BCSE FC’s Flashcards
A three-year-old Thoroughbred mare is presented with brown urine, sweating, muscle fasciculations, and stiffness following a strenuous training after a long weekend without exercise.
A serum increase in which would be most supportive of the presumptive diagnosis?
Alkaline phosphatase
Creatine kinase
Sodium and potassium
PCV and TS
Glucose and lactate
Answer: Creatine kinase
Increased serum creatine kinase (CK) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) are indicative of exertional rhabdomyolysis (a.k.a. “tying up”). These enzymes are released from damaged muscle undergoing myonecrosis.
CK is the most specific for muscle damage. It has a very short half-life and increases within 4 hours of muscle damage, returning to normal in 1-2 days after transient injury.
AST is also found in liver and erythrocytes, so is less specific for muscle (need to look at the rest of the serum biochemistry). It has a longer half-life, takes longer to increase, and takes up to 2 weeks to come back to normal after even transient muscle injury.
Equine myopathies are divided into exertional vs. nonexertional, and sporadic vs. chronic. Exertional sporadic can be due to overexertion/undertraining or dietary/electrolyte imbalance.
DDx for exertional chronic myopathy include:
- Recurrent exertional rhabdomyolysis (Thoroughbreds, Standardbreds, Arabians)
- Polysaccharide storage myopathy type 1 (Quarterhorse-type breeds)
- Polysaccharide storage myopathy type 2 (Warmbloods, drafts,
Arabians, Thoroughbreds)
- Myofibrillar myopathy (Arabians, Warmbloods)
- Malignant hyperthermia (Quarterhorses)
Nonexertional causes of myopathy are myriad, including infectious, inflammatory, toxins/plants, nutritional, and hereditary.
Following intubation, at what pressure should you leak test the endotracheal tube?
95 mm Hg
20 cm H2O
2200 psi
There should be no leak around the tube
Answer: 20 H2O
Following intubation during induction of general anesthesia, leak test the endotracheal tube at 20 cm H2O. This ensures that the cuff is inflated to the appropriate pressure without causing airway damage. Remember that muscles continue to relax with a deeper anesthetic plane and the cuff should be retested at that time.
If the cuff is over-inflated, pressure necrosis or tearing of the trachea can occur. If the cuff is under-inflated, personnel are exposed to waste anesthetic gases, and it may be more difficult to keep the patient anesthetized.
Here is useful information from the American Animal Hospital Association (AAHA) on equipment preparation prior to anesthesia.
What is the main clinical problem caused by neosporosis in cattle?
Abortion
Allergic pneumonitis
Diarrhea
Umbilical infection and joint ill
Proliferative ileitis
Answer: Abortion
In cattle, Neospora caninum is emerging as an important cause of bovine protozoal abortion.
Chemotherapy is effective against some tumors because it targets rapidly dividing cells. Side effects occur because these drugs also attack normal tissues with a high rate of cell turnover.
Which of the following tissues contain rapidly dividing cells under normal circumstances?
Kidney; spleen
Adrenal glands; peripheral nervous system
Bone marrow; gastrointestinal tract
Liver; lungs
Heart; cerebral cortex
The bone marrow, gastrointestinal (Gl) tract, and hair are most susceptible to the effects of chemotherapy due to their high rate of cell turnover. Related side effects include myelosuppression, Gl signs (e.g., nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia), and poor hair regrowth, respectively.
Chemotherapy is useful in the treatment of systemic (body-wide) cancers such as lymphoma and is also used as an adjunct to surgery/radiation therapy to reduce the risk of metastasis.
Combination (or multi-agent) chemotherapy is advantageous because different drugs kill neoplastic cells by different mechanisms. This reduces the risk of cancer cells becoming resistant to treatment compared to monotherapy (e.g., doxorubicin single agent).
The goal of chemotherapy is to maintain a good-to-excellent quality of life. To achieve this goal consider dosage adjustments, alternate protocols or treatment cessation as needed.
How long is the average gestation period of sheep and goats?
6 months
7 months
4 months
5 months
3 months
Answer: 5 months
6 months
7 months
4 months
5 months
3 months
A five-month-old male intact Pomeranian is presented with a two-week history of tetraparesis and pain. The dog screams when he is picked up and he will not turn his head.
Plain lateral cervical radiographs show occipitoatlantoaxial malformation and agenesis of the dens. The hypoplastic dens has a rounded appearance and C2 is displaced dorsal and caudal to C1.
