BCSE Flashcards
In horses, which body system is affected in cases of Arabian fading syndrome?
The integument. It is an idiopathic, acquired loss of pigmentation of the skin, vitiligo (the name refers to fading colour, not loss of stamina).
How should the technique differ in terms of kVp and mAs between thoracic and abdominal radiographs?
Abdomen: high mAs, low kVp. Thorax: high kVp, low mAs
What is the Morgan line?
It is a radio graphic finding that represents the formation of enthesiophytes on the caudal aspect of the femoral neck, medial to the trochanteric fossa. It occurs as a result of early degenerative joint disease of the coxofemoral joint.
Which is true about Inter dog aggression in households? Owners can identify who is the aggressor and who is the victim in.
69% of owners report overall improvement with treatment; 71% of owners can identify aggressor and victim; and 79% of cases involve same - sex pairs.
The spirochete Treponema paraluiscuniculi is the causative organism of which venereal disease?
Rabbit Syphilis or vent disease
Which 2 surgical goals must be achieved for successful arthrodesis of a joint?
Complete removal of articular cartilage and rigid stabilization of the joint
Which nerve and associated spinal cord segments does the patellar reflex test?
Femoral Nerve (spinal segments L4-6)
Which medication increases detrusor muscle contractility?
What is its main contraindication?
Bethanechol: urethral obstruction
Define TELOGEN DEFLUXION
The loss of hair that occurs 1-3 months after a stressful event such as pregnancy/parturition; the event causes a sudden termination of growth of many anagen hair follicles, then synchronization of these follicles in catagen and ultimately telogen.
Where is the majority of sodium reabsorbed in the nephron?
The proximal convoluted tubule
What is the geographical endemic region of coccidioidomycosis in North America?
Southwestern United States, Mexico
The amino acid structure of feline insulin is most similar to that of which other mammal?
Bovine, which explains the preference for beef-based insulin for treatment in cats
Some animals with a persistent right aortic arch may also have a heart murmur. What is the most likely cause for this murmur?
A patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). The persistent aortic arch itself does not cause a murmur
Which type of nut can cause neurological signs such as whole body tremors when it is ingested by dogs?
The macadamia nut
What is the renal hormone responsible for stimulating production of red blood cells?
Erythropoietin
This parasite causes a thick, red-brown crusting of the external ear canal of rabbits.
Psoroptes cuniculi
Which 2 hematologist findings are indicative or significant oxidative damage?
Heinz bodies and eccentrocytes
The incidence of dilated cardiomyopathy in cats decreased dramatically after the 1987 discovery that a significant cause was a dietary deficiency of which nutrient?
Taurine
What is distinctive about the macroscopic appearance of female Hamonchus worms?
A “barber pole” appearance (intertwined uterus and intestine)
Birds that eat seeds exclusively often suffer from which vitamin deficiency?
Hypovitaminosis A
In a feedlot, which component of the diet is generally overfed if cattle are developing frothy bloat?
Concentrate.
Ogilvie. T. Large Animal Internal Medicine.
Which disease of ferrets typically causes hypoglycaemia, seizures, collapse, weakness, and muscle fasciculations?
Insulinoma.
Oglesbee BLACK. The 5-minute Veterinary Consult: Ferret and Rabbit.
Aujeszky’s disease of swine causes which reportable disease of ruminants?
Pseudorabies.
Name 2 differences in the appearance of normal canine anatomic structures in a dorsoventral thoracic radiograph compared to the appearance of the same structures in a ventor dorsal thoracic radiograph.
The heart is more ovoid in appearance in a DV (more elongated in VD); the accessory lung lobe is less aerated in a DV; the caudal pulmonary vessels and bronchi are more conspicuous in a DV; the diaphragmatic crura are more convex in appearance in a VD radiograph.
Thrall DE. Interpretation paradigms for the small animal thorax. Textbook of Veterinary Diagnostic Radiology. 5th ed.
Unlike dogs, which serum liver enzyme in cats is not easily affected by corticosteroid exposure?
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP).
History, clinical signs, and physical phindings in hepatobiliary disease. Ettinger SJ, Textbook of Veterinary Internal Medicine. 6th ed.
Butorphanol administered to horses, loperamide (Imodium - AD) administered to cats, and acepromazine administered to dogs, all may cause which type of adverse effect?
Profound excitement / central nervous system stimulation.
Plumb DC. Veterinary Drug Handbook.
The canine parvovirus ELISA test will detect which feline virus?
Feline panleukopenia virus.
Hackett T. Acute hemorrhagic diarrhea. Raffe M. The Veterinary ICU Book.
The most common physical exam abnormality in ferrets with adrenocortical disease is:
Alopecia.
Endocrine diseases. Carpenter JW. Ferrets, Rabbits, and Rodents, 2nd ed.
What is the reversal agent for medetomidine?
Atipamezole.
Which animal is the definitive host for Sarcocystis neurona?
Opossum.
Saville WJ. Disorders of the neurologic system. Sellon DC. Equine Internal Medicine. 2nd ed.
Name 2 factors to consider in order to choose the most appropriate disinfectant.
Spectrum of activity, relative efficacy in the presence of organic debris, toxicity to animals and humans, potential damaging effects on certain surfaces, cost, potential environmental effects.
Morley PS. Biosecurity and infection control for large animal practices. Smith BP, Large Animal Internal Medicine. 4th ed. p. 1527.
Bacterial pneumonia in adult horses is most commonly associated with which organism?
Streptococcus equi zooepidermicus.
Girguere S. Bacterial pneumonia and pleuropneumonia in adult horses. Smith BP. Large Animal Internal Medicine. 4th ed. p. 500-10.
Why is a patient placed in left lateral recumbency to perform a pericardiocentesis?
Entering the chest wall and pericardial space from the right side (left recumbency) minimizes risk of coronary artery laceration, since the largest coronary arteries course on the epicardia surface of the left side of the heart.
Cote E. Pericardiocentesis. Clinical Veterinary Advisor.
Which two hematologic findings on smears of peripheral blood suggest immune-mediated red blood cell damage?
Spherocytes and agglutinated red blood cells.
Walker D. Peripheral blood smears. Meinkoth JH. Cytology and Hematology of Dogs and Cat. 2nd ed. pp. 254-83
What is the cause of equine coital exanthema?
Equine herpesvirus 3.
Foster RA. Male genital system. Jubb, Kennedy and Palmer’s Pathology of Domestic Animals. 5th ed. p. 613.
Diazoxide is used singly or in combination with prednisolone to medically manage which neoplastic condition in ferrets?
Insulinoma (both drugs help to raise blood glucose levels).
Quesenberry KE. Endocrine diseases. Ferrets, Rabbits, and Rodents. 2nd ed.
Most opaque with solutions, like procaine Penicillin G, should never be administered intravenously. What are 2 opaque white solutions that are an exception to this rule?
Protofol and total parenteral nutrition.
Other than gastrointestinal and adrenal effects, ketoconazole is recognized to have toxic potential involving which important organ?
Liver (and less commonly it can also affect bone marrow).
Which drug can be given to reverse the effects of opioids?
Naloxone; butorphanol also has mixed agonist-antagonist properties.
Which are the vitamin K dependent clotting factors?
II, VII, IX, X.
DuFort RM. Acquired coagulopathies. Ettinger SJ. Textbook of Veterinary Internal Medicine.
“Grass Tetany” of cattle is a result of which metabolic abnormality?
Hypomagnesemia.
Which etiologic agent is associated with caseous necrotic lesions in lymph nodes or visceral organs of small ruminants?
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis.
Which clinical sign of Horner’s syndrome differentiates horses with cattle?
Horses sweat (ipsilateral to the affected side); cattle do not.
What is the causative agent of blackleg?
Clostridium chauvoei.
What are 3 zoonotic organisms that cause abortion in sheep?
Brucella melitensis, Coxiella burnetti, Toxoplasma gondii, Chlamydia psittaci, Campylobacter jejuni, Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella spp.
A malnourished cockatiel has wet feathers surrounding the mouth, and halitosis. An oral swab shows budding yeasts cytologically. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Candidiasis.
Which diet predisposes rabbits to gastric stasis syndrome?
A) high carbohydrate / low fiber
B) low carbohydrate / high fibre
C) diet has no significant effect on this syndrome
A. Fiber promotes peristalsis.
What is the treatment of choice for symptomatic third-degree atrioventricular block?
Permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation.
Pectoral abscesses in horses (“pigeon fever”) are a result of infection with which organism?
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis.
At what age are Guinea pigs sexually mature?
2 months of age in females, and 3 months in males.
What are the three common types of testicular tumours in small animals?
Interstitial cell, Sertoli cell, and seminomas
After a week and a half of rain, numerous individuals in a flock of sheep exhibit matted discolored, malodorous fleece. What is the likely diagnosis?
Ovine fleece rot caused by proliferation of Pseudomonas spp. This disease is economically important because the affected sheep are predisposed to myasis, and the value of the wool is decreased.
Hargis AM. The integument. Pathologic Basis of Veterinary Disease, 5th.
Which proportion of cats presented promptly for veterinary care after lily ingestion develops renal failure?
A. <15%
B. 25-40%
C. 50-70%
D. >75%
A. <15%. The vast majority of cats that ingest lilies and are presented for veterinary care prior to the onset of clinical signs do well: they respond to treatment and / or ingested a dose that does not cause detectable renal insufficiency.
Slater Mr. Exposure circumstances and outcomes of 48 households with 57 cats exposed to toxic lily species.
Which 3 major serum mineral imbalances can result in recumbency in cows (“downer cow syndrome”)?
Hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypophosphatemia.
Goff JP. Calcium, magnesium and phosphorus. Large Animal Internal Medicine.
Several animals in a goat herd have clinical signs that include swollen carpi, stiff gait, and difficulty rising. Some animals Also have a firm udder on palpation, and coughing is noted. What is the most likely etiology?
Caprine arthritis encephalitis; genus lentivirus, family Retroviridae.
Smith MC. Goat Medicine.
Which animal has an ear cavity and tympanic membrane: an iguana or a snake?
An iguana, Snakes have neither (they are deaf) and rely mainly on smell and sensation of ground vibrations for sensory input.
Jacobson ER. Infectious Diseases and Pathology of Reptiles.
What is the causative agent of infectious canine thrombocytopenia?
Anaplasma platys.
Harvey JW. Thrombocytotropic anaplasmosis. Infectious Diseases of the Dog and Cat.
In a cow with mastitis, the mammary lymph nodes may be enlarged. Where are these nodes located?
Dorsal to the udder, between the medical and lateral laminate of the suspensory apparatus of the udder and cranial to the thick, fat-filled connective tissue in the perineum below the ischial arch.
de Lahunta A. Applied Veterinary Anatomy.
Epitelial hyperplasia is a common cutaneous response to infectious and non infectious agents, why may this occur more readily in fish compared to mammals?
Fish skin lacks a protective keratine layer on the outside of the epidermis.
Roberts RJ. The pathophysiology and systemic pathology of teleosts.
Which vein is most accessible for avian blood collection?
Right jugular vein.
Which porcine virus causes disease that is characterized by stillbirth, mummification, early embryonic death, and infertility (SMEDI)?
Porcine parvovirus (Female genital system. Jubb, Pathology of Domestic Animals).
Name 3 conditions that must be met for the extra label use of drugs in food animals?
ANSWER:
Administered/ordered by a veterinarian; on-label treatments unavailable; valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship; for therapeutic/humane puposes only; administration to individual animals or in water, not in feed; identification and treatment records are adequate and maintained for 2 years; veterinarian established extended drug withdrawal period supported by scientific evidence; drug is adequately labeled
REFERENCE:
Payne M. Extralabel use of medications in food animals. in Smith BP, ed. Large Animal Internal Medicine, 4th ed (St. Louis, MO: Mosby Elsevier, 2009) p.
What is the main hormone that increases phosphaturia?
Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
A pregnant cow’s calf is dead in utero and you about to perform a fetotomy. Which additional piece of equipment do you need: Krey hook, GIgli/saw wire, wire introducer, wire handles, threader and brush, and disposables (gloves, lube, etc).
You need a fetotome, through which to run the saw wire safely inside the cow.
What is the most common cause for hypercolesterolemia and no other complete blood count / serum biochemistry abnormalities in an adult, fasted dog?
Hypothyroidism
Crías are born enveloped in an extrafetal epidermal membrane. What are its functions?
In addition to providing lubrication during delivery, it keeps the, dry at birth (an evolutionary advantage for neonates in colder, high altitude climates).
In pig meat, both PSE (pale soft and exudative) and DFD (dark firm and dry) meat are are a result of stress prior to slaughter. How do the predisposing conditions resulting in these changes in meat quality differ?
ANSWER:
PSE meat is a result of acute pig stress right before or during slaughter (increased lactate production). DD meat is a result of chronic pig stress (glycogen depletion).
REFERENCE:
Wood I. Whittemore C. Pig meat and carcass quality, In Kyriazakis I, Whittemore CT, eds. Whittemore’s Science and Practice of Pig Production, 3rd ed (Ames, IA: Blackwell, 2006) pp. 21-5.
In the mare, transition from anestrus, to normal cycling (vernal transition) ends when the: A) diameter of the largest follicle reaches 35 mm, B) first ovulation occurs, C) mare stops teasing in heat after 5 or more days, D) mare teases in heat for 5 or more consecutive days.
First ovulation occurs.
Phimosis in the stallion is defined as:
A) a neurologic condition resulting in desensitization of the penile glans
B) a prolonged period of tumescence (persistent erection)
C) inability to extend the penis outside the sheath
D) inability to retract the penis back into the sheath
C) inability to extend the penis outside the sheath
In pigs at post-mortem, “milk spots” in the liver are evidence of which disease process?
Ascaris suum migration.
Define “manica flexoria”
Bovine ulcerative mammilitis is caused by which virus?
Bovine herpesvirus type 2
Which body systems are affected in horses with white snakeroot poisoning?
ANSWER:
Mainly skeletal and cardiac muscle, which explains the muscle tremors, weakness, choke, and cardiac arrhythmias observed clinically.
REFERENCE:
Macleay JM. Diseases of the musculoskeletal system. In Reed SM, Bayly WM, Sellon DC, eds. Equine Internal Medicine, 2nd ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders, 2004) pp. 461-531.
A functional corpus luteum is lysed by which hormone normally produced by the endometrium?
Prostaglandin F 2 alpha (PGF2alfa)
What is the causative agent of Tyzzer’s disease in foals?
Clostridium piliformis
Hypoventilation in a horse under general anesthesia can produce which type of acid/base disturbance?
Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
In foals, is a patent urachus more commonly congenital or acquired, and by what age should it close?
Acquired (closes naturally but reopens due to physical trauma, handling, or infection). In foals, the urachus normally should close by 2 weeks of age.
REFERENCE:
Vaala WE, House JK, Madigan JE. Initial management and physical examination of the neonate. In Smith BP, ed. Large Animal Internal Medicine, 3rd ed (St. Louis, MO: Mosby, 2002) pp.
277-93.
What are the radiographic signs of chronic laminitis in the horse?
Rotation and/or vertical displacement (sinking) of P3 from the hoof wall; thin sole;
pathologic P3 fracture
REFERENCE:
Riedesel EA. The phalanges. In Thrall DE. Textbook of Veterinary Diagnostic Radiology, 5th ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2007) pp. 436-8.
Which anatomical structure prevents urinary catheterization of bulls?
Uretral diverticulum
Which infectious organism (genus and species) is most commonly reported in association with closure of large animal hospitals in North America?
Salmonella enterica
To hasten onset of puberty/synchronize estrus in gilts, one should:
A)bring boars to gilt housing (2-4 hrs/d),
B) delay exposing gilts to boars until 185 d of age,
C) expose gilts to boars of similar age and weight,
D) take gilts to the boar housing area and allow contact for 15 minutes
D) take gilts to the boar housing area and allow contact for 15 minutes daily
Apart from sheep and cattle, which other domestic large animal species have been found to be susceptible to bovine viral diarrhea virus?
North American cemelids (llamas and alpacas)
Which clinical sign of Horner’S syndrome differentiates horses from cattle?
Horses sweat (ipsilateral to the affected side); cattle do not.
Porcine respiratory and reproductive syndrome (PRRS) manifest with which 2 main signs on a herd level?
Breeding losses and respiratory disease
Which etiologic agent is associated with caseous necrotic lesions in lymph nodes or visceral organs of small ruminants?
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
Which infectious agent is commonly associated with rectal strictures in swine?
Salmonella spp.
You are living in the mid-Atlantic region of the Us and are presented with six year old QuarterHorse gelding with acute, severe diarrhea, depression and high fever in August. What is the primary initial rule-out?
Neorickettsia risticii infection (Potomac horse fever)
Your patient is a 2-year-old male castrated German shepherd dog with a chief complaint of regurgitation; the acetylcholine receptor antibody test is strongly positive. What is the diagnosis?
Myasthenia gravis causing mega esophagus
Antigens that reach the palatine tonsils do so by draining through the lymphatics of which region in a dog or cat’s head?
The palatine tonsils do not drain lymphatics from any region. They are lymphoid organs whose interaction with antigens comes from direct oral exposure: ingestion and inhalation
Anorecric cats and those fed a diet high seafood may exhibit severe muscle weakness due to a deficiency in this vitamin.
Thiamin. Ettinger.
Tremors or facial rubbing in a bitch that whelped 3 weeks earlier is caused by which disorder?
Hypocalcemia (eclampsia, puerperal tetany)
What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in the adult dog?
Malignancy .
The expected rate of growth for an ovarian follicle in the mare is:
A) 11-12 mm/day
B) 8-9mm/day
C) 6-8 mm/day
D) 3-5 mm/day
D. Clinical reproductive anatomy and physiology of the mare.
Which horse is best known for having a genetic defect leading to severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)?
Arabian. Equine immunodeficiency diseases.
Which production animal species is most susceptible to copper poisoning?
Sheep.
As with feline immunodeficiency virus, equine infectious anemia virus is a retrovirus of which subfamily?
