BCSE 15 Days For Test Day Flashcards
Which one of the following choices best describes the use of Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine (DICOM) in digital radiology?
A universal digital image format that allows sharing of images between clinics
A technique that transforms digital images into hard copies for storage purposes
A method of obtaining digital radiographs with less radiation exposure
A means of converting traditional x-ray film into digital images
A mechanism that prevents artifacts from occurring on digital images
Answer: A universal digital image format that allows sharing of images between clinics.
Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine (DICOM) is a universal digital image format that allows sharing of electronic images with hospitals, specialists and other locations (teleradiology).
DICOM is the standard image format for medical image generation and storage.
DICOM allows storage of images from a variety of different modalities (e.g., digital and computed radiography, computed tomography (CT), MRI, ultrasonography, digital fluoroscopy).
The DICOM image file contains patient identification, date and time of the examination, and display formats.
Link: Radiography on Animals. Filmless Radiography for Diagnostic Imaging in Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/clinical-pathology-and-procedures/diagnostic-imaging/radiography-of-animals?redirectid=4195?ruleredirectid=30#v3298717
Filmless Radiography in Animals
Overview
Filmless radiography, also known as digital radiography, has become the standard in veterinary diagnostic imaging due to its numerous advantages over traditional film-based methods. Digital radiography eliminates the need for film, screens, and processing chemicals, and offers several significant benefits for veterinary practices.
Types of Digital Radiography
1. Computed Radiography (CR)
• Mechanism: Uses a semiconductor plate in a cassette, exposed in the same manner as traditional film, which is then read electronically by a special reader.
• Advantages: Portable cassettes, cost-effective compared to DR systems, high resolution, and suitable for multiple imaging locations.
• Disadvantages: Requires periodic replacement of plates due to wear, intermediate reading step can be cumbersome.
2. Direct Digital Radiography (DR)
• Mechanism: Utilizes a cesium iodide scintillator array to absorb x-rays, which are then detected by an array of photodiode/transistor elements to create a digital image.
• Advantages: Faster image acquisition (available within 30 seconds), no need for intermediate reading steps, reduced wear and tear, better suited for high-volume practices.
• Disadvantages: Higher initial cost, sensitivity to electronic interference and physical shock.
Abdominal ultrasound of a dachshund reveals bilaterally enlarged adrenal glands (an example of one of the images is shown below). What clinical signs would you expect to see in a dog with these findings?
Lethargy, tragic facial expression, tail alopecia
Pruritis, alopecia of lower back, cold intolerance
Polydipsia, seizures, watery diarrhea
Polyuria, pendulous abdomen, truncal alopecia
Gastroenteritis, bradycardia, exercise intolerance
Answer: Polyuria, pendulous abdomen, truncal alopecia.
This is likely to be pituitary hyperadrenocorticism (HAC). Signs might include polyuria, pendulous abdomen, truncal alopecia.
This dog might also have polydipsia, polyphagia, muscle weakness, and recurrent urinary tract infections.
Roughly 80%-85% of canine HAC cases are pituitary-expect bilateral enlargement greater than 8mm on ultrasound.
Roughly 15%-20% of canine HAC cases are adrenal-expect unilateral adrenal enlargement greater than 8mm, with possible atrophy in the contralateral gland.
You can also see unilateral adrenomegaly with an incidental, nonfunctional adrenal mass or due to pheochromocytoma. This disease is relatively rare and difficult to diagnose.
Signs are non-specific, but intermittent weakness and collapse are commonly reported in diagnosed case-patients
Tail alopecia, tragic facial expression, and lethargy are signs of hypothyroidism.
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 3rd ed. pp. 525-7. Image courtesy, Dr Kalumet.
Link: Cushing Syndrome
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/endocrine-system/the-adrenal-glands/cushing-syndrome-hyperadrenocorticism
Link: Pheochromocytomas
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/endocrine-system/neuroendocrine-tumors/pheochromocytomas
Link: Hypothyroidism in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/endocrine-system/the-thyroid-gland/hypothyroidism-in-animals
A five-year-old female spayed domestic shorthair cat is presented with a month-long history of anorexia and lethargy. On physical examination she is 5-7% dehydrated. Which one of the following choices is apparent form these thoracic radiographs?
