonic-clonic convulsions in a 5-day-old calf are indicative of bacterial meningitis.
These cases are hyperreflexive and extremely hyperesthetic.
Although this patient is still visual, blindness is often seen.
The fever is also typical of bacterial meningitis, and may be exacerbated by the seizures.
The causative agent is usually the bacterial organism E. coli which accesses the CNS hematogenously after entrance through the tonsils, especially in colostrum-deprived calves.
Failure of passive transfer is more common in calves born to primiparous dams.
A lumbosacral CSF tap can be performed to confirm the diagnosis.
Nervous coccidiosis is a disease of weaned calves approximately 3 to 5 months of age. The affected animals are usually comatose and non-visual.
This calf is young for polioencephalomalacia (PEM), and is not blind, a common clinical sign in PEM.
If the calf had neosporosis it might resemble this patient, but wouldn’t have a fever or hyperesthesia, and probably would have been born with the condition.
Bacterial Meningitis in Calves - Comprehensive Study Guide
Definition
• Bacterial Meningitis: Inflammation of the meninges due to bacterial infection, often leading to meningoencephalitis.
Causative Agents
• Common Bacteria: Escherichia coli, Streptococcus spp., Klebsiella spp., Salmonella spp., and Histophilus somni.
Pathophysiology
• Mechanism: Bacteria reach the meninges through hematogenous spread from primary infection sites like the umbilicus (navel-ill), respiratory tract, or gastrointestinal tract, causing inflammation, increased intracranial pressure, and neurologic damage.
Symptoms
• Early Signs: Fever, lethargy, poor suckle reflex, stiff neck, and hyperesthesia. • Advanced Signs: Seizures, opisthotonos, ataxia, and coma.
Clinical Changes
• Lesions: Purulent exudate on meninges, cloudy cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Diagnosis
• Methods: Clinical signs, CSF analysis (increased WBC count, protein concentration), culture, PCR.
Treatment
• Antibiotics: Broad-spectrum antimicrobials (e.g., ceftiofur, ampicillin) based on sensitivity. • Supportive Care: IV fluids, anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and nutritional support.
Prevention
• Management: Good hygiene during birth, prompt treatment of primary infections, adequate colostrum intake, and vaccination where applicable.