Lentiviridae / Lentivirus
A Siberian husky presents with photophobia, blepharospasm, conjunctivitis, and skin lesions consisting of depigmentation, erythema and crusting of the dorsal muzzle, periorbital region, plenum nasals and lips. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Uveodermatologic syndrome (Vogt-koyanagi-Harada-like syndrome)
Necropsy of an equine fetus aborted at 9 months of gestation reveals multi focal pinpoint hepatic necrosis and severe pulmonary edema. What is the likely etiology of the abortion?
Equine herpesvirus 1 (EHV-1)
What is the diagnostic test of choice for exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in cats and dogs?
Serum trypsine-like immunoreactivity (cTLI, fTLI).
Westermark E, et al. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in dogs and cats. In Ettinger SJ, Feldman EC, eds. Textbook of Veterinary Internal Medicine, 6th ed
(St. Louis, MO: Elsevier Saunders, 2005) p. 1493.
A dog has cervical salivary mucocele that requires excision, but the lesion hangs on the ventral midline of the neck. What is the easiest way to find on which side to mucocele is (I.e., which side to operate on)?
Placement of the dog in dorsal recumbency (mucocele will roll/fall to the affected side)
Smith MM, Davidson Domnick EB. Salivary mucocele. In Côté E, ed. Clinical Veterinary Advisor (St. Louis, MO: Mosby Elsevier, 2007) pp. 713-4.
“Snuffles”, otitis interna, and subcutaneous abscesses in rabbits are most commonly caused by which infectious organism?
Pasteurella multocida.
REFERENCE:
Deeb BJ. Respiratory disease and pasteurellosis. In Quesenberry KE, Carpenter JW, eds. Ferrets, Rabbits, and Rodents, 2nd ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2004) pp. 172-82.
Several dairy cows are moderately lame and have decreased milk production. On the skin proximal to the interdigital space you see multiple wartlike growths, mostly on the plantar aspect of the hind feet. What is your primary differential diagnosis?
Papillomatous digital dermatitis (foot warts or hairy heel warts)
What is the most common cause of macrocytosis?
Reticulocytosis, tipically as part of a regenerative anemia.
In the “OVSYNCH” system for timed artificial insemination of cattle, the second dose of gonadotropin releasing hormone is given to:
A. Assist in early corpus luteum formation
B. Destroy any luteal tissue
C. Recruit a new follicular wave
D. Stimulate ovulation
D. Stimulate ovulation
Pursley JR. Bello NM. Ovulation synchronization strategies in dairy cattle using PGF2a and GRH. In Youngquist RS, Threlfall WR, eds. Current Therapy in Large Animal Theriogenology 2 (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 20077) pp. 286-93.
Atenolol is a beta-1 selective antagonist drug. Therefore, where in the body is it’s targeted site of action?
Ten heart.
A dog with pulmonary lesions also has extensive periosteal reaction and proliferation of both humeri. What is this condition called?
Hypetrophic osteopathy (formerly called hypetrophic pulmonary osteoathropathy, or Marie’s disease)
A 2-year-old stallion rears and falls backwards. Afterwards, the horse is progressively ataxic. This is a common presentation for a fracture of which bone?
Basisphenoid.
Pease AP. The equine head. In Thrall DE, ed. Textbook of Veterinary Diagnostic Radiology 5th ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2007) p. 170.
What does measuring the anogenital distance tell you in a juvenile rat?
Gender.
Hillyer EV, Queensberry KE. Ferrets, Rabbits and Rodents (Philadelphia, PA: WB Saunders, 1997) p. 299.
How would you confirm a tentative diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?
Identify the presence of serum acetylcholine receptor antibodies; edrophonium (Tensilon®) testing is considered obsolete
Platt SR, Shelton GD. Exercise intolerance, collapse and paroxysmal disorders: myasthenia gravis: immune-mediated. In Platt SR, Olby NJ, eds. BSAVA
Manual of Canine and Feline Neurology (Quedgeley, Gloucester, UK: BSAVA, 2004) p. 287.
What are the vector and the causative organism of salmon poisoning in dogs?
Vector: Nanophyteus salmincola;
Organism: Neorickettsia helmintheoca
Peterson PB. Salmon poisoning. In Côté E, ed. Clinical Veterinary Advisor (St. Louis, MO: Mosby Elsevier, 2007) pp. 981-2.
Every January for the past 3 years, an 8 year-old Boxer in Minnesota has developed bilaterally symmetrical hair loss over the caudal lateral thorax and abdomen, histológico abnormalities include truncated, keratin-filled primary and secondary hair follicles. What is the diagnosis?
ANSWER:
Canine recurrent flank alopecia. The seasonal occurrence in winter and higher prevalence north of the 45th parallel suggest that photoperiod plays a role in this disorder.
REFERENCE:
Ginn PE, Mansell JEKL, Rackich PL. Skin and appendages. In Maxie MG, ed. Jubb, Kennedy, and Palmer’s Pathology of Domestic Animals, 5th ed (St.
Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2007) p. 636.
A Siberian husky presents with photophobia, blepharospasm, conjunctivitis, and skin lesions consisting of depigmentation, erythema and crusting of the dorsal muzzle, periobital region, plenum nasale and lips. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Uveodermatologic syndrome (Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada-like syndrome)
REFERENCE:
Gross TL, Ihrke PJ, Walder EJ, Affolter VK. Lichenoid diseases of the dermis. In Gross TL, Ihrke PJ, Walder EJ, Affolter VK, eds. Skin Diseases of the Cat and Dog. Clinical and
Histopathologic Diagnosis, 2nd ed (Oxford, UK: Blackwell Science, 2005) р. 266.
The migrating larva of this parasite can cause thrombosis of mesenterio arteries in horses.
Steongylus vulgaris.
Van Vleet JF, Ferrands VJ. Cardiovascular system. In McGavin MD, Zachary JF, eds. Pathologic Basis of Veterinary Disease, 4th ed (St. Louis, MO: Elsevier Saunders, 2007) pp. 602-6.
______________ is the major intracellular cation and ____________ is the major extracellular cation.
Potassium (K+) and Sodium (Na+)
Why May excessive handling of fish lead to heavier external infections with pathogens and possible life threatening ulcerations in the skin?
Excessive handling disrupts the mucous layer of the epidermis which protects it from the environment.
REFERENCE:
Shephard KL. Functions for fish mucus. Reviews in Fish Biology and Fisheries 4: 401-29, 1994.
Placentitis in the mare is commonly a result of
A. Ascending infection through the cervix
B. Hematogenous spread of bacteria from the gastrointestinal tract
C. Primary infection of the fetus that spreads to the placenta tissues
D. Septicemia
A. Ascending infection through the cervix
Troedsson MHT, Macpherson ML. Placentitis. In McKinnon AO, Squires EL, Vaala WE, et al., eds. Equine Reproduction, 2nd ed (Ames, IA: Wiley-Blackwell, 2011) pp. 2359-67.
Normal bird droppings consist of feces and white liquid. What is the name of the liquid and what gives it the white color?
Urates. Uric acid gives them their color.
Dorrenstein GM. Physiology of the urogenital system. In Altman RB, Clubb SL, Dorrenstein GM, Quesenberry K, eds. Avian Medicine and Surgery (Philadelphia, PA: Saunders, 1997)
Which zoonotic skin mite causes profuse scaling, alopecia (tioically in the Inter scapular region), and variable degrees of pruritus in rabbits?
Cheytiella spp. mites (“walking dandruff”)
Oglesbee B. Cheyletiellosis (fur mites). In Oglesbee BL, ed. Blackwell’s 5-Minute Veterinary Consult: Small Mammal, 2nd ed (Ames, IA: Wiley-Blackwell, 2011) pp. 370-1.
What is the maximum rate of decrease in plasma sodium levels during the treatment of chronic (>24h) severe hypernatremia?
8-12 mEq/l/day (or 0.5 mEq/kg/h); a more rapid rate of correction risks cerebral edema
Goldkamp C, Schaer M. Hypernatremia in dogs. Comp Cont Ed Pract Vet 29: 148-62, 2007.
Which 2 coccidia species are responsible for hemorrhagic diarrhea in cattle?
Eimeria bovis and Eimeri zuernii
Daugschies A, Najdrowski M. Eimeriosis in cattle: current understanding. J Vet Med B 52: 417-27, 2005.
This drug can be given by subcutaneous injection to a female 5 minutes before neonates are allowed to suckle to encourage milk letdown following cesarean section.
Oxytocin.
Gartley C, Halling K. Dystocia and care of the newborn. In Mathews KA, ed. Veterinary Emergency and Critical Care Manual, 2nd ed (Guelph, ON: Lifelearn, 2006) pp. 751-5.
What is the diagnostic purpose of placing a rebreather bag over the mouth of a horse?
Optimizes detection of abnormal lung sounds by increasing tidal volumen and thereby the velocity of air flow in the large airways.
Radostits OM, Gay CC, Hinchcliff KW, Constable PD. Veterinary Medicine, 10th ed (St. Louis, MO: Elsevier Saunders, 2007) p. 476.
Name 2 differences that may be seen in the radiographic appearance of left heart failure in cats as opposed to dogs.
ANSWER:
There may be a more patchy distribution to pulmonary edema in cats, cats can have pulmonary arterial and venous enlargement, and cats may develop pleural effusion with left heart failure.
REFERENCE:
Bahr RJ. Heart and pulmonary vessels. In Thrall DE, ed. Textbook of Veterinary Diagnostic Radiology, 5th ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2007) pp. 582-4.
Restoring euvolemia from hypovolemia can take 24-48 hours under optimal circumstances. Name 3 causes for failure to achieve euvolemia in this time period despite fluid therapy.
ANSWER:
1) calculation errors, 2) underestimation of deficit, 3) ongoing losses greater than estimated, 4) too-rapid infusion with consequent diuresis, 5) mechanical problem with fluid delivery (pump failure, kinked or extravasated catheter, etc.)
REFERENCE:
Mathews K Fail
lical Care, 2nd ed Guaig
Name 2 causative agents of systemic fungal diseases most commonly seen in the Missouri, Mississippi, and Ohio River valleys of the US.
Histoplasma capsulatum and Blastomyces dermatitidis
A young cat in a single-cat household that stalks its owner, and bites their hands and feet when moving, is said to be exhibiting what type of aggression?
Play aggression
Landsberg G, Hunthausen W, Ackerman L. Feline aggression. In Landsberg G, Hunthausen W, Ackerman L, eds. Handbook of Behavior Problems of the Dog and Cat, 2nd ed
(Philadelphia, PA: Saunders, 1997) pp. 427-53.
What is meant by the ALARA principle in radiation safety?
The concept of limiting exposure of radiation workers to a level As Low As Reasonably Achievable.
REFERENCE:
Thrall DE, Widmer WR. Physics of diagnostic radiology, radiation protection, and darkroom theory. In Thrall DE, ed. Textbook of Veterinary Diagnostic Radiology, 5th ed (St. Louis,
MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2007) p. 4.
What is the primary force counteracted by the presence of an intramedullary pin in a transverse femoral fracture?
Bending.
Roe S. Internal fracture fixation. In Slatter D, ed. Textbook of Small Animal Surgery, 3rd ed (Philadelphia, PA: Saunders Elsevier, 2003) pp. 1798-818.
Name 2 classes of antibiotics that have superior penetration of prostatic tissue.
ANSWER:
Fluoroquinolones, potentiated sulfas; +/- macrolide (erythromycin), +/- lincosamide (clindamycin), +/- chloramphenicol
REFERENCE:
Barsanti JA. Genitourinary infections. In Greene CE, ed. Infectious Diseases of the Dog and Cat, 3rd ed (St. Louis, MO: Elsevier, 2006) p. 953.
Methicilin- resistant Staphylococcus aeureus infections have been most commonly identifícated in which 2 large animal species?
Horse and pig
What is the mechanism by which von Willebrand factors enables blood clotting?
Platelet - collagen binding.
Brooks MB. Von Willebrand disease. In Côté E, ed. Clinical Veterinary Advisor (St. Louis, MO: Mosby Elsevier, 2007) pp. 1160-2.
What is the most common hepatic neoplasm in ferrets?
Lymphoma.
The right adrenal gland in the ferret is closely associated with which large vessel?
Caudal vena cava.
Brown SA. Basic anatomy, physiology, and husbandry. In Quesenberry KE, Carpenter JW, eds. Ferrets, Rabbits, and Rodents, 2nd ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2004) pp. 2-12
Why is heparin the preferred anticoagulant in birds and reptiles as opposed to EDTA?
ANSWER:
The blood from some birds and reptiles hemolyzes when collected in EDTA.
REFERENCE:
Meyer DJ, Harvey JW. Hematology procedures. In Veterinary Laboratory Medicine, 3rd ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2004) pp. 14-26.
What is the most likely cause for a budgerigar presenting with an overgrown beak with characteristic honeycomb pattern?
Knemidocoptes spp. mite infestation.
Clinical Avian Medicine. Gel is S.
What is the parasiticide of choice for treatment of Knemidokoptes infestation in the avian patient?
Ivermectin.
Clinical Avian Medicine. Schmidt RE.
Which common cause of diarrhea do owners of ferrets often refer to as a “green slime disease”?
Epizootic catarrhal enteritis (ECE)
Oglesbee BL. Epizootic catarrhal enteritis. In Oglesbee BL, ed. The 5-Minute Veterinary Consult: Ferret and Rabbit (Ames, IA: Blackwell Publishing, 2006) pp. 50-2.
In reptiles, what is the most common location of uroliths (urinary bladder vs. kidneys) and what is the typical mineral composition?
ANSWER:
Urinary bladder (virtually never renal); urate salts (virtually 100%)
REFERENCE:
Mader DH. Calculi urinary. In Mader DR, ed, Restile Medicine and Sursery, 2nd elSt. Louis. MO: Saunders Elsevier 2006) pp.763-71.
In birds, dysfunction of which body system is most likely to cause green urates?
ANSWER:
Hepatic. Green, bile-stained rates may be observed in feces during liver disease. Birds lack biliverdin reductase and form biliverdin instead of bilirubin as the primary breakdown product of heme.
REFERENCE:
Bain PJ. Liver. In Latimer KS, Mahaffey EA, Prasse KW, eds. Duncan & Prasse’s Veterinary Laboratory Medicine: Clinical Pathology, 4th ed (Ames, IA: Blackwell Publishing lowa State University Press, 2004) p. 201.
Which protozoan parasite is associated with vestibular disease in rabbits?
Encephalitozoon cuniculi
REFERENCE:
Oglesbee BL. Head tilt. In Oglesbee BL, ed. The 5-Minute Veterinary Consult Ferret and Rabbit (Ames, IA: Blackwell Publishing, 2006) pp. 270-2.
While you are handling a gecko, a large portion of its skin suddenly detaches and remains in your hands. What is the most likely cause?
ANSWER:
Normal defense/escape mechanism (not indicative of nutritional, endocrine, or other similar disease)
REFERENCE:
Lock BA. Behavioral and morphologic adaptations. In Mader DR, ed. Reptile Medicine and Surgery, 2nd ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2006) pp. 163-79.
What does the anticlinal space refer to and where is it found in the cat and dog?
It is It is the most narrow thoracic intervertebral disk space. It is found between the 10th and 11th thoracic vertebrae (the 11th thoracic vertebra is the anticlinal vertebra).
How can you explain that hyperlactatemic calves have a normal blood lactate measurement?
They predominantly have high circulating d-lactate levels, whereas analyzers measure l-lactate.
What are two common differential diagnosis for multiple homogenous gray-white nodules in the kidney of a cat?
Lymphoma and feline infectious peritonitis.
Does an animal with paresis, hyperreflexia, and diffuse atrophy that is mild and slow to develop have upper or lower motor neuron disease of the affected area?
Upper motor neuron disease.
Adequate renal concentrating ability is presumed to exist if the urine specific gravity is greater than value in dogs?
1.030
This coronaviral disease of chickens produces respiratory signs, often followed by renal disorders (with pale, swollen kidneys) and reproductive dysfunction.
Infectious bronchitis.
Advanced stages of this disease in adult cattle may cause lethargy, weakness, emaciation, “pipe stream” diarrhea, hypoproteinemia, and intramandibular edem (“bottle jaw”).
Johne’s disease (Mycobacterium avium subespecies paratuberculosis)
Which organism is known for causing abortion “storms” in sheep?
Campylobacter fetus subspecies fetus
When obtaining a blood sample via venipuncture, no more than ______% of a bird’s body weight should be collected.
1%
What is the mechanism of action of lactulose, by which it helps prevent hepatic encephalopathy?
Traps ammonia in the colon, reducing it to ammonium (excreted in feces rather than diffusing through colon wall and circulating systemically, causing encephalopathic effects).
Dogs are the main domestic reservoir for which zoonotic agent transmitted by fly vector?
Leishmania infantum, the causative agent of visceral leishmaniasis.
REFERENCE:
Dantas-Torres F. The role of dogs as reservoirs of Leishmania parasites, with emphasis on Leishmania (Leishmania) infantum and Leishmania (Viannia) braziliensis. Vet Parasitol 149: 139-46, 2007.
What is a species-specific characteristic of the leukogram of cattle and sheep?
The number of lymphocytes exceeds the. Number of neutrophils in healthy animals.
Morris DD. Alterations in the leukogram. In Smith BP, ed. Large Animal Internal Medicine, 3rd ed (St. Louis, MO:
Mosby, 2002) pp. 425-6.
Phenobarbital therapy classically can cause failure of which organ?
The liver.
Describe the classic serum biochemical abnormalities in an untreated foal with uroperitoneum.
Hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hyperkalemia and azotemia.
Divers J. Urinary system disorders in the foal. In Smith BP, ed. Large Animal Internal Medicine, 3rd ed (St. Louis,
MO: Mosby, 2002) p. 849.
Wha are treatment options for fibrosarcoma in a dog?
Surgical resection, radiation therapy, and
chemotherapy may all be appropriate, depending on the location of the tumor, presence or absence of
metastasis, availability of treatment modalities and client wishes and finances.
REFERENCE:
Farrelly J. Fibrosarcoma. In Côté E, ed. Clinical Veterinary Advisor (St. Louis, MO: Mosby Elsevier, 2007) pp. 390-1.