Hypovolemia
Normal radiographs
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Allergic pneumonitis
Heartworm diseases
Answer: Hypovolemia.
This cat has hypovolemia (secondary to hepatic lipidosis).
The heart is small and lifted off of the sternum. The pulmonary vasculature, aorta, and caudal vena cava are reduced in size.
The pulmonary structures appear within normal limits. Within the viewable abdomen the liver appears enlarged, extending past the costochondral arches.
When circulating blood volume is reduced through blood loss, dehydration, or shock, the cardiac and vascular structures in the thorax can appear on radiographs.
In this case, the heart is small, giving the appearance of lifting from the sternum. The heart often appears more angular and less rounded than usual. The reduced pulmonary circulation also makes the lungs appear more lucent.
In this case, hepatic lipidosis (causing the apparent hepatomegaly) was the primary disease with secondary dehydration.
Link: Feline Hepatic Lipidosis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/hepatic-disease-in-small-animals/feline-hepatic-lipidosis
Link: Normal Feline Thoracic Radiographs
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/feline/thorax/ex03/thor03-f%20.html
A draft horse is presented whose left forefoot radiograph looks like the image below. What is the diagnosis?
Sidebone
Low ringbone
Navicular syndrome
Osselets
High ringbone
Answer: Sidebone.
This is an example of sidebone, an ossification of the cartilages of the third phalanx seen most often in heavy working horses.
Navicular syndrome (also called caudal heel pain) involves the navicular bone (distal sesamoid) and looks like this on radiographs (note the lollipops).
Periostitis & osteoarthritis of the proximal or distal interphalangeal joints leading to exostoses is called ringbone (high or low). Usually brought on by faulty conformation, improper shoeing, repeated concussion on hard surfaces, trauma, and infection.
Osselets is ringbone (arthritis, periosteitis) around the metacarpal/metatarsal phalangeal joint (fetlock).
Image courtesy of Nora Grenager, VMD, DACVIM.
Link: Sidebone in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-horses/sidebone-in-horses
Link: Navicular Disease in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-horses/navicular-disease-in-horses
Link: Osteoarthritis of the Proximal Interphalangeal Joint in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-horses/osteoarthritis-of-the-proximal-interphalangeal-joint-in-horses
A twelve-year-old female spayed rottweiler is presented for an acute onset of difficulty breathing. For the past month the dog has been lethargic with decreased appetite and weight loss.
A lateral thoracic radiograph is shown below.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Left-sided heart failure
Aspiration pneumonia
Pneumothorax
Lymphoma
Diaphragmatic hernia
Answer: Lymphoma
This dog has pleural effusion caused by intrathoracic lymphoma.
Note the soft tissue density in the ventral chest with rounded lung lobe margins and widened interlobar fissures consistent with pleural effusion. The cardiac silhouette is obscured.
Confirm the presence of effusion with thoracic focused assessment with sonography for triage, trauma, and tracking (TFAST).
Perform thoracocentesis for both diagnostic and therapeutic purposes. Submit fluid for analysis and cytology to potentially identify neoplastic cells. If fluid cytology does not reveal an etiology, consider further imaging of the chest such as thoracic ultrasound or CT scan.
CGPT: Comprehensive Summary on Lymphoma in Dogs
A guinea pig is presented with inappetence, oculonasal discharge, and dyspnea. The clients also have a pet rat, and a pair of rabbits, and these animals all have frequent contact with each other.
Which of the following agents is the most likely cause?
Staphylococcus aureus
Dromaius novaehollandiae
Hymenolepis diminuta
Clostridium difficile
Bordetella bronchiseptica
Answer: Bordetella bronchiseptica
Rabbits can be subclinical carriers of Bordetella bronchiseptica, which is highly_pathogenic in guinea pigs. Because of this cross-species pathogenicity, rabbits and guinea pigs should not be kept together as pets.
Hymenolepis diminuta is a dwarf tapeworm in gerbils. It is possibly zoonotic to humans.
CGPT: Comprehensive Summary on Guinea Pigs
CGPT: Comprehensive Summary on Gerbils
A two-week-old calf is presented for colic and hemorrhagic diarrhea. It is one of the fastest-growing calves in the pasture and was normal yesterday.