What is the diagnosis?
Atlantoaxial subluxation
Discospondylitis
Type Il intervertebral disc disease
Cervical spondylomyelopathy
Vertebral fracture
Answer: Atlantoaxial subluxation
This is atlantoaxial (AA) instability/subluxation, a common cause of cervical pain and neurologic deficits in young toy/miniature breed dogs (can see radiographs in the link).
Full radiograph interpretation would show: The cranial aspect of the axis (C2) is displaced dorsally relative to the atlas (C1). There is widening of the space between the dorsal aspect of C1 and C2.
There are open growth plates in this young dog.
Use heavy sedation/anesthesia for correct radiographic positioning. Handle with extreme caution and avoid cervical ventroflexion in anesthetized patients to avoid worsening neurologic deficits due to spinal cord compression.
Tx: Refer dogs over eight months of age with neurologic deficits and/or intractable cervical pain for surgical stabilization. In acute cases Tx by stabilizing the AA joint with a light cervical bandage, strict cage rest, and use analgesics as indicated. Px is good following surgical stabilization.
Can also see a form of occipitoatlantoaxial malformation (OAAM) in Arabian foals and miniature horses.
Which one of the following statements about tail docking in cattle is correct?
Should be performed in all cattle before weaning age
Associated with higher risk of mastitis
Increases the risk of zoonotically transmitted leptospirosis in milk parlor workers
Opposed by North American veterinary medical associations
Significantly reduces stress and pain in cattle
Answer: Opposed by North American Veterinary Medical Associations
Both the American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA) and the Canadian Veterinary Medical Association (CVMA) oppose routine tail docking in cattle. There is no scientifically based advantage for the cows and it increases fly-associated stress (from face flies, horn flies, etc.).
Tail docking has been touted to decrease the risk of leptospirosis in milkers by preventing a urine-soaked tail from contacting a milker’s skin or face. This has NOT been proven.
For more information, check out the AVMA Welfare Implications of Tail Docking in Cattle.
Consumption of legumes and lush cereal grasses can predispose cattle to which one of these problems?
Rumenal hyperkeratosis
Vagal indigestion
Hypocalcemic paresis
Frothy bloat
Jejunal hemorrhage syndrome
Answer: Frothy bloat
Frothy bloat occurs when normal ruminal gasses produced during fermentation of feed are trapped in a stable foam. The foam is a by-product of digestion of lush legumes and certain cereal grains mixing with ruminal contents.
The foam prevents elimination of gasses from the rumen, so they accumulate and cause ruminal tympany. The resultant increased intraruminal pressure further decreases normal eructation.
Frothy bloat can lead to death by asphyxiation as the bloated rumen prevents normal contraction of the diaphragm during respiration.
Can differentiate from free gas bloat because passage of an ororuminal tube alone does not deflate the rumen.
Tx: administer an ororuminal antifoaming agent to break up the stable foam. Mineral oil, vegetable oil, or commercial products are all effective. Emergency rumentomy with a trocar is not effective in treating frothy bloat because it does not break down/eliminate the foam.
An 11-month-old Quarter horse filly is presented with a recent history of mild colic, moderate diarrhea, and weight loss coinciding with warmer spring weather.
Physical exam reveals a small amount of ventral abdominal and distal limb edema and mild depression. There is fecal staining on her hind legs and perianal irritation.
Bright red worms are visible in the feces (see image below).
Click on the labwork icon to review the hematology and chemistry results.
What is the top differential diagnosis?
Strongylus vulgaris, Strongylus edentatus
Strongyloides westerii
Spirocerca spp
Cyathostomiasis
Roundworms
Answer: Cyathostomiasis
This yearling has cyathostomiasis. Cyathostomes are small strongyles. Small strongyle eggs are often NOT found on fecal exan in the teces, esp. after dewormin-stage larvae can be easily
Cyathostomes develop in the wall and then lumen of the intestine.
Larvae in the wall of the intestine may undergo hypobiosis (arrested development) and can remain dormant for long periods.
Click here to see encysted hypobiotic cyathostome larvae in the colon of a horse.
Cyathostomes in the lumen of the intestine are easily killed by anthelmintics (avermectins), but hypobiotic larvae in the intestinal wall are much more difficult to eliminate. Moxidectin and double-dose fenbendazole are reportedly (variably) effective against these encysted larvae. A few small strongyles do not cause problems.