Which other 2 body systems besides the central nervous system may be affected in encephalitozoonosis in rabbits?
Renal and ophthalmic.
Oglesbee BL. Encephalitozoonosis. In Oglesbee BL, ed. The 5-Minute Veterinary Consult: Ferret and Rabbit (Ames,
IA: Blackwell Publishing. 2006) pp. 238-40.
What is the most common cause of chylothorax in the feline patient?
Idiopathic chylothorax
Norsworthy GD. Chylothorax. In Norsworthy GD, Crystal MA, Grace SF, Tilley LP, eds. The Feline Patient, 3rd ed (Ames, IA: Blackwell Publishing, 2006) pp. 42-4.
Lymphoplasmocytic infiltration of peripheral and central nerve is a characteristic of which common avian gastrointestinal disease?
Pro ventricular dilatation disease (PDD)
Gelis S. Evaluating and treating the gastrointestinal system. In Harrison GJ, Lightfoot TL, eds. Clinical Avian Medicine (Palm Beach, FL: Spix, 2006) p. 429.
A patient has an intraocular pressure of 7mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis - normal, uveitis, or glaucoma?
Uveitis (<10mmHg) (normal 10-30mmHg; glaucoma > 30mmHg)
Martin CL. Uveitis. in Coté E, ed. Clinical Veterinary Advisor (St. Louis, MO: Elsevier г Mosty. 2007) p. 1134
The “round ligament of the liver” is a remnant of which fetal structure?
Umbilical vein.
Dyce KM, Sack WO, Wensing CJG. Textbook of Veterinary Anatomy, 3rd ed (Philadelphia, PA: Saunders, 2002) p
249.
What is the clinical manifestation of horses infected with Brucella abortus?
“Poll evil” or “fistulous withers” (fistulous tracts originating from the atlantal or supraspinous bursae, respectively)
REFERENCE:
Sellon DC. Brucellosis. In Wilson DA, ed. Clinical Veterinary Advisor: the Horse (St. Louis, MO: Mosby Elsevier,
2012) рр. 70-80.
What are the major inhibitors of parathyroid hormone (PTH) synthesis and secretion?
Increased plasma calcium and increased levels of vitamin D3 (1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol)
Visser ‘t Hooft K, Drobatz KJ, Ward CR. Hypophosphatemia. Comp Cont Ed Pract Vet 27: 900, 2005.
What is the earliest erythrocyte-specific precursor in the bone marrow?
Rubriblast
Brockus CW. Erythrocytes. In Latimer KS, ed. Duncan & Prasse’s Veterinary Laboratory Medicine: Clinical Pathology, 5th ed (Ames, IA: Wiley-Blackwell, 2011) р. 9.
Chickens in a crowded, poorly ventilated henhouse show respiratory signs.
Necropsy reveals pneumonia, pleuritis, sequestered necrotic lung lesions, and caseous arthritis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Fowl cholera (Pasteurella multocida infection)
What is the name of the infectious stage of the Chlamydophila psittaci organism?
Elementary body.
Tully TN. Update on Chlamydophila psittaci: a short comment. In Harrison GJ, Lightfoot TL, eds. Clinical Avian Mediane (Palm Beach, FL: Spix Publishing, 2006) pp. 679-680.
An adult pig carcass shows emaciation, dehydration, and fecal staining. The dominant lesion is a diffuse colitis, with sharp demarcation at the cecum (no small intestinal lesion). Histologically, spirochete organisms are seen in the colonic crypts. What is the diagnosis?
Swine dysentery (Brachyspira hyodysenteriae infection)
REFERENCE:
Hampson DJ, Felistrôm C, Thomson JR. Swine dy
itery, In Straw BE, Zimmerman JJ, D’Allaire S, Taylor DJ, eds. Diseases of Swine, 9th ed (Ames, IA:
Wiley-Blackwell, 2006) pp. 785-805
Which blood type is considered the universal canine donor?
Dog erythrocyte antigen (DEA) 1.1, 1.2, 3, 4, 5, and 7 negative. For practical purposes, DEA 1.1 negative is considered sufficient by some clinicians.
REFERENCE:
Abrams-Ogg A. Practical blood transfusion. In Day MJ, Mackin A, Littlewood JA, eds. Manual of Canine and Feline Haematology and Transfusion Medicine (Quedgely, Gloucester: BSAVA, 2000) pp. 263-303.
This cause of stranguria in the male chinchilla is more common in stud animals.
Paraphimosis, also known as fur-ring
Donnelly TM. Disease problems of chinchillas. In Quesenberry KE, Carpenter JW, eds. Ferrets, Rabbits, and Rodents, 2nd ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2004) pp. 255-65.
Calving paralysis causes abduction and flexión of both hind limbs in cattle due to parturient trauma of which paired nerve?
The obturator nerves; alternatively, if the cow’s fetlocks also are flexed, peroneal paralysis should be suspected.
REFERENCE:
Mayhew IGJ. Large Animal Neurology, 2nd ed (Ames, IA: Wiley-Blackwell, 2009) p. 309.
Which organism is most likely to be cultured from canine pyometra?
Escherichia coli
What is the most common mineral composition of uroliths isolated from feline kidneys and ureter?
Calcium oxalate.
What is the most common histologic diagnosis in feline in feline mammary tumors?
Adenocarcinoma
Hedlund CS. Surgery of the reproductive and genital systems. In Fossum TW et al, eds. Small Animal Surgery. 3rd ed (St. Louis, MO: Mosby Elsevier,
2007) р. 730.
Which common disease of reptiles results from prolonged deficiency of dietary calcium or vitamin D3?
Nutritional metabolic bone disease (also known as rickets or hypovitaminosis D)
Name the 4 stages involved in the healing process of a skin graft.
1- Adherence (starts within the first 8 hours post-op), 2- Plasmatic imbibition (maximum about 48 to 72 hours after grafting), 3-Inoculation, 4- Penetration and ingrowth of new blood vessels
Intussusceptum, intussuscipiens : which is on the inside, and which is on the outside?
An intussusception has an invaginated intussusceptum, surrounded by the intussuscipiens.
Washabau RJ, Holt DE. Diseases of the large intestine. In Ettinger SJ, Feldman EC, eds. Textbook of Veterinary Internal Medicine, 6th ed (St. Louis, MO:
Elsevier Saundela 2005) p. 1400.
Which type of anemia tends to have the most pronounced regenerative response - hemorrhagic of hemolytic?
Hemolytic (iron from hemolyzed erthrocytes is more readily available for erythropoiesis than is storage iron or hemosiderin)
REFERENCE:
Brockus CW. Erythrocytes. In Latimer KS, Mahaffey EA, Prasse KW, eds. Duncan & Prasse’s Veterinary Laboratory Medicine, 5th ed (Ames, IA: Wiley-Blackwell, 2011) p. 30.
Pneumovagina in the mare is associated with chronic inflammation and infection of the reproductive tract. It is associated with: A) the long vaginal tract in large mares, B) a wide pelvis, C) excessive body condition, D) poor perineal conformation.
Congenital hydrocephalus
A dog has seizures and hyperthermia. The owner recently “treated” their yard due to snail infestation. What is the likely toxin?
Metaldehyde.
Puschner B. Metaldehyde. In Peterson ME, Talcott PA, eds. Small Animal Toxicology, 2nd ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2006) pp. 830-9.
How many teeth does the adult cat have?
30 (upper: 3 incisors, 1 canine, 3 premolars, 1 molar each side; lower:
same except 2 premolars instead of 3)
REFERENCE:
de Lahunta A, Habel RE. Applied Veterinary Anatomy (Philadelphia, PA: Saunders, 1986) p. 15.
Which canine parasite is a major cause of abortion among dairy cattle?
Neospora caninum.
Which clinical sign of Horner’s syndrome differentiates horses from cattle?
Horses sweat (ipsilateral to the affected side); cattle do not.
George LW. Diseases presenting principally with brainstem and cranial nerve dysfunction. In Smith BR, ed. Large Animal Internal Medicine, 3rd ed (St.
Louis, MO: Mosby, 2002) pp. 955-6.
The quarterhorse sire “Impressive” is associated with which heritable muscle disorder?
Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP)
MacLeay JM. Disorders of the musculoskeletal system. In Reed SM, Bayly WM, Sellon DC, eds. Equine Internal Medicine, 2nd ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2004) pp. 494-7.
Which equine disorder is also known as “shaker foal syndrome”?
Botulism
This zoonotic, Gram-positive rod can cause cutaneous lesions and fatal systemic illness, and necropsy of affected animals is discouraged to avoid release of infective spores.
Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
Anticoagulant rodenticides inhibit the activation of all these coagulation factors with the exception of? II, III, VII, IX, or X.
III
Which 3 ingredients account for close to 90% of all adverse food reactions in cats?
Beef, dairy products, fish
Roudebush P. Guilford WG, Shanley KJ. Adverse reactions to food. In Hand MS, Thatcher CD, Remillard RL, eds. Small Animal Clinical Nutrition, 4th ed (Topeka, KS: Mark Morris Institute, 2000) pp. 431-53.
If a cow does not have traumatic reticuloperitonitis (TRP), how should she respond to a withers pinch test?
Extensión of the back (versus flexion/hunching if TRP is present)
REFERENCE:
Ogilvie T. Large Animal Internal Medicine (Baltimore, MD: Lippincott, 1998) p. 55.
If you are looking for Sarcoptes mites, do you perform a deep or superficial skin scraping?
Superficial
A male llama shows signs of colic and posturing to urinate, but no urine is voided. On a serum biochemistry profile, you identify an elevation in BUN and creatinine. What is the most likely cause of these clinical findings?
Obstruction of the urethra - urolithiasis. In most livestock species, this condition usually occurs in castrated animals; however, in camelids, intact males are most commonly affected.
REFERENCE:
Fowler ME. Medicine and Surgery of Camelids, 3rd ed (Ames, IA: Wiley-Blackwell, 2010) pp. 160-2.
How is a mirror image artifact created in diagnostic ultrasound?
Sound bounces off a strong, smooth surface such as the diaphragm, “reflecting” the pulse to another tissue interface which the ultrasound system calculates to be beyond the first, and this is where it appears on the scan (e.g., a “second” gallbladder appearing cranial to the diaphragm).
REFERENCE:
Aldrich JE. Basic physics of ultrasound imaging. Crit Care Med 2007, 35(5): 5131-7.
Pigs in modern, intensive production units are weaned at approximately which age:
A. 3 weeks (range 3-4)
B. 4 weeks (range 4-5)
C. 5 weeks (range 5-6)
D. 6 weeks (range 6-7)
3 weeks (range 3-4)
An owner states that her adult rabbit begins to eat and then stops after only a few bites. There is hypersalivation. You reach for your otoscope for what reason?
To examine the caudal part of the oral cavity. When overgrown, dental malocclusion due to excessively long molars and premolars produces these characteristic signs.
REFERENCE:
Chen S. Quesenberry KE. Rabbits. In Birchard SJ, Sherding RG, eds. Saunders Manual of Small Animal Practice, 3rd ed (St. Louis, MO: Elsevier Saunders, 2006) p. 1872.
What are examples of animals that are referred to as celonias?
Chelonias are the group that includes turtles, terrapins, and tortoises.
Why is the use of chloramphenicol prohibited in food animals?
Chloramphenicol has been associated with the development of a non-dose related aplastic anemia in people.
REFERENCE:
Payne M. Extralabel use of medications in food animals. In Smith BP, ed. Large Animal Internal Medicine, 4th ed (St. Louis, MO: Mosby Elsevier, 2009) p. 1520.
Ionizing radiation is used to create an image in radiography. Which one of the following choices lists another diagnostic modality that uses ionizing radiation?
Computed tomography
Magnetic resonance imaging
Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
Ultrasonography
Bronchoscopy
Answer: In computed tomography (CT) ionizing radiation is used to create an image.
During a CT scan, an x-ray beam passes transaxially through the patient. X-ray attenuation (drop off) is measured at sequential sites in a segment of the patient’s
anatomv.
A computer reconstructs the data into a cross-sectional image viewed on a monitor. Computed tomography provides better spatial resolution and radiographic contrast compared to standard radiography. Patients must remain still for a long period of time, necessitating heavy sedation or general anesthesia to achieve proper positioning without motion artifact. Therefore, CT may be too risky in unstable patients.
How long is the gestation period of sheep and goats?
5 months
4 months
7 months
3 months
6 months
5 months.
Sheep and goats have a 5-MONTH gestation. Estrus cycling begins as days get shorter in temperate North America (as winter approaches), so if they get bred in fall this year, they lamb/kid in spring NEXT year.
Basic questions on estrous cycle and gestation come up over and over, so commit them to memory for the major animals at LEAST (cow, horse, dog, cat, sheep/goat, pig).
What is the function of the gizzard in the chicken?
Allows predigestion of seeds and grasses similar to cud chewing in cattle
Avian version of gall bladder
Glandular stomach
Grinding function of similar to teeth
Diverticulum (pouch) in the esophagus
Answer: Grinding function of similar to teeth. The gizzard (also called the ventriculus), is the muscular stomach that contains grit and small rocks. It helps birds grind up hard seeds and other foods, in effect, acting like teeth.
The proventriculus is the glandular stomach in birds.
The crop is a diverticulum of the esophagus, used for temporary food storage that empties into the proventriculus. The purpose of the crop is to allow a bird to quickly swallow what food it can, then fly to safety and digest the meal at leisure.
In hand fed pediatric birds (usually valuable parrots), there a many potential problems possible with crop burn, crop puncture or proventricular impaction.
Which one of the following choices is the best test to diagnose a suspected brain tumor in dogs and cats?
Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry
Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
Magnetic resonance imaging
Nuclear scintigraphy
Myelography
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is superior to computerized tomography (CT) in the diagnosis of brain tumors.
Myelography is used to diagnose diseases of the spine and spinal cord.
Cerebrospinal fluid analysis may be abnormal in the presence of a brain tumor, but the changes are often nonspecific.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/neoplasia-of-the-nervous-system/neoplasia-of-the-nervous-system-in-animals#v3288940
Which statement about brucellosis is correct?
Affects cattle and horses, but not pigs
Brucella milk ring rest high false negatives
Serum agglutination at dilution 1:50 means cow is a reactor
Infected cows abort only once
Causes abortion in the first trimester
Answer: Infected cows abort only once. A cow infected with brucellosis typically aborts only once after exposure, in the second half of the gestation; later pregnancies and lactations appear normal.
The Brucella milk ring test is used to identify affected herds but has high false positives.
Serum agglutination at dilutions of 1:100 or more in nonvaccinated animals and of 1:200 in animals vaccinated between 4 and 12 months old are considered positive (reactors).
Brucellosis affects all the domestic animals including pigs, which have their own brucellosis organism, Brucella suis.
Anatomically, what is the correct order of the parts of the nephron, starting after the glomerulus?
Connecting segment, Proximal tubule, Collecting duct, Distal tubule
Collecting duct, Distal tubule, Proximal tubule, Loop of Henle
Distal tubule, Collecting duct, Loop of Henle, Proximal tubule
Proximal tubule, Loop of Henle, Distal tubule, Collecting Duct
Juxtaglomerular apparatus, Collecting duct, Distal tubule, Loop of Henle
Proximal tubule, Loop of Henle, Distal tubule, Collecting Duct
Here are the parts of the nephron, going from glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule (blood) to ureter (urine):
Glomerulus: Filters fluids, soluble materials from blood
Proximal tubule: Bulk reabsorption of filtered water, solutes (Na+, Cl-HCO3-, glucose, amino acids) back into blood. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors act here.
Loop of Henle: Creates and maintains the renal medullary hypertonicity gradient. Furosemide acts here.
Distal convoluted tubule: Helps regulate pH, Na+, Cl-reabsorption and dilution of tubule fluid. Thiazide diuretics (like chlorothiazide, hydrochlorothiazide) and aldosterone act here.
Collecting tubule/duct: Final regulation of water, urea, acid excretion.
Why would isoflurane be a good anesthetic choice in a patient with kidney and liver disease?
Isoflurane has a high solubility coefficient.
Isoflurane is a rapidly metabolized by the liver and kidneys.
Isoflurane can be used without a precision vaporizer.
Isoflurane is a primarily excreted via the lungs.
Isoflurane has a very high mean alveolar concentration (MAC) of 6%.
Isoflurane is a primarily excreted via the lungs.
Isoflurane is primarily excreted via the lungs. Only about 0.2% is removed via metabolism. Since metabolism is not required for removal, patients with liver or kidney disease can be anesthetized with isoflurane and recovery should not be prolonged. However, isoflurane and the other rewer inhalant anesthetics DO have some effects on the kidney or liver.
Decreased glomerular filtration and urine production can occur with inhalant aesthetics, and this can be exacerbated if hypotension occurs or if nephrotoxic drugs are used. Hepatic blood flow is usually maintained, but can also be impaired if hypotension develops.
Good anesthetic management with attention to blood pressure and oxygenation are essential to prevent most complications.
What is the cellular function of the nucleolus?
Chromosome attachment site
DNA repair
Steroid production
Nucleic acid sequestration
RNA synthesis
RNA synthesis
The nucleolus is the nuclear structure that transcribes RNA.
The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) uses ribosomes to synthesize proteins. The rough part refers to ribosomes embedded in the reticular wall, which piece nucleic acids together in strings to form polypeptide chains (proteins).
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) produces lipids and steroids (among other functions).
This image of a cardiac waveform shown below is from an electrocardiogram of horse that was recorded using Lead I with a base - apex setup.
Which of the following corresponds to atrial repolarization?
QRS wave, #3-5
P wave, #1
T wave, #6-7
A wave, #2
Q wave, #3
The A wave, #2, represents the repolarization period of the atria. During this time, the atrial myocardium is refractory to further depolarization while the cell membrane potential resets. This wave is usually not visible in ECGs of small animals since their heart rates are faster.
At the slower heart rates of horses, the extra time reveals this wave and produces the biphasic P wave as each atria depolarizes.
