BCSE Flashcards
1
Q
In horses, which body system is affected in cases of Arabian fading syndrome?
A
The integument. It is an idiopathic, acquired loss of pigmentation of the skin, vitiligo (the name refers to fading colour, not loss of stamina).
2
Q
How should the technique differ in terms of kVp and mAs between thoracic and abdominal radiographs?
A
Abdomen: high mAs, low kVp. Thorax: high kVp, low mAs
3
Q
What is the Morgan line?
A
It is a radio graphic finding that represents the formation of enthesiophytes on the caudal aspect of the femoral neck, medial to the trochanteric fossa. It occurs as a result of early degenerative joint disease of the coxofemoral joint.
4
Q
Which is true about Inter dog aggression in households? Owners can identify who is the aggressor and who is the victim in.
A
69% of owners report overall improvement with treatment; 71% of owners can identify aggressor and victim; and 79% of cases involve same - sex pairs.
5
Q
The spirochete Treponema paraluiscuniculi is the causative organism of which venereal disease?
A
Rabbit Syphilis or vent disease
6
Q
Which 2 surgical goals must be achieved for successful arthrodesis of a joint?
A
Complete removal of articular cartilage and rigid stabilization of the joint
7
Q
Which nerve and associated spinal cord segments does the patellar reflex test?
A
Femoral Nerve (spinal segments L4-6)
8
Q
Which medication increases detrusor muscle contractility?
What is its main contraindication?
A
Bethanechol: urethral obstruction
9
Q
Define TELOGEN DEFLUXION
A
The loss of hair that occurs 1-3 months after a stressful event such as pregnancy/parturition; the event causes a sudden termination of growth of many anagen hair follicles, then synchronization of these follicles in catagen and ultimately telogen.
10
Q
Where is the majority of sodium reabsorbed in the nephron?
A
The proximal convoluted tubule
11
Q
What is the geographical endemic region of coccidioidomycosis in North America?
A
Southwestern United States, Mexico
12
Q
The amino acid structure of feline insulin is most similar to that of which other mammal?
A
Bovine, which explains the preference for beef-based insulin for treatment in cats
13
Q
Some animals with a persistent right aortic arch may also have a heart murmur. What is the most likely cause for this murmur?
A
A patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). The persistent aortic arch itself does not cause a murmur
14
Q
Which type of nut can cause neurological signs such as whole body tremors when it is ingested by dogs?
A
The macadamia nut
15
Q
What is the renal hormone responsible for stimulating production of red blood cells?
A
Erythropoietin
16
Q
This parasite causes a thick, red-brown crusting of the external ear canal of rabbits.
A
Psoroptes cuniculi
17
Q
Which 2 hematologist findings are indicative or significant oxidative damage?
A
Heinz bodies and eccentrocytes
18
Q
The incidence of dilated cardiomyopathy in cats decreased dramatically after the 1987 discovery that a significant cause was a dietary deficiency of which nutrient?
A
Taurine
19
Q
What is distinctive about the macroscopic appearance of female Hamonchus worms?
A
A “barber pole” appearance (intertwined uterus and intestine)
20
Q
Birds that eat seeds exclusively often suffer from which vitamin deficiency?
A
Hypovitaminosis A
21
Q
In a feedlot, which component of the diet is generally overfed if cattle are developing frothy bloat?
A
Concentrate.
Ogilvie. T. Large Animal Internal Medicine.
22
Q
Which disease of ferrets typically causes hypoglycaemia, seizures, collapse, weakness, and muscle fasciculations?
A
Insulinoma.
Oglesbee BLACK. The 5-minute Veterinary Consult: Ferret and Rabbit.
23
Q
Aujeszky’s disease of swine causes which reportable disease of ruminants?
A
Pseudorabies.
24
Q
Name 2 differences in the appearance of normal canine anatomic structures in a dorsoventral thoracic radiograph compared to the appearance of the same structures in a ventor dorsal thoracic radiograph.
A
The heart is more ovoid in appearance in a DV (more elongated in VD); the accessory lung lobe is less aerated in a DV; the caudal pulmonary vessels and bronchi are more conspicuous in a DV; the diaphragmatic crura are more convex in appearance in a VD radiograph.
Thrall DE. Interpretation paradigms for the small animal thorax. Textbook of Veterinary Diagnostic Radiology. 5th ed.
25
Unlike dogs, which serum liver enzyme in cats is not easily affected by corticosteroid exposure?
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP).
History, clinical signs, and physical phindings in hepatobiliary disease. Ettinger SJ, Textbook of Veterinary Internal Medicine. 6th ed.
26
Butorphanol administered to horses, loperamide (Imodium - AD) administered to cats, and acepromazine administered to dogs, all may cause which type of adverse effect?
Profound excitement / central nervous system stimulation.
Plumb DC. Veterinary Drug Handbook.
27
The canine parvovirus ELISA test will detect which feline virus?
Feline panleukopenia virus.
Hackett T. Acute hemorrhagic diarrhea. Raffe M. The Veterinary ICU Book.
28
The most common physical exam abnormality in ferrets with adrenocortical disease is:
Alopecia.
Endocrine diseases. Carpenter JW. Ferrets, Rabbits, and Rodents, 2nd ed.
29
What is the reversal agent for medetomidine?
Atipamezole.
30
Which animal is the definitive host for Sarcocystis neurona?
Opossum.
Saville WJ. Disorders of the neurologic system. Sellon DC. Equine Internal Medicine. 2nd ed.
31
Name 2 factors to consider in order to choose the most appropriate disinfectant.
Spectrum of activity, relative efficacy in the presence of organic debris, toxicity to animals and humans, potential damaging effects on certain surfaces, cost, potential environmental effects.
Morley PS. Biosecurity and infection control for large animal practices. Smith BP, Large Animal Internal Medicine. 4th ed. p. 1527.
32
Bacterial pneumonia in adult horses is most commonly associated with which organism?
Streptococcus equi zooepidermicus.
Girguere S. Bacterial pneumonia and pleuropneumonia in adult horses. Smith BP. Large Animal Internal Medicine. 4th ed. p. 500-10.
33
Why is a patient placed in left lateral recumbency to perform a pericardiocentesis?
Entering the chest wall and pericardial space from the right side (left recumbency) minimizes risk of coronary artery laceration, since the largest coronary arteries course on the epicardia surface of the left side of the heart.
Cote E. Pericardiocentesis. Clinical Veterinary Advisor.
34
Which two hematologic findings on smears of peripheral blood suggest immune-mediated red blood cell damage?
Spherocytes and agglutinated red blood cells.
Walker D. Peripheral blood smears. Meinkoth JH. Cytology and Hematology of Dogs and Cat. 2nd ed. pp. 254-83
35
What is the cause of equine coital exanthema?
Equine herpesvirus 3.
Foster RA. Male genital system. Jubb, Kennedy and Palmer’s Pathology of Domestic Animals. 5th ed. p. 613.
36
Diazoxide is used singly or in combination with prednisolone to medically manage which neoplastic condition in ferrets?
Insulinoma (both drugs help to raise blood glucose levels).
Quesenberry KE. Endocrine diseases. Ferrets, Rabbits, and Rodents. 2nd ed.
37
Most opaque with solutions, like procaine Penicillin G, should never be administered intravenously. What are 2 opaque white solutions that are an exception to this rule?
Protofol and total parenteral nutrition.
38
Other than gastrointestinal and adrenal effects, ketoconazole is recognized to have toxic potential involving which important organ?
Liver (and less commonly it can also affect bone marrow).
39
Which drug can be given to reverse the effects of opioids?
Naloxone; butorphanol also has mixed agonist-antagonist properties.
40
Which are the vitamin K dependent clotting factors?
II, VII, IX, X.
DuFort RM. Acquired coagulopathies. Ettinger SJ. Textbook of Veterinary Internal Medicine.
41
“Grass Tetany” of cattle is a result of which metabolic abnormality?
Hypomagnesemia.
42
Which etiologic agent is associated with caseous necrotic lesions in lymph nodes or visceral organs of small ruminants?
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis.
43
Which clinical sign of Horner’s syndrome differentiates horses with cattle?
Horses sweat (ipsilateral to the affected side); cattle do not.
44
What is the causative agent of blackleg?
Clostridium chauvoei.
45
What are 3 zoonotic organisms that cause abortion in sheep?
Brucella melitensis, Coxiella burnetti, Toxoplasma gondii, Chlamydia psittaci, Campylobacter jejuni, Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella spp.
46
A malnourished cockatiel has wet feathers surrounding the mouth, and halitosis. An oral swab shows budding yeasts cytologically. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Candidiasis.
47
Which diet predisposes rabbits to gastric stasis syndrome?
A) high carbohydrate / low fiber
B) low carbohydrate / high fibre
C) diet has no significant effect on this syndrome
A. Fiber promotes peristalsis.
48
What is the treatment of choice for symptomatic third-degree atrioventricular block?
Permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation.
49
Pectoral abscesses in horses (“pigeon fever”) are a result of infection with which organism?
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis.
50
At what age are Guinea pigs sexually mature?
2 months of age in females, and 3 months in males.
51
What are the three common types of testicular tumours in small animals?
Interstitial cell, Sertoli cell, and seminomas
52
After a week and a half of rain, numerous individuals in a flock of sheep exhibit matted discolored, malodorous fleece. What is the likely diagnosis?
Ovine fleece rot caused by proliferation of Pseudomonas spp. This disease is economically important because the affected sheep are predisposed to myasis, and the value of the wool is decreased.
Hargis AM. The integument. Pathologic Basis of Veterinary Disease, 5th.
53
Which proportion of cats presented promptly for veterinary care after lily ingestion develops renal failure?
A. <15%
B. 25-40%
C. 50-70%
D. >75%
A. <15%. The vast majority of cats that ingest lilies and are presented for veterinary care prior to the onset of clinical signs do well: they respond to treatment and / or ingested a dose that does not cause detectable renal insufficiency.
Slater Mr. Exposure circumstances and outcomes of 48 households with 57 cats exposed to toxic lily species.
54
Which 3 major serum mineral imbalances can result in recumbency in cows (“downer cow syndrome”)?
Hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypophosphatemia.
Goff JP. Calcium, magnesium and phosphorus. Large Animal Internal Medicine.
55
Several animals in a goat herd have clinical signs that include swollen carpi, stiff gait, and difficulty rising. Some animals Also have a firm udder on palpation, and coughing is noted. What is the most likely etiology?
Caprine arthritis encephalitis; genus lentivirus, family Retroviridae.
Smith MC. Goat Medicine.
56
Which animal has an ear cavity and tympanic membrane: an iguana or a snake?
An iguana, Snakes have neither (they are deaf) and rely mainly on smell and sensation of ground vibrations for sensory input.
Jacobson ER. Infectious Diseases and Pathology of Reptiles.
57
What is the causative agent of infectious canine thrombocytopenia?
Anaplasma platys.
Harvey JW. Thrombocytotropic anaplasmosis. Infectious Diseases of the Dog and Cat.
58
In a cow with mastitis, the mammary lymph nodes may be enlarged. Where are these nodes located?
Dorsal to the udder, between the medical and lateral laminate of the suspensory apparatus of the udder and cranial to the thick, fat-filled connective tissue in the perineum below the ischial arch.
de Lahunta A. Applied Veterinary Anatomy.
59
Epitelial hyperplasia is a common cutaneous response to infectious and non infectious agents, why may this occur more readily in fish compared to mammals?
Fish skin lacks a protective keratine layer on the outside of the epidermis.
Roberts RJ. The pathophysiology and systemic pathology of teleosts.
60
Which vein is most accessible for avian blood collection?
Right jugular vein.
61
Which porcine virus causes disease that is characterized by stillbirth, mummification, early embryonic death, and infertility (SMEDI)?
Porcine parvovirus (Female genital system. Jubb, Pathology of Domestic Animals).
62
Name 3 conditions that must be met for the extra label use of drugs in food animals?
ANSWER:
Administered/ordered by a veterinarian; on-label treatments unavailable; valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship; for therapeutic/humane puposes only; administration to individual animals or in water, not in feed; identification and treatment records are adequate and maintained for 2 years; veterinarian established extended drug withdrawal period supported by scientific evidence; drug is adequately labeled
REFERENCE:
Payne M. Extralabel use of medications in food animals. in Smith BP, ed. Large Animal Internal Medicine, 4th ed (St. Louis, MO: Mosby Elsevier, 2009) p.
63
What is the main hormone that increases phosphaturia?
Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
64
A pregnant cow’s calf is dead in utero and you about to perform a fetotomy. Which additional piece of equipment do you need: Krey hook, GIgli/saw wire, wire introducer, wire handles, threader and brush, and disposables (gloves, lube, etc).
You need a fetotome, through which to run the saw wire safely inside the cow.
65
What is the most common cause for hypercolesterolemia and no other complete blood count / serum biochemistry abnormalities in an adult, fasted dog?
Hypothyroidism
66
Crías are born enveloped in an extrafetal epidermal membrane. What are its functions?
In addition to providing lubrication during delivery, it keeps the, dry at birth (an evolutionary advantage for neonates in colder, high altitude climates).
67
In pig meat, both PSE (pale soft and exudative) and DFD (dark firm and dry) meat are are a result of stress prior to slaughter. How do the predisposing conditions resulting in these changes in meat quality differ?
ANSWER:
PSE meat is a result of acute pig stress right before or during slaughter (increased lactate production). DD meat is a result of chronic pig stress (glycogen depletion).
REFERENCE:
Wood I. Whittemore C. Pig meat and carcass quality, In Kyriazakis I, Whittemore CT, eds. Whittemore's Science and Practice of Pig Production, 3rd ed (Ames, IA: Blackwell, 2006) pp. 21-5.
68
In the mare, transition from anestrus, to normal cycling (vernal transition) ends when the: A) diameter of the largest follicle reaches 35 mm, B) first ovulation occurs, C) mare stops teasing in heat after 5 or more days, D) mare teases in heat for 5 or more consecutive days.
First ovulation occurs.
69
Phimosis in the stallion is defined as:
A) a neurologic condition resulting in desensitization of the penile glans
B) a prolonged period of tumescence (persistent erection)
C) inability to extend the penis outside the sheath
D) inability to retract the penis back into the sheath
C) inability to extend the penis outside the sheath
70
In pigs at post-mortem, “milk spots” in the liver are evidence of which disease process?
Ascaris suum migration.
71
Define “manica flexoria”
72
Bovine ulcerative mammilitis is caused by which virus?
Bovine herpesvirus type 2
73
Which body systems are affected in horses with white snakeroot poisoning?
ANSWER:
Mainly skeletal and cardiac muscle, which explains the muscle tremors, weakness, choke, and cardiac arrhythmias observed clinically.
REFERENCE:
Macleay JM. Diseases of the musculoskeletal system. In Reed SM, Bayly WM, Sellon DC, eds. Equine Internal Medicine, 2nd ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders, 2004) pp. 461-531.