Heavy infestations of hypobiotic larvae may cause problems when the encysted larvae leave the gut wall en-masse in late winter and spring (or following appropriate deworming), causing sudden weight loss, colic, and diarrhea, esp. in younger (1-4 years of age) horses.
What organism causes “rabbit syphilis”?
Cheyletiella yasguri
Pasteurella multocida
Francisella tularensis
Treponema paraluis-cuniculi
Encephalitozoon spp
Answer: Cheyletiella yasguri
Treponema paraluis-cuniculi causes rabbit syphilis (treponematosis, vent disease, “rabbit syphilis”).
Think of dry crusty exudates around perineum, vulva, nostrils, eyes. In spite of the name, this is NOT a zoonotic disease.
What does the appearance of toxic neutrophils on a blood
smear indicate?
The animal ingested a toxin
Bacterial toxins are harming the neutrophils
Allergic response
Inflammation is present
The neutrophils are old
Toxic neutrophils indicate inflammation.
Toxic changes are signs of immature neutrophils (NOT due to bacterial or infectious toxins’ effects on the neutrophils).
Inflammatory response leads to accelerated maturation and release of neutrophils from the bone marrow.
The presence of immature neutrophils in peripheral circulation is called a “left shift.”
Toxic change is characterized by: toxic granulation, Dohle bodies, nuclear immature, and cytoplasmic vacuolation and basophilia.
Click here to see an image of a toxic neutrophil.
Hypersegmented nuclei are not seen in toxic neutrophils. As neutrophils age, the nuclei become more segmented, so hypersegmentation is a sign of older cells in circulation.
A surgical needle with a taper point is most useful for suturing •
which tissue?
Fascia
Tendon
Skin
Liver
Periosteum
Answer: Fascia
Taper needles have a pointed end and are typically used for subcutaneous tissues, intestines, and fascia. They avoid cutting surrounding tissues as they pierce.
Cutting needles are used for tough tissues such as skin. A blunt point needle is used on friable tissues such as kidney and liver.
Click here to see a pictorial review of needle point types.
For a good review of surgical basics, instruments, draping and approaches see the University of Saskatchewanâs Basic Surgical Skills course.
What syndrome is characterized by concurrent thrombosis and
spontaneous bleeding?
Systemic inflammatory response syndrome
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Sepsis
Cardiogenic shock
Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome
Answer: Disaminated intravascular coagulation
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is characterized by concurrent thrombosis and spontaneous bleeding. It is a serious— often fatal-complication of septic shock.
Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is characterized by organ damage secondary to microvascular clotting and DIC.
Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) is a complicated phenomenon of widespread inflammation secondary to sepsis.
Which one of the following is a recognized cause of bovine respiratory disease complex that can be found in the tonsillar
crypts of healthy cattle?
Mannheimia haemolytica
Clostridium perfringens
Moraxella bovis
Streptococcus bovis
Salmonella dublin
Answer: Mannheimia hemolytica
Mannhemia haemolytica is a normal inhabitat of the tonsillar crypts and is the most frequently isolated bacterium from the lungs of cattle with bovine respiratory disease (BRD) complex.
Stress or viral infection suppresses the hostâs immune system and allows bacterial colonization of the lungs.
Other common bacteria associated with BRD include Pasteurella multocida and Histophilus somni.
Trueperella pyogenes is frequently isolated from pulmonary abscesses.
Overgrowth of Streptococcus bovis in the gastrointestinal tract of cattle is associated with ruminal acidosis.
Salmonella spp generally cause enteric disease in cattle.
Clostridium perfringens causes enterotoxemia in many species.
Moraxella bovis is the cause of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis.
A 12-year-old female cat is presented for a firm, ulcerated, 2x2 cm mass in the right middle mammary gland. Thoracic radiographs do not show evidence of metastasis and minimum database of bloodwork is within normal limits. The plan is to perform an unilateral mastectomy. Ligate which arteries during this procedure?
Mesenteric and long internal pudendal
Medial circumflex and external obturator
Internal iliac and right gastroepiploic
Ventral perineal and cranial pancraticoduodenal
Cranial and caudal superficial epigastric
Ligate the cranial and caudal superficial epigastric arteries, the primary blood supply to the mammary glands, during a unilateral mastectomy.
For the caudal chain of glands, ligate the caudal superficial epigastric arteries emerging from the external pudendal artery near the inguinal canal. For the cranial chain, ligate the cranial superficial epigastric artery, arising from the internal pudendal artery. The lateral thoracic artery from the axillary artery also supplies the cranial-most mammary gland.