Although most of the cardiac output comes from ventricular contraction, the atrial volume atria is important during intense exercise. Horses with atrial fibrillation are not able to perform at high speed or intensity because of the loss of this ‘atrial kick!
What is the average feline gestation length?
60 days from breeding at unknown stage of estrus
63 days from breeding at ovulation
58-72 days from breeding at ovulation
About two months and two weeks
48-57 days from breeding at unknown stage of estrus
63 days from breeding at ovulation
Gestation in cats is about two months long-63 days from ovulation, or 64-69 days from breeding at an unknown stage of estrus.
Which one of the following choices is the correct description of an allergen?
Substance that provokes and allergy
Antigen found only in nasal secretions
An antibody specific to an allergic reaction
Substance produced by the body in response to pollen exposure
Produced in response to an irritant
Substance that provokes and allergy
An allergen is any substance that provokes an allergic reaction. This is another word for “antigen” used specifically when referring to allergy and hypersensitivity reactions.
In intradermal testing, the veterinarian injects dozens of allergens just under the first layer of skin (i.e., intradermally) to determine what an individual may be allergic to. Areas of swelling and redness are considered positive, areas that are flat and normal colored are considered negative.
A client is upset because half of his frogs have suddenly died after he recently changed out the habitat’s water.
What is the most appropriate next step?
Evaluate for fungal toxins.
Water quality analysis.
Humane euthanasia of remaining frogs, start with fresh stock.
Add tetracycline to tank once a week.
Full physical examinations on all surviving frogs.
Answer: Water quality analysis.
Water quality analysis will provide information on pH and levels of ammonia metabolites, chlorine, oxygen, etc. These are all critical factors in tank health. Buildup of ammonium and nitrate levels in the habitat of aquatic amphibians can lead to significant disease and death.
New tank syndrome is a buildup of ammonia metabolites due to lack of bacteria in new tanks (or right after all the water has been switched out). It can take up to 6 weeks for a new tank to become efficient in nitrogen metabolism.
In well-established aquariums, bacterial flora metabolizes ammonium to nitrite and nitrate. Nitrogen metabolite levels (e.g., ammonium, nitrate, and nitrite) must be weekly monitored in the habitat using a water-test kit.
What kind of problem may result in clear hyaline casts in the urine sediment of a dog?
Over hydration
Glomerular leakage
Pyelonephritis (kidney infection)
Chronic renal tubular degeneration
Renal hemorrhage
Answer: Glomerular leakage.
Look for hyaline casts (clear, semitransparent) with mild glomerular leakage.
Look for cellular casts (recognizable cells in cast) like sloughed epithelial cells, or red blood cells with renal hemorrhage, or white blood cells with pyelonephritis (kidney infection).
Waxy casts in a urine sediment are thought to be older versions of granular casts, and may indicate chronic to severe renal tubular degeneration. They are wide, blunt or square-ended, and opaque. You may also see granular casts (common, nonspecific, made of degenerating cells) or fatty casts in some cats.
Which one of the following plants can cause the problem seen in the following image?
Moldy sweet clover
Bracken fern, Equisetum spp.
Soybeans
Amaranthus spp., Chenopdium spp.
Senecio spp., Crotalaria spp., Smsinckia spp.
Moldy sweet clover
Bracken fern, Equisetum spp.
Soybeans
Amaranthus spp., Chenopdium spp.
Senecio spp., Crotalaria spp., Smsinckia spp.
A six-year old male intact Saint Bernard - mix dog is presented who was vaccinated by a veterinarian with an approved one-year inactivated monovalent rabies vaccine four years ago. This morning he was bitten by a racoon that was acting strangely. The owner is worried about rabies.
According to the most recent Compendium of Animal Rabies Prevention and Control, what is the recommended way to handle cases where a pet with out-of-date rabies vaccination is bitten by an animal that is potentially rabid?
Immediate vaccination: Confine 10 days for observation
Keep under owner control for 45 days; booster on 46th day
Immediate vaccination; Quarantine at approved facility for 45 days
Immediate vaccination; keep under owner control 45 days
Confine 10 days for observation; vaccinate after 10 days
Immediate vaccination; keep under owner control 45 days
According to the 2016 Compendium of Animal Rabies Prevention and Control, a dog or cat that has received at least one documented USDA-licensed rabies vaccination and is overdue for a booster should receive an immediate booster vaccination and be kept under the owner’s control and observed for 45 days for signs suggestive of rabies.
In general, both Canadian and U.S. guidance on rabies post exposure management conforms with Compendium guidelines.
A dead sheep from a large range flock in the Western US is presented for necropsy. The animal had a cough, occasional reluctance to move, and hemoptysis just before being found dead. Necropsy of the lungs (top) and the liver (bottom) reveals the following lesions.
What is the most likely cause of this findings?
Echinococcus granulosos
Fasciola hepatica
Spirocerca lupi
Cryptococcus neoformans
Trichostrongylus colubriformis
Echinococcus granulosos
These are the hydatid cysts of Echinococcus granulosus, a cestode (tapeworm) whose definitive hosts in North America are dogs, wolves, coyotes, foxes, and several other wild carnivores.
Echinococcosis is seen especially in range sheep in contact with wild or domestic dogs. Intermediate hosts include sheep, goats, cattle, pigs, horses, deer, PEOPLE, and some other animals.
The cysts are found in liver and lungs (occasionally in other organs and tissues) and can limit commercial use of affected carcasses or offal.
Click here to see the CDC’s information page on echinococcosis. Adult cestodes in the intestine of dogs do not usually cause clinical signs.
Clinical signs vary based on type of infection, age, underlying conditions, etc. and range from unthriftiness and malaise to intussusception or blockage of the intestine, emaciation, and seizures.
Dx in dogs: Identify proglottids or eggs in feces.
Rx in dogs: Praziquantel.
Which one of the following canine urine sediment findings is most commonly seen within six hours after ethylene glycol ingestion?
Calcium oxalate monohydrate (6-sided prisms/spindles)
Ammonium bitrate crystals (yellow - brown thorn apples)
Billirubin crystals (yellow - amber antlers)
Calcium carbonate crystals (dumbbells or balls with spokes)
Urate crystals (Amorphous)
Calcium oxalate monohydrate (6-sided prisms/spindles)
The preferred answer is calcium oxalate monohydrate (6-sided prisms/spindles “picket fences”), which can appear as early as 3 hours post-ingestion in cats and 6 hours post- in dogs.
Click here to see an image of “picket fence” calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals (image on right) on Cornell’s eClinPath website.
Bilirubin crystals can actually be seen in normal dogs (though they are NOT normal in other animals).
See also ethylene glycol toxicity, Merck, 9th ed.
A seven-year-old neutered male Rottweiler-mix dog from the Southern US in poor body condition presents with a one-month history of exercise intolerance, non-productive cough and heavy breathing.
The dog lives outside the house, last received routine vaccinations four years ago, and does not receive any other medications. Physical exam reveals mild cyanosis, ascites, temperature of 102.1oF, (38.9oC).
What is the most appropriate test to do to support the presumptive diagnosis?
Contrast angiography for patent ductus arteriosus.
Electrocardiogram for left heart failure.
Heartworm antigen test.
Complete blood count and blood chemistry panel.
Echocardiogram for dilated cardiomyopathy.
Answer: Heartworm antigen test.
The preferred answer is to test for heartworm disease. The history of outdoor living, in the South where Dirofilaria immitis-infected mosquitoes bite year-round, and the LACK of a history of preventative medication puts heartworm at the top of the DDX.
Patent ductus atreriosus (PDA) is more typically a young dog congenital abnormality that presents with exercise intolerance, coughing, stunted growth and a continuous machinery-type murmur, loudest on auscultation over the left craniodorsal cardiac base.
A client is using a ‘teaser bull’ to help detect when his cows go into heat, so that he knows when to introduce the bull to the cow.
How long is the bovine estrous cycle?
24 days
18 hours
17 days
21 days
Depends on day length
Answer: 21 days.
The bovine estrous cycle is 21 days long (range 18-24 days). Behavioral estrus itself (“heat”) lasts about 18 hours and breeding should occur from mid-estrus to about 6 hours after the end of estrus (in the case of artificial insemination).
What does an in-circuit manometer measure on an anesthetic machine?
Volume in the reservoir bag.
Pressure.
Percentage of gas entering the machine.
Level of anesthetic gas.
Oxygen flow rate.
Answer: pressure.
An in-circuit manometer determines the pressure within the patient circuit. A manometer is needed to perform pressure checks in the system, manual delivery of breaths, and visualization of the airway pressure. The American Animal Hospital Association provides this review on equipment preparation.
Which of the following statements regarding “foal heat diarrhea” is correct?
Due to the lack of the mar’s hormones in the milk, it does not happen in orphan foals raised on milk replacer
Oral metronidazole is the recommended treatment
Occurs in foals when they are 4-14 days old
Mares experience it during their first estrous cycle after foaling
Strongyloides westeri infection has been confirmed as the cause
Occurs in foals when they are 4-14 days old
Foal heat diarrhea is mild and self-limiting and occurs in foals about 4-14 days of age, coinciding with alterations in intestinal microbial flora, diet, and coprophagy.
It gets its name from the mare’s first estrus after foaling, termed “foal heat, which occurs around the same time.
Foal heat diarrhea is not infectious and also occurs in orphans and dam-raised foals so, in fact, it is not related to the mare’s estrous cycle.
No treatment is necessary in uncomplicated cases.
A six-year-old male neutered cat is presented with signs of urethral obstruction including unproductive stranguria, vocalizing, vomiting and progressively worsening depression. In addition to azotemia, which one of the following options best describes the most likely findings in this cat?
Hyperkalemia, acidosis, hyperphosphatemia, and tachycardia
Hyperkalemia, acidosis, hyperphosphatemia, and bradycardia
Hypokalemia, acidosis, hypophosphatemia, and bradycardia
Hypokalemia, alkalosis, hyperphosphatemia, and tachycardia
Hypokalemia, alkalosis, hypophosphatemia, and bradycardia
Hyperkalemia, acidosis, hyperphosphatemia, and bradycardia
Azotemic cats with complete urethral obstruction may also have hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, hyperphosphatemia, and bradycardia.
Hyperkalemia and hyperphosphatemia develop when renal excretory function is lost.
The azotemia is typically post-renal because it resolves with fluid diuresis once the urethral obstruction is cleared.
Acidosis develops from the accumulation of uremic acids.
Bradycardia is caused by the effects of hyperkalemia on cardiac pacemaker cell membranes.
What key advantage do the alpha - 2 agonists have over other sedatives?
Provide analgesia.
Reversible.
There is no advantage.
Able to be given orally.
Less expensive
Provide analgesia.
The alpha-2 agonists provide analgesia in addition to sedation, whereas other sedatives, such as acepromazine and diazepam, do not. Combining the alpha-2 agonists with opioids increases the duration of analgesia. The duration will vary based on the opioid used.
Dexmedetomidine can be reversed with atipamezole, while xylazine can be reversed with yohimbine. If these agents are fully reversed, their analgesic effects are also reversed. However, other sedatives’ effects can also be reversed (e.g., diazepam reversed with flumazenil), so this is not an advantage unique to alpha-2s.
Dr. Sandra Allweiler provides this list of Drugs used to Relieve Pain.
A rancher has some calves that have respiratory disease. He says he thinks they have “red nose”. What disease is he referring to?
Bovine viral diarrhea.
Moraxella bovis.
Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis.
Parainfluenza-3 virus.
Bovine respiratory syncytial virus.
Answer: Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis.
“Red nose” is the lay terminology for infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR) caused by bovine herpesvirus-1 (BHV-1). BHV-1 is associated with a number of syndromes: rhinotracheitis, vulvovaginitis, conjunctivitis, abortion, enteritis, and encephalomyelitis. Prevention with immunization is usually effective.
Moraxella bovis is a bacteria that causes infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis, which can also occur in sheep and goats.
A nine-year-old spayed female Irish Setter is presented with history of halitosis. On physical exam, the dog has a 2 cm raised friable gingival mass on the lingual aspect of the left fourth premolar tooth. Cytology shows cells with high mitotic figures and pleomorphism of the nucleus and nucleolus.
What is the diagnosis?
Odontoma.
Apical root abscess.
Papilloma.
Malignant melanoma.
Ameloblastoma.
Malignant Melanoma.
Malignant melanomas may be differentiated from benign lesions due to the high mitotic figures and pleomorphism of the nucleus and nucleolus.
Special stains may be warranted in cases of amelanosis.
Due to varied behavior and appearance, gingival growths should always be biopsied
before surgery.
What clinical signs are associated with toxicity due to ingestion of the plant in this image?
Posterior incoordination with urinary incontinence and cystitis, abortions
Gastric ulcers, colic, hematochezia
Bright red mucous membranes, tachycardia, rapid respiration, collapse, death
Convulsions, dyspnea, teratogenic effects in newborns (arthrogryposis)
Hemorrhages, hematuria, methemoglobinemia, cyanosis, subnormal temperature
The most common toxic cause of arthrogryposis in the calf or lamb is consumption of quiinozolidine alkaloids in Lupine spp. plants by pregnant dams. Adults that eat lupine may display inappetence, dyspnea, convulsions or death from respiratory paralysis.
If lupines become infected with a fungus (Phomopsis leptostromiformis), mycotoxic lupinosis can cause hepatic damage.
Which two chemicals are associated with mothball toxicity in dogs?
4-Iponeanol, paraquat (dichloride)
Acetochlor, atrazine
Paradichlorobenzene, naphthalene
Trichothecenes, sealaranone
Pentachlorophenol, fumonisin B1
Paradichlorobenzene, naphthalene
Mothball toxicity may be caused by old-fashioned napthalene-containing mothballs or from paradichlorobenzene-containing cakes, found in deodorizer cakes in diaper buckets, garbage cans and in bathrooms.
Typically a problem of dogs, ingestion of a single mothball can be toxic for a 30 pound (14 kg) dog, causing Gl signs and after 24-48 hours, hemolytic anemia and Heinz bodies (precipitated hemoglobin due to oxidant injury).
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4730306
Paradichlorobenzene is an organochlorine insecticide, mainly affecting the CNS. Animals present with tremors, salivation, ataxia and seizures.
Pentachlorophenol, paraquat (dichloride), acetochlor and atrazine are all toxic herbicides.
4-Ipomeanol (moldy sweet potato), fumonisin B1, trichothecenes and zealaraone (moldy corn) are all fungal toxins.
Remember that signs of moldy sweet potato poisoning (4-Ipomeanol) are indistiguishable from acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and edema (ABPEE, Fog fever), a relatively common cause of acute respiratory distress in cows, especially adult beef cattle.
Which choice contains mastitis-causing pathogens that are both considered to be contagious?
Streptococcus dysgalactiae, Klebsiella pneumonia
Mycoplasma bovis, Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus faecalis, Candida albicans
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Trueperella pyogenes
Streptococcus uberis, Escherichia coli
Answer: Mycoplasma bovis and Streptococcus agalactiae.
Mastitis pathogens are often characterized as either contagious or environmental based upon their abilities to adhere to the teat skin.
Contagious pathogens adhere and colonize the skin of the teat end, then grow slowly through the teat sphincter.
Contagious mastitis-causing bacteria include Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus dysgalactiae, Corynebacterium bovis and Mycoplasma bovis.
Most contagious mastitis transmission occurs when the cows are milking.
Contagious mastitis infections are long lived within the udder.
Control of contagious mastitis bacteria is based upon post milking teat dipping, milking hygiene, dry cow antibiotic therapy, and initiation of proper milking machine function.
Environmental mastitis-causing bacteria include gram-negative coliforms (like Escherichia coli, Klebsiella spp.and Pseudomonas spp) and Streptococcus uberis.
Most environmental mastitis transmission occurs when the cows are NOT milking.
Infections are usually short-lived within the udder.
The control of environmental mastitis pathogens is based on proper milking machine function, disinfecting teats prior to milking, and cleaning the animals’ intermilking environments.
Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus uberis and Streptococcus dysgalactiae overlap both categories and may be environmental or contagious.
Which of the following inhalant anesthetics is the least soluble?
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
Isoflurane
Halothane
Propofol
Answer Desflurane. Desflurane is the least soluble of the inhalant anesthetics available and therefore has the fastest induction and recovery times.
Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) is the minimum concentration of anesthetic in the alveolar gas that prevents a physical response in 50% of animals exposed to a surgical stimulus. It is a is a measure of anesthetic potency (inverse correlation).
Desflurane has the highest MAC at 7.2 in dogs, 9.8 in cats, and 7.6 in horses. Isoflurane has the lowest MAC of 1.2 in dogs, 1.63 in cats, and 1.31 in horses. Sevoflurane has an intermediate MAC of 2.1 in dogs and 2.58 in cats, and 2.31 in horses.
Inhalants with high potency have a lower MAC (need less drug to achieve anesthetic plane). These are also more soluble in blood and tissues; e.g., isoflurane is more soluble, desflurane is less soluble.
The requirement (%) for less soluble drugs is greater, but induction is much faster.
Anesthesia occurs only when the concentration of inhalant in the blood and alveoli are equal. Less soluble drugs achieve this equilibrium faster.
Since there is also less drug in the tissues, recovery is also faster compared to more soluble drugs. When the vaporizer is turned off, alveolar levels drop rapidly, followed by blood and tissue levels.
What is the vector of bluetongue?
Simulid flies (blackflies)
Phlebotomine sandflies
Argasid ticks
Culicoides spp midges
Dermacentor spp. Ticks
Answer: Cilicoides spp midges.
Biting midges of the genus Culicoides are the vector of bluetongue virus.
Bluetongue is almost exclusively seen in sheep, though white-tailed deer, pronghorn antelope and desert bighorn sheep in North America can be severely affected. Rare in cows. REPORTABLE.
Bluetongue causes high fevers, severe pulmonary edema leading to dyspnea and frothing from the nostrils, lameness due to coronitis, and dermatitis in sheep.
Bluetongue can also cause congenital defects (hydranencephaly - see ataxia and blindness at birth).
What is meconium?