74
A functional corpus luteum is lysed by which hormone normally produced by the endometrium?
Prostaglandin F 2 alpha (PGF2alfa)
75
What is the causative agent of Tyzzer’s disease in foals?
Clostridium piliformis
76
Hypoventilation in a horse under general anesthesia can produce which type of acid/base disturbance?
Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
77
In foals, is a patent urachus more commonly congenital or acquired, and by what age should it close?
Acquired (closes naturally but reopens due to physical trauma, handling, or infection). In foals, the urachus normally should close by 2 weeks of age.
REFERENCE:
Vaala WE, House JK, Madigan JE. Initial management and physical examination of the neonate. In Smith BP, ed. Large Animal Internal Medicine, 3rd ed (St. Louis, MO: Mosby, 2002) pp.
277-93.
78
What are the radiographic signs of chronic laminitis in the horse?
Rotation and/or vertical displacement (sinking) of P3 from the hoof wall; thin sole;
pathologic P3 fracture
REFERENCE:
Riedesel EA. The phalanges. In Thrall DE. Textbook of Veterinary Diagnostic Radiology, 5th ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2007) pp. 436-8.
79
Which anatomical structure prevents urinary catheterization of bulls?
Uretral diverticulum
80
Which infectious organism (genus and species) is most commonly reported in association with closure of large animal hospitals in North America?
Salmonella enterica
81
To hasten onset of puberty/synchronize estrus in gilts, one should:
A)bring boars to gilt housing (2-4 hrs/d),
B) delay exposing gilts to boars until 185 d of age,
C) expose gilts to boars of similar age and weight,
D) take gilts to the boar housing area and allow contact for 15 minutes
D) take gilts to the boar housing area and allow contact for 15 minutes daily
82
Apart from sheep and cattle, which other domestic large animal species have been found to be susceptible to bovine viral diarrhea virus?
North American cemelids (llamas and alpacas)
83
Which clinical sign of Horner’S syndrome differentiates horses from cattle?
Horses sweat (ipsilateral to the affected side); cattle do not.
84
Porcine respiratory and reproductive syndrome (PRRS) manifest with which 2 main signs on a herd level?
Breeding losses and respiratory disease
85
Which etiologic agent is associated with caseous necrotic lesions in lymph nodes or visceral organs of small ruminants?
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
86
Which infectious agent is commonly associated with rectal strictures in swine?
Salmonella spp.
87
You are living in the mid-Atlantic region of the Us and are presented with six year old QuarterHorse gelding with acute, severe diarrhea, depression and high fever in August. What is the primary initial rule-out?
Neorickettsia risticii infection (Potomac horse fever)
88
Your patient is a 2-year-old male castrated German shepherd dog with a chief complaint of regurgitation; the acetylcholine receptor antibody test is strongly positive. What is the diagnosis?
Myasthenia gravis causing mega esophagus
89
Antigens that reach the palatine tonsils do so by draining through the lymphatics of which region in a dog or cat’s head?
The palatine tonsils do not drain lymphatics from any region. They are lymphoid organs whose interaction with antigens comes from direct oral exposure: ingestion and inhalation
90
Anorecric cats and those fed a diet high seafood may exhibit severe muscle weakness due to a deficiency in this vitamin.
Thiamin. Ettinger.
91
Tremors or facial rubbing in a bitch that whelped 3 weeks earlier is caused by which disorder?
Hypocalcemia (eclampsia, puerperal tetany)
92
What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in the adult dog?
Malignancy .
93
The expected rate of growth for an ovarian follicle in the mare is:
A) 11-12 mm/day
B) 8-9mm/day
C) 6-8 mm/day
D) 3-5 mm/day
D. Clinical reproductive anatomy and physiology of the mare.
94
Which horse is best known for having a genetic defect leading to severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)?
Arabian. Equine immunodeficiency diseases.
95
Which production animal species is most susceptible to copper poisoning?
Sheep.
96
As with feline immunodeficiency virus, equine infectious anemia virus is a retrovirus of which subfamily?
Lentiviridae / Lentivirus
97
A Siberian husky presents with photophobia, blepharospasm, conjunctivitis, and skin lesions consisting of depigmentation, erythema and crusting of the dorsal muzzle, periorbital region, plenum nasals and lips. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Uveodermatologic syndrome (Vogt-koyanagi-Harada-like syndrome)
98
Necropsy of an equine fetus aborted at 9 months of gestation reveals multi focal pinpoint hepatic necrosis and severe pulmonary edema. What is the likely etiology of the abortion?
Equine herpesvirus 1 (EHV-1)
99
What is the diagnostic test of choice for exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in cats and dogs?
Serum trypsine-like immunoreactivity (cTLI, fTLI).
Westermark E, et al. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in dogs and cats. In Ettinger SJ, Feldman EC, eds. Textbook of Veterinary Internal Medicine, 6th ed
(St. Louis, MO: Elsevier Saunders, 2005) p. 1493.
100
A dog has cervical salivary mucocele that requires excision, but the lesion hangs on the ventral midline of the neck. What is the easiest way to find on which side to mucocele is (I.e., which side to operate on)?
Placement of the dog in dorsal recumbency (mucocele will roll/fall to the affected side)
Smith MM, Davidson Domnick EB. Salivary mucocele. In Côté E, ed. Clinical Veterinary Advisor (St. Louis, MO: Mosby Elsevier, 2007) pp. 713-4.
101
“Snuffles”, otitis interna, and subcutaneous abscesses in rabbits are most commonly caused by which infectious organism?
Pasteurella multocida.
REFERENCE:
Deeb BJ. Respiratory disease and pasteurellosis. In Quesenberry KE, Carpenter JW, eds. Ferrets, Rabbits, and Rodents, 2nd ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2004) pp. 172-82.
102
Several dairy cows are moderately lame and have decreased milk production. On the skin proximal to the interdigital space you see multiple wartlike growths, mostly on the plantar aspect of the hind feet. What is your primary differential diagnosis?
Papillomatous digital dermatitis (foot warts or hairy heel warts)
103
What is the most common cause of macrocytosis?
Reticulocytosis, tipically as part of a regenerative anemia.
104
In the “OVSYNCH” system for timed artificial insemination of cattle, the second dose of gonadotropin releasing hormone is given to:
A. Assist in early corpus luteum formation
B. Destroy any luteal tissue
C. Recruit a new follicular wave
D. Stimulate ovulation
D. Stimulate ovulation
Pursley JR. Bello NM. Ovulation synchronization strategies in dairy cattle using PGF2a and GRH. In Youngquist RS, Threlfall WR, eds. Current Therapy in Large Animal Theriogenology 2 (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 20077) pp. 286-93.
105
Atenolol is a beta-1 selective antagonist drug. Therefore, where in the body is it’s targeted site of action?
Ten heart.
106
A dog with pulmonary lesions also has extensive periosteal reaction and proliferation of both humeri. What is this condition called?
Hypetrophic osteopathy (formerly called hypetrophic pulmonary osteoathropathy, or Marie’s disease)
107
A 2-year-old stallion rears and falls backwards. Afterwards, the horse is progressively ataxic. This is a common presentation for a fracture of which bone?
Basisphenoid.
Pease AP. The equine head. In Thrall DE, ed. Textbook of Veterinary Diagnostic Radiology 5th ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2007) p. 170.
108
What does measuring the anogenital distance tell you in a juvenile rat?
Gender.
Hillyer EV, Queensberry KE. Ferrets, Rabbits and Rodents (Philadelphia, PA: WB Saunders, 1997) p. 299.
109
How would you confirm a tentative diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?
Identify the presence of serum acetylcholine receptor antibodies; edrophonium (Tensilon®) testing is considered obsolete
Platt SR, Shelton GD. Exercise intolerance, collapse and paroxysmal disorders: myasthenia gravis: immune-mediated. In Platt SR, Olby NJ, eds. BSAVA
Manual of Canine and Feline Neurology (Quedgeley, Gloucester, UK: BSAVA, 2004) p. 287.
110
What are the vector and the causative organism of salmon poisoning in dogs?
Vector: Nanophyteus salmincola;
Organism: Neorickettsia helmintheoca
Peterson PB. Salmon poisoning. In Côté E, ed. Clinical Veterinary Advisor (St. Louis, MO: Mosby Elsevier, 2007) pp. 981-2.
111
Every January for the past 3 years, an 8 year-old Boxer in Minnesota has developed bilaterally symmetrical hair loss over the caudal lateral thorax and abdomen, histológico abnormalities include truncated, keratin-filled primary and secondary hair follicles. What is the diagnosis?
ANSWER:
Canine recurrent flank alopecia. The seasonal occurrence in winter and higher prevalence north of the 45th parallel suggest that photoperiod plays a role in this disorder.
REFERENCE:
Ginn PE, Mansell JEKL, Rackich PL. Skin and appendages. In Maxie MG, ed. Jubb, Kennedy, and Palmer's Pathology of Domestic Animals, 5th ed (St.
Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2007) p. 636.
112
A Siberian husky presents with photophobia, blepharospasm, conjunctivitis, and skin lesions consisting of depigmentation, erythema and crusting of the dorsal muzzle, periobital region, plenum nasale and lips. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Uveodermatologic syndrome (Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada-like syndrome)
REFERENCE:
Gross TL, Ihrke PJ, Walder EJ, Affolter VK. Lichenoid diseases of the dermis. In Gross TL, Ihrke PJ, Walder EJ, Affolter VK, eds. Skin Diseases of the Cat and Dog. Clinical and
Histopathologic Diagnosis, 2nd ed (Oxford, UK: Blackwell Science, 2005) р. 266.
113
The migrating larva of this parasite can cause thrombosis of mesenterio arteries in horses.
Steongylus vulgaris.
Van Vleet JF, Ferrands VJ. Cardiovascular system. In McGavin MD, Zachary JF, eds. Pathologic Basis of Veterinary Disease, 4th ed (St. Louis, MO: Elsevier Saunders, 2007) pp. 602-6.
114
______________ is the major intracellular cation and ____________ is the major extracellular cation.
Potassium (K+) and Sodium (Na+)
115
Why May excessive handling of fish lead to heavier external infections with pathogens and possible life threatening ulcerations in the skin?
Excessive handling disrupts the mucous layer of the epidermis which protects it from the environment.
REFERENCE:
Shephard KL. Functions for fish mucus. Reviews in Fish Biology and Fisheries 4: 401-29, 1994.
116
Placentitis in the mare is commonly a result of
A. Ascending infection through the cervix
B. Hematogenous spread of bacteria from the gastrointestinal tract
C. Primary infection of the fetus that spreads to the placenta tissues
D. Septicemia
A. Ascending infection through the cervix
Troedsson MHT, Macpherson ML. Placentitis. In McKinnon AO, Squires EL, Vaala WE, et al., eds. Equine Reproduction, 2nd ed (Ames, IA: Wiley-Blackwell, 2011) pp. 2359-67.
117
Normal bird droppings consist of feces and white liquid. What is the name of the liquid and what gives it the white color?
Urates. Uric acid gives them their color.
Dorrenstein GM. Physiology of the urogenital system. In Altman RB, Clubb SL, Dorrenstein GM, Quesenberry K, eds. Avian Medicine and Surgery (Philadelphia, PA: Saunders, 1997)
118
Which zoonotic skin mite causes profuse scaling, alopecia (tioically in the Inter scapular region), and variable degrees of pruritus in rabbits?
Cheytiella spp. mites (“walking dandruff”)
Oglesbee B. Cheyletiellosis (fur mites). In Oglesbee BL, ed. Blackwell's 5-Minute Veterinary Consult: Small Mammal, 2nd ed (Ames, IA: Wiley-Blackwell, 2011) pp. 370-1.
119
What is the maximum rate of decrease in plasma sodium levels during the treatment of chronic (>24h) severe hypernatremia?
8-12 mEq/l/day (or 0.5 mEq/kg/h); a more rapid rate of correction risks cerebral edema
Goldkamp C, Schaer M. Hypernatremia in dogs. Comp Cont Ed Pract Vet 29: 148-62, 2007.
120
Which 2 coccidia species are responsible for hemorrhagic diarrhea in cattle?
Eimeria bovis and Eimeri zuernii
Daugschies A, Najdrowski M. Eimeriosis in cattle: current understanding. J Vet Med B 52: 417-27, 2005.
121
This drug can be given by subcutaneous injection to a female 5 minutes before neonates are allowed to suckle to encourage milk letdown following cesarean section.
Oxytocin.
Gartley C, Halling K. Dystocia and care of the newborn. In Mathews KA, ed. Veterinary Emergency and Critical Care Manual, 2nd ed (Guelph, ON: Lifelearn, 2006) pp. 751-5.
122
What is the diagnostic purpose of placing a rebreather bag over the mouth of a horse?
Optimizes detection of abnormal lung sounds by increasing tidal volumen and thereby the velocity of air flow in the large airways.
Radostits OM, Gay CC, Hinchcliff KW, Constable PD. Veterinary Medicine, 10th ed (St. Louis, MO: Elsevier Saunders, 2007) p. 476.
123
Name 2 differences that may be seen in the radiographic appearance of left heart failure in cats as opposed to dogs.
ANSWER:
There may be a more patchy distribution to pulmonary edema in cats, cats can have pulmonary arterial and venous enlargement, and cats may develop pleural effusion with left heart failure.
REFERENCE:
Bahr RJ. Heart and pulmonary vessels. In Thrall DE, ed. Textbook of Veterinary Diagnostic Radiology, 5th ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2007) pp. 582-4.
124
Restoring euvolemia from hypovolemia can take 24-48 hours under optimal circumstances. Name 3 causes for failure to achieve euvolemia in this time period despite fluid therapy.
ANSWER:
1) calculation errors, 2) underestimation of deficit, 3) ongoing losses greater than estimated, 4) too-rapid infusion with consequent diuresis, 5) mechanical problem with fluid delivery (pump failure, kinked or extravasated catheter, etc.)
REFERENCE:
Mathews K Fail
lical Care, 2nd ed Guaig
125
Name 2 causative agents of systemic fungal diseases most commonly seen in the Missouri, Mississippi, and Ohio River valleys of the US.
Histoplasma capsulatum and Blastomyces dermatitidis
126
A young cat in a single-cat household that stalks its owner, and bites their hands and feet when moving, is said to be exhibiting what type of aggression?
Play aggression
Landsberg G, Hunthausen W, Ackerman L. Feline aggression. In Landsberg G, Hunthausen W, Ackerman L, eds. Handbook of Behavior Problems of the Dog and Cat, 2nd ed
(Philadelphia, PA: Saunders, 1997) pp. 427-53.
127
What is meant by the ALARA principle in radiation safety?
The concept of limiting exposure of radiation workers to a level As Low As Reasonably Achievable.
REFERENCE:
Thrall DE, Widmer WR. Physics of diagnostic radiology, radiation protection, and darkroom theory. In Thrall DE, ed. Textbook of Veterinary Diagnostic Radiology, 5th ed (St. Louis,
MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2007) p. 4.