Cats usually have four pairs of glands while dogs have five.
Mammary gland neoplasia is most common in older intact females; more common in dogs than in cats, but 90% of feline tumors are malignant vs. 45% in dogs.
What is the holding layer when closing the abdomen in dogs
and cats after surgery?
Parietal peritoneum
Transversus abdominis
External rectus sheath
Rectus abdominus
Internal abdominal oblique
Answer: External rectus sheath
The holding layer is the external rectus sheath because it contains connective tissue.
The rectus sheath is composed of the aponeuroses of the three flat abdominal muscles (the external and internal abdominal oblique muscles and the transversus abdominis muscle) as they pass by the rectus abdominus muscle.
The linea alba is the cord formed where the aponeuroses from each side join on the ventral midline. It extends from the pelvis symphysis to the xiphoid cartilage.
Which choice best describes the process of repairing a dirty and traumatized wound by second intention?
Insert a drain and bind the wound closed with bandages
Allow wound to epithelialize and contract to closure
Delayed primary closure
Application of a tissue graft
Suture the wound closed
Answer: Allow wound to epithelialize and contract to closure
Second intention healing is used for dirty, traumatized wounds, where the injury is cleaned and allowed to contract and epithelialize on its own until closed.
This kind of wound closure has risks because new epithelium is easily damaged, and contracted skin can sometimes impede normal movement.
Because of this, many wounds like this are left open to contract and granulate in (3-5 days) and then closed surgically (delayed closure, also called third intention healing).
First intention healing (also called appositional healing or primary. wound closure) means you suture up a fresh, clean wound within
6-8 hours of injury.
Which one of the following patients would most likely benefit from staphylectomy?
Queen with follicular cysts
Sheep with laryngeal chondropathy
Horse with a thrombosed and infected section of the jugular vein
Dog with brachycephalic syndrome
Pygmy goat with a small urolith lodged in the distal urethra
Answer: Dog with brachycephaloc syndrome
A dog with clinical signs due to brachycephalic syndrome would most likely benefit from staphylectomy, or resection of an elongated soft palate.
Short-nosed dogs like bulldogs, Boston terriers, pugs, and boxers are predisposed to brachycephalic syndrome with clinical signs of stertor, exercise intolerance, gagging, coughing, and even cyanosis and collapse.
Anatomic and functional abnormalities present in these dogs include stenotic nares, elongated soft palate, hypoplastic trachea, everted laryngeal saccules, laryngeal collapse, and paralysis of the laryngeal cartilages.
Surgical interventions that can benefit dogs with clinical signs include staphylectomy, removal of everted laryngeal saccules, and correction of stenotic nares.
Permanent tracheostomy may be required in severe cases. Most dogs have concurrent gastrointestinal disease (reflux, esophagitis, hiatal hernias) that must also be addressed. Weight loss is also helpful.
This protuberance is sometimes called a “hunter’s bump.”
What is it, anatomically?
Ischiatic tuberosity
Greater trochanter
Anticlinal vertebrae
Tuber sacrale
Scapular spine
Answer: Tuber sacrale
Hunter’s bumps are prominences of the tuber sacrale that can result from luxation, subluxation, or ligamentous injury of the sacroiliac joint.
Horses with hunter’s bumps can be sound if the injury has completely healed, but lameness can be observed if the injury is recent or has never resolved.
Image courtesy of courtesy of bjornmeansbear.
A dog is presented with numerous small pinpoint hemorrhages on the mucous membranes of the mouth.
What are these hemorrhages called?
Petechiae
Hematomas
Ecchymoses
Epiphora
Suppuration
Answer: Petechiae
Petechiae are small, pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin or mucous membranes. Look for on the gums and ventral abdomen where the hair is thinner and skin changes are more easily seen. Larger hemorrhages (1-2 cm dial.) are called ecchymosis.
Look for petechiation and ecchymosis in patients with a severely decreased platelet count.
Here are some images of a dog with petechiae, a dog with ecchymosis on the gums, and a dog with ecchymosis on the abdomen.
Fluoroscopy is useful to help diagnose which one the following conditions?
Renal dysplasia
Lung lobe torsion
Pericardial effusion
Tracheal collapse
Bile duct obstruction
Answer: Trachea collapse
Fluoroscopy is commonly used to diagnose tracheal collapse.
Fluoroscopy provides a continuous radiographic image, allowing visualization of the changing tracheal diameter during inspiration and expiration.