Buttercup genus associated with toxicity
Umbilical / urachal discharge
Feces of the newborn
Calostrum before birth
Byproduct of hemoglobin degradation
Answer: Feces of the newborn.
The first feces passed after birth are called meconium - they are dark green and sticky.
Meconium is the thick and tarry accumulation of glandular secretions, swallowed amniotic fluid, and sloughed cells present at birth in the gastrointestinal tract.
In horses, the most common cause of colic in the newborn foal is meconium impaction.
Affected foals will swish their tail from side to side, roll, and strain to defecate. Most foals can be treated successfully with a warm, soapy water enema or an acetylcysteine retention enema.
Which one of these zoonotic pathogens is associated with the ingestion of undercooked beef?
Capillaria hepatica
Taenia saginata
Hymenolepis nana
Diplydium suis
Echinococcus granulosus
Answer: Taenia saginata.
Tania saginata, a cestode (tapeworm), can be found in undercooked beef.
The definitive host is humans. The intermediate hosts are cattle and other domestic or wild ruminants. Infected humans pass eggs in the feces which cattle can then ingest while grazing.
Oncospheres then migrate from the gastrointestinal tract of the cattle to the muscles where they form small cysts. Humans are infected by ingesting these cysts in undercooked meat.
Refs: The Merck Veterinary Manual online edition.
When do deciduous equine canine teeth (Dc) typically erupt?
1 month
They don’t
Present at birth
3 months
6 months
Answer: They don’t
This is a trick question: Deciduous equine canine teeth (Dc) DON’T ERUPT.
Permanent canine teeth are typically seen in most male horses by 4-5 years of age. References vary by about 6 months, but here is a good rule of thumb for permanent tooth eruption in horses: 11-2.5 yr, 12-3.5 yr, 13-4.5 yr, C-4-5 yr.
Note that canine teeth in horses are NOT THE SAME as wolf teeth. Wolf teeth are permanent FIRST PREMOLARS (P1) seen at 5-6 months in the upper arcade of 20-60% of horses.
Which factor would contribute to making an x-ray film come out too gray?
Prolonged exposure time
Vibration in the Pottet-Bucky diafragm
Uneven temperature in developing tanks
Excess scatter radiation
Static electricity
Answer: Excess scatter radiation.
Too much scatter (ie: from radiographing a thick body part more than 10 cm without a grid) can cause gray films.
Look more for uneven bands, reticulation on film when temperature in the tanks is uneven.
Static electricity production (from very low humidity) causes artifacts on the film (linear dots, tree pattern).
A light leak into the dark room, or accidentally turning on the lights while undeveloped film is out, would make a gray, fogged film.
- What is meant by the term “acute abdomen”?
Emergency surgery is required
Sudden onset of clinical signs attributable to the abdomen
Peritonitis
Ruptured bladder
Gastric distension and volvulus
An acute abdomen refers to sudden onset of clinical signs attributable to the abdomen. It may or may not be surgical.
Gastric distention and volvulus, peritonitis, and ruptured bladder are all potential causes
of an acute abdomen.
A 4-years-old Andalusian gelding is presented 3 days post-routine open castration performed in the field.
The owner is concerned about the amount of swelling in the inguinal region. The horse is eating, urinating, and defecating normally. Physical exam parameters are within normal limits. The scrotal region and prepuce have moderate swelling with no drainage from the incisions.
What is the appropriate course of action?
Aseptic aspiration of this hydrocele, tell owner if it recurs surgery is indicated
Open and stretch the incisions, systemic NSAIDs, increase exercise
Institute systemic antimicrobials and antiinflammatories, limit horse’s movement
Ultrasound to confirm inguinal hernia, place support bandage, refer immediately for surgery
Identify hemorrhage source, place crossing forceps, pack incision w/gauze
This horse has routine postoperative swelling and the appropriate course of therapy is to
open and stretch the incisions using sterile technique, administer systemic NSAIDs, and increase exercise to promote drainage.
Scrotal and preputial swelling and edema that peak at day 3-4 and resolve by day 10-12 are the most common complication following castration. In the absence of fever or significant pain/reluctance to move or urinate, the therapy noted above can be performed on the farm.
Between 20-38% of geldings experience a complication post-operatively. The 2nd-most common is hemorrhage. The most serious is eventration of intestine through the incision. Additional complications include peritonitis, penile damage, and hydrocele (occurs months to years later).
Which pair of drugs are both beta-adrenergic agonists?
Enalapril, Verapamil
Dopamine, Isoproterenol
Spironolactone, Pimobendan
Diltiazem, Digoxin
Epinephrine, Atenolol
Isoproteronol and dopamine are beta-adrenergic agonists and positive inotropes (increase cardiac contraction strength). Dobutamine and epinephrine are also beta- agonists.
Two other categories of positive inotropes are:
Cardiac glycosides (e.g., digoxin, digitoxin)
Phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitors (e.g., milrinone and amrinone)
Which of the following list of signs best describes the clinical presentation of hypomagnesemia in cattle?
Weakness, flaccid paralysis, tachycardia
Blindness, head pressing, maniacal excitement, death
Hyperexcitable, ataxia, convulsions, tetany
Wildly aberrant behavior ( “Bovine bonkers”)
Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation
Hyperexcitability, ataxia, convulsions, and tetany are the classic signs of hypomagnesemia (“grass tetany”) in cattle.
emergency Tx is IV Ca/Mg combo (like milk fever Tx).
If cow is already convulsing, it may be too late.
Hypomagnesemia is most common in early lactation cattle grazing lush green pastures.
To prevent relapse and/or occurence in herd mates, oral Mg salts should be added to the diet.
“Bovine bonkers” is a common name for ammoniated feed toxicity, which is related to nonprotein nitrogen (NP)/ammonia poisoning.
Which choice contains mastitis-causing pathogens that are both considered to be contagious?
Streptococcus dysgalactiae, Klebsiella pneumonia
Mycoplasma bovis, Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus faecalis, Candida albicans
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Trueperella pyogenes
Streptococcus uberis, Escherichia coli
Answer: Mycoplasma bovis and Streptococcus agalactiae.
Mastitis pathogens are often characterized as either contagious or environmental based upon their abilities to adhere to the teat skin.
Contagious pathogens adhere and colonize the skin of the teat end, then grow slowly through the teat sphincter.
Contagious mastitis-causing bacteria include Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus dysgalactiae, Corynebacterium bovis and Mycoplasma bovis.
Most contagious mastitis transmission occurs when the cows are milking.
Contagious mastitis infections are long lived within the udder.
Control of contagious mastitis bacteria is based upon post milking teat dipping, milking hygiene, dry cow antibiotic therapy, and initiation of proper milking machine function.
Environmental mastitis-causing bacteria include gram-negative coliforms (like Escherichia coli, Klebsiella spp.and Pseudomonas spp) and Streptococcus uberis.
Most environmental mastitis transmission occurs when the cows are NOT milking.
Infections are usually short-lived within the udder.
The control of environmental mastitis pathogens is based on proper milking machine function, disinfecting teats prior to milking, and cleaning the animals’ intermilking environments.
Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus uberis and Streptococcus dysgalactiae overlap both categories and may be environmental or contagious.
A four-year-old female spayed Labrador retriever is presented for a six-week history of a changed appearance to her nose. Exam reveals significant accumulation of thickened, hard material on the dorsal nasal planum that is cracking in some areas. The remainder of the exam is unremarkable. What is the medical term for this appearance?
Pityasis rosea
Parakeratosis
Cutaneous asthenia
Ichthyosis
Hypotrichosis
Parakeratosis is the term for abnormal keratinization of the skin, characterized by the accumulation of thickened (keratinized) material. Nasal parakeratosis is hereditary in Labrador retrievers; manage w/ long-term skin softeners (i.e., emollients).
Cutaneous ichthyosis is different - characterized by abnormal, hypertrophic epithelial proliferation, resulting in the accumulation of scale and dermal hyperkeratosis. Look for large, adherent scales over the body, which may also affect the foot pads and nasal planum.
Hypotrichosis is the presence of less hair than normal.
Cutaneous asthenia is the term for a group of syndromes (e.g., Ehler-Danlos syndrome) characterized by collagen defects.
Pityriasis rosea is a pustular psoriasiform dermatitis of piglets aged 8 - 14 wks. Typically appears as small erythematous papules which progress to form collarettes.
What is a common side effect of ketamine used for general anesthesia in cats?
Cardiac arrest
Laryngospasm
Hyperthermia
Dose-dependent respiratory depression
Eye stay open
When administering ketamine as an anesthetic agent in cats it is important to remember that the eyes typically remain open. Always apply ocular lubricant to any patient undergoing general anesthesia or sedation, but be particularly attentive to this detail with ketamine.
Remember, cats are vulnerable to laryngospasm during intubation, particularly if the intubation is difficult. You can help alleviate laryngospasm by spraying the larynx with 1-2% topical lidocaine solution prior to attempting intubation.
A four-year-old female spayed cocker spaniel is presentes with a one-day history of bleeding from gums. Exam reveals diffuse petechiation of the mucous membranes. There is hyphema OS and ecchymosis and petechiatuion on the inner pinnae. What is the most likely diagnosis?
https://zukureview.com/bcse/study-mode/take-test?question=10
Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
Von Willebrand disease
Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Hepatic insufficiency
This is immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (a.k.a. ITP), the most common cause of profound thrombocytopenia in dogs.
With ITP look for a platelet count <30,000/ML (often <10,000/ML) and normal coagulation parameters.
https://zukureview.com/node/100828
Most commonly idiopathic/primary, but a Dx of exclusion so rule out other causes of thrombocytopenia - e.g., vector-borne Dz, neoplasia.
Tx: Immunosuppression (e.g., prednisone, +/- cyclosporine, or other immunosuppressants). Consider one dose of IV vincristine to stimulate platelet release from the bone marrow. Dogs may require blood transfusion if significant blood loss.
Note: blood transfusion does not replace circulating platelets.
A six-month-old male Boston terrier is presented because he keeps having urinary accidents in the house. Physical examination reveals that the urethra opens caudal to its normal location, on the ventral surface of the penile shaft. What is the diagnosis?
Patent urachus
Ectopic ureter
Hypospadias
Intersex syndrome
Syringomyelia
Hypospadias is abnormal placement of urethral opening ventral and caudal to the normal position. This congenital abnormality is most common in male dogs (also seen in bulls), esp. Boston terriers.
Hypospadias is a developmental defect. Results from failure of fusion of the urethral grooves during phallus elongation. Treatment is surgical.
Intersex syndrome is a form of hermaphroditism, seen most often in polled goats.
Patent urachus is a failure of closure of the urachus (urinary excretion tube of neonates).
A mature horse is presented because she is bumping into things and is spooking a lot more frequently. She appears to be blind and is easily surprised when approached.
Physical exam reveals normal pupillary light reflexes (PLR) bilaterally but negative menace response bilaterally. No other cranial nerve deficits are noted.
Where is the lesion?
Oculomotor nerves (CN III)
Need more information
Optic chiasm
Cerebral corex
Bilateral retinas
Answer: Cerebral cortex.
This is cortical (a.k.a. central) blindness, due to damage in the occipital cortex of the cerebrum. Cortical blindness is characterized by loss of vision with normal direct and consensual PRs (because the eyes themselves, optic nerves, and their pathways are unaffected), and negative menace. It occurs with cerebral disease – e.g., hepatic encephalopathy in horses, polioencephalomalacia in ruminants, or ischemic stroke and tumors of the cerebrum in any species.
PLs require integrity of the retina (neural cells), optic nerves (CN I), optic chiasm, optic tracts, midbrain (Edinger-Westphal nucleus), parasympathetic fibers via the oculomotor nerve (CN III), ciliary ganglia, and the iridal sphincter musculature. The cerebral cortex is not a part of the PLR.
The menace response involves the retina, CN Il, the cerebrum, the cerebellum, and the facial nerve (CN VII).
How do rumen microorganisms benefit the cow?
Neither hurt nor help the cow
Stimulate production of enzymes that break down fats
Protect against ulceration, produce digestive gasses
Maintain acidic rumen pH to aid digestion
Digest high - fiber grass, synthesize protein
Answer: Digest high - fiber grass, synthesize protein.
Rumen microbes digest high-fiber grass and synthesize protein. Digestion of rumen microbial protein and dietary protein are the two key sources of proteins and essential amino acids in ruminants.
The cow and its microbes have a symbiotic ecosystem that efficiently turns grass into meat and milk protein. The rumen microbes digest plant material, turning it into into energy, protein, and more microbes. As microbes die, their protein-containing bodies are digested by the cow.
Which one of the following choices is the treatment for parturient paresis in cattle?
Calcium gluconate intravenously
Removal of the calf from the cow
Intramuscular and subcutaneous calcium
Calcium supplementation of the feed
Answer: Calcium gluconate intravenously.
Parturient paresis, or milk fever, is treated with intravenous (IV) calcium gluconate.
Lactating cows with milk fever have overwhelmed their body’s calcium stores in the production milk. Without calcium, the muscles in a cow cannot contract normally, the cow becomes weak and is unable to stand.
In contrast, dogs and cats become stiff or tetanic when their blood calcium gets too low after birth, a condition called eclampsia. Hypocalcemia alters the membrane potential of muscle such that it contracts more and more easily and eventually cannot relax. This is a life-threatening condition in all animals. However. IV Calcium is CARDIOTOXIC and must be administered carefully. Giving too much calcium too fast can cause arrhythmias and even cardiac arrest!
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth ed. pp. 702-3
Where is the proper site for semen deposition during artificial insemination in cattle?
Mid-cervix at the transverse folds
Posterior vaginal fornix
Anterior to the intercornual ligament
Uterine body, just past the interior cervical os
Uterine horn, anterior to the mesosalpinx
Answer: Uterine body, just past the interior cervical os.
The semen should be deposited in the uterine body just anterior to the cervical os. Deposition into the horn on the follicular side has produced higher conceptions than body deposition in some studies. However, other studies have not confirmed this.
Artificial insemination (Al) in cows should be done between the middle of estrus until 6 hours after estrus. This is described as the “am/pm rule” because cows observed beginning standing heat in the morning should be inseminated that afternoon.
Which choice is the best way to increase the amount of anesthetic gas present in the reservoir bag when managing inhalant anesthesia for a dog or cat?
Disconnect the animal from the circuit to allow room air to flow in.
Gently squeeze both sides of patient’s chest twice with open palms.
A quick push on the flush valve.
Turn down the vaporizer.
Increase the oxygen flow rate.
Answer: Increase the oxygen flow rate.
The best method to safely increase the volume of gas in the reservoir bag is to turn up the flow meter to increase the oxygen flow rate.
If the flush valve is used, only oxygen is used to fill the reservoir bag, with no anesthetic gas. This could allow the patient to enter a lighter plane of anesthesia and also has the potential of over-pressurizing the lungs.
Disconnecting the circuit is unsafe - it allows the gas in the reservoir bag to escape into the room without the benefit of a scavenger. Turning down the vaporizer would lighten the plane of anesthesia, but will not fill up the down the reservoir bag.
Clapping the chest walls is difficult with a fully draped surgical patient, and would have no effect on increasing the gas in the reservoir bag.
Porcine Pulmonary Edema (PPE) and equine leukoencephalomalacia are caused by which toxin?
Fumonisin
Macrocyclic trichothecenes
Fescue mycotoxins
Aflatoxin
Slaframine
Answer: Fumonisin.
Fumonisin is a Fusarium spp. mycotoxin associated with moldy corn. In equids, look for CNS disease (equine leukoencephalomalacia). In pigs, see hypertension and pulmonary edema (porcine pulmonary edema-PPE).
This eight-year-old female spayed mixed breed dog is presented with a 48-hour history of lethargy and abdominal distention. Abdominal radiographs are shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Gastric dilatation/volvulus
Hepatic mass
Ruptured urinary bladder
Mesenteric torsion
Intussusception
There is increased soft tissue opacity in the cranial abdomen with caudal displacement of the stomach and small intestine consistent with a hepatic mass. This dog was ultimately diagnosed with hepatocellular carcinoma with suppurative effusion and hemorrhage.
Radiographic review: The abdomen is distended, and there is mottled/decreased serosal detail in the cranioventral region. There is a gas lucency overlying the dorsal portion of the liver, this may be overlying bowel, or be within the hepatic parenchyma.
The cranial location of the mass effect, with the gastric axis faintly visible caudal to the mass, makes the most likely differential diagnosis a hepatic mass. A splenic mass is possible, however these are more often in the mid abdomen and better delineated. The distended abdomen and poor detail are diagnostic of peritoneal effusion. The compression of abdominal organs due to the mass effect is also contributing to poor definition of serosal surfaces.
What is the purpose of a Bard Parker handle?
Used to hold Kirschner pins when they are pushed into the bone.
Sterilizable electrocautery grip.
Holds a disposable scalpel blade.
Keeps bone in place during plating.
Sterilizable suction tube holder.
A Bard-Parker is a handle for disposable scalpel blades.
Which of the following choices most correctly describes the function of the interneurons in the pain pathway?
Short connecting nerves located in the spinal cord and brain that modulate pain signals
Interneurons function primarily in the thalamus to integrate and precess signals from the periphery
The connection between first and third order neurone in the transmission of afferent signals
Specialized sensory neurone that perceive and transmit innocuous sensations
Cell bodies in the interstitium of the spinal cord and brain that support gray matter neurons
Short connecting nerves located in the spinal cord and brain that modulate pain signals
Interneuros are short connecting nerves located in the spinal cord and brain that modulate pain signals from the periphery. They regulate the pain response, increasing or decreasing the release of neurotransmitters as needed, and transferring the signal to other areas for a short distance.
Some relay signals to other parts of the laminae of the spinal cord at the same level and/or up or down the spinal cord for a few segments. The interneurons eventually synapse with second order neurons for projection of the signal from the spinal cord to the brain.
A backyard chicken is presented for laying less eggs than normal and listless behavior. Examination reveals tiny blackish brown specks moving around the hen’s vent. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Northern fowl mite
Chicken mite
Knemidocoptes mutans
Argas persicus
Sticktight flea
This is most likely the northern fowl mite (Ornithonyssus sylviarum). The northern fowl mite remains with its host between blood meals, while the chicken mite (Dermanyssus gallinae) feeds only at night and drops off the host during the day.