128
What is the primary force counteracted by the presence of an intramedullary pin in a transverse femoral fracture?
Bending.
Roe S. Internal fracture fixation. In Slatter D, ed. Textbook of Small Animal Surgery, 3rd ed (Philadelphia, PA: Saunders Elsevier, 2003) pp. 1798-818.
129
Name 2 classes of antibiotics that have superior penetration of prostatic tissue.
ANSWER:
Fluoroquinolones, potentiated sulfas; +/- macrolide (erythromycin), +/- lincosamide (clindamycin), +/- chloramphenicol
REFERENCE:
Barsanti JA. Genitourinary infections. In Greene CE, ed. Infectious Diseases of the Dog and Cat, 3rd ed (St. Louis, MO: Elsevier, 2006) p. 953.
130
Methicilin- resistant Staphylococcus aeureus infections have been most commonly identifícated in which 2 large animal species?
Horse and pig
131
What is the mechanism by which von Willebrand factors enables blood clotting?
Platelet - collagen binding.
Brooks MB. Von Willebrand disease. In Côté E, ed. Clinical Veterinary Advisor (St. Louis, MO: Mosby Elsevier, 2007) pp. 1160-2.
132
What is the most common hepatic neoplasm in ferrets?
Lymphoma.
133
The right adrenal gland in the ferret is closely associated with which large vessel?
Caudal vena cava.
Brown SA. Basic anatomy, physiology, and husbandry. In Quesenberry KE, Carpenter JW, eds. Ferrets, Rabbits, and Rodents, 2nd ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2004) pp. 2-12
134
Why is heparin the preferred anticoagulant in birds and reptiles as opposed to EDTA?
ANSWER:
The blood from some birds and reptiles hemolyzes when collected in EDTA.
REFERENCE:
Meyer DJ, Harvey JW. Hematology procedures. In Veterinary Laboratory Medicine, 3rd ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2004) pp. 14-26.
135
What is the most likely cause for a budgerigar presenting with an overgrown beak with characteristic honeycomb pattern?
Knemidocoptes spp. mite infestation.
Clinical Avian Medicine. Gel is S.
136
What is the parasiticide of choice for treatment of Knemidokoptes infestation in the avian patient?
Ivermectin.
Clinical Avian Medicine. Schmidt RE.
137
Which common cause of diarrhea do owners of ferrets often refer to as a “green slime disease”?
Epizootic catarrhal enteritis (ECE)
Oglesbee BL. Epizootic catarrhal enteritis. In Oglesbee BL, ed. The 5-Minute Veterinary Consult: Ferret and Rabbit (Ames, IA: Blackwell Publishing, 2006) pp. 50-2.
138
In reptiles, what is the most common location of uroliths (urinary bladder vs. kidneys) and what is the typical mineral composition?
ANSWER:
Urinary bladder (virtually never renal); urate salts (virtually 100%)
REFERENCE:
Mader DH. Calculi urinary. In Mader DR, ed, Restile Medicine and Sursery, 2nd elSt. Louis. MO: Saunders Elsevier 2006) pp.763-71.
139
In birds, dysfunction of which body system is most likely to cause green urates?
ANSWER:
Hepatic. Green, bile-stained rates may be observed in feces during liver disease. Birds lack biliverdin reductase and form biliverdin instead of bilirubin as the primary breakdown product of heme.
REFERENCE:
Bain PJ. Liver. In Latimer KS, Mahaffey EA, Prasse KW, eds. Duncan & Prasse's Veterinary Laboratory Medicine: Clinical Pathology, 4th ed (Ames, IA: Blackwell Publishing lowa State University Press, 2004) p. 201.
140
Which protozoan parasite is associated with vestibular disease in rabbits?
Encephalitozoon cuniculi
REFERENCE:
Oglesbee BL. Head tilt. In Oglesbee BL, ed. The 5-Minute Veterinary Consult Ferret and Rabbit (Ames, IA: Blackwell Publishing, 2006) pp. 270-2.
141
While you are handling a gecko, a large portion of its skin suddenly detaches and remains in your hands. What is the most likely cause?
ANSWER:
Normal defense/escape mechanism (not indicative of nutritional, endocrine, or other similar disease)
REFERENCE:
Lock BA. Behavioral and morphologic adaptations. In Mader DR, ed. Reptile Medicine and Surgery, 2nd ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2006) pp. 163-79.
142
What does the anticlinal space refer to and where is it found in the cat and dog?
It is It is the most narrow thoracic intervertebral disk space. It is found between the 10th and 11th thoracic vertebrae (the 11th thoracic vertebra is the anticlinal vertebra).
143
How can you explain that hyperlactatemic calves have a normal blood lactate measurement?
They predominantly have high circulating d-lactate levels, whereas analyzers measure l-lactate.
144
What are two common differential diagnosis for multiple homogenous gray-white nodules in the kidney of a cat?
Lymphoma and feline infectious peritonitis.
145
Does an animal with paresis, hyperreflexia, and diffuse atrophy that is mild and slow to develop have upper or lower motor neuron disease of the affected area?
Upper motor neuron disease.
146
Adequate renal concentrating ability is presumed to exist if the urine specific gravity is greater than value in dogs?
1.030
147
This coronaviral disease of chickens produces respiratory signs, often followed by renal disorders (with pale, swollen kidneys) and reproductive dysfunction.
Infectious bronchitis.
148
Advanced stages of this disease in adult cattle may cause lethargy, weakness, emaciation, “pipe stream” diarrhea, hypoproteinemia, and intramandibular edem (“bottle jaw”).
Johne’s disease (Mycobacterium avium subespecies paratuberculosis)
149
Which organism is known for causing abortion “storms” in sheep?
Campylobacter fetus subspecies fetus
150
When obtaining a blood sample via venipuncture, no more than ______% of a bird’s body weight should be collected.
1%
151
What is the mechanism of action of lactulose, by which it helps prevent hepatic encephalopathy?
Traps ammonia in the colon, reducing it to ammonium (excreted in feces rather than diffusing through colon wall and circulating systemically, causing encephalopathic effects).
152
Dogs are the main domestic reservoir for which zoonotic agent transmitted by fly vector?
Leishmania infantum, the causative agent of visceral leishmaniasis.
REFERENCE:
Dantas-Torres F. The role of dogs as reservoirs of Leishmania parasites, with emphasis on Leishmania (Leishmania) infantum and Leishmania (Viannia) braziliensis. Vet Parasitol 149: 139-46, 2007.
153
What is a species-specific characteristic of the leukogram of cattle and sheep?
The number of lymphocytes exceeds the. Number of neutrophils in healthy animals.
Morris DD. Alterations in the leukogram. In Smith BP, ed. Large Animal Internal Medicine, 3rd ed (St. Louis, MO:
Mosby, 2002) pp. 425-6.
154
Phenobarbital therapy classically can cause failure of which organ?
The liver.
155
Describe the classic serum biochemical abnormalities in an untreated foal with uroperitoneum.
Hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hyperkalemia and azotemia.
Divers J. Urinary system disorders in the foal. In Smith BP, ed. Large Animal Internal Medicine, 3rd ed (St. Louis,
MO: Mosby, 2002) p. 849.
156
Wha are treatment options for fibrosarcoma in a dog?
Surgical resection, radiation therapy, and
chemotherapy may all be appropriate, depending on the location of the tumor, presence or absence of
metastasis, availability of treatment modalities and client wishes and finances.
REFERENCE:
Farrelly J. Fibrosarcoma. In Côté E, ed. Clinical Veterinary Advisor (St. Louis, MO: Mosby Elsevier, 2007) pp. 390-1.
157
Which other 2 body systems besides the central nervous system may be affected in encephalitozoonosis in rabbits?
Renal and ophthalmic.
Oglesbee BL. Encephalitozoonosis. In Oglesbee BL, ed. The 5-Minute Veterinary Consult: Ferret and Rabbit (Ames,
IA: Blackwell Publishing. 2006) pp. 238-40.
158
What is the most common cause of chylothorax in the feline patient?
Idiopathic chylothorax
Norsworthy GD. Chylothorax. In Norsworthy GD, Crystal MA, Grace SF, Tilley LP, eds. The Feline Patient, 3rd ed (Ames, IA: Blackwell Publishing, 2006) pp. 42-4.
159
Lymphoplasmocytic infiltration of peripheral and central nerve is a characteristic of which common avian gastrointestinal disease?
Pro ventricular dilatation disease (PDD)
Gelis S. Evaluating and treating the gastrointestinal system. In Harrison GJ, Lightfoot TL, eds. Clinical Avian Medicine (Palm Beach, FL: Spix, 2006) p. 429.
160
A patient has an intraocular pressure of 7mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis - normal, uveitis, or glaucoma?
Uveitis (<10mmHg) (normal 10-30mmHg; glaucoma > 30mmHg)
Martin CL. Uveitis. in Coté E, ed. Clinical Veterinary Advisor (St. Louis, MO: Elsevier г Mosty. 2007) p. 1134
161
The “round ligament of the liver” is a remnant of which fetal structure?
Umbilical vein.
Dyce KM, Sack WO, Wensing CJG. Textbook of Veterinary Anatomy, 3rd ed (Philadelphia, PA: Saunders, 2002) p
249.
162
What is the clinical manifestation of horses infected with Brucella abortus?
"Poll evil" or "fistulous withers" (fistulous tracts originating from the atlantal or supraspinous bursae, respectively)
REFERENCE:
Sellon DC. Brucellosis. In Wilson DA, ed. Clinical Veterinary Advisor: the Horse (St. Louis, MO: Mosby Elsevier,
2012) рр. 70-80.
163
What are the major inhibitors of parathyroid hormone (PTH) synthesis and secretion?
Increased plasma calcium and increased levels of vitamin D3 (1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol)
Visser 't Hooft K, Drobatz KJ, Ward CR. Hypophosphatemia. Comp Cont Ed Pract Vet 27: 900, 2005.
164
What is the earliest erythrocyte-specific precursor in the bone marrow?
Rubriblast
Brockus CW. Erythrocytes. In Latimer KS, ed. Duncan & Prasse's Veterinary Laboratory Medicine: Clinical Pathology, 5th ed (Ames, IA: Wiley-Blackwell, 2011) р. 9.
165
Chickens in a crowded, poorly ventilated henhouse show respiratory signs.
Necropsy reveals pneumonia, pleuritis, sequestered necrotic lung lesions, and caseous arthritis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Fowl cholera (Pasteurella multocida infection)
166
What is the name of the infectious stage of the Chlamydophila psittaci organism?
Elementary body.
Tully TN. Update on Chlamydophila psittaci: a short comment. In Harrison GJ, Lightfoot TL, eds. Clinical Avian Mediane (Palm Beach, FL: Spix Publishing, 2006) pp. 679-680.
167
An adult pig carcass shows emaciation, dehydration, and fecal staining. The dominant lesion is a diffuse colitis, with sharp demarcation at the cecum (no small intestinal lesion). Histologically, spirochete organisms are seen in the colonic crypts. What is the diagnosis?
Swine dysentery (Brachyspira hyodysenteriae infection)
REFERENCE:
Hampson DJ, Felistrôm C, Thomson JR. Swine dy
itery, In Straw BE, Zimmerman JJ, D'Allaire S, Taylor DJ, eds. Diseases of Swine, 9th ed (Ames, IA:
Wiley-Blackwell, 2006) pp. 785-805
168
Which blood type is considered the universal canine donor?
Dog erythrocyte antigen (DEA) 1.1, 1.2, 3, 4, 5, and 7 negative. For practical purposes, DEA 1.1 negative is considered sufficient by some clinicians.
REFERENCE:
Abrams-Ogg A. Practical blood transfusion. In Day MJ, Mackin A, Littlewood JA, eds. Manual of Canine and Feline Haematology and Transfusion Medicine (Quedgely, Gloucester: BSAVA, 2000) pp. 263-303.
169
This cause of stranguria in the male chinchilla is more common in stud animals.
Paraphimosis, also known as fur-ring
Donnelly TM. Disease problems of chinchillas. In Quesenberry KE, Carpenter JW, eds. Ferrets, Rabbits, and Rodents, 2nd ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2004) pp. 255-65.
170
Calving paralysis causes abduction and flexión of both hind limbs in cattle due to parturient trauma of which paired nerve?
The obturator nerves; alternatively, if the cow's fetlocks also are flexed, peroneal paralysis should be suspected.
REFERENCE:
Mayhew IGJ. Large Animal Neurology, 2nd ed (Ames, IA: Wiley-Blackwell, 2009) p. 309.
171
Which organism is most likely to be cultured from canine pyometra?
Escherichia coli
172
What is the most common mineral composition of uroliths isolated from feline kidneys and ureter?
Calcium oxalate.
173
What is the most common histologic diagnosis in feline in feline mammary tumors?
Adenocarcinoma
Hedlund CS. Surgery of the reproductive and genital systems. In Fossum TW et al, eds. Small Animal Surgery. 3rd ed (St. Louis, MO: Mosby Elsevier,
2007) р. 730.
174
Which common disease of reptiles results from prolonged deficiency of dietary calcium or vitamin D3?
Nutritional metabolic bone disease (also known as rickets or hypovitaminosis D)
175
Name the 4 stages involved in the healing process of a skin graft.
1- Adherence (starts within the first 8 hours post-op), 2- Plasmatic imbibition (maximum about 48 to 72 hours after grafting), 3-Inoculation, 4- Penetration and ingrowth of new blood vessels
176
Intussusceptum, intussuscipiens : which is on the inside, and which is on the outside?
An intussusception has an invaginated intussusceptum, surrounded by the intussuscipiens.
Washabau RJ, Holt DE. Diseases of the large intestine. In Ettinger SJ, Feldman EC, eds. Textbook of Veterinary Internal Medicine, 6th ed (St. Louis, MO:
Elsevier Saundela 2005) p. 1400.
177
Which type of anemia tends to have the most pronounced regenerative response - hemorrhagic of hemolytic?
Hemolytic (iron from hemolyzed erthrocytes is more readily available for erythropoiesis than is storage iron or hemosiderin)
REFERENCE:
Brockus CW. Erythrocytes. In Latimer KS, Mahaffey EA, Prasse KW, eds. Duncan & Prasse's Veterinary Laboratory Medicine, 5th ed (Ames, IA: Wiley-Blackwell, 2011) p. 30.
178
Pneumovagina in the mare is associated with chronic inflammation and infection of the reproductive tract. It is associated with: A) the long vaginal tract in large mares, B) a wide pelvis, C) excessive body condition, D) poor perineal conformation.
Congenital hydrocephalus
179
A dog has seizures and hyperthermia. The owner recently “treated” their yard due to snail infestation. What is the likely toxin?
Metaldehyde.
Puschner B. Metaldehyde. In Peterson ME, Talcott PA, eds. Small Animal Toxicology, 2nd ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2006) pp. 830-9.