The calf has abdominal distention, cyanotic mucous membranes, an upper eyelid skin tent of five seconds, and eyeball recession of six mm. During the physical exam the calf collapses and shows signs of opisthotonus.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Coccidiosis
Cryptosporidiosis
Enterotoxemia
Coronavirus
Salmonellosis
Answer: Enterotoxemia
Peracute colic, hemorrhagic diarrhea, and neurologic signs in a two-week-old fast growing calf is a classic presentation for enterotoxemia (Clostridium perfringens type C). The findings of cyanosis along with skin tent and eyeball recession indicate moderate to severe dehydration and cardiovascular compromise.
Treatment consists of fluid therapy, Clostridium perfringens type C antitoxin, and antimicrobials. Oral penicillin can be used in food animals. Oral metronidazole is recommended in horses but is prohibited for use in food animals in the U.S.
Prognosis is poor even with treatment so best to prevent through vaccination of dams and subsequent passive transfer of immunity to calves.
Colibacillosis is a possible cause of peracute diarrhea but is typically seen in very young calves less than five days of age.
In general, remember the AGE, SEVERITY, and # AFFECTED for calf diarrheas.
The EARLY diarrheas are due to:
Escherichia coll - less than 5d old, multiple cases Rotavirus - 5d-2 wks old, self limiting, multiple calves Coronavirus - 4-30d, multiple calves
Enterotoxemia - (Clostridium perfringens type C) 2 wks old, healthiest, fastest growing calf, hemorrhagic diarrhea, sudden death
Cryptosporidia -1-4 wks, diarrhea, tenesmus, emaciation
LATER diarrheas are:
Neonatal salmonella - 1-2 mos, fever and diarrhea, septicemia, sudden death
Coccidiosis - older than 21 days and in ALL ages, bloody diarrhea, tenesmus
CGPT: Enterotoxemias in Animals
CGPT: Diarrhea in Neonatal Ruminants
CGPT: Cryptosporidiosis in Animals
CGPT: Salmonellosis in Animals
CGPT: Coccidiosis of Cattle
A cow showing chronic cerebral neurologic signs is presented for euthanasia.
You submit the brain for histopathology. Microscopically the brain tissue appears vacuolated (see image below).
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
Malignant catarrhal fever
Rabies
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
Actinomycosis
Haemophilus somnus thromboembolic meninogencephalitis
Answer: Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
These are the typical histopathology findings highly suggestive of bovine spongiform encephalopathy. (BSE). The misfolded proteins (prions) cause vacuolization (“spongiosis”) of the brain.
BSE causes variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD) in humans
(ZOONOTIC) and a progressive, fatal, infectious neurologic disease of the central nervous system of cattle.
Contact the proper regulatory personnel (REPORTABLE) while the lab performs a confirmatory diagnostic test (e.g., immunohistochemistry, Western immunoblot).
A characteristic histopathologic appearance of rabies is the presence of intracytoplasmic inclusions known as Negri bodies.
CGPT: Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE)
The best place to take a horse’s pulse is to place fingers over
which one of the following structures?
Vena Cava
Jugular vein
Facial artery
Carpus
Heart
Answer: Facial Artery.
The most convenient location for taking the pulse of a horse is to place two or three fingers over the facial artery, in the notch of the mandible (lower jaw) just in front of the masseter (cheek) muscle.
Click here to see a to see a video of a vet taking a horse’s pulse.
Click here to see a Table of normal heart-rates of different animals.
Table of normal respiration-rates of different animals.
Which one of the following choices can be added to the diet of sheep and goats to reduce the incidence of frothy bloat?
lonophores
Vitamin E
Antiparasitics
Sulfa antibiotics
Minerals
Answer: Ionophores
The inclusion of ionophores in the diet decreases the formation of free ruminal gas, which can then get trapped in a stable foam leading to frothy bloat.
Frothy bloat occurs when chloroplast proteins liberated by digestion coat gas bubbles produced normally by rumen microbes.
The bubbles become stabilized by the proteinaceous froth. The animal cannot eructate the froth, which leads to rumen tympany.
The froth also cannot pass through a needle or a stomach tube.
Frothy bloat usually occurs after the ingestion of a lot of legumes (e.g., clover, alfalfa), and/or ingestion of lush pasture. Slow introduction to these feedstuffs, providing supplementatal feed, and feeding poloxalene can also help prevent.