Therefore, you are likely to find the northern fowl mite on the chicken during the day in the vent area, whereas the chicken mite is found in the chicken house during the day.
Click here to see northern fowl mites on a hen.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/zk/v52139909
Knemidocoptes mutans are also called scaly-leg mites and live on the distal extremities. They cause the legs to become thick and crusty.
Argas persicus are soft ticks that live in poultry houses and intermittently feed on their hosts in tropical and subtropical areas.
Sticktight fleas (Echidnophaga gallinacea) affect multiple hosts, including dogs, cats, horses, and humans. When on chickens, they attach to the wattles and skin on the head area.
Link: Mites of Poultry
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/ectoparasites/mites-of-poultry
Link: Fowls Ticks
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/ectoparasites/fowl-ticks
Link: Fleas of Poultry
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/ectoparasites/fleas-of-poultry
Which of the following correctly describes “new tank syndrome” in aquatic amphibians?
Acidic pH associated with new filtering system
Dehydration of the skin from substrate change
Animal unable to find food because nervous in new habit
Buildup of ammonia metabolites due to lack of bacteria
Concentration of dissolved oxygen is to high, leading to gas bubble disease
New tank syndrome is a buildup of ammonia metabolites due to lack of bacteria in new tanks. It can take up to 6 weeks for a new tank to become efficient in nitrogen metabolism. In well-established aquariums, bacterial flora metabolizes ammonium to nitrite and nitrate.
Nitrogen metabolite levels (e.g., ammonium, nitrate, and nitrite) must be weekly monitored in the habitat using a water-test kit. Ammonia is continuously produced by the aquatic amphibians and any unfinished food.
Excess nitrogen metabolites is a common cause of death in aquatic amphibians.
Old tank syndrome occurs after months of tank mismanagement leading to very high ammonia and very low pH when the buffering system becomes overwhelmed.
Refs: Mader’s Reptile and Amphibian Med and Surg, 3rd ed. p. 226-7.
Link: Environmental disease in Aquatic Systems
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/exotic-and-laboratory-animals/aquatic-systems/environmental-diseases-in-aquatic-systems#v23353503
An 8-year old male neutered dog is presented after being hit by a car. The dog is BAR with normal perfusion and moderate tachypnea. On chest auscultation lung sounds are almost absent. A lateral radiograph is shown below. What is the interpretation?
Hiatal hernia
Flail chest
Diaphragmatic hernia
Pneumothorax
Lung lobe torsion
This is traumatic pneumothorax.
Note the dark airspace below the heart and the retraction of the lung lobes from the chest.
Decreased to absent lung sounds with a history of recent trauma strongly suggest pneumothorax.
Click here to see normal canine thoracic radiographs.
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/canine/thorax/ex02/thorax02.html
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 3rd ed. pp. 816-7, Normal radiograph links courtesy, Imaging Anatomy Univ. of Illinois Vet Med. Image courtesy o Dr. Terri DeFrancesco.
Link: Trauma in Emergency Medicine in Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/emergency-medicine-and-critical-care/specific-diagnostics-and-therapy/trauma-in-emergency-medicine-in-animals
A Charolais breeder in the southeastern United States is planning his calving season for next year. Winter ryegrass will be ready to graze in early February next year so he would like to start calving season no earlier than February 1st.
When should he turn out the bull with the cows this year in order to start calving season next year no earlier than February 1?
March 20
June 20
May 20
April 20
July 20
Bull turnout should be after mid April this year to ensure that cows and heifers start to calve after February 1 next year.
Cattle have a gestation period a little over 9 months long. The mean gestation time of cattle varies between breeds; dairy breeds have the shortest gestation (279 days) and Brahmas have the longest (292 days). The average gestation length of Charolais cattle is 289 days.
There are several online calculators and charts to help planning calving and breeding dates.
Click here for a gestation chart based on a 283-day gestation length. Add or subtract a few days to make it fit specific breed averages.
https://selectsiresbeef.com/resources/gestation-chart/
Early lactation is the most nutritionally demanding time for a beef cow. It is important to match feed and grazing resources to what is needed in early lactation to minimize negative impacts on body condition score and rebreeding.
Refs: Smith, Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed., p. 189. Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, ted, pp. 359. Image courtesy, Yelkrokoyade.
Link: The Reproductive System in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/reproductive-system-introduction/the-reproductive-system-in-animals?redirectid=30657
Which type of immune reaction is occurring in this picture?
Type II
Type IV
Type III
None of these
Type I
Answer: Type I
Type I immune reactions are the classic ACUTE allergic reaction - can be a localized allergy like wheals or urticaria or a severe systemic anaphylaxis.
Free allergen binds IgE antibodies on mast cells and basophils, triggering release of histamine, leukotrienes, eosinophilic chemotactic factor, platelet activating factor, kinins, serotonins, and proteolytic enzymes. These chemicals cause vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and smooth muscle contraction.
Agents that can cause anaphylactic and allergic reactions include: vaccines, venom (like bee stings), drugs, food, and blood products.
TypicallyTx localized anaphylactic (allergic) reactions with things like diphenhydramine hydrochloride (1-2mg/kg IV or IM), dexamethasone enterally or parenterally, prednisolone PO, or epinephrine hydrochloride (0.15 cc SC at site of allergy initiation, dog).
Ref: Blackwell’s 5-Min. Vet Consult Canine-Feline, 4th ed. pp. 68-69.
Link: Hypersensitivity Diseases in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/immune-system/immunologic-diseases/hypersensitivity-diseases-in-animals#v3277239
When positioning a dog for radiographic evaluation of the hips for dysplasia, where do you measure the dog and what is the caudal border of the radiograph?
Over the acetabulum, distal patella
Sacrum, midway down the tail
Wings of the ilium, bottom of femoral condyles
Tips of ischium, mid-tibia
Umbilicus, mid-femur
Answer: Over the acetabulum, distal patella.
For ventral-dorsal (VD) pelvic radiographs evaluating for hip dysplasia, measure the dog over the widest part of the pelvis, which is usually midline over the acetabulum.
Due to variations in body confirmation, take your measurement over the thickest portion of the pelvis.
The caudal border of the radiograph needs to include the patellae, which should be centered over the patellar grooves. This distraction will allow the heads of the femurs to be visualized in each acetabulum.
This VD pelvic radiograph of a dog shows the proper centering and cranial and caudal borders. Notice the patellae centered over the patellar grooves in the femurs. (Image courtesy of the University of Illinois.)
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/canine/hindlimb/pelvis/ex02/c0211_Canvas.html
Ref: Tighe and Brown, Mosby’s Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians, 4th
The body of a three-year-old Standardbred gelding is presented for necropsy. The horse had a several week history of fever, lethargy, weight loss, and shifting limb lameness. An image from the necropsy is shown below, with arrows pointing to the tricuspid valve leaflets. Which is the most likely etiology?
Streptococcus equi sosp. zooepidemicus and Acinobacillus spp. are the most common isolates from equine valvular vegetative endocarditis, as seen in this image. The presentation here is classic: fever, weight loss, shifting joint effusions/lameness, tachypnea, tachycardia, +/- cardiac murmur.
Diagnose with echocardiography and blood culture. Bloodwork changes are consistent with chronic infection/inflammation (e.g., hyperfibrinogenemia, hyperglobulinemia, +/-monocytosis).
Tx with long-term antimicrobials, rest, and anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs). Most common on aortic and pulmonic valves, associated with poor prognosis. Tricuspid bacterial endocarditis is less common and has a guarded prognosis.
Henderson et al’s “Valvular endocarditis in the horse: 20 cases (1993-2020)” is available free online from the Canadian Vet J and provides a great overview, with images.
Link: Infectious Endocarditis in Dogs and Cats
https://www.msdvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/various-heart-diseases-in-dogs-and-cats/infectious-endocarditis-in-dogs-and-cats
Link: Valvular endocarditis in the horse: 20 cases (1993–2020)
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC7659875/
A four-year-old male Great Dane recovering from emergency surgery to correct a gastric dilatation-volvulus (GDV) is still weak and depressed after 24 hours.
Auscultation of the heart reveals an irregularly irregular heart rhythm with pulse deficits.
An ECG strip is shown below.
What is this rhythm?
This is ventricular tachycardia (VT) with a sustained ventricular rate of >180 beats/min (cut-off in large dogs) and >4 consecutive premature impulses. VT here is identified by the rapid heart rate, lack of P waves associated with QRS complexes, and the wide and bizarre appearance of the QRS complexes.
Cardiac arrhythmias are common with gastric dilatation and volvulus (GDV). The distended stomach compresses the caudal vena cava and impairs venous return to the heart,
causing myocardial ischemia.
Only Tx cardiac arrhythmias if there is hemodynamic compromise (i.e., hypotension). Tx the patient not the ECG. Goal of Tx: maintain organ perfusion and resolve arrhythmia-
related clinical signs such as weakness and collapse.
Lidocaine is a standard Tx, typically given as an initial IV bolus, followed by a constant-rate infusion if conversion to normal sinus rhythm is achieved with the bolus. Tx should also include correction of electrolyte abnormalities (e.g., hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia), metabolic acidosis, hypovolemia, and anemia.
Image courtesy of Dr JG Adams.
Link: Abnormalities of the Cardiovascular System in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/cardiovascular-system-introduction/abnormalities-of-the-cardiovascular-system-in-animals
Link: Gastric Dilation and Volvulus in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-stomach-and-intestines-in-small-animals/gastric-dilation-and-volvulus-in-small-animals
Link: Antiarrhythmics for Use in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-cardiovascular-system/antiarrhythmics-for-use-in-animals?autoredirectid=21720
A six-year-old cow is presented with a 48-hour history of steep drop in milk production and being off feed. She stands with an arched back and abducted elbows and is reluctant to move.
Physical exam reveals bilateral jugular distention and some brisket edema. Pressure applied to the cow’s xiphoid elicits a grunt.
There is a loud continuous heart murmur audible on both right and left sides and very little rumen activity.
What condition is at the top of the differential diagnosis list?
A loud continuous (“washing machine”) murmur, the painful stance, and respiratory grunting all point to hardware disease (a.k.a. traumatic reticuloperitonitis/pericarditis or TRP), and bilateral dilated jugulars say “heart problem.” TRP is more a disease of mature dairy cattle living around barns who indiscriminately eat baling wire, nails.
Click here to see an ultrasound image of traumatic pericarditis.
Cull this cow because treatment is unrewarding for traumatic reticuloperitonitis.
Prevent problems by making every cow on farm swallow a small bar magnet to attract and hold nails, wire, sharp metal inside the reticulum.
A compass can tell you if a cow already has a magnet. Hold it near the brisket and if there is a magnet, compass needle will point to the cow, even it you move the compass.
Cardiac lymphosarcoma may present with heart failure signs, but less likely to have such an acute onset of agalactia, painful stance or classic “washing machine” murmur.
Monensin/Lasalocid are ionophore coccidiostats associated with cardiac failure- they are most toxic to horses.
Cottonseed meal contains gossypol - see cardiac toxicity/dyspnea/ sudden death in calves; sterility/decreased conception in adults.
Link: Traumatic Reticuloperitonitis in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-ruminant-forestomach/traumatic-reticuloperitonitis-in-cattle?autoredirectid=18721
https://zukureview.com/sites/default/files/2024-04/cow pericarditis.png
Link: Bovine Leukosis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/bovine-leukosis/bovine-leukosis?autoredirectid=20435
Link: Traumatic, Toxic, and Anesthetic Myopathies in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/myopathies-in-horses/traumatic,-toxic,-and-anesthetic-myopathies-in-horses
Link: Gossypol Poisoning in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/gossypol-poisoning/gossypol-poisoning-in-animals?mredirectid=948
What is the interpretation of this image from a mare?
Claslick’s procedure was performed; likely bred previously
This mare has had a Caslick’s procedure (or vulvoplasty); and thus she was likely bred previously. If you look closely at the image, you can see there is only a small ventral vulvar opening and there is an uneven suture line within the tissue visible proximally/dorsally.
This is performed in mares with poor perineal conformation to help improve pregnancy rates. It prevents aspiration of air into the vaginal vault that can lead to chronic uterine infections.
Click here to see a mare with poor perineal conformation.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/image/poor-perineal-conformation-mare
Link: Breeding Soundness Examination of the Mare
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/management-of-reproduction-horses/breeding-soundness-examination-of-the-mare
In horses, what is Galvayne’s groove?
Channel on third incisor
Galvayne’s groove appears on the buccal (lip) side of the third incisor at around ten years old, then disappears as horses age. Aging horses using Galvayne’s groove is NOT consistent, but you often see it mentioned in the literature.
Colorado State University offers this information on aging horses based on their teeth and wear of the incisor occlusal surfaces.
Galvayne’s groove in an approximately 13-year-old horse:
The following image is a recording of an arterial blood pressure waveform from a horse anesthetized with isoflurane in oxygen. Which one of the following choices is the correct mean arterial pressure in this patient?
93mmHg
The mean arterial pressure is 93 mmHg. Click here to see an illustration of the answer.
Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is approximately half the area under the pulse pressure curve as measured from one heartbeat. It can be calculated (estimated) from the systolic (SAP) and diastolic arterial pressures (DAP) as follows:
DAP plus 1/3 of the pulse pressure (SAP - DAP).
The mean arterial blood pressure (MAP) is important as this is the “driving” pressure for tissue perfusion. A low MAP results in ischemia and organ damage if present too long.
Note that MAP is actually closer to the DAP than the SAP as shown by the dotted red line on the graph shown in the answer. A low DAP has a great effect on the overall mean. The lower the DAP, the higher the systolic AP must be to compensate and bring the mean up to adequate levels.
Hypotension is common in anesthetized horses and can result in myopathy. Muscle damage occurs in horses at pressures not low enough to produce damage to other organs.
Myopathy can result in serious injury and difficulty standing during anesthetic recovery if not treated in a timely fashion.
Note the dip in the BP waveform very close to the mean pressure line on the illustration of the answer. This is the “dicrotic notch” which is produced by changes in blood flow in the large vessels when the aortic valve closes.
Check out this great article on Blood Pressure Management in Equine Anesthesia by Samantha Rowland, LVT, VTS, courtesy of Vetlearn.com.
Link: Blood Pressure Management in Equine Anesthesia
http://vetfolio-vetstreet.s3.amazonaws.com/e5/00d0b0ab7711e2b140005056ad4734/file/VT2013_Rowland_CE-EquE.pdf
What pathology is evident in this necropsy image of a dead chicken?
This is ascites in a chicken. Suddenly dead or cyanotic, panting chickens with abdomens distended by ascites fluid suggests ascites syndrome (waterbelly). Essentially a form of right ventricular heart failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension or more rarely, hepatic failure.
Because broilers affected with ascites syndrome frequently die on their backs, differential diagnosis includes flip-over disease.
Dissecting aneurysm is another cause of sudden death, but animals display severe hemorrhage on necropsy. Click here to see a necropsied turkey with frank abdominal hemorrhage and a ruptured aorta.
Link: Ascites Syndrome in Poiltry
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/miscellaneous-conditions-of-poultry/ascites-syndrome-in-poultry
Link: Sudden death Syndrome in Broiler Chickens
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/sudden-death-syndrome-of-broiler-chickens/sudden-death-syndrome-of-broiler-chickens?autoredirectid=12763
Link: Hemorrhagic Vasculopathy of Turkeys
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/hemorrhagic-vasculopathy-of-turkeys/hemorrhagic-vasculopathy-of-turkeys?redirectid=29138
What organism causes heartwater disease of cattle, sheep, and goats?
Ehrlichia Ruminntium.
Ehrlichia ruminantium is the organism responsible for heartwater disease of ruminants, a tick-borne foreign disease characterized by high fevers, lung edema, and hydropericardium. The causative organism was FORMERLY classified as Cowdria ruminantium.
Molecular testing has led to the reclassification of several organisms that cause infectious disease…
Equine granulocytic ehrlichiosis (EGE) was originally classified as Ehrlichia equi, but is now classified as Anaplasma phagocytophilum.
Potomac Horse Fever (PHF), formerly classified as Ehrlichia ristici, is now called Neorickettsia ristici.
Histophilus somni, the cause of thrombotic meningoencephalitis (TEME), was formerly called Haemophilus somnus. Follow this link to see a necropsy image of TEME.
Mannheimia haemolytica, a primary cause of pneumonic pasteurellosis, was formerly called Pasteurella hemolytica.
Refs: Smith, Van Metre, and Pusterla’s Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed., pp. 1048-49.
Link: Overview of Heartwater.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/heartwater/overview-of-heartwater
Link: Equine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/equine-granulocytic-anaplasmosis/equine-granulocytic-anaplasmosis?redirectid=31747
Link: Potomac Horse Fever.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/infectious-diarrheal-diseases-in-horses/potomac-horse-fever?autoredirectid=19925
What is the most likely process involving the first digit of this cat’s right front paw?
Traumatic
Neoplastic
Immune-mediated
Nutritional
Degenerative
The process is highly likely to be neoplastic. There is severe lysis of all of the bones of the first digit of the right manus, with nearly complete destruction of the metacarpal bone and proximal phalynx.
There is severe regional soft tissue swelling over the medial aspect of the right manus as well. The second metacarpal bone has thinning and irregularity of the cortex.
There is a transverse fracture in the mid diaphysis of the third metacarpal bone, the margins of the fractures are irregular and there is a moderate irregular periosteal proliferation present circumferentially around the fracture.
Click here to see normal feline carpus and foot radiographs.
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/feline/forelimb/carpus_foot/ex01/car-ft-01-f%20.html
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 4th ed. pp. 726-8. Radiographic interpretation and images courtesy, Dr A. Zwingenberger and Veterinary Radiology. Normal radiograph links courtesy, Imaging Anatomy Univ. of Illinois Vet Med.