180
How many teeth does the adult cat have?
30 (upper: 3 incisors, 1 canine, 3 premolars, 1 molar each side; lower:
same except 2 premolars instead of 3)
REFERENCE:
de Lahunta A, Habel RE. Applied Veterinary Anatomy (Philadelphia, PA: Saunders, 1986) p. 15.
181
Which canine parasite is a major cause of abortion among dairy cattle?
Neospora caninum.
182
Which clinical sign of Horner’s syndrome differentiates horses from cattle?
Horses sweat (ipsilateral to the affected side); cattle do not.
George LW. Diseases presenting principally with brainstem and cranial nerve dysfunction. In Smith BR, ed. Large Animal Internal Medicine, 3rd ed (St.
Louis, MO: Mosby, 2002) pp. 955-6.
183
The quarterhorse sire “Impressive” is associated with which heritable muscle disorder?
Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP)
MacLeay JM. Disorders of the musculoskeletal system. In Reed SM, Bayly WM, Sellon DC, eds. Equine Internal Medicine, 2nd ed (St. Louis, MO: Saunders Elsevier, 2004) pp. 494-7.
184
Which equine disorder is also known as “shaker foal syndrome”?
Botulism
185
This zoonotic, Gram-positive rod can cause cutaneous lesions and fatal systemic illness, and necropsy of affected animals is discouraged to avoid release of infective spores.
Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
186
Anticoagulant rodenticides inhibit the activation of all these coagulation factors with the exception of? II, III, VII, IX, or X.
III
187
Which 3 ingredients account for close to 90% of all adverse food reactions in cats?
Beef, dairy products, fish
Roudebush P. Guilford WG, Shanley KJ. Adverse reactions to food. In Hand MS, Thatcher CD, Remillard RL, eds. Small Animal Clinical Nutrition, 4th ed (Topeka, KS: Mark Morris Institute, 2000) pp. 431-53.
188
If a cow does not have traumatic reticuloperitonitis (TRP), how should she respond to a withers pinch test?
Extensión of the back (versus flexion/hunching if TRP is present)
REFERENCE:
Ogilvie T. Large Animal Internal Medicine (Baltimore, MD: Lippincott, 1998) p. 55.
189
If you are looking for Sarcoptes mites, do you perform a deep or superficial skin scraping?
Superficial
190
A male llama shows signs of colic and posturing to urinate, but no urine is voided. On a serum biochemistry profile, you identify an elevation in BUN and creatinine. What is the most likely cause of these clinical findings?
Obstruction of the urethra - urolithiasis. In most livestock species, this condition usually occurs in castrated animals; however, in camelids, intact males are most commonly affected.
REFERENCE:
Fowler ME. Medicine and Surgery of Camelids, 3rd ed (Ames, IA: Wiley-Blackwell, 2010) pp. 160-2.
191
How is a mirror image artifact created in diagnostic ultrasound?
Sound bounces off a strong, smooth surface such as the diaphragm, "reflecting" the pulse to another tissue interface which the ultrasound system calculates to be beyond the first, and this is where it appears on the scan (e.g., a "second" gallbladder appearing cranial to the diaphragm).
REFERENCE:
Aldrich JE. Basic physics of ultrasound imaging. Crit Care Med 2007, 35(5): 5131-7.
192
Pigs in modern, intensive production units are weaned at approximately which age:
A. 3 weeks (range 3-4)
B. 4 weeks (range 4-5)
C. 5 weeks (range 5-6)
D. 6 weeks (range 6-7)
3 weeks (range 3-4)
193
An owner states that her adult rabbit begins to eat and then stops after only a few bites. There is hypersalivation. You reach for your otoscope for what reason?
To examine the caudal part of the oral cavity. When overgrown, dental malocclusion due to excessively long molars and premolars produces these characteristic signs.
REFERENCE:
Chen S. Quesenberry KE. Rabbits. In Birchard SJ, Sherding RG, eds. Saunders Manual of Small Animal Practice, 3rd ed (St. Louis, MO: Elsevier Saunders, 2006) p. 1872.
194
What are examples of animals that are referred to as celonias?
Chelonias are the group that includes turtles, terrapins, and tortoises.
195
Why is the use of chloramphenicol prohibited in food animals?
Chloramphenicol has been associated with the development of a non-dose related aplastic anemia in people.
REFERENCE:
Payne M. Extralabel use of medications in food animals. In Smith BP, ed. Large Animal Internal Medicine, 4th ed (St. Louis, MO: Mosby Elsevier, 2009) p. 1520.
196
Ionizing radiation is used to create an image in radiography. Which one of the following choices lists another diagnostic modality that uses ionizing radiation?
Computed tomography
Magnetic resonance imaging
Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
Ultrasonography
Bronchoscopy
Answer: In computed tomography (CT) ionizing radiation is used to create an image.
During a CT scan, an x-ray beam passes transaxially through the patient. X-ray attenuation (drop off) is measured at sequential sites in a segment of the patient's
anatomv.
A computer reconstructs the data into a cross-sectional image viewed on a monitor. Computed tomography provides better spatial resolution and radiographic contrast compared to standard radiography. Patients must remain still for a long period of time, necessitating heavy sedation or general anesthesia to achieve proper positioning without motion artifact. Therefore, CT may be too risky in unstable patients.
197
How long is the gestation period of sheep and goats?
5 months
4 months
7 months
3 months
6 months
5 months.
Sheep and goats have a 5-MONTH gestation. Estrus cycling begins as days get shorter in temperate North America (as winter approaches), so if they get bred in fall this year, they lamb/kid in spring NEXT year.
Basic questions on estrous cycle and gestation come up over and over, so commit them to memory for the major animals at LEAST (cow, horse, dog, cat, sheep/goat, pig).
198
What is the function of the gizzard in the chicken?
Allows predigestion of seeds and grasses similar to cud chewing in cattle
Avian version of gall bladder
Glandular stomach
Grinding function of similar to teeth
Diverticulum (pouch) in the esophagus
Answer: Grinding function of similar to teeth. The gizzard (also called the ventriculus), is the muscular stomach that contains grit and small rocks. It helps birds grind up hard seeds and other foods, in effect, acting like teeth.
The proventriculus is the glandular stomach in birds.
The crop is a diverticulum of the esophagus, used for temporary food storage that empties into the proventriculus. The purpose of the crop is to allow a bird to quickly swallow what food it can, then fly to safety and digest the meal at leisure.
In hand fed pediatric birds (usually valuable parrots), there a many potential problems possible with crop burn, crop puncture or proventricular impaction.
199
Which one of the following choices is the best test to diagnose a suspected brain tumor in dogs and cats?
Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry
Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
Magnetic resonance imaging
Nuclear scintigraphy
Myelography
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is superior to computerized tomography (CT) in the diagnosis of brain tumors.
Myelography is used to diagnose diseases of the spine and spinal cord.
Cerebrospinal fluid analysis may be abnormal in the presence of a brain tumor, but the changes are often nonspecific.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/neoplasia-of-the-nervous-system/neoplasia-of-the-nervous-system-in-animals#v3288940
200
Which statement about brucellosis is correct?
Affects cattle and horses, but not pigs
Brucella milk ring rest high false negatives
Serum agglutination at dilution 1:50 means cow is a reactor
Infected cows abort only once
Causes abortion in the first trimester
Answer: Infected cows abort only once. A cow infected with brucellosis typically aborts only once after exposure, in the second half of the gestation; later pregnancies and lactations appear normal.
The Brucella milk ring test is used to identify affected herds but has high false positives.
Serum agglutination at dilutions of 1:100 or more in nonvaccinated animals and of 1:200 in animals vaccinated between 4 and 12 months old are considered positive (reactors).
Brucellosis affects all the domestic animals including pigs, which have their own brucellosis organism, Brucella suis.
201
Anatomically, what is the correct order of the parts of the nephron, starting after the glomerulus?
Connecting segment, Proximal tubule, Collecting duct, Distal tubule
Collecting duct, Distal tubule, Proximal tubule, Loop of Henle
Distal tubule, Collecting duct, Loop of Henle, Proximal tubule
Proximal tubule, Loop of Henle, Distal tubule, Collecting Duct
Juxtaglomerular apparatus, Collecting duct, Distal tubule, Loop of Henle
Proximal tubule, Loop of Henle, Distal tubule, Collecting Duct
Here are the parts of the nephron, going from glomerulus and Bowman's capsule (blood) to ureter (urine):
Glomerulus: Filters fluids, soluble materials from blood
Proximal tubule: Bulk reabsorption of filtered water, solutes (Na+, Cl-HCO3-, glucose, amino acids) back into blood. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors act here.
Loop of Henle: Creates and maintains the renal medullary hypertonicity gradient. Furosemide acts here.
Distal convoluted tubule: Helps regulate pH, Na+, Cl-reabsorption and dilution of tubule fluid. Thiazide diuretics (like chlorothiazide, hydrochlorothiazide) and aldosterone act here.
Collecting tubule/duct: Final regulation of water, urea, acid excretion.
202
Why would isoflurane be a good anesthetic choice in a patient with kidney and liver disease?
Isoflurane has a high solubility coefficient.
Isoflurane is a rapidly metabolized by the liver and kidneys.
Isoflurane can be used without a precision vaporizer.
Isoflurane is a primarily excreted via the lungs.
Isoflurane has a very high mean alveolar concentration (MAC) of 6%.
Isoflurane is a primarily excreted via the lungs.
Isoflurane is primarily excreted via the lungs. Only about 0.2% is removed via metabolism. Since metabolism is not required for removal, patients with liver or kidney disease can be anesthetized with isoflurane and recovery should not be prolonged. However, isoflurane and the other rewer inhalant anesthetics DO have some effects on the kidney or liver.
Decreased glomerular filtration and urine production can occur with inhalant aesthetics, and this can be exacerbated if hypotension occurs or if nephrotoxic drugs are used. Hepatic blood flow is usually maintained, but can also be impaired if hypotension develops.
Good anesthetic management with attention to blood pressure and oxygenation are essential to prevent most complications.
203
What is the cellular function of the nucleolus?
Chromosome attachment site
DNA repair
Steroid production
Nucleic acid sequestration
RNA synthesis
RNA synthesis
The nucleolus is the nuclear structure that transcribes RNA.
The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) uses ribosomes to synthesize proteins. The rough part refers to ribosomes embedded in the reticular wall, which piece nucleic acids together in strings to form polypeptide chains (proteins).
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) produces lipids and steroids (among other functions).
204
This image of a cardiac waveform shown below is from an electrocardiogram of horse that was recorded using Lead I with a base - apex setup.
Which of the following corresponds to atrial repolarization?
QRS wave, #3-5
P wave, #1
T wave, #6-7
A wave, #2
Q wave, #3
The A wave, #2, represents the repolarization period of the atria. During this time, the atrial myocardium is refractory to further depolarization while the cell membrane potential resets. This wave is usually not visible in ECGs of small animals since their heart rates are faster.
At the slower heart rates of horses, the extra time reveals this wave and produces the biphasic P wave as each atria depolarizes.
Although most of the cardiac output comes from ventricular contraction, the atrial volume atria is important during intense exercise. Horses with atrial fibrillation are not able to perform at high speed or intensity because of the loss of this 'atrial kick!
205
What is the average feline gestation length?
60 days from breeding at unknown stage of estrus
63 days from breeding at ovulation
58-72 days from breeding at ovulation
About two months and two weeks
48-57 days from breeding at unknown stage of estrus
63 days from breeding at ovulation
Gestation in cats is about two months long-63 days from ovulation, or 64-69 days from breeding at an unknown stage of estrus.
206
Which one of the following choices is the correct description of an allergen?
Substance that provokes and allergy
Antigen found only in nasal secretions
An antibody specific to an allergic reaction
Substance produced by the body in response to pollen exposure
Produced in response to an irritant
Substance that provokes and allergy
An allergen is any substance that provokes an allergic reaction. This is another word for "antigen" used specifically when referring to allergy and hypersensitivity reactions.
In intradermal testing, the veterinarian injects dozens of allergens just under the first layer of skin (i.e., intradermally) to determine what an individual may be allergic to. Areas of swelling and redness are considered positive, areas that are flat and normal colored are considered negative.
207
A client is upset because half of his frogs have suddenly died after he recently changed out the habitat’s water.
What is the most appropriate next step?
Evaluate for fungal toxins.
Water quality analysis.
Humane euthanasia of remaining frogs, start with fresh stock.
Add tetracycline to tank once a week.
Full physical examinations on all surviving frogs.
Answer: Water quality analysis.
Water quality analysis will provide information on pH and levels of ammonia metabolites, chlorine, oxygen, etc. These are all critical factors in tank health. Buildup of ammonium and nitrate levels in the habitat of aquatic amphibians can lead to significant disease and death.
New tank syndrome is a buildup of ammonia metabolites due to lack of bacteria in new tanks (or right after all the water has been switched out). It can take up to 6 weeks for a new tank to become efficient in nitrogen metabolism.
In well-established aquariums, bacterial flora metabolizes ammonium to nitrite and nitrate. Nitrogen metabolite levels (e.g., ammonium, nitrate, and nitrite) must be weekly monitored in the habitat using a water-test kit.
208
What kind of problem may result in clear hyaline casts in the urine sediment of a dog?
Over hydration
Glomerular leakage
Pyelonephritis (kidney infection)
Chronic renal tubular degeneration
Renal hemorrhage
Answer: Glomerular leakage.
Look for hyaline casts (clear, semitransparent) with mild glomerular leakage.
Look for cellular casts (recognizable cells in cast) like sloughed epithelial cells, or red blood cells with renal hemorrhage, or white blood cells with pyelonephritis (kidney infection).
Waxy casts in a urine sediment are thought to be older versions of granular casts, and may indicate chronic to severe renal tubular degeneration. They are wide, blunt or square-ended, and opaque. You may also see granular casts (common, nonspecific, made of degenerating cells) or fatty casts in some cats.
209
Which one of the following plants can cause the problem seen in the following image?
Moldy sweet clover
Bracken fern, Equisetum spp.
Soybeans
Amaranthus spp., Chenopdium spp.
Senecio spp., Crotalaria spp., Smsinckia spp.
Moldy sweet clover
Bracken fern, Equisetum spp.
Soybeans
Amaranthus spp., Chenopdium spp.
Senecio spp., Crotalaria spp., Smsinckia spp.
210
A six-year old male intact Saint Bernard - mix dog is presented who was vaccinated by a veterinarian with an approved one-year inactivated monovalent rabies vaccine four years ago. This morning he was bitten by a racoon that was acting strangely. The owner is worried about rabies.
According to the most recent Compendium of Animal Rabies Prevention and Control, what is the recommended way to handle cases where a pet with out-of-date rabies vaccination is bitten by an animal that is potentially rabid?