CGPT: Bloat in Ruminants
Pediculosis is correctly described by which one of the following choices?
Invasion of fly larvae
Colonization with protozoa
Infection of a dog’s paw
Infestation with lice
Answer: Infestation with lice
CGPT: Lice in Animals
Which one of the following choices is the best way to prevent o
grain overload?
Ensure adequate water supply
Transfaunate the rumen
Give penicillin when concentrates are increased
Introduce dietary changes slowly
Restrict movement and access to legume hay
Answer: Introduce dietary changes slowly.
Grain overload results when ruminants ingest too much feed with readily digestible carbohydrates at one time.
Excessive carbohydrate causes a shift to gram-positive organisms in the rumen, especially Streptococcus bovis, which proliferate excessively.
These organisms produce large amounts of acid which damage the rumen and are absorbed, causing acidosis, dehydration, ileus, and eventually cardiovascular collapse and death.
Transfaunation of the rumen fluid is helpful after grain overload is resolved to help restore the normal flora of the rumen.
CGPT: Grain Overload in Ruminants
According to current American Association of Feline Practitioners (AAFP) recommendations, which three vaccines should pet cats routinely receive in addition to rabies and feline leukemia vaccinations?
Intranasal feline herpesvirus, feline parvovirus,
pneumonitis
Panleukopenia, feline herpesvirus-1, calicivirus
Bordatella bronchiseptica, feline immunodeficiency virus, dermatophyte
Feline infectious peritonitis, dermatophyte, calicivirus
Feline viral rhinotracheitis, Mycoplasma felis,
Chlamydophilia felis
Answer: Panleukopenia, feline herpesvirus-1, calicivirus
The American Association of Feline Practitioners (AAFP) vaccination guidelines recommend three “core” vaccines for ALL cats, +/- other vaccines depending on the circumstances (i.e.: household pet, shelter).
The three core feline vaccines are:
1. Feline herpesvirus-1 ( FHV-1)
2. Feline panleukopenia (feline parvovirus, FPV)
3. Feline calicivirus (FCV)
The AAFP states that rabies is “essential in regions where required by statute/law,” and is required in most states in the US and Canada. So, cats should receive rabies vaccination in addition to the core three.
Other vaccines to consider, depending on circumstances:
- Feline leukemia virus (FeLV) vaccination is recommended for group-housed cats and is considered a core vaccine for pet cats <1
yo
- For shelters consider intranasal FHV-1 and FCV on admission for high-risk populations and kittens >4 wo. Provides more rapid protection.
Here are the 2020 AAFP feline vaccination guidelines.
https://journals.sagepub.com/doi/pdf/10.1177/1098612X20941784
CGPT: Feline Panleukopenia
CGPT: Feline Respiratory Disease Complex
CGPT: Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV)
Which one of the following diseases/syndromes is NOT reportable?
Avian psittacosis (Chlamydia psittaci)
Johne’s disease
Pthiris pubis infestation
Any vesicular disease of livestock
Answer: Pthiris pubis infestation.
Although the presence of Pthiris pubis (Human pubic lice) on a pet may be alarming to the owner, human pubic lice are NOT reportable. Psittacosis IS reportable because it is infectious and a serious cause of zoonotic respiratory disease in birds and humans.
Johne’s disease IS reportable in cattle. Brucellosis IS REPORTABLE. Basically, ANY vesicular disease of livestock IS REPORTABLE.
There are a number of things you should do in the face of a vesicular disease outbreak,
but the most important is to report the incident to the state vet/federal authorities.
The most important rule out is Foot and Mouth disease, which is difficult to distinguish from Swine vesicular disease, Vesicular exanthema of swine, and Vesicular stomatitis.
Because FMD is NOT present in the US, suspicion of it in a domestic swine herd is cause for state/federal government concern because of the potential agro-economic consequences. DDX via blood tests, primarily PC and biopsy.
Refs: Merck Veterinary Manual online edition.