Link: Bone Tumors in Dogs and Cats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/osteopathies-in-small-animals/bone-tumors-in-dogs-and-cats
Link: Veterinary Radiology - Sarcoma
http://mirc.veterinaryradiology.net/storage/ss1/docs/9999.57774252296894874239183665468552083016/MIRCdocument.xml
Link: Imaging Anatomy
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/index.html
An 11 year-old male neutered dog is presented with a 4 week history of worsening problems with urination. The dog appears to have abdominal pain and strains to urinate a small volume of reddish urine.
Urinalysis:
USp.G= 1.028 [N=1.016-1.060]
WBC 15-20/hpf
RBC +++
Protein +
Bacterial rods +++
A pneumosystogram radiograph looks like this
Which one of the following choices is the most likely underlying pathologic process?
Answer: Neoplasia.
This is likely to be neoplasia, specifically, a transitional cell carcinoma seen here in trigone of the bladder after pneumocystogram (air in bladder) and here after injection of contrast media.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4742460
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4742469
Hematuria, pollakiuria, abdominal pain and bacterial cystitis in an older dog may also suggest urolithiasis, but if stones were visible on radiograph, they would be less likely to sit in the trigone.
The most common form is struvite urolithiasis (generally radio-opaque), seen in 60% dogs, 90% cats.
Click here to see a radiograph of a cat with urolithiasis.
https://zukureview.com/images/Question%20images/feline_cystic_calculi_DrScotNachbar_med.jpg
Look for classic “staghorns” of renal calculi in the kidneys on DV rads.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4742505
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 3rd ed. pp. 1015-6, 1045-7 and Blackwell’s 5-Minute Vet Consult Canine Feline, 4th ed. pp. 1384-5.
Link: Neoplasia of the Urinary System in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/urinary-system/noninfectious-diseases-of-the-urinary-system-in-small-animals/neoplasia-of-the-urinary-system-in-small-animals
Link: Urolithiasis in Small Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/urinary-system/noninfectious-diseases-of-the-urinary-system-in-small-animals/urolithiasis-in-small-animals
In which tissue would the organism that laid this off cause damage to a sheep or cow?
Skin
Abomasum
Liver
Lungs
Cecum
Answer: Liver.
If you look carefully at the upper end of this egg you can see a flattened area called the operculum, identifying this as a trematode fluke egg (of Fasciola hepatica). Flukes like Fasciola hepatica and Fascioloides magna cause liver damage to ruminants.
Click here to see post-mortem images of an adult fluke in a bile duct, multiple hypertrophied bile ducts, and encysted flukes in a deer liver.
https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/Category:Fasciola_hepatica
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/a/a2/F._hepatica_hypertrophia_of_bile_duct.jpg
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:F.magna_fibrous_capsule.JPG
Ref: Bowman and Georgi, Parasitology for Veterinarians, 9th ed. pp. 115-20. Image courtesy of Flukeman, Wikimedia commons.
Link: Fasciola hepatica in Ruminants
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/fluke-infections-in-ruminants/fasciola-hepatica-in-ruminants
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/zk/v4731785
Link: Fascioloides Magna
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fascioloides_magna
Which suction tip is used mostly for abdominal and thoracic surgeries and has an outer sleeve to prevent it form clogging with aspirated material?
Adson
Frazier
Yankauer
Poole
Answer: Poole.
The Poole tip has a protective outer sleeve that helps prevent it from clogging with tissue and fat. It is used primarily for abdominal and thoracic surgery.
Suction tips are connected to sterile suction tubing that is in turn attached to a mechanical vacuum. They are used to remove excess fluids during surgical procedures (e.g., bodily fluids or rinsing solutions).
The Frazier tip is most often used for neurologic and orthopedic surgeries, during which bleeding is not as severe as with abdominal surgeries.
The Yankauer tip is a multi-purpose tip that can be used in many situations. However. it does not have a protective sleeve so it can easily clog during aspiration.
The Adson tip is used in neurosurgery in humans.
To see a visual selection of surgical tools, including Balfour retractors, go to Dr. Brigitte Brisson’s helpful website, Vet Surgery Online, hosted by the University of Guelph.
https://www.vetsurgeryonline.com/index.html
Link: Poole Suction Tube
https://www.integralife.com/poole-suction-tube/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-surgical-suction-tubes-poole-suction-tube
Link: Frazier Ferguson Suction Tube
https://www.integralife.com/frazier-ferguson-suction-tube/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-surgical-suction-tubes-frazier-ferguson-suction-tube
Link: Yankauer Suction Tube
https://www.integralife.com/yankauer-suction-tube/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-general-operating-suction-tubes-accessories-yankauer-suction-tube
Link: Adson Suction Tube
https://www.integralife.com/adson-suction-tube/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-neurosurgery-spine-suction-tubes-accessories-adson-suction-tube
Link: Surgical Instruments
https://www.vetsurgeryonline.com/other-instruments/
What are the fabellae and where could you find them in a dog?
Paired diverticula, frontal sinus
Connective tissue bands between incus & stapes, inner ear
Corniculate processes of arytenoid cartilage, larynx
Rostral bones, nasal plant
Sesamoid bones, gastrocnemius muscle
Answer: Sesamoid bones, gastrocnemius muscle.
The fabellae are a pair of sesamoid bones found embedded in the tendons of origin of the heads of the gastrocnemius muscles.
Follow these links to see canine stifle radiographs which show the fabellae caudally on a lateral view, and fabellae on ventrodorsal view superimposed medially and laterally adjacent to the distal femoral head.
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/canine/hindlimb/stifle/ex01/stifle01.html
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/canine/hindlimb/stifle/ex01/c0231_Canvas.html
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/canine/hindlimb/stifle/ex01/c0232_Canvas.html
There is a rostral bone in the nasal planum of the pig, which aids them in rooting through soil for food.
Refs: Pasquini & Spurgeon’s Anatomy Dom An 11th ed. pp. 52, 190, 305. Radiographic image links courtesy, University of Illinois Veterinary Imaging Anatomy website (an excellent resource).
Link: Imaging Anatomy
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/index.html
It is July in Louisiana. An adult male neutered barn cat with exposure to horses is presented for a one-week history of left pelvic limb lameness. Exam reveals a wound on the lateral aspect of the left thigh. An image is shown below. What is the diagnosis?
Facultative myasis.
This is an example of facultative myiasis. Myiasis is the infestation of live animals with the larvae of dipteran flies. Facultative means that the larvae (maggots) are free-living but can invade damaged tissue (wounds, moist flesh). Obligatory myiasis occurs when the parasites require infection of the host to complete their life cycle.
Another differential is Cuterebra spp. These larvae are ingested or inhaled (or occasionally enter through wounds) and then migrate subcutaneously, causing localized swelling and sometimes pain.
Look for a breathing pore in the overlying skin.
The main example of obligatory myiasis, screwworm (Cochliomyia hominivorax), has been eliminated from North America, though occasional incursions occur through importation of animals.
Screwworm infestation must be reported to state and federal authorities.
Culicoides spp. (biting midges or “no-see-ums”) irritate livestock and are associated with sweet itch (allergic dermatitis) in horses.
Cutaneous habronemiasis in horses is caused by larvae of stomach worms and is characterized by granulomatous skin lesions with “sulfur crystals.”
The rat-tailed maggot (Eristalis tenax) is associated with pseudomyiasis. These common larvae live in liquid feces and dairy farmers may mistakenly assume they came out of the cow (they didn’t: flies laid eggs in the manure). The maggots are the larvae of nonparasitic free-living flies.
Onchocerca cervicalis is associated with dermatitis, fistulous withers, poll evil, and uveitis in horses.
Link: Facultative Myiasis-producing Flies of Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/facultative-myiasis-producing-flies-of-animals?autoredirectid=19557
Link: Obligatory Myiasis-producing Flies of Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/obligatory-myiasis-producing-flies-of-animals?autoredirectid=19543
Link: Cochliomyia hominivorax
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/obligatory-myiasis-producing-flies-of-animals
Link: Biting Midges of Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/biting-midges-of-animals?autoredirectid=19549
Link: Cutaneous Habronemiasis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/helminths-of-the-skin/cutaneous-habronemiasis-in-animals
Link: Pseudomyiasis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/pseudomyiasis-in-animals?autoredirectid=19548
Link: Onchocerciasis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/helminths-of-the-skin/onchocerciasis-in-animals
Which forceps secure drapes to the patient by penetrating the skin?
Backhaus.
Backhaus (and Roeder forceps) are towel clamps used to secure drapes to the patient’s skin. Backhaus forceps look like the sharp pincers of an ant, and penetrate both the cloth drapes and the patient’s skin. Roeder forceps look like Backhaus clamps, but they have a metal ball welded to the points of the jaws to prevent as deep of tissue penetration.
Lorna clamps are non-perforating and can be used to secure tubing or lines to the drapes. Allis and Brown-Adson are tissue forceps. Cooley forceps are vascular clamps.
https://products.integralife.com/backhaus-towel-clamp/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-veterinary-forceps-sponge-towel-clamps-backhaus-towel-clamp
https://products.integralife.com/roeder-towel-clamp/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-veterinary-forceps-sponge-towel-clamps-roeder-towel-clamp
https://products.integralife.com/brown-adson-tissue-forceps/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-veterinary-forceps-dressing-tissue-brown-adson-tissue-forceps
https://products.integralife.com/cooley-iliac-clamp/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-thoracic-cardiovascular-clamps-cooley-iliac-clamp
The following objects are evident on a routine wet mount fecal exam form a dog. What organism is this?
Lung fluke eggs
Hookworms
Cryptosporidium eggs
Tapeworm eggs
Giardia trophozoite
Answer: Tapeworm eggs.
These are tapeworm eggs (Dipylidium caninum), carried in the intestines of fleas.
The owner may report, or you may see, segments of the mature tapeworm called proglottids stuck to the hair around the rear end of a cat or dog like flat pieces of rice. Can also see flea larvae or the black spirals of flea larvae feces in the coat.
The Companion Animal Parasite Council (CAPC) website is a good visual resource for parasitology.
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook fo.& Veterinary Technicians, gthed, pp. 411-13. Image courtesy of The Centers for Disease Control DPDx Parasite Image Library - Dipylidium Dr. Joel Mills, Wikimedia commons.
Link: Tapeworms in Dogs and Cats.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/gastrointestinal-parasites-of-small-animals/tapeworms-in-dogs-and-cats?autoredirectid=3608
https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Diphyl_proglottidE.JPG
https://www.cdc.gov/dpdx/dipylidium/index.html
Link: https://capcvet.org/guidelines/
A three-year-old male neutered Lhasa apso is presented with a one month of left pelvic limb lameness and depression. Two view pelvic radiographs are shown below. Where is the lesion?
L6-7
Right femoral head
Rigt sacrum
Left ilium
Left stifle
Answer: Left ilium.
There is a mixed lytic and productive bone lesion on the left ilial body, extending to the cranial acetabulum. The femoral head is not involved.
The lesion is seen best on the VD projection. Differentials include neoplasia or osteomyelitis.
The diagnosis in this case is osteomyelitis secondary to coccidioidomycosis.
Images courtesy, Dr A Zwingenberger and Veterinary Radiology.
Link: Osteomyelitis in Dogs and Cats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/osteopathies-in-small-animals/osteomyelitis-in-dogs-and-cats
Link: Coccidioidomycosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/fungal-infections/coccidioidomycosis-in-animals
You are presented with a dog who has an eye problem OU (both eyes): What is wrong?
This is ectropion (everted lid margin, eyelid rolled outward). See it in droopy dogs (i.e., too much extra skin on face): Bloodhound, Newfoundland, St. Bernard, Bull Mastiff, Great Dane, some Spaniels.
A ten-year-old female spayed miniature schnauzer is presented for a six-week history of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss despite a good appetite. Serum chemistries are performed on an in-house analyzer, however, halfway through the analysis an error message reads: “Interference detected, retest with new rotor or sample.” The blood sample is centrifuged to obtain plasma for testing. What is the best explanation of the appearance of this blood sample?
Answer: Dog was lipemic when blood was collected.
The white layer of lipid above the plasma in the centrifuged tube indicates that the dog was lipemic when the blood sample was collected. Lipemia means an increased level of lipids in the blood - i.e., hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia is caused by an increase in blood triglyceride concentration - i.e., hypertriglyceridemia.
Blood triglyceride concentration is made of chylomicrons and lipoproteins. Remember, hypercholesterolemia does not cause lipemia, it is only hypertriglyceridemia that causes visible lipemia.
Lipemia may be seen postprandially; it may take 4-6 hrs to clear after eating. Since lipemia interferes with testing, use fasted samples to avoid inaccurate results.
Hyperlipidemia is also seen commonly secondary to disease states where lipoprotein metabolism is altered - e.g., pancreatitis, diabetes mellitus, hepatic disease, hypothyroidism, and hyperadrenocorticism.
Primary hyperlipidemia is an inherited or congenital dysfunction of lipoprotein metabolism. Most commonly seen in miniature schnauzers; likely inherited.
Link: Nutrition in Disease Management in Small Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/nutrition-small-animals/nutrition-in-disease-management-in-small-animals#v3328947
Link: Diabetes and Insulin Resistance in Miniature Schnauzers
https://endocrinevet.blogspot.com/2012/11/association-of-hypertriglyceridemia.html?m=1
Link: Triglycerides
https://eclinpath.com/chemistry/energy-metabolism/triglycerides/
What is the presumptive diagnosis in a chicken with the following necropsy finding?
This is infectious bursal disease. Note the enlarged, balloon-like hemorrhagic bursa of Fabricius. Caused by a birnavirus, shed in feces and transferred barn to barn via fomites. Very stable. Difficult to eradicate from premises.
Signs include clinical picture given above in older birds, or MORE IMPORTANT subclinical form in young birds, which causes immunosuppression via destruction of immature lymphocytes in bursa, thymus, spleen.
Immunosuppressed birds do not respond well to vaccination and are predisposed to infections with normally nonpathogenic viruses and bacteria.
Common disease usually exacerbated by IBDV infections. See large economic losses.
Link: Infectious Bursal Disease in Poultry
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/infectious-bursal-disease/infectious-bursal-disease-in-poultry
An unthrifty dorset ewe is presented with dicolored, thin ragged fleece. Examination of the wool shows the following organism. What is the diagnosis?
Tromboculid mites.
Melophagus ovinus (sheep keds) are wingless flies that look like ticks.
Keds bite the neck, chest, shoulder, flanks, and rump of the sheep (and sometimes goats), feeding on their blood and causing pruritus.
Keds damage the skin, their excrement discolors wool, and self-inflicted scratching to relieve the itching further damages both skin and wool.
Link: Sheep Keds
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/sheep-keds
Sheep Keds - Comprehensive Information for BCSE Test
Definitions and Causative Agent:
• Sheep Keds: Wingless, blood-sucking flies (Melophagus ovinus) that infest sheep.
• Appearance: Brown or reddish, covered with short bristly hairs, about 7 mm long.
Life Cycle:
• Reproduction: Females produce larvae which pupate in wool within 12 hours, emerging as adults in ~22 days. Entire life cycle on host, increasing in winter and spring.
Pathology:
• Symptoms: Pruritus, wool damage, anemia, decreased vitality, particularly in lambs and pregnant ewes.
• Lesions: Brown discoloration of fleece, skin defects (cockle).
Diagnosis:
• Inspection: Visual confirmation of wingless, hairy flies in wool.
Treatment and Control:
• Medications: Insecticides with residual activity (e.g., pyrethroids).
• Methods: Shearing, dipping, spraying, jetting, powder dusting, spot-on/pour-on applications.
Surgery:
Which scissors are best to use for bandage removal?
Answer: Lister.
Lister bandage scissors have one blunt-ended blade (for slipping under a bandage without cutting the patient) and one sharp-pointed blade (which goes above the bandage).
Spencer scissors are small instruments used for suture removal.
Metzenbaum scissors are fine dissecting scissors used for more delicate tissue.
White scissors are used to cut toe nails in dogs.
Mayo scissors can be curved or straight, in a variety of sizes, and are used to dissect tissues.
https://products.integralife.com/lister-bandage-scissor/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-general-operating-scissors-lister-bandage-scissor
https://products.integralife.com/spencer-stitch-scissors/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-padgett-plastic-reconstructive-surgery-scissors-spencer-stitch-scissors
https://products.integralife.com/metzenbaum-scissor/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-general-operating-scissors-metzenbaum-scissor
https://products.integralife.com/white-canine-nail-scissors/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-veterinary-scissors-white-canine-nail-scissors
An eighteen-month-old male neutered domestic shorthair cat is presented for acute non-weight bearing lameness of the left hind limb. Radiographs are shown below.
What is the diagnosis?
Answer: Capital physical fracture.
This is a type 1 Salter-Harris fracture of the femoral capital physis. The Salter-Harris classification describes the site of the fracture relative to the joint and the physis (growth plate). Type 1 fractures pass transversely through the physis.
We see Salter-Harris fractures in immature animals. Young, neutered, overweight male cats are at an increased risk of non-traumatic femoral capital physeal fracture. The femoral capital physis and distal femur (stifle) are common locations for traumatic type 1 Salter-Harris fractures in dogs.
Here’s a good image of coxofemoral luxation (dislocated hip) in a cat.
Here’s more information about aseptic necrosis of the femoral head from VIN.
Here’s an interesting article about ligament and tendon injuries in dogs.
Radiographic image courtesy of Suzy Gray, BSc(Hons), BVetMed (Hons), MFA, Dip ACVIM (Small Animal Internal Medicine).
Link: Joint trauma in Dogs and Cats.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/arthropathies-and-related-disorders-in-small-animals/joint-trauma-in-dogs-and-cats
Link: Legg-Perthes Disease in Dogs
https://veterinarypartner.vin.com/default.aspx?pid=19239&id=4952619
Link: Ligament and musculotendinous injuries in dogs
https://www.veterinary-practice.com/article/ligament-and-musculotendinous-injuries-in-dogs
An immunochromatographic test kit for detection of fecal canine parvoviruses (CPV) antigen is being tested in a local cat shelter where as many as 10% of the cats there may have panleukopenia secondary to infection with the canine parvovirus. Here are simulated test results, compared to a gold standard test for CPV. What is the specificity of this test kit?