Immediate vaccination: Confine 10 days for observation
Keep under owner control for 45 days; booster on 46th day
Immediate vaccination; Quarantine at approved facility for 45 days
Immediate vaccination; keep under owner control 45 days
Confine 10 days for observation; vaccinate after 10 days
Immediate vaccination; keep under owner control 45 days
According to the 2016 Compendium of Animal Rabies Prevention and Control, a dog or cat that has received at least one documented USDA-licensed rabies vaccination and is overdue for a booster should receive an immediate booster vaccination and be kept under the owner's control and observed for 45 days for signs suggestive of rabies.
In general, both Canadian and U.S. guidance on rabies post exposure management conforms with Compendium guidelines.
211
A dead sheep from a large range flock in the Western US is presented for necropsy. The animal had a cough, occasional reluctance to move, and hemoptysis just before being found dead. Necropsy of the lungs (top) and the liver (bottom) reveals the following lesions.
What is the most likely cause of this findings?
Echinococcus granulosos
Fasciola hepatica
Spirocerca lupi
Cryptococcus neoformans
Trichostrongylus colubriformis
Echinococcus granulosos
These are the hydatid cysts of Echinococcus granulosus, a cestode (tapeworm) whose definitive hosts in North America are dogs, wolves, coyotes, foxes, and several other wild carnivores.
Echinococcosis is seen especially in range sheep in contact with wild or domestic dogs. Intermediate hosts include sheep, goats, cattle, pigs, horses, deer, PEOPLE, and some other animals.
The cysts are found in liver and lungs (occasionally in other organs and tissues) and can limit commercial use of affected carcasses or offal.
Click here to see the CDC's information page on echinococcosis. Adult cestodes in the intestine of dogs do not usually cause clinical signs.
Clinical signs vary based on type of infection, age, underlying conditions, etc. and range from unthriftiness and malaise to intussusception or blockage of the intestine, emaciation, and seizures.
Dx in dogs: Identify proglottids or eggs in feces.
Rx in dogs: Praziquantel.
212
Which one of the following canine urine sediment findings is most commonly seen within six hours after ethylene glycol ingestion?
Calcium oxalate monohydrate (6-sided prisms/spindles)
Ammonium bitrate crystals (yellow - brown thorn apples)
Billirubin crystals (yellow - amber antlers)
Calcium carbonate crystals (dumbbells or balls with spokes)
Urate crystals (Amorphous)
Calcium oxalate monohydrate (6-sided prisms/spindles)
The preferred answer is calcium oxalate monohydrate (6-sided prisms/spindles "picket fences"), which can appear as early as 3 hours post-ingestion in cats and 6 hours post- in dogs.
Click here to see an image of "picket fence" calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals (image on right) on Cornell's eClinPath website.
Bilirubin crystals can actually be seen in normal dogs (though they are NOT normal in other animals).
See also ethylene glycol toxicity, Merck, 9th ed.
213
A seven-year-old neutered male Rottweiler-mix dog from the Southern US in poor body condition presents with a one-month history of exercise intolerance, non-productive cough and heavy breathing.
The dog lives outside the house, last received routine vaccinations four years ago, and does not receive any other medications. Physical exam reveals mild cyanosis, ascites, temperature of 102.1oF, (38.9oC).
What is the most appropriate test to do to support the presumptive diagnosis?
Contrast angiography for patent ductus arteriosus.
Electrocardiogram for left heart failure.
Heartworm antigen test.
Complete blood count and blood chemistry panel.
Echocardiogram for dilated cardiomyopathy.
Answer: Heartworm antigen test.
The preferred answer is to test for heartworm disease. The history of outdoor living, in the South where Dirofilaria immitis-infected mosquitoes bite year-round, and the LACK of a history of preventative medication puts heartworm at the top of the DDX.
Patent ductus atreriosus (PDA) is more typically a young dog congenital abnormality that presents with exercise intolerance, coughing, stunted growth and a continuous machinery-type murmur, loudest on auscultation over the left craniodorsal cardiac base.
214
A client is using a ‘teaser bull’ to help detect when his cows go into heat, so that he knows when to introduce the bull to the cow.
How long is the bovine estrous cycle?
24 days
18 hours
17 days
21 days
Depends on day length
Answer: 21 days.
The bovine estrous cycle is 21 days long (range 18-24 days). Behavioral estrus itself ("heat") lasts about 18 hours and breeding should occur from mid-estrus to about 6 hours after the end of estrus (in the case of artificial insemination).
215
What does an in-circuit manometer measure on an anesthetic machine?
Volume in the reservoir bag.
Pressure.
Percentage of gas entering the machine.
Level of anesthetic gas.
Oxygen flow rate.
Answer: pressure.
An in-circuit manometer determines the pressure within the patient circuit. A manometer is needed to perform pressure checks in the system, manual delivery of breaths, and visualization of the airway pressure. The American Animal Hospital Association provides this review on equipment preparation.
216
Which of the following statements regarding “foal heat diarrhea” is correct?
Due to the lack of the mar’s hormones in the milk, it does not happen in orphan foals raised on milk replacer
Oral metronidazole is the recommended treatment
Occurs in foals when they are 4-14 days old
Mares experience it during their first estrous cycle after foaling
Strongyloides westeri infection has been confirmed as the cause
Occurs in foals when they are 4-14 days old
Foal heat diarrhea is mild and self-limiting and occurs in foals about 4-14 days of age, coinciding with alterations in intestinal microbial flora, diet, and coprophagy.
It gets its name from the mare's first estrus after foaling, termed "foal heat, which occurs around the same time.
Foal heat diarrhea is not infectious and also occurs in orphans and dam-raised foals so, in fact, it is not related to the mare's estrous cycle.
No treatment is necessary in uncomplicated cases.
217
A six-year-old male neutered cat is presented with signs of urethral obstruction including unproductive stranguria, vocalizing, vomiting and progressively worsening depression. In addition to azotemia, which one of the following options best describes the most likely findings in this cat?
Hyperkalemia, acidosis, hyperphosphatemia, and tachycardia
Hyperkalemia, acidosis, hyperphosphatemia, and bradycardia
Hypokalemia, acidosis, hypophosphatemia, and bradycardia
Hypokalemia, alkalosis, hyperphosphatemia, and tachycardia
Hypokalemia, alkalosis, hypophosphatemia, and bradycardia
Hyperkalemia, acidosis, hyperphosphatemia, and bradycardia
Azotemic cats with complete urethral obstruction may also have hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, hyperphosphatemia, and bradycardia.
Hyperkalemia and hyperphosphatemia develop when renal excretory function is lost.
The azotemia is typically post-renal because it resolves with fluid diuresis once the urethral obstruction is cleared.
Acidosis develops from the accumulation of uremic acids.
Bradycardia is caused by the effects of hyperkalemia on cardiac pacemaker cell membranes.
218
What key advantage do the alpha - 2 agonists have over other sedatives?
Provide analgesia.
Reversible.
There is no advantage.
Able to be given orally.
Less expensive
Provide analgesia.
The alpha-2 agonists provide analgesia in addition to sedation, whereas other sedatives, such as acepromazine and diazepam, do not. Combining the alpha-2 agonists with opioids increases the duration of analgesia. The duration will vary based on the opioid used.
Dexmedetomidine can be reversed with atipamezole, while xylazine can be reversed with yohimbine. If these agents are fully reversed, their analgesic effects are also reversed. However, other sedatives' effects can also be reversed (e.g., diazepam reversed with flumazenil), so this is not an advantage unique to alpha-2s.
Dr. Sandra Allweiler provides this list of Drugs used to Relieve Pain.
219
A rancher has some calves that have respiratory disease. He says he thinks they have “red nose”. What disease is he referring to?
Bovine viral diarrhea.
Moraxella bovis.
Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis.
Parainfluenza-3 virus.
Bovine respiratory syncytial virus.
Answer: Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis.
"Red nose" is the lay terminology for infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR) caused by bovine herpesvirus-1 (BHV-1). BHV-1 is associated with a number of syndromes: rhinotracheitis, vulvovaginitis, conjunctivitis, abortion, enteritis, and encephalomyelitis. Prevention with immunization is usually effective.
Moraxella bovis is a bacteria that causes infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis, which can also occur in sheep and goats.
220
A nine-year-old spayed female Irish Setter is presented with history of halitosis. On physical exam, the dog has a 2 cm raised friable gingival mass on the lingual aspect of the left fourth premolar tooth. Cytology shows cells with high mitotic figures and pleomorphism of the nucleus and nucleolus.
What is the diagnosis?
Odontoma.
Apical root abscess.
Papilloma.
Malignant melanoma.
Ameloblastoma.
Malignant Melanoma.
Malignant melanomas may be differentiated from benign lesions due to the high mitotic figures and pleomorphism of the nucleus and nucleolus.
Special stains may be warranted in cases of amelanosis.
Due to varied behavior and appearance, gingival growths should always be biopsied
before surgery.
221
What clinical signs are associated with toxicity due to ingestion of the plant in this image?
Posterior incoordination with urinary incontinence and cystitis, abortions
Gastric ulcers, colic, hematochezia
Bright red mucous membranes, tachycardia, rapid respiration, collapse, death
Convulsions, dyspnea, teratogenic effects in newborns (arthrogryposis)
Hemorrhages, hematuria, methemoglobinemia, cyanosis, subnormal temperature
The most common toxic cause of arthrogryposis in the calf or lamb is consumption of quiinozolidine alkaloids in Lupine spp. plants by pregnant dams. Adults that eat lupine may display inappetence, dyspnea, convulsions or death from respiratory paralysis.
If lupines become infected with a fungus (Phomopsis leptostromiformis), mycotoxic lupinosis can cause hepatic damage.
222
Which two chemicals are associated with mothball toxicity in dogs?
4-Iponeanol, paraquat (dichloride)
Acetochlor, atrazine
Paradichlorobenzene, naphthalene
Trichothecenes, sealaranone
Pentachlorophenol, fumonisin B1
Paradichlorobenzene, naphthalene
Mothball toxicity may be caused by old-fashioned napthalene-containing mothballs or from paradichlorobenzene-containing cakes, found in deodorizer cakes in diaper buckets, garbage cans and in bathrooms.
Typically a problem of dogs, ingestion of a single mothball can be toxic for a 30 pound (14 kg) dog, causing Gl signs and after 24-48 hours, hemolytic anemia and Heinz bodies (precipitated hemoglobin due to oxidant injury).
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4730306
Paradichlorobenzene is an organochlorine insecticide, mainly affecting the CNS. Animals present with tremors, salivation, ataxia and seizures.
Pentachlorophenol, paraquat (dichloride), acetochlor and atrazine are all toxic herbicides.
4-Ipomeanol (moldy sweet potato), fumonisin B1, trichothecenes and zealaraone (moldy corn) are all fungal toxins.
Remember that signs of moldy sweet potato poisoning (4-Ipomeanol) are indistiguishable from acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and edema (ABPEE, Fog fever), a relatively common cause of acute respiratory distress in cows, especially adult beef cattle.
223
Which choice contains mastitis-causing pathogens that are both considered to be contagious?
Streptococcus dysgalactiae, Klebsiella pneumonia
Mycoplasma bovis, Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus faecalis, Candida albicans
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Trueperella pyogenes
Streptococcus uberis, Escherichia coli
Answer: Mycoplasma bovis and Streptococcus agalactiae.
Mastitis pathogens are often characterized as either contagious or environmental based upon their abilities to adhere to the teat skin.
Contagious pathogens adhere and colonize the skin of the teat end, then grow slowly through the teat sphincter.
Contagious mastitis-causing bacteria include Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus dysgalactiae, Corynebacterium bovis and Mycoplasma bovis.
Most contagious mastitis transmission occurs when the cows are milking.
Contagious mastitis infections are long lived within the udder.
Control of contagious mastitis bacteria is based upon post milking teat dipping, milking hygiene, dry cow antibiotic therapy, and initiation of proper milking machine function.
Environmental mastitis-causing bacteria include gram-negative coliforms (like Escherichia coli, Klebsiella spp.and Pseudomonas spp) and Streptococcus uberis.
Most environmental mastitis transmission occurs when the cows are NOT milking.
Infections are usually short-lived within the udder.
The control of environmental mastitis pathogens is based on proper milking machine function, disinfecting teats prior to milking, and cleaning the animals' intermilking environments.
Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus uberis and Streptococcus dysgalactiae overlap both categories and may be environmental or contagious.
224
Which of the following inhalant anesthetics is the least soluble?
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
Isoflurane
Halothane
Propofol
Answer Desflurane. Desflurane is the least soluble of the inhalant anesthetics available and therefore has the fastest induction and recovery times.
Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) is the minimum concentration of anesthetic in the alveolar gas that prevents a physical response in 50% of animals exposed to a surgical stimulus. It is a is a measure of anesthetic potency (inverse correlation).
Desflurane has the highest MAC at 7.2 in dogs, 9.8 in cats, and 7.6 in horses. Isoflurane has the lowest MAC of 1.2 in dogs, 1.63 in cats, and 1.31 in horses. Sevoflurane has an intermediate MAC of 2.1 in dogs and 2.58 in cats, and 2.31 in horses.
Inhalants with high potency have a lower MAC (need less drug to achieve anesthetic plane). These are also more soluble in blood and tissues; e.g., isoflurane is more soluble, desflurane is less soluble.
The requirement (%) for less soluble drugs is greater, but induction is much faster.
Anesthesia occurs only when the concentration of inhalant in the blood and alveoli are equal. Less soluble drugs achieve this equilibrium faster.
Since there is also less drug in the tissues, recovery is also faster compared to more soluble drugs. When the vaporizer is turned off, alveolar levels drop rapidly, followed by blood and tissue levels.
225
What is the vector of bluetongue?
Simulid flies (blackflies)
Phlebotomine sandflies
Argasid ticks
Culicoides spp midges
Dermacentor spp. Ticks
Answer: Cilicoides spp midges.
Biting midges of the genus Culicoides are the vector of bluetongue virus.
Bluetongue is almost exclusively seen in sheep, though white-tailed deer, pronghorn antelope and desert bighorn sheep in North America can be severely affected. Rare in cows. REPORTABLE.
Bluetongue causes high fevers, severe pulmonary edema leading to dyspnea and frothing from the nostrils, lameness due to coronitis, and dermatitis in sheep.
Bluetongue can also cause congenital defects (hydranencephaly - see ataxia and blindness at birth).
226
What is meconium?
Buttercup genus associated with toxicity
Umbilical / urachal discharge
Feces of the newborn
Calostrum before birth
Byproduct of hemoglobin degradation
Answer: Feces of the newborn.
The first feces passed after birth are called meconium - they are dark green and sticky.
Meconium is the thick and tarry accumulation of glandular secretions, swallowed amniotic fluid, and sloughed cells present at birth in the gastrointestinal tract.
In horses, the most common cause of colic in the newborn foal is meconium impaction.
Affected foals will swish their tail from side to side, roll, and strain to defecate. Most foals can be treated successfully with a warm, soapy water enema or an acetylcysteine retention enema.
227
Which one of these zoonotic pathogens is associated with the ingestion of undercooked beef?