Link: Avian Chlamydiosis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/avian-chlamydiosis/avian-chlamydiosis
Link: Paratuberculosis in Ruminants
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/intestinal-diseases-in-ruminants/paratuberculosis-in-ruminants?redirectid=3156?ruleredirectid=30
Link: Overview of Brucellosis in Large Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/brucellosis-in-large-animals/overview-of-brucellosis-in-large-animals
Link: Foot-and-Mouth disease in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/foot-and-mouth-disease/foot-and-mouth-disease-in-animals?autoredirectid=14225
Link: Swine Vesicular Disease
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/swine-vesicular-disease/swine-vesicular-disease?autoredirectid=16670
Link: Vesicular Exanthema of Swine
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/vesicular-exanthema-of-swine/vesicular-exanthema-of-swine?autoredirectid=14240
Link: Vesicular Stomatitis in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/horse-owners/disorders-affecting-multiple-body-systems-of-horses/vesicular-stomatitis-in-horses
Which of the following is the correct description of pre-emptive analgesia?
Use of an antagonist to reverse dangerous side effects of an analgesic medication
The combination of different types of analgesic medications and procedures to treat pain
Treatment with pain medication during surgery and prior to recovery of a patient
Administration of pan medication prior to elective surgery and stimulation of the pain response
Use of higher doses of pain medication given previously to a patient to achieve adequate analgesia
Answer: Administration of pain medication prior to elective surgery and stimulation of the pain response.
Administration of pain medication prior to elective surgery / stimulation of the pain response is preemptive analgesia. Giving analgesics before the pain starts is the best way to minimize the pain response in a healthy patient who is not painful prior to surgery.
Fewer complications and shorter hospital stays are seen when patients are comfortable following painful procedures.
Analgesic therapy should be continued perioperatively and postoperatively for a few days to weeks depending on the procedure. Dosing should be decreased gradually and then stopped.
Tolerance is seen when higher doses of pain medications are required. This occurs with opioids. Using combinations of different types of analgesic medications and procedures is multi- modal analgesia/anesthesia.
Better analgesia and sedation are usually seen with combination therapy; lower doses can often be utilized as synergistic effects are common.
Click here to see a good summary on pain management, courtesy of the American College of Veterinary Surgeons (ACVS).
https://www.acvs.org/small-animal/pain-management
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed., p. 988, Gaynor & Muir Handbook of Vet Pain Mgt 2nd ed. pp.57, 349, 482, Tranquilli, Grimm, & Lamont Pain Mgt for the SA Practitioner 2nd ed. p. 10 and Greene’s Vet Anes & Pain Management Secrets, pp. 331-3.
Link: Small Animal Health Topics
https://www.acvs.org/small-animal
For what condition is dogs is the parotid duct sometimes translocated to the lateral canthus of the eye?
Imperforate lacrimal puncta
Refractive glaucoma
Diabetes-associated cataracts
Cherry eye
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Answer: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca.
Parotid duct translocation is indicated for chronic, nonresponsive cases of keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS). The parotid gland then lubricates the eye with saliva.
KCS is due to aqueous tear deficiency in dogs (and less so, cats and horses). Causes in dogs: Autoimmune dacryoadenitis (most common), distemper, idiopathic (removal of nictitans), drug-induced (NSAIDs and sulfonamides), neurogenic, traumatic, or congenital.
Clinical signs: Persistent, painful mucopurulent conjunctivitis with corneal ulceration and scarring. Corneas look dull.
Medical Tx: Topical artificial tears and antibiotic-corticosteroid combinations (if no corneal ulceration); increase tear production with topical cyclosporine A, tacrolimus, or pimecrolimus. Can give enteral pilocarpine for neurogenic KCS and topical acetylcysteine to lyse excess mucus and allow other topical medications to spread.
Lifelong Tx typically necessary.
Click here to see images and read more on KCS from the American College of Veterinary Ophthalmology.
https://www.acvo.org/common-conditions-1/2018/2/2/dry-eye-keratoconjunctivitis-sicca
Refs: The American College of Veterinary Ophthalmology website, Côté, Clin. Vet. Advisor: Dogs and Cats, 3rd ed. pp. 577-8,.
Link: Nasolacrimal and Lacrimal Apparatus
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/eye-diseases-and-disorders/ophthalmology/nasolacrimal-and-lacrimal-apparatus?redirectid=27591
Which one of the following is true regarding bovine leukosis virus?
Most infected animals have no outward clinical signs
The mosto common consequence of infection is lymphosarcoma
Feces of infected cattle are a major source of transmission
Passage in milk has been linked to human adult T cell leukemia / lymphoma
Beef cattle are more frequently infected that dairy cattle
Answer: Most infected animals have no outward clinical signs.