Specificity=1575/2309 (68%) d/(b+d).
This is a classic example of a 2x2 table in epidemiology, used to compare a new test (the immunochromatographic test kit) to a gold standard test (the CPV test).
Draw a 2x2 table, and label the boxes a,b,c,d. Specificity = d/(b+d). Click here to see a Basic 2X2 table.
Feline panleukopenia virus(FPV) is closely related to type 2 canine parvoviruses (CPV-2, CPV-2a, CPV-2b). CPV-2a and CPV-2b have been shown to cause a panleukopenia-like illness in domestic cats.
Link: Canine Parvovirus.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-stomach-and-intestines-in-small-animals/canine-parvovirus
Link: Feline Panleukopenia.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/feline-panleukopenia/feline-panleukopenia?redirectid=30620
Link: Canine and Feline Parvovirus in Animal Shelters
https://sheltermedicine.vetmed.ufl.edu/files/2017/01/Canine-and-feline-parvovirus-in-shelters.2018.pdf
An eight-month-old male neutered cat is presented with a five-day history of bilateral conjunctivitis and rhinitis. An image taken of a conjunctival scrape is shown. What is the likely etiology of this disease?
Mycoplasma
Viral
Bacterial
Immune-mediated
Chlamydia
Answer: Chlamydiosis.
This is chlamydiosis (Chlamydophila felis infection), a cause of conjunctivitis/rhinitis seen most commonly in cats less than one year of age. The image shows a cellular inclusion body consistent with this infection.
C. felis infection is part of the feline upper respiratory disease complex; look for co-infection with other agents such as feline herpesvirus-1.
Tx: Systemic doxycycline or pradofloxacin. Tx all cats in a household regardless of clinical signs. Systemic therapy is superior to topical therapy; relapse is common with topical tetracyclines alone. Continue Tx two weeks beyond resolution of clinical signs.
Link: Chlamydial Conjunctivitis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/eye-diseases-and-disorders/chlamydial-conjunctivitis/chlamydial-conjunctivitis-in-animals?autoredirectid=14197
Chlamydial Conjunctivitis in Animals - Comprehensive Information for BCSE Test
Definitions and Causative Agents:
• Chlamydial Conjunctivitis: Infection of the conjunctiva caused by intracellular bacteria of the family Chlamydiaceae.
• Causative Agents: Chlamydia felis (cats), C. psittaci (birds, sheep), C. pecorum (cattle, sheep, pigs), C. suis (pigs), and C. caviae (guinea pigs).
Clinical Findings:
• Cats: Serous to mucopurulent conjunctivitis, nasal discharge, sneezing, conjunctival hyperemia, chemosis, follicle formation on third eyelid.
• Guinea Pigs: Conjunctival hyperemia, chemosis, mucopurulent discharge, potential respiratory and genital infections.
• Livestock: Often asymptomatic, but may present with bilateral epiphora, conjunctival hyperemia, and follicle formation.
Diagnosis:
• Methods: PCR on conjunctival swabs, cytologic examination of conjunctival secretions, exclusion of other causes.
• Tests: Chlamydial inclusions in cytologic preparations, PCR for chlamydial DNA.
Treatment:
• Medications: Systemic tetracyclines (e.g., doxycycline at 10 mg/kg/day for at least 4 weeks).
• Alternatives: Fluoroquinolones, amoxicillin-clavulanic acid for cats.
• Note: All cats in the household should be treated.
Prevention:
• Vaccination: Available for cats, reducing disease severity.
• Hygiene: Hand washing before and after handling infected animals.
Zoonotic Risk:
• Humans: Rare, but possible in immunocompromised individuals or those in close contact with infected animals.
Which organism causes the condition seen in this skull from a cow?
Answer: Actinomyces bovis is the cause of lumpy_jaw in cattle.
Actinomyces bovis is a slender gram-positive rod that is part of the normal mouth flora.
It enters soft tissue after damage from traumatic feed (stems, grass awns) or foreign objects (baling wire) then causes damage/granulomatous abscesses in the mandible, maxilla, or other bony structure of the head. Remember “MY lumpY” for lumpy jaw (ie: MYces, lumpY)
Actinobacillus ligniersi causes wooden tongue (remember LIGNIN is what makes WOOD).
Fusobacterium necrophorum is associated with anything rotten. Think foot rot, quittor, necrotic stomatitis, calf diphtheria, necrotic rhinitis.
Acremonium spp. are fungi that cause Mycetomas.
Refs: Smith, Van Metre and Pusterla’s Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed., pp. 811-13. Images courtesy of Steve Loncosky and Kevin Terra.
Link: Actinomycosis in Cattle, Swine, and Other Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/actinomycosis/actinomycosis-in-cattle,-swine,-and-other-animals
Link: Actinobacillosis.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/actinobacillosis/actinobacillosis
Link: Necrotic Laryngitis in Cattle.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/respiratory-system/infectious-respiratory-system-diseases-in-cattle/necrotic-laryngitis-in-cattle?autoredirectid=20487
Link: Mycetomas in Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/fungal-infections/mycetomas-in-animals?autoredirectid=21091
What is the main function of the lateral line system in fish, highlighted here with an arrow in a goldfish (Carassius auratus)?
Answer: Detect movement and pressure changes.
The lateral line system helps fish to detect movement, vibration, and pressure differences in the water. This sensitivity gives them spatial awareness and the ability to navigate.
Fish use the information they receive from the lateral line organs to orient in water, hunt, hide, and in schooling behavior.
The main functional unit of the lateral line is a mechanoreceptor called the neuromast, which resembles the hair cells of the inner ear of mammals. Neuromasts sense changes in water pressure, movement, and vibration. In a way, the lateral line system is one type of “ear” of the fish.
Click here to see a diagram of the lateral line sensory organ with neuromasts.
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/1/10/LateralLine_Organ.jpg
What is the primary use of xylazine in cattle?
Xylazine is primarily used for chemical restraint in cattle. Xylazine is an alpha-two agonist with sedative, analgesic, and muscle relaxation properties.
Cattle are very sensitive to xylazine - the bovine dose is about 1/10 the dose used in dogs or horses. It is often used in combination with ketamine and butorphanol.
Bloat and hypoxemia are a concern when you use xylazine in cattle at doses that can cause recumbency.
Xylazine is reversed with yohimbine, atipamezole, or tolazoline.
Link: Recommended Cattle Analgesic and Anesthetic Agents
https://www.depts.ttu.edu/iacuc/Anesthetics_and_Analgesics_Cattle.pdf
In the bull, scrotal circumference is directly related to which choice?
Answer: Sperm Count
A bull’s sperm count and percentage of morphologically normal sperm is directly related to scrotal circumference (usually 30-34 cm, depending on age). Large scrotal size in bulls is also correlated with early puberty in both heifer and bull calves.
A breeding soundness exam begins with a physical exam and measurement of scrotal circumference. Evaluate libido (if possible) by observing the bull with cows in standing heat (i.e., does he mount?).
Can culture preputial wash samples for two venereal diseases of cattle - bovine genital campylobacteriosis (Campylobacter fetus sp. venerealis) and bovine trichomoniasis (Tritrichomonas foetus).
Semen evaluation for motility and morphology is a key component of a bull breeding soundness exam.
Click here to see a diagram of spermatozoan anatomy.
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/1/13/Simplified_spermatozoon_diagram.svg
Click here to see a selection of sperm morphology images from different animals.
Click here to see a microcephalic spermatozoa in a dog, a major defect.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/image/dog-semen-microcephalic-sperm
Link: Overview of Breeding Soundness Examination of the Male Animal
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/breeding-soundness-examination-of-the-male/overview-of-breeding-soundness-examination-of-the-male-animal?autoredirectid=22727
Link: Bovine Genital Campylobacteriosis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/bovine-genital-campylobacteriosis/bovine-genital-campylobacteriosis?redirectid=30654
Link: Trichomoniasis in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/trichomoniasis/trichomoniasis-in-cattle
Which part of the tooth is considered to be living tissue?
Answer: Dentin and pulp are living tissue. Dentin is formed by odontoblasts.
Pulp is composed of odontoblasts and fibroblasts and is supplied by blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics.
Enamel is acellular and considered nonliving tissue.
Follow this link to see a tooth cross-section diagram.
https://commons.m.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:ToothSection.jpg
Which part of the tooth is considered to be living tissue?
Answer: Dentin and pulp are living tissue. Dentin is formed by odontoblasts.
Pulp is composed of odontoblasts and fibroblasts and is supplied by blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics.
Enamel is acellular and considered nonliving tissue.
Follow this link to see a tooth cross-section diagram.
https://commons.m.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:ToothSection.jpg
What positioning criteria are important to remember when taking lateral chest radiographs meant to specifically evaluate heart problems in dogs and cats?
Answer. Extend forelegs forward, away from chest wall
Because the foreleg elbows can be superimposed over the lateral views of the heart, extend the forelegs forward to allow better chest visualization.
These chest films taken at the University of Illinois College of Veterinary Medicine show a right lateral film with the elbows fully out of the film view, allowing full visualization of the chest.
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/canine/thorax/ex01/thorax01.html
An eleven-year-old female spayed Dachshund is presented with a history of urinary accidents and excessive drinking, appetite, and panting. She is less active and has been seeking out cool places to lie. On exam, she is overweight with a BCS of 8/9 (ideal 5/9). She has a pot-bellied appearance with palpable cranial abdominal organomegaly. She is developing bilaterally symmetrical flank alopecia. What is the key advantage of the low-dose dexamethasone suppression test (LDDST) compared to the ACTH stimulation test for diagnosis of the most likely differential?
Answer: LDDST is more sensitive.
The top differential is hyperadrenocorticism (HAC, Cushing Dz) and the low-dose dexamethasone suppression test (LDDST) is more sensitive than the ACTH stimulation test.
In epidemiologic terms, the LDDST is more sensitive, meaning there are few false negatives, so a negative test is more reliable. The ACTH stim is more specific, meaning there are few false positives, so a positive test is more reliable.
The ACTH stim, not the LDDST, can diagnose and differentiate iatrogenic and naturally occurring HAC. Both tests require blood samples.
Click here to see Zuku’s canine adrenal testing chart.
https://zukureview.com/node/100586
Link: Cushing Syndrome (Hyperadrenocorticism)
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/endocrine-system/the-adrenal-glands/cushing-syndrome-hyperadrenocorticism
Key Information on Cushing Syndrome (Hyperadrenocorticism) in Dogs
Etiology and Pathogenesis
• Types:
• Pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism (PDH): 80-85% of cases, due to adenoma in the pituitary gland.
• Adrenal-dependent hyperadrenocorticism (ADH): 10-15% of cases, due to adrenal tumors.
Clinical Signs
• Symptoms: Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, weight gain, muscle atrophy, abdominal distension, skin changes (alopecia, thinning), lethargy.
• Laboratory Abnormalities: Increased serum alkaline phosphatase, hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, decreased urine concentrating ability.
Diagnosis
• Tests: ACTH stimulation test, low-dose dexamethasone suppression test, ultrasonography, MRI/CT for tumor localization.
Treatment
• Medications: Trilostane, mitotane.
• Surgical: Adrenalectomy for adrenal tumors.
Basophilic stippling of erythrocytes is found in which one of the following conditions?
Answer: Lead poisoning.
Animals suffering from lead poisoning have basophilic stippling of their red blood cells. The “stippling” is caused by aggregation of ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
Basophilic stippling of erythrocytes is found in which one of the following conditions?
Answer: Lead poisoning.
Animals suffering from lead poisoning have basophilic stippling of their red blood cells. The “stippling” is caused by aggregation of ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
Which agent causes equine coital exanthema (ECE)?
Answer: Equine herpesvirus type 3
Equine coital exanthema (EHV-3) is caused by equine herpesvirus type 3 and does not affect fertility. See papules, ulcers, and depigmented scars on vulva, perineum, penis, prepuce. Follow this link to see typical depigmented scars, ulcers from equine coital exanthema.
Taylorella equigenitalis causes contagious equine metritis (CEM) but is not typically found in North America. REPORT CEM if you suspect it (see infertility, endometritis with profuse mucopurulent vulvar discharge in a mare recently imported from Europe, Japan).
Trypanosoma equiperdum causes dourine, another chronic venereal disease NOT found in North America and like CEM, REPORTABLE! 50-75% mortality.
Streptococcus equi spp. zooepidemicus is the #1 infectious cause of equine infertility and Streptococcus equi spp. equi causes strangles.
Link: Equine Coital Exanthema
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/equine-coital-exanthema/equine-coital-exanthema?redirectid=30655
Link: Metritis in Production Animal
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/uterine-diseases-in-production-animals/metritis-in-production-animals?mredirectid=1751
Link: a Trypanosomiasis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/blood-parasites/trypanosomiasis-in-animals?autoredirectid=17926
Link: Endometritis in Production Animal
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/uterine-diseases-in-production-animals/endometritis-in-production-animals?mredirectid=1749
Link: Strangles in Horses.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/respiratory-system/respiratory-diseases-of-horses/strangles-in-horses
Necropsy of a dog with a history of kyphosis, spinal pain, collapse and pyuria shows the following lesion in a T3-L3 vertebral section. What disease is this?
Focal meningomyelitis
Canine degenerative myelopathy
Diskospondylitis
Leukoencephalomyelopathy
Ischemic myelopathy
Answer: Diskospondylitis.
This is diskospondylitis, a vertebral infection from hematogenous spread of bacteria (or fungi) from another site. Typically seen middle-aged big breeds, especially German Shepherds, Great Danes.
Usually caused by hematogenous spread of STAPH AUREUS from primary infection elsewhere. See bacteremia, pyuria in 50%. Blood cultures positive in 75%.
Rx is very long term ABX (Ave. treatment is 4 to 6 mos). Relapses are not uncommon.
Px good for most with mild to moderate clinical signs.
Can be caused by Brucella canis. Recurrence is common with B. canis.
Ref: Blackwell’s 5-Minute Vet Consult Canine Feline, 4th ed. pp. 392-93.
Link: Inflammatory and Infectious Diseases of the Spinal Column and Cord Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/diseases-of-the-spinal-column-and-cord/inflammatory-and-infectious-diseases-of-the-spinal-column-and-cord-in-animals?autoredirectid=16746
Link: Overview of Brucellosis in Dogs
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/brucellosis-in-dogs/overview-of-brucellosis-in-dogs
Which one of the following problems is most likely in a cat with the parasite Ollulanus tricupis?
Intussusception
Small bowel diarrhea
Protein-losing enteropathy
Vomiting soon after eating
Constipation
Answer: Vomiting soon after eating.
Ollulanus tricuspis infects several species, but is mostly seen in cats.
A common sign is vomiting a few minutes to hours after eating, due to a mild erosive gastritis.
The worms are usually digested before being passed in feces.
Check vomitus or stomach contents for larvae (~500 um) or adult worms.
A Baermann apparatus can help to separate worms and larvae from stomach contents sc that they are easier to see.
The Companion Animal Parasite Council has a good review of this parasite here.
https://capcvet.org/guidelines/ollulanus-tricuspis/
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor: Dogs and Cats, 4th ed., p. 380.
Link: Ollulanus sp in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/gastrointestinal-parasites-of-small-animals/ollulanus-sp-in-small-animals
What is the primary pathogenesis of diabetes mellitus in cats?
Immune-mediated pancreatic beta cell destruction
Peripheral insulin resistence with beta cell failure
Congenital pancreatic acing cell atrophy
Elevated counter-regulatory hormones such as cortisol
Pancreatic neoplasia effacing normal beta cells
Answer: Peripheral insulin resistance with beta cell destruction.
Diabetes mellitus (DM) in cats most often occurs due to peripheral insulin resistance (where cells no longer respond to insulin) and beta cell failure to produce insulin. This most resembles type 2 DM in humans.
In contrast, dogs usually develop type 1 DM due to immune-mediated destruction of pancreatic beta cells and a subsequent absolute lack of insulin.
Peripheral insulin resistance may occur due to obesity, exogenous steroid administration, and inactivity.
The exact pathogenesis of beta cell failure is unclear, but is often associated with amyloid deposition within islet cells and glucotoxicity. Hyperglycemia exacerbates beta cell dysfunction, causing further decreases in insulin secretion.
If you feed a low-carbohydrate, canned diet and tightly control blood glucose with long-acting insulin, some cats will revert to a non-diabetic state and no longer require insulin therapy. These cats should continue the diabetic-specific diet. Advise the owner that relapse is possible. They should monitor for signs of DM like increased drinking and urination.
Click here for Zuku’s table on the types of insulin used in practice.
https://zukureview.com/types-insulin-used-small-animal-practice
Key:
IM: Intramuscular
N: Intravenous
SQ: Subcutaneous
Always dose insulin based on (ideal) body weight, taking concurrent disease into consideration
Combine insulin therapy with appropriate dietary management to optimize glycemic control
Typically do not increase insulin dosage more frequently than every 1-2 wks
Although manufacturer guidelines typically recommend discarding insulin after 4-6 wks, most insulin is efficacious if stored in the fridge for 3-6 mos; discard insulin that is discolored or has other changes in appearance
Definition of diabetic control: Clinical signs of diabetes resolve; i.e., polyuria/polydipsia, weight loss, polyphagia; plus absence of hypoglycemia
This image of a cardiac waveform shown below is from an electrocardiogram of horse that was recorded using Lead I with a base-apex setup. Which of the following corresponds to atrial depolarization?
The P wave is a recording of atrial depolarization (#1). It is often biphasic in the horse. Since the heart rate is slower, a separate peak is seen as the depolarization wave travels through the each atrium. The ‘A’ wave, seen at #2, is atrial repolarization.
The shape and direction of each waveform is affected by placement of leads and the recording selected. In horses, the best ECG is obtained using Lead I with electrodes attached in the base-apex arrangement.
The P wave will be positive, the QRS is negative, and the T wave varies in direction. With Lead Ill, the direction of waveforms is opposite.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9thed, pp. 860, Thomas & Lerche Anes & Analgesia for Vet Techs, 4th ed. pp 145-7.