Capillaria hepatica
Taenia saginata
Hymenolepis nana
Diplydium suis
Echinococcus granulosus
Answer: Taenia saginata.
Tania saginata, a cestode (tapeworm), can be found in undercooked beef.
The definitive host is humans. The intermediate hosts are cattle and other domestic or wild ruminants. Infected humans pass eggs in the feces which cattle can then ingest while grazing.
Oncospheres then migrate from the gastrointestinal tract of the cattle to the muscles where they form small cysts. Humans are infected by ingesting these cysts in undercooked meat.
Refs: The Merck Veterinary Manual online edition.
228
When do deciduous equine canine teeth (Dc) typically erupt?
1 month
They don’t
Present at birth
3 months
6 months
Answer: They don’t
This is a trick question: Deciduous equine canine teeth (Dc) DON'T ERUPT.
Permanent canine teeth are typically seen in most male horses by 4-5 years of age. References vary by about 6 months, but here is a good rule of thumb for permanent tooth eruption in horses: 11-2.5 yr, 12-3.5 yr, 13-4.5 yr, C-4-5 yr.
Note that canine teeth in horses are NOT THE SAME as wolf teeth. Wolf teeth are permanent FIRST PREMOLARS (P1) seen at 5-6 months in the upper arcade of 20-60% of horses.
229
Which factor would contribute to making an x-ray film come out too gray?
Prolonged exposure time
Vibration in the Pottet-Bucky diafragm
Uneven temperature in developing tanks
Excess scatter radiation
Static electricity
Answer: Excess scatter radiation.
Too much scatter (ie: from radiographing a thick body part more than 10 cm without a grid) can cause gray films.
Look more for uneven bands, reticulation on film when temperature in the tanks is uneven.
Static electricity production (from very low humidity) causes artifacts on the film (linear dots, tree pattern).
A light leak into the dark room, or accidentally turning on the lights while undeveloped film is out, would make a gray, fogged film.
230
7. What is meant by the term “acute abdomen”?
Emergency surgery is required
Sudden onset of clinical signs attributable to the abdomen
Peritonitis
Ruptured bladder
Gastric distension and volvulus
An acute abdomen refers to sudden onset of clinical signs attributable to the abdomen. It may or may not be surgical.
Gastric distention and volvulus, peritonitis, and ruptured bladder are all potential causes
of an acute abdomen.
231
A 4-years-old Andalusian gelding is presented 3 days post-routine open castration performed in the field.
The owner is concerned about the amount of swelling in the inguinal region. The horse is eating, urinating, and defecating normally. Physical exam parameters are within normal limits. The scrotal region and prepuce have moderate swelling with no drainage from the incisions.
What is the appropriate course of action?
Aseptic aspiration of this hydrocele, tell owner if it recurs surgery is indicated
Open and stretch the incisions, systemic NSAIDs, increase exercise
Institute systemic antimicrobials and antiinflammatories, limit horse’s movement
Ultrasound to confirm inguinal hernia, place support bandage, refer immediately for surgery
Identify hemorrhage source, place crossing forceps, pack incision w/gauze
This horse has routine postoperative swelling and the appropriate course of therapy is to
open and stretch the incisions using sterile technique, administer systemic NSAIDs, and increase exercise to promote drainage.
Scrotal and preputial swelling and edema that peak at day 3-4 and resolve by day 10-12 are the most common complication following castration. In the absence of fever or significant pain/reluctance to move or urinate, the therapy noted above can be performed on the farm.
Between 20-38% of geldings experience a complication post-operatively. The 2nd-most common is hemorrhage. The most serious is eventration of intestine through the incision. Additional complications include peritonitis, penile damage, and hydrocele (occurs months to years later).
232
Which pair of drugs are both beta-adrenergic agonists?
Enalapril, Verapamil
Dopamine, Isoproterenol
Spironolactone, Pimobendan
Diltiazem, Digoxin
Epinephrine, Atenolol
Isoproteronol and dopamine are beta-adrenergic agonists and positive inotropes (increase cardiac contraction strength). Dobutamine and epinephrine are also beta- agonists.
Two other categories of positive inotropes are:
Cardiac glycosides (e.g., digoxin, digitoxin)
Phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitors (e.g., milrinone and amrinone)
233
Which of the following list of signs best describes the clinical presentation of hypomagnesemia in cattle?
Weakness, flaccid paralysis, tachycardia
Blindness, head pressing, maniacal excitement, death
Hyperexcitable, ataxia, convulsions, tetany
Wildly aberrant behavior ( "Bovine bonkers”)
Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation
Hyperexcitability, ataxia, convulsions, and tetany are the classic signs of hypomagnesemia ("grass tetany") in cattle.
emergency Tx is IV Ca/Mg combo (like milk fever Tx).
If cow is already convulsing, it may be too late.
Hypomagnesemia is most common in early lactation cattle grazing lush green pastures.
To prevent relapse and/or occurence in herd mates, oral Mg salts should be added to the diet.
"Bovine bonkers" is a common name for ammoniated feed toxicity, which is related to nonprotein nitrogen (NP)/ammonia poisoning.
234
Which choice contains mastitis-causing pathogens that are both considered to be contagious?
Streptococcus dysgalactiae, Klebsiella pneumonia
Mycoplasma bovis, Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus faecalis, Candida albicans
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Trueperella pyogenes
Streptococcus uberis, Escherichia coli
Answer: Mycoplasma bovis and Streptococcus agalactiae.
Mastitis pathogens are often characterized as either contagious or environmental based upon their abilities to adhere to the teat skin.
Contagious pathogens adhere and colonize the skin of the teat end, then grow slowly through the teat sphincter.
Contagious mastitis-causing bacteria include Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus dysgalactiae, Corynebacterium bovis and Mycoplasma bovis.
Most contagious mastitis transmission occurs when the cows are milking.
Contagious mastitis infections are long lived within the udder.
Control of contagious mastitis bacteria is based upon post milking teat dipping, milking hygiene, dry cow antibiotic therapy, and initiation of proper milking machine function.
Environmental mastitis-causing bacteria include gram-negative coliforms (like Escherichia coli, Klebsiella spp.and Pseudomonas spp) and Streptococcus uberis.
Most environmental mastitis transmission occurs when the cows are NOT milking.
Infections are usually short-lived within the udder.
The control of environmental mastitis pathogens is based on proper milking machine function, disinfecting teats prior to milking, and cleaning the animals' intermilking environments.
Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus uberis and Streptococcus dysgalactiae overlap both categories and may be environmental or contagious.
235
A four-year-old female spayed Labrador retriever is presented for a six-week history of a changed appearance to her nose. Exam reveals significant accumulation of thickened, hard material on the dorsal nasal planum that is cracking in some areas. The remainder of the exam is unremarkable. What is the medical term for this appearance?
Pityasis rosea
Parakeratosis
Cutaneous asthenia
Ichthyosis
Hypotrichosis
Parakeratosis is the term for abnormal keratinization of the skin, characterized by the accumulation of thickened (keratinized) material. Nasal parakeratosis is hereditary in Labrador retrievers; manage w/ long-term skin softeners (i.e., emollients).
Cutaneous ichthyosis is different - characterized by abnormal, hypertrophic epithelial proliferation, resulting in the accumulation of scale and dermal hyperkeratosis. Look for large, adherent scales over the body, which may also affect the foot pads and nasal planum.
Hypotrichosis is the presence of less hair than normal.
Cutaneous asthenia is the term for a group of syndromes (e.g., Ehler-Danlos syndrome) characterized by collagen defects.
Pityriasis rosea is a pustular psoriasiform dermatitis of piglets aged 8 - 14 wks. Typically appears as small erythematous papules which progress to form collarettes.
236
What is a common side effect of ketamine used for general anesthesia in cats?
Cardiac arrest
Laryngospasm
Hyperthermia
Dose-dependent respiratory depression
Eye stay open
When administering ketamine as an anesthetic agent in cats it is important to remember that the eyes typically remain open. Always apply ocular lubricant to any patient undergoing general anesthesia or sedation, but be particularly attentive to this detail with ketamine.
Remember, cats are vulnerable to laryngospasm during intubation, particularly if the intubation is difficult. You can help alleviate laryngospasm by spraying the larynx with 1-2% topical lidocaine solution prior to attempting intubation.
237
A four-year-old female spayed cocker spaniel is presentes with a one-day history of bleeding from gums. Exam reveals diffuse petechiation of the mucous membranes. There is hyphema OS and ecchymosis and petechiatuion on the inner pinnae. What is the most likely diagnosis?
https://zukureview.com/bcse/study-mode/take-test?question=10
Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
Von Willebrand disease
Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Hepatic insufficiency
This is immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (a.k.a. ITP), the most common cause of profound thrombocytopenia in dogs.
With ITP look for a platelet count <30,000/ML (often <10,000/ML) and normal coagulation parameters.
https://zukureview.com/node/100828
Most commonly idiopathic/primary, but a Dx of exclusion so rule out other causes of thrombocytopenia - e.g., vector-borne Dz, neoplasia.
Tx: Immunosuppression (e.g., prednisone, +/- cyclosporine, or other immunosuppressants). Consider one dose of IV vincristine to stimulate platelet release from the bone marrow. Dogs may require blood transfusion if significant blood loss.
Note: blood transfusion does not replace circulating platelets.
238
A six-month-old male Boston terrier is presented because he keeps having urinary accidents in the house. Physical examination reveals that the urethra opens caudal to its normal location, on the ventral surface of the penile shaft. What is the diagnosis?
Patent urachus
Ectopic ureter
Hypospadias
Intersex syndrome
Syringomyelia
Hypospadias is abnormal placement of urethral opening ventral and caudal to the normal position. This congenital abnormality is most common in male dogs (also seen in bulls), esp. Boston terriers.
Hypospadias is a developmental defect. Results from failure of fusion of the urethral grooves during phallus elongation. Treatment is surgical.
Intersex syndrome is a form of hermaphroditism, seen most often in polled goats.
Patent urachus is a failure of closure of the urachus (urinary excretion tube of neonates).
239
A mature horse is presented because she is bumping into things and is spooking a lot more frequently. She appears to be blind and is easily surprised when approached.
Physical exam reveals normal pupillary light reflexes (PLR) bilaterally but negative menace response bilaterally. No other cranial nerve deficits are noted.
Where is the lesion?
Oculomotor nerves (CN III)
Need more information
Optic chiasm
Cerebral corex
Bilateral retinas
Answer: Cerebral cortex.
This is cortical (a.k.a. central) blindness, due to damage in the occipital cortex of the cerebrum. Cortical blindness is characterized by loss of vision with normal direct and consensual PRs (because the eyes themselves, optic nerves, and their pathways are unaffected), and negative menace. It occurs with cerebral disease -- e.g., hepatic encephalopathy in horses, polioencephalomalacia in ruminants, or ischemic stroke and tumors of the cerebrum in any species.
PLs require integrity of the retina (neural cells), optic nerves (CN I), optic chiasm, optic tracts, midbrain (Edinger-Westphal nucleus), parasympathetic fibers via the oculomotor nerve (CN III), ciliary ganglia, and the iridal sphincter musculature. The cerebral cortex is not a part of the PLR.
The menace response involves the retina, CN Il, the cerebrum, the cerebellum, and the facial nerve (CN VII).
240
How do rumen microorganisms benefit the cow?
Neither hurt nor help the cow
Stimulate production of enzymes that break down fats
Protect against ulceration, produce digestive gasses
Maintain acidic rumen pH to aid digestion
Digest high - fiber grass, synthesize protein
Answer: Digest high - fiber grass, synthesize protein.
Rumen microbes digest high-fiber grass and synthesize protein. Digestion of rumen microbial protein and dietary protein are the two key sources of proteins and essential amino acids in ruminants.
The cow and its microbes have a symbiotic ecosystem that efficiently turns grass into meat and milk protein. The rumen microbes digest plant material, turning it into into energy, protein, and more microbes. As microbes die, their protein-containing bodies are digested by the cow.
241
Which one of the following choices is the treatment for parturient paresis in cattle?
Calcium gluconate intravenously
Removal of the calf from the cow
Intramuscular and subcutaneous calcium
Calcium supplementation of the feed
Answer: Calcium gluconate intravenously.
Parturient paresis, or milk fever, is treated with intravenous (IV) calcium gluconate.
Lactating cows with milk fever have overwhelmed their body's calcium stores in the production milk. Without calcium, the muscles in a cow cannot contract normally, the cow becomes weak and is unable to stand.
In contrast, dogs and cats become stiff or tetanic when their blood calcium gets too low after birth, a condition called eclampsia. Hypocalcemia alters the membrane potential of muscle such that it contracts more and more easily and eventually cannot relax. This is a life-threatening condition in all animals. However. IV Calcium is CARDIOTOXIC and must be administered carefully. Giving too much calcium too fast can cause arrhythmias and even cardiac arrest!
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth ed. pp. 702-3
242
Where is the proper site for semen deposition during artificial insemination in cattle?
Mid-cervix at the transverse folds
Posterior vaginal fornix
Anterior to the intercornual ligament
Uterine body, just past the interior cervical os
Uterine horn, anterior to the mesosalpinx
Answer: Uterine body, just past the interior cervical os.
The semen should be deposited in the uterine body just anterior to the cervical os. Deposition into the horn on the follicular side has produced higher conceptions than body deposition in some studies. However, other studies have not confirmed this.
Artificial insemination (Al) in cows should be done between the middle of estrus until 6 hours after estrus. This is described as the "am/pm rule" because cows observed beginning standing heat in the morning should be inseminated that afternoon.
243
Which choice is the best way to increase the amount of anesthetic gas present in the reservoir bag when managing inhalant anesthesia for a dog or cat?
Disconnect the animal from the circuit to allow room air to flow in.
Gently squeeze both sides of patient’s chest twice with open palms.
A quick push on the flush valve.
Turn down the vaporizer.
Increase the oxygen flow rate.
Answer: Increase the oxygen flow rate.
The best method to safely increase the volume of gas in the reservoir bag is to turn up the flow meter to increase the oxygen flow rate.
If the flush valve is used, only oxygen is used to fill the reservoir bag, with no anesthetic gas. This could allow the patient to enter a lighter plane of anesthesia and also has the potential of over-pressurizing the lungs.
Disconnecting the circuit is unsafe - it allows the gas in the reservoir bag to escape into the room without the benefit of a scavenger. Turning down the vaporizer would lighten the plane of anesthesia, but will not fill up the down the reservoir bag.
Clapping the chest walls is difficult with a fully draped surgical patient, and would have no effect on increasing the gas in the reservoir bag.
244
Porcine Pulmonary Edema (PPE) and equine leukoencephalomalacia are caused by which toxin?
Fumonisin
Macrocyclic trichothecenes
Fescue mycotoxins
Aflatoxin
Slaframine
Answer: Fumonisin.