The most common outcome of infection with Bovine leukosis virus (BLV) is persistent infection with no outward clinical signs or lymphocytosis.
About a 1/3 of infected cattle develop a persistent benign lymphocytosis and <5% develop lymphosarcoma.
BLV infection is more common in dairy cattle than in beef cattle.
BLV is not a zoonosis. There is no treatment.
Risk is minimized by preventing the transfer of blood (and therefore infected lymphocytes) between cattle. Vertical transmission can also occur.
Refs: The Merck Veterinary Manual online edition.
Link: Overview of Bovine Leukosis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/bovine-leukosis/overview-of-bovine-leukosis
Bovine Leukosis: Comprehensive Information for BCSE Test
Definition
• Bovine Leukosis (Bovine Lymphosarcoma): A cancerous disease caused by Bovine Leukemia Virus (BLV), an oncogenic retrovirus.
Etiology and Transmission
• Causative Agent: Bovine Leukemia Virus (BLV), a C-type oncogenic retrovirus.
• Transmission: Primarily horizontal through blood transfer (e.g., contaminated needles, dehorning tools), and rarely vertical (transplacental or via colostrum).
Epidemiology
• Prevalence: High in US dairy herds (~46.5%) and lower in beef herds (~10.3%).
Pathogenesis
• Infection Outcomes:
• Asymptomatic: Most animals show no signs.
• Persistent Lymphocytosis: ~29% develop this benign condition.
• Lymphosarcoma: <5% develop cancerous tumors.
Clinical Findings
• Juvenile Lymphosarcoma: Weight loss, fever, dyspnea, bloat, and posterior paresis.
• Thymic Lymphosarcoma: Cervical swelling, dyspnea, bloat, jugular distention, tachycardia.
• Cutaneous Lymphosarcoma: Cutaneous plaques, enlarged lymph nodes.
Diagnosis
• Serology: ELISA and PCR for BLV detection.
• Cytology/Histology: Biopsy for diagnosing lymphosarcoma.
Treatment and Control
• No Treatment: No effective treatment; symptomatic care with corticosteroids.
• Control Measures: Testing and culling infected animals, disinfection of equipment, using single-use needles.
Prevention
• Blood Precautions: Avoiding exposure to blood from infected animals.
• Colostrum Management: Using colostrum from seronegative cows.
• Farm Practices: Cleaning equipment and facilities, controlling flies.
Zoonotic Risk
• Human Risk: Potential, but not well-established, zoonotic risk through ingestion of unpasteurized dairy products.
Which of the following opioids is more potent than morphine, given most often via continuous intravenous infusion, or can be administered via transdermal patch?
Fentanyl
Naloxone
Oxymorphone
Buprenorphine
Tramadol
Answer: Fentanyl.
Fentanyl is very lipophilic, so it is absorbed and eliminated quickly. It is therefore not useful for pain control via single doses given intramuscularly (IM) or intravenously (IV).
However, it produces good analgesia when given continuously via intravenous infusion and, in many patients, via a transdermal patch. Serum levels can be variable in some patients with patches.
Absorption is affected by temperature; the use of heating blankets can increase levels, hypothermia will decrease levels.
Fentanyl is less likely to cause nausea and vomiting compared to morphine and other mu-agonist opioids. It does cause respiratory depression and dysphoria in some patients.
Other analgesics that can be administered via transdermal patches are lidocaine and buprenorphine.
Use of patches in patients at home must be evaluated carefully - toxicity and death has been seen in children and small animals that have ingested fentanyl patches.
See very nice articles on pain management and opioids in small animals: Murrell J. Clinical use of opioids in dogs and cats: Part 1. Companion Animal 2011; 16(4): 35-8, and Part 2, 16(5): 44-9.
The American Animal Hospital Association (AHA) provides this chart on Opioids and their actions
https://www.aaha.org/aaha-guidelines/2020-aaha-anesthesia-and-monitoring-guidelines-for-dogs-and-cats/drug-combinations/opiods/
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed., p. 993, Gaynor & Muir Handbook of Vet Pain Mgt 2nd ed. pp. 118-9, 244-5, 169, 348, 422, Greene, Vet Anes & Pain Mgt Secrets pp. 78-9, 336-7.