Click here to see a video of fluoroscopy_performed on a dog with tracheal collapse.
Fluoroscopy is an excellent tool for assessing dynamic processes and moving structures.
Other indications for fluoroscopy include assessment of esophageal motility, myelography, cardiovascular studies, fracture reductions and catheter/stent placement.
Because a continuous x-ray beam is used, radiation exposure is a concern.
Radiographers must follow safety procedures and wear a dosimeter during procedures.
A 12-year-old female spayed domestic shorthair cat is presented with a progressive preference for wet food and drooling.
The cat is sedated and a thorough oral examination and is shown in the image seen below. Note that the cat is lying on its back and the labeled teeth are maxillary.
What problem is indicated by the arrow?
Severe bacterial periodontitis
Enamel hypoplasia and hypomineralization
Unable to determine from this history and image
Tooth resorption
Ameloblastoma
Answer: Tooth resorption
This clinical history and image are consistent with tooth resorption, also known as feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions.
In this image, there is a resorptive lesion on upper premolar 2, indicated by the arrow. With progression, resorption progresses into dentin and extends to the tooth crown where it undermines enamel and ultimately a fracture can occur. Incidentally, there are also fractures of upper premolar 1 and the canine tooth, and plaque on upper premolar 3.
Click here to see an image of very severe tooth resorption.
Tooth resorption is common in cats over four years old, especially those with periodontal disease and excessive tartar. The cause is unknown. Premolars and molars are most commonly affected. Clinical signs vary from none to those seen in this cat, and can also include tooth chattering.
Dx: Full examination under anesthesia. Full mouth dental radiographs are needed - lesions are often quite advanced before becoming clinically apparent.
Tx: Surgical extraction of all affected teeth and root remnants of fractured teeth. The disease is progressive.
Image courtesy of Uwe Gille.
A one-month-old puppy is presented with pale mucous membranes and bloody diarrhea. The puppy is underweight and has a mildly distended abdomen.
Hookworms are suspected. Make what recommendations to the owner?
Infection can only be definitively diagnosed post-mortem
No treatment necessary; condition is self-limiting
Hookworm infection is reportable and dog must be quarantined
Zoonotic; treat with fenbendazole
Owner and entire family should be treated with pyrantel
Answer: Zoonotic, treat with Fenbendazole
Ancylostoma caninum (hookworm) is zoonotic and should be treated with fenbendazole, moxidectin, or pyrantel.
A. caninum is the cause of cutaneous larva migrans in people, so zoonotic potential must be discussed with owners. Hookworm larva can penetrate human skin, then migrate and cause raised, erythematous, pruritic tracts in the skin.
A. caninum can be transmitted in the milk or by fecal-oral route to puppies. Prevent by making sure the bitch is free from hookworms and deworming puppies at 2, 4, 6, and 8 weeks of age.
Hookworm eggs can easily be seen on fecal flotation. Young puppies may have clinical signs prior to patent infections and therefore have negative fecal flotations.
It is not legal nor appropriate to diagnose or recommend therapies for humans. Veterinary clinics should inform clients about zoonotic potential and refer them to their physicians.
What weight measurement is the best one to use to calculate anesthetic drug dosages on an obese patient?
Lean body mass
Ideal weight for breed, sex
Current reading from scale
Estimated weight at 1 year of age
10% below present weight
Answer: Lean body mass
Drug calculations are based on estimated lean body weight for obese animals. Body fat does not contribute to drug volume distribution.
There is an estimated 10-15% increase in fat weight for each increase in body_condition score (BCS). For an animal scored at 9/9, where normal is 5/9, this means an estimated
20-30% increase in body weight.
Body Condition Score (BCS) is a 9-point scale:
Under Ideal BCS
1 - No discernible body fat; obvious loss of muscle mass
2 - No palpable fat; minimal loss of muscle mass
3 - Tops of lumbar vertebrae visible; obvious waist and abdominal tuck
Ideal BCS
4 - Ribs easily palpable, minimal fat covering; abdominal tuck evident
5 - Ribs palpable without excess fat covering; abdominal tuck when viewed from side
Over Ideal BCS
6 - Ribs palpable with slight excess fat covering; abdominal tuck apparent
7 - Ribs palpable with difficulty; waist absent, abdominal tuck may be present
8 - Ribs not palpable under heavy fat cover; no abdominal tuck, obvious abdominal distension may be present
9 - Massive fat deposits over the thorax, spine and base of tail; obvious abdominal distension.