Fumonisin is a Fusarium spp. mycotoxin associated with moldy corn. In equids, look for CNS disease (equine leukoencephalomalacia). In pigs, see hypertension and pulmonary edema (porcine pulmonary edema-PPE).
245
This eight-year-old female spayed mixed breed dog is presented with a 48-hour history of lethargy and abdominal distention. Abdominal radiographs are shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Gastric dilatation/volvulus
Hepatic mass
Ruptured urinary bladder
Mesenteric torsion
Intussusception
There is increased soft tissue opacity in the cranial abdomen with caudal displacement of the stomach and small intestine consistent with a hepatic mass. This dog was ultimately diagnosed with hepatocellular carcinoma with suppurative effusion and hemorrhage.
Radiographic review: The abdomen is distended, and there is mottled/decreased serosal detail in the cranioventral region. There is a gas lucency overlying the dorsal portion of the liver, this may be overlying bowel, or be within the hepatic parenchyma.
The cranial location of the mass effect, with the gastric axis faintly visible caudal to the mass, makes the most likely differential diagnosis a hepatic mass. A splenic mass is possible, however these are more often in the mid abdomen and better delineated. The distended abdomen and poor detail are diagnostic of peritoneal effusion. The compression of abdominal organs due to the mass effect is also contributing to poor definition of serosal surfaces.
246
What is the purpose of a Bard Parker handle?
Used to hold Kirschner pins when they are pushed into the bone.
Sterilizable electrocautery grip.
Holds a disposable scalpel blade.
Keeps bone in place during plating.
Sterilizable suction tube holder.
A Bard-Parker is a handle for disposable scalpel blades.
247
Which of the following choices most correctly describes the function of the interneurons in the pain pathway?
Short connecting nerves located in the spinal cord and brain that modulate pain signals
Interneurons function primarily in the thalamus to integrate and precess signals from the periphery
The connection between first and third order neurone in the transmission of afferent signals
Specialized sensory neurone that perceive and transmit innocuous sensations
Cell bodies in the interstitium of the spinal cord and brain that support gray matter neurons
Short connecting nerves located in the spinal cord and brain that modulate pain signals
Interneuros are short connecting nerves located in the spinal cord and brain that modulate pain signals from the periphery. They regulate the pain response, increasing or decreasing the release of neurotransmitters as needed, and transferring the signal to other areas for a short distance.
Some relay signals to other parts of the laminae of the spinal cord at the same level and/or up or down the spinal cord for a few segments. The interneurons eventually synapse with second order neurons for projection of the signal from the spinal cord to the brain.
248
A backyard chicken is presented for laying less eggs than normal and listless behavior. Examination reveals tiny blackish brown specks moving around the hen’s vent. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Northern fowl mite
Chicken mite
Knemidocoptes mutans
Argas persicus
Sticktight flea
This is most likely the northern fowl mite (Ornithonyssus sylviarum). The northern fowl mite remains with its host between blood meals, while the chicken mite (Dermanyssus gallinae) feeds only at night and drops off the host during the day.
Therefore, you are likely to find the northern fowl mite on the chicken during the day in the vent area, whereas the chicken mite is found in the chicken house during the day.
Click here to see northern fowl mites on a hen.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/zk/v52139909
Knemidocoptes mutans are also called scaly-leg mites and live on the distal extremities. They cause the legs to become thick and crusty.
Argas persicus are soft ticks that live in poultry houses and intermittently feed on their hosts in tropical and subtropical areas.
Sticktight fleas (Echidnophaga gallinacea) affect multiple hosts, including dogs, cats, horses, and humans. When on chickens, they attach to the wattles and skin on the head area.
Link: Mites of Poultry
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/ectoparasites/mites-of-poultry
Link: Fowls Ticks
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/ectoparasites/fowl-ticks
Link: Fleas of Poultry
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/ectoparasites/fleas-of-poultry
249
Which of the following correctly describes “new tank syndrome” in aquatic amphibians?
Acidic pH associated with new filtering system
Dehydration of the skin from substrate change
Animal unable to find food because nervous in new habit
Buildup of ammonia metabolites due to lack of bacteria
Concentration of dissolved oxygen is to high, leading to gas bubble disease
New tank syndrome is a buildup of ammonia metabolites due to lack of bacteria in new tanks. It can take up to 6 weeks for a new tank to become efficient in nitrogen metabolism. In well-established aquariums, bacterial flora metabolizes ammonium to nitrite and nitrate.
Nitrogen metabolite levels (e.g., ammonium, nitrate, and nitrite) must be weekly monitored in the habitat using a water-test kit. Ammonia is continuously produced by the aquatic amphibians and any unfinished food.
Excess nitrogen metabolites is a common cause of death in aquatic amphibians.
Old tank syndrome occurs after months of tank mismanagement leading to very high ammonia and very low pH when the buffering system becomes overwhelmed.
Refs: Mader's Reptile and Amphibian Med and Surg, 3rd ed. p. 226-7.
Link: Environmental disease in Aquatic Systems
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/exotic-and-laboratory-animals/aquatic-systems/environmental-diseases-in-aquatic-systems#v23353503
250
Why is intervertebral disc protrusion uncommon in the thoracic spine area (T1-T10)?
Dorsal longitudinal ligament is reinforced
Intercapital ligaments reinforce disc dorsally
Hyperflexion is prevented by sternocostal joints
Vertebral bodies superimposed dorsally
Annulus fibrosus thicker in these discs
Answer: Intercapital ligaments reinforce disc dorsally.
Typically, you do not see an intervertebral disc protrusion between T1-T10 because intercapital ligaments reinforce the disc dorsally, preventing it from protruding upward.
Refs: Pasquini & Spurgeon's Anatomy Dom An 11th ed. pp. 130-1.
Link: Degenerative Diseases of the Spinal Column and Cord in Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/diseases-of-the-spinal-column-and-cord/degenerative-diseases-of-the-spinal-column-and-cord-in-animals?autoredirectid=16745
251
Ketamine is contraindicated for dogs having a history o which problem?
Bradycardia.
Increased intraocular pressure.
Polyuria, polydipsia.
Epilepsy.
Parvovirus.
Answer: Increased introcular pressure.
Ketamine can cause seizures in some dogs (epilepsy is a form of seizures). Ketamine is contraindicated (do not use it) in dogs with increased intra-ocular pressure (like glaucoma) and it can also cause respiratory depression.
Other contraindications include prior hypersensitivity reactions, animals to be used for human consumption, use of ketamine alone for general anesthesia, and increased CSF pressure or head trauma.
Remember to protect a cat's eyes with ophthalmic ointment when using ketamine, dint because they remain open.
Refs: Papich, Saunders Handbook of Vet. Drugs: Sm and Lg An., 4th ed., p. 427.
Link: Analgesic Pharmacology.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/pain-assessment-and-management/analgesic-pharmacology
Link: Glaucoma.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/eye-diseases-and-disorders/ophthalmology/glaucoma?redirectid=27586
252
Which one of the following is legal for appropriate use in food-producing animals?
Furazolidone (nitrofuran)
Diethylstilbesterol
Estradiol cypionate
Flunixin meglumine
Chloranphenicol
Answer: Flunixin meglumine.
Flunixin meglumine is labeled for use in dairy and beef cattle in the U.S. as long as appropriate withdrawal times are followed and there is a valid veterinary-client-patient relationship.
Always check out the Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank (FARAD) for the most up-to-date info.
Diethylstilbesterol (DES) is banned for use in food-producing animals and should never be used.
Chloramphenicol has been associated with bone marrow suppression/aplastic anemia in exposed humans, and is contraindicated in food-producing animals.
According to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) the use of ECP in animals is illegal. ECP has been used as an estrogenic hormone for reproductive therapy in food- producing animals, but even extra-label, this is not allowed Furazolidone a nitrofuran, is not allowed.
http://www.farad.org/publications/digests/092009ProhibitedDrugsUpdated.pdf
Refs: Update on drugs prohibited from extralabel use in food animals, Davis, et al., JAVMA, Vol 235, No.5, Sep 1,2009, Plumb's Vet Drug Handbook, 7th ed. pp. 426-8, 530- 3,853-7.
Link: Phenicols
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/antibacterial-agents/phenicols
http://www.farad.org/publications/digests/092009ProhibitedDrugsUpdated.pdf
253
Vesicular stomatitis virus primarily affects which of the following three animals?
Sheep, alpacas, horses
Horses, cattle, dogs
Horses, pigs, cattle
Cattle, sheep, goats
Cattle, sheep, pigs
Answer: Horses, pigs, cattle.
Vesicular stomatitis (VS) occurs primarily in horses, pigs, and cattle and very rarely in sheep, camelids, and goats. It is a potential zoonosis. VS DOES occur in the U.S. and it is one of the big rule-outs among vesicular diseases (remember the big 8: BVD, IBR, BPS, MCF, bluetongue, VS, FMD, rinderpest)
Bluetongue is almost exclusively a sheep disease (but cattle and deer can get it).
Rinderpest mainly affects cattle. In 2011, the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) officially declared that rinderpest was eradicated globally. But because it is a classic, severe, reportable, stomatitis-type disease, it's unlikely that vets will be allowed to forget rinderpest on DDXs for years.
Pseudorabies is basically a pig pathogen. Can affect cows, but horses (and humans) are resistant.
254
An 8-year old male neutered dog is presented after being hit by a car. The dog is BAR with normal perfusion and moderate tachypnea. On chest auscultation lung sounds are almost absent. A lateral radiograph is shown below. What is the interpretation?
Hiatal hernia
Flail chest
Diaphragmatic hernia
Pneumothorax
Lung lobe torsion
This is traumatic pneumothorax.
Note the dark airspace below the heart and the retraction of the lung lobes from the chest.
Decreased to absent lung sounds with a history of recent trauma strongly suggest pneumothorax.
Click here to see normal canine thoracic radiographs.
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/canine/thorax/ex02/thorax02.html
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 3rd ed. pp. 816-7, Normal radiograph links courtesy, Imaging Anatomy Univ. of Illinois Vet Med. Image courtesy o Dr. Terri DeFrancesco.
Link: Trauma in Emergency Medicine in Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/emergency-medicine-and-critical-care/specific-diagnostics-and-therapy/trauma-in-emergency-medicine-in-animals
255
Where is the best place to do a bone marrow biopsy in an adult horse?
Sternebrae
Iliac crest
Lesser trochanter
Distal femur
Scapula head
Answer: Sternebrae.
In horses, collect bone marrow from the biopsy from the sternebrae (bones where the ends of ventral ribs meet along ventrum). In horses less than four years, can collect marrow from tuber coxae of pelvis.
The iliac crest is the site of choice for a bone marrow biopsy in the dog or cat. You can also get marrow from the proximal end of the femur at the trochanteric fossa. Jamshidi, Rosenthal, or Illinois needles are most frequently used for the procedure.
Refs: Smith, Van Metre, and Pusterla's Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed., pp. 449- 59
256
A Charolais breeder in the southeastern United States is planning his calving season for next year. Winter ryegrass will be ready to graze in early February next year so he would like to start calving season no earlier than February 1st.
When should he turn out the bull with the cows this year in order to start calving season next year no earlier than February 1?
March 20
June 20
May 20
April 20
July 20
Bull turnout should be after mid April this year to ensure that cows and heifers start to calve after February 1 next year.
Cattle have a gestation period a little over 9 months long. The mean gestation time of cattle varies between breeds; dairy breeds have the shortest gestation (279 days) and Brahmas have the longest (292 days). The average gestation length of Charolais cattle is 289 days.
There are several online calculators and charts to help planning calving and breeding dates.
Click here for a gestation chart based on a 283-day gestation length. Add or subtract a few days to make it fit specific breed averages.
https://selectsiresbeef.com/resources/gestation-chart/
Early lactation is the most nutritionally demanding time for a beef cow. It is important to match feed and grazing resources to what is needed in early lactation to minimize negative impacts on body condition score and rebreeding.
Refs: Smith, Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed., p. 189. Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, ted, pp. 359. Image courtesy, Yelkrokoyade.
Link: The Reproductive System in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/reproductive-system-introduction/the-reproductive-system-in-animals?redirectid=30657
257
Which of the following is an accurate statement about heparinized blood samples?
Useful for evaluation of coagulation profiles
Can be used for both hematology and biochemistry evaluation
Volume of blood added to the tuve does not affect accuracy
Do not have to wait for sample to clot prior to spinning down
Best sample to use for a blood smear because cells stain real nicely
Answer: Do not have to wait for sample to clot prior to spinning down.
You do not need to wait for a heparinized sample to clot prior to spinning (unlike a "serum separator" or red-top tube). It is, however, important to fill the tube the correct amount to avoid dilution-related inaccuracies.
Heparinized blood samples are mostly used for chemistry profiles. Heparinized blood is often preferable in small animals in which only a small amount of blood can be collected (e.g., birds). It works for both chemistry and hematology but platelets and leukocytes often clump.
Heparinized samples do not stain very well to evaluate cell morphology on a blood smear compared to EDTA samples, and changes in cell size can be seen.
Check out this awesome chart of types of blood samples from Cornell.
https://www.vet.cornell.edu/sites/default/files/blood_tubes_and_labeling_guidelines.pdf
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gthed, pp. 392, the eClinPath website, courtesy of Cornell CVM,.
Link: Clinical Biochemistry
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/clinical-pathology-and-procedures/diagnostic-procedures-for-the-private-practice-laboratory/clinical-biochemistry
Link: Clincal Hematology
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/clinical-pathology-and-procedures/diagnostic-procedures-for-the-private-practice-laboratory/clinical-hematology
258
Which one of the following phrases is the most correct description of guttural pouch empyema?
Fungal plaques
Bacterial infection
Air has accumulated and is trapped
Complication of viral disease (equine influenza)
Answer: Bacterial infection.
Empyema means there is bacterial infection. Empyema is an accumulation of purulent exudate within a body cavity. A septic process is usually present.
Guttural pouch empyema, a not uncommon disease of horses, specifically refers to a bacterial infection most often associated with strangles caused by Streptococcus equi sbsp equi.
Guttural pouch mycosis is a fungal infection of the guttural pouch. Intermittent epistaxis is a common complaint prior to this diagnosis. Horses can bleed out and die if the fungal plaques erode the internal or external carotid artery.
Guttural pouch tympany is accumulation and trapping of air in the guttural pouches. This occurs most often in foals from inflammation or malformation of the opening of the
pouch into the pharynx.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed. p. 666.
Link: Guttural Pouch Disease in Horses.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/respiratory-system/respiratory-diseases-of-horses/guttural-pouch-disease-in-horses
259
Which of the following patients will benefit the most from the use of pre-emptive analgesia?
German shepherd with osteosarcoma of the humerus
Dog presented for ovariohysterectomy
Dachshund with intervertebral disk disease
Cat needing limb amputation being hit by car
Horse with chronic laminitis
Answer: Dog presented for ovariohysterectomy.
A dog presented for ovariohysterectomy will benefit the most from the use of pre- emptive analgesia because she is not painful prior to surgery. Pre-emptive means to intervene prior to an expected event or consequence.