Link: Analgesic Pharmacology
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/pain-assessment-and-management/analgesic-pharmacology
Comprehensive Summary on Analgesics Used in Animals for BCSE Test Preparation
Opioids
• Mechanism: Bind to opioid receptors (mu, kappa, delta) altering pain perception.
• Examples:
• Morphine, Hydromorphone, Fentanyl: Strong mu agonists.
• Buprenorphine: Partial mu agonist.
• Butorphanol: Agonist-antagonist.
• Effects: Analgesia, sedation, euphoria, dysphoria, respiratory depression.
Nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) and Corticosteroids
• NSAIDs:
• Mechanism: Inhibit COX enzymes, reducing prostaglandin synthesis.
• Examples: Meloxicam, Robenacoxib (cats), Carprofen, Deracoxib (dogs).
• Effects: Analgesia, anti-inflammatory, antipyretic.
• Corticosteroids:
• Mechanism: Inhibit phospholipase A2, reducing inflammation.
• Examples: Prednisone, Dexamethasone.
• Effects: Anti-inflammatory, immunosuppressive, analgesic.
Alpha2-Agonists
• Mechanism: Bind to alpha2-adrenergic receptors, providing analgesia and sedation.
• Examples: Xylazine, Dexmedetomidine.
• Effects: Sedation, analgesia, muscle relaxation.
• Risks: Bradycardia, hypotension, arrhythmias.
Ketamine
• Mechanism: NMDA receptor antagonist, preventing central sensitization.
• Effects: Somatic analgesia, poor visceral analgesia, prevents wind-up.
• Uses: As part of multimodal analgesia.
Other Analgesic Agents
• Tramadol:
• Mechanism: Weak mu agonist, inhibits serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake.
• Effects: Analgesia, anti-anxiety.
• Risks: Seizure threshold reduction.
• Gabapentin:
• Mechanism: Binds to alpha2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels.
• Uses: Neuropathic pain, chronic pain.
• Amantadine:
• Mechanism: NMDA receptor antagonist.
• Uses: Chronic pain, opioid tolerance.
• Acetaminophen:
• Mechanism: Unclear, possibly COX-3 inhibition.
• Uses: Breakthrough pain in dogs (not cats due to toxicity).
• Maropitant:
• Mechanism: NK-1 receptor antagonist.
• Uses: Anti-emetic, visceral analgesia.
• Monoclonal Antibodies:
• Examples: Frunevetmab (for osteoarthritis in cats).
• Mechanism: Target NGF, reducing pain.
Which part of a tooth is the occlusal surface?
Towards the roof of the mouth
Toward the cheek
Toward the tongue
Chewing surface
Above the gum line
Answer: Chewing surface.
The occlusal surface of the tooth is the chewing surface. The crown is the visible tooth above the gum line. Buccal means the surface toward the cheek. Lingual is the surface toward the tongue. Palatal is towards the roof of the mouth.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 10th ed., p. 1118-20.
Which one of the following phrases is the correct explanation of polychromasia?
An abnormal white blood cell count
Changes in shape of the nuclei of red blood cells
An abnormal red blood cell count
Variable color intensity of red blood cells
The presence of parasites inside the red blood cells
Answer: An abnormal red blood cell count.
Polychromasia is present when the color of red blood cells on a blood smear varies, usually from increased numbers of cells with more or less color than usual.
The highly colored cells are immature RBCs released into circulation too early; the color is from cellular organelles that are still present.
A small amount of polychromasia is not abnormal but large numbers means that immature red blood cells are present in circulation.
In anemic animals, this indicates that a regenerative response is present. Polychromatic cells can be seen best on a smear stained with new methylene blue.
Click here to see an image of polychromasia at Cornell’s eClinPath website.
https://eclinpath.com/hematology/morphologic-features/red-blood-cells/color/
Refs: McCurnin and Basset’s, Clin Textbook for Vet Technicians, 9th ed. pp. 380.
A horse is presented in severe respiratory distress in southern California after a suspected rattlesnake bite. There is significant nasal swelling, flared nostrils, abdominal movement with each breath, stridor, and tachypnea.
The veterinarian is concerned about local tissue damage, upper airway obstruction, and coagulopathy.
In addition to routine CBC and a blood chemistry panel, what tests will be ordered to assess for coagulation problems?
Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time
Baseline cortisol levels
Refractometry to estimate plasma protein, including fibrinogen
Lipase and amylase assays
Serum amyloid A acute phase protein assay
Answer: Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time
A coagulation panel should be run, which generally includes these standard tests for coagulation: prothrombin time (PT), activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), and sometimes activated clotting time (ACT).
Coagulopathies are common in association with pit viper (crotalia; e.g., rattlesnake) envenomation. Additional concerns include thrombocytopenia, neurotoxicity, and cardiovascular toxicity.
In contrast, expect hemolysis, lower motor neuron paralysis, and mental depression with coral snake (Micrurus spp.) envenomation.
Clinical signs with pit viper envenomation typically develop rapidly (w/in 15 minutes), whereas onset of clinical signs with coral snake bites can be delayed up to 36 hours (though usually progress extremely rapidly (within minutes)).
A two-year-old female spayed great Dane dog is presented with a one-month history of focal alopecia, scaling, and crusting around the ears and face.
Cytology of a skin scraping is shown below.
What is the most effective systemic treatment?
Praziquantel
Lufenuron and milbemycin oxime
Amitraz and ivermectin
Amphotericin-B
Terbinafine
Answer: Terbinafine
Terbinafine is the drug of choice for canine dermatophytosis (ringworm). One treatment regimen is 30-40 mg/kg PO q 24h or week on/week off until cured.
Itraconazole is the drug of choice for cats, but may be cost-prohibitive in dogs. Amphotericin-B is a systemic antifungal, but is not used to treat ringworm.
Dermatophytosis is a fungal infection of keratinized tissue (skin, hair, and claws), usually caused by Microsporum canis in cats and dogs. The incidence of disease is higher in cats than dogs and it is most common in young animals.
Look for focal/multifocal, sometimes circular, regions of alopecia, scaling, and crusting with variable inflammation and pruritus.
Confirm Dx with fungal culture of hair and skin scale.
Tx can be local or systemic and is generally recommended to minimize spread and shorten the clinical course of disease.
Dermatophytosis is a zoonosis (so wash your hands or wear gloves)!
CGPT: Dermatophytosis in Dogs and Cats
In addition to daily insulin injections, which interventions are important for treatment of non-ketotic diabetes mellitus in dogs (and cats)?
Glipizide; restrict activity; urinary acidifiers
Antidiuretic hormone; Florinef®; fluid restriction
Glucotrol®; high calorie/low fiber diet; promote water consumption
Balanced diet; exercise; treat concurrent diseases
Omeprazole; low sodium/highly digestible diet;
free choice water
Answer: Balanced diet; exercise; treat concurrent diseases
Treat uncomplicated diabetes mellitus (DM) with insulin, a balanced diabetic-appropriate diet (typically fed q12h), exercise (decreases insulin requirement), and treatment of concurrent diseases.
Diet formulation depends on an animal’s body condition, species, and concurrent diseases. In dogs, consider a diet higher in complex carbohydrates (i.e., fiber). In cats, consider a low-simple carbohydrate diet.
Note - glipizide and Glucotrol® are the same oral hypoglycemic drug, no longer recommended for the treatment of DM in cats.
CGPT Comprehensive Summary on the Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus (DM) in Dogs and Cats
What does it mean if a cat has physiologic nystagmus?
Head shaking related to inner ear disturbance
Abnormally loud gastrointestinal sounds in the absence of a recent meal
Genital malformation
Loss of balance
Normal, rapid, involuntary movement of eyes as head moves side to side
Answer: Normal, rapid, involuntary movement of eyes as head moves side to side
Physiologic nystagmus is a normal, rapid, involuntary movement of both eyes that occurs when an animal’s head is moved from side to side.
You can see it easily if you try it on your own dog or cat. Click here to see a short demonstration video of nystagmus (human eye).
Nystagmus can also be abnormal due to disease processes that may cause nystagmus when the head is stationary, or make the eyes move in abnormal directions as the head moves.
Vestibular disease can be peripheral (e.g., otitis media and otitis interna or nasopharyngeal polyps) or central (e.g., FIP, toxoplasmosis, neoplasia).
CGPT: Comprehensive Summary on Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)
CGPT: Comprehensive Summary on Toxoplasmosis in Animals