Analgesia prior to beginning of surgery minimizes sensitization of the pain and stress responses, and results in fewer complications and shorter hospital stays. Analgesics are often combined with sedatives as premedication. This also decreases the stress response and helps make the entire episode of anesthesia and surgery smooth and less or un-eventful.
The pain response is already highly stimulated in all the other patients listed. Chronic pain is present in the German shepherd with osteosarcoma and the horse with laminitis. These patients will have central sensitization and neuropathic pain as these are seen in
chronic pain and with direct damage to the nervous system. Neuropathic pain is also present in the dachshund since damage to spinal nerves is seen with disk disease.
Click here to see a good summary on pain management, courtesy of the American College of Veterinary Surgeons (ACVS).
https://www.acvs.org/small-animal/pain-management
Refs: Gaynor & Muir Handbook of Vet Pain Mgt 2nd ed. pp. 57, 351, Tranquilli, Grimm, & Lamont Pain Mgt for the SA Practitioner 2nd ed. p. 10, and Greene's Vet Anes & Pain Management Secrets pp. 331-3.
Link: Pain Alleviation.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/pain-assessment-and-management/pain-alleviation
260
A 2 year-old Irish Wolfhound presents for acute pelvic limb paralysis while outside playing frisbee. In the exam room, the dog is dragging the right pelvic limb and barely able to walk on the left pelvic limb. Exam reveals decreased conscious proprioception in the left pelvic limb and absent conscious proprioception in the right pelvic limb. Patellar reflexes are absent on the right and reduced on the left. No back pain can be elicited. The rest of the neurologic exam is normal.
Where is the location of the lesion?
C4-C5, mostly left
L1-L3
T12-T13, mostly left
L4-L5, mostly right
T13-L1, mostly right
Answer: L4-L5, mostly right.
The patellar reflex is absent on the right side so the lesion localizes to the right femoral nerve cell bodies which are present at L4-L5.
Lesions at the other locations would either have no effect on the patellar reflex or increase it.
Refs: Curtis Dewey, A Practical Guide to Canine and Feline Neurology, 2nd ed. pp. 389- 390.
Link: Trauma of the Spinal Column and Cord in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/diseases-of-the-spinal-column-and-cord/trauma-of-the-spinal-column-and-cord-in-animals?autoredirectid=16749
261
Why are cats particularly susceptible to toxicosis secondary to ingestion of acetaminophen and non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?
High liver to body mass index
Increased risk of MDR1 mutation
Glucoronyl transferase deficiency
Excess cyclooxyrgenase (COX) interaction
Low glomerular filtration rate compared with other species
Answer: Glucoronyl transferase deficiency.
Cats are deficient in glucuronyl transferase, the hepatic enzyme needed to conjugate
most NSAIDs and acetaminophen with glucuronic acid for normal metabolization. This means even small doses of NSAIDs can cause toxicosis in cats. Acetaminophen (Tylenol®) is toxic at any dose and should never be used in cats.
Common NSAIDs include ibuprofen, carprofen (Rimady|®), aspirin, and naproxen. Clinical signs of NSAID toxicosis include Gl ulceration and acute renal failure. CNS effects, such as seizures and coma, can be seen at higher doses.
262
What is the first-pass effect in pharmacology?
Circulation of drugs past desired areas
Metabolism of orally administered drugs before entering tissues
Activation of receptor sites when initially exposed to drugs
Drugs entering a region after a tourniquet has been removed
Elimination of a drug by the kidneys the first time it circulates through the body
Answer: Metabolism of orally administered drugs before entering tissues.
The first-pass effect refers to metabolism of orally administered drugs by the liver before they enter the tissues. Drugs are absorbed from the Gl tract through the portal vein to the liver, where they are broken down (metabolized) before they can be distributed to the needed tissues.
Drugs with a large first-pass effect should NOT be given enterally (orally) because too much medicine is lost by this route. Instead, administer drugs with large first-pass effect parenterally (not orally) to avoid this breakdown.
Butorphanol is an example of a drug that undergoes significant first-pass effect. When given IV, it is 100% bioavailable, whereas when given orally it is only 20% bioavailable.
263
Which animals is the definitive host associated with zoonotic transmission of Echinococcus granulosus to intermediate hosts such as humans and sheep?
Feline
Sheep and goats
Canids
Opossums
Swine
Answer: Canids.
Dogs. The definitive host of Echinococcus granulosus is the dog and other canids. They pass eggs in the feces.
Intermediate hosts include omnivores and herbivores such as humans, sheep, goats, deer, moose, kangaroos, and wallabies. Humans can also be infected by the ingestion of food contaminated with dog feces.
In the intermediate host, ingested eggs hatch into larvae that travel via the circulation to form hydatid cysts in organs such as the liver, brain, and lungs.
Echinococcosis is more common in rural populations that raise sheep. It is endemic in parts of South America, east Africa, central Asia, and China.
Check out this nice webiste on the lifecycle and biology of echinococcosis, courtesy of the U.S. Centers for Disease Control (CDC).
https://www.cdc.gov/parasites/echinococcosis/biology.html
Link: Zoonotic Diseases
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/public-health/zoonoses/zoonotic-diseases
264
Which one of the following artifacts is caused by an uneven distribution of photons, resulting in an increase in intensity of the x-ray beam on the cathode side of the x-ray tube?
Elongation
Ghost image
Heel effect
Gridlines
Foreshortening
The heel effect is due to an uneven distribution of photons leaving the x-ray tube.
This causes the x-ray beam to be more intense at the cathode side compared to the anode side.
The variation in intensity is related to the angle of the tungsten target and its absorption of photons.
The result is a darker image on the cathode side of the image.
To create a uniform density across the image, position the thicker portion of the anatomic structure being radiographed towards the cathode side of the -ray tube.
Click here to see a YouTube video describing the heel effect.
Foreshortening occurs when the structure being radiographed is lifted off the table, causing the structure to appear shorter than its actual size.
Elongation artifact occurs when the x-ray beam is not centered on the structure being radiographed, causing the image to appear longer than its normal size.
Gridlines occur if the lead strips in the grid are too thick, causing them to appear in the image.
265
Which choice best describes the process of repairing a dirty and traumatized wound by second intention?
Insert a drain and bind the wound closed with bandages
Suture the wound closed
Allow wound to epithelialize and contract to closure
Application of a tissue graft
Delay primary closure.
Answer: Allow wound to epithelialize and contract to closure.
Second intention healing is used for dirty, traumatized wounds, where the injury is cleaned and allowed to contract and epithelialize on its own until closed. This kind of wound closure has risks because new epithelium is easily damaged, and contracted skin can sometimes impede normal movement.
Because of this, many wounds like this are left open to contract and granulate in (3-5 days) and then closed surgically (delayed closure, also called third intention healing).
First intention healing (also called appositional healing or primary wound closure) means you suture up a fresh, clean wound within 6-8 hours of injury.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gthed. p. 919.
Link: Initial Wound Management in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/emergency-medicine-and-critical-care/wound-management/initial-wound-management-in-animals
Link: Initial Wound Management in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/emergency-medicine-and-critical-care/wound-management/initial-wound-management-in-animals?autoredirectid=11874
266
Which domestic animal is most sensitive to the toxins of Clostridium tetani?
Ferrets
Cattle
Horses
Sheep
Dogs
Answer: Horses.
Horses are extremely susceptible to the neurotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani, which causes spasmodic, tonic muscular contractions. Spasms of muscles around the head lead to the common name of "lockjaw."
Refs: Smith, Large Animal Internal Medicine, 3rd ed. pp. 995-8 and Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gthed, p. 265.
267
A canine vaginal smear is examined through a microscope. There are about 85% small, round, nucleated paranasal cells and larger nucleated intermediate cells and some neutrophils. In what stage of extras cycle is this dog?
Cannot tell from this description
Proestrus
Diestrus
Anestrus
Estrus
Answer: Diestrus.
This is diestrus. DI-estrus canine vaginal smears are made up of >80% nucleated, round- edged parabasal and intermediate cells. Look for the reappearance of some neutrophils (variable numbers). In anestrus, parabasal and intermediate cells will predominate the smear, with only a few neutrophils and bacteria visible.
In contrast to di-estrus, think of CORN FLAKES with ESTRUS. Look for more than 90% CORNIFIED superficial cells (angular, sharp edges like corn flakes, tiny pyknotic nuclei or no nuclei) when you think canine estrus, and NO NEUTS.
Follow this link to see an estrus vaginal cytology image from the Merck Vet Manual. Full cornification usually coincides with receptivity.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v49773281
Serum progesterone can predict the H surge and help estimate ovulation.
RULE OF THUMB: Breed bitch as soon as she will allow a male to mate or as soon as you see > 90% cornified superficial epithelial cells in a vaginal smear. Typically breed every 2- 4 days until bitch enters diestrus for maximum fertility success.
268
Clostridium botulinum causes which syndrome in horses?
Limberneck
Malignant hyperthermia
Shaker foals
Redwater
Lockjaw
Answer: Shaker foals.
Shaker foal syndrome, or toxicoinfectious botulism, occurs when Clostridium botulinum sporulates in the tissues of a living animal and elaborates toxins. Foals demonstrate signs of progressive symmetric motor paralysis, including stilted gait, muscular tremors, and recumbency.
Limberneck is botulism in poultry.
269
Which animal consistently has 44 teeth (the most) in its adult dental formula?
Horse
Cow
Cat
Dog
Pig
Answer: Pig.
Adult PIGS consistently have the most teeth, 44, followed by dogs (42), horses (36-44), ruminants (32) and cats (30).
Eruption times used to estimate ages is more important to study--Follow this link to a Merck Manual tooth eruption table.
Refs: Smith's Large An Med 3rd ed. pp. 601-05 and the Merck Veterinary Manual online edition
Link: Estimation of Age by Examination of the Teeth in Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/dental-development-and-anatomy/estimation-of-age-by-examination-of-the-teeth-in-animals
270
Which one of the following choices is the preferred treatment for ionophore toxicity?
Cisapride
Merformin
Neostigmine
Dimercaprol
There is no antidote
Answer: There is no antidote.
Unfortunately, there is NO ANTIDOTE that will reverse clinical signs of ionophore toxicity.
You may decrease absorption of ionophores with activated charcoal or mineral oil (bind or speeds up passage, respectively). Early administration of vitamin E/selenium may lessen muscle damage. lonophores are used as feed additives/growth promoter for cattle to decrease intake while maintaining weight gain (push gut microflora to make more volatile fatty acids), decrease feedlot bloat and acidosis.
HORSES are the most sensitive by far to ionophore toxicity (e.g.: Monensin®, Lasalocid®). In HORSES look for HISTORY OF EATING CATTLE FEED.
See anorexia, colic, stiffness ("tying up"), tachycardia, posterior paresis, and high creatine kinase (skeletal muscle necrosis). In cattle, toxicity affects multiple organ systems, esp. HEART FAILURE.
Refs: Smith, Van Metre, and Pusterla's Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed., pp. 495-
99. 1440 and Osweiler's NVMS Toxicology pp. 338-40.
Link: Performance Modifiers in Beef Cattle.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/nutrition-beef-cattle/performance-modifiers-in-beef-cattle?redirectid=25025
271
Collies have a nonfunctional P-glycoprotein pump on the cellular membrane. This affects what aspect of pharmacokinetics?
Drug distribution
Biotransformation
It has no effect on pharmacokinetics
Mechanism of action
Clearance
Answer: Drug distribution.
Distribution describes how a drug moves to various parts and tissues of the body after absorption (pharmacokinetics). The blood-brain barrier (BBB) is one of the most important physical barriers to drugs.
Collies have a genetic mutation in the -glycoprotein pump on the BBB that renders it nonfunctional. This allows drugs like ivermectin to readily cross into the central nervous system and cause toxicity.
Mechanism of action is a factor of pharmacodynamics.
272
Which one of the following is TRUE about Brucella vaccination in cattle?
Increases resistance to infection, but doesn’t protect 100%
Should be performed on all calves less than 3 months of age
Should only be given to bull calves less than 8 mos
Should not be given to heifer calves between 4-12 month old
Answer: Increases resistance to infection, but doesn’t protect 100%.
Vaccination against brucellosis with strain 19 or RB51 vaccines should be done on ALL HEIFER calves between 4-12 months of age. Vaccination INCREASES resistance but DOES NOT PROTECT 100%.
Typically don't vaccinate males- can't tattoo them or put in official èar tags like with females.
(Example of state brucellosis regs, PA).
http://www.pacodeandbulletin.gov/Display/pacode?file=/secure/pacode/data/007/chapter7/chap7toc.html
Refs: The Merck Veterinary Manual online edition.
Link: Brucellosis in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/brucellosis-in-large-animals/brucellosis-in-cattle
273
Which choice describes excessive growth of granulation tissue around a healing wound?
Ulceroproliferative faucitis
Proud flesh
Suspensory desmitis
Villonodular synovitis
Hygroma
Answer: Proud flesh.
Proud flesh is excessive growth of cauliflower-like granulation tissue around a healing wound. Especially common with lower-leg wounds in horses.
A hygroma is inflammation of an acquired bursa that develops where normally there is no bursa due to trauma to the dorsum of the carpus.
Villonodular synovitis is an inflammation of the synovial membrane of the dorsoproximal aspect of the forelimb fetlock joints.
Ulceroproliferative faucitis is a progressively worsening gingivitis and stomatitis in cats.
The glossopalatine arches (fauces) often have severely ulcerated, friable, inflamed, and proliferative lesions.
Click here to see a cat with ulceroproliferative faucitis.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4732199
Refs: Auer and Stick, Equine Surgery, 5th edition and Equaide current cases online, and Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gthed, p. 938.
Link: Hygroma in dogs
274
Which type of immune reaction is occurring in this picture?
Type II
Type IV
Type III
None of these
Type I
Answer: Type I
Type I immune reactions are the classic ACUTE allergic reaction - can be a localized allergy like wheals or urticaria or a severe systemic anaphylaxis.
Free allergen binds IgE antibodies on mast cells and basophils, triggering release of histamine, leukotrienes, eosinophilic chemotactic factor, platelet activating factor, kinins, serotonins, and proteolytic enzymes. These chemicals cause vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and smooth muscle contraction.
Agents that can cause anaphylactic and allergic reactions include: vaccines, venom (like bee stings), drugs, food, and blood products.
TypicallyTx localized anaphylactic (allergic) reactions with things like diphenhydramine hydrochloride (1-2mg/kg IV or IM), dexamethasone enterally or parenterally, prednisolone PO, or epinephrine hydrochloride (0.15 cc SC at site of allergy initiation, dog).
Ref: Blackwell's 5-Min. Vet Consult Canine-Feline, 4th ed. pp. 68-69.
Link: Hypersensitivity Diseases in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/immune-system/immunologic-diseases/hypersensitivity-diseases-in-animals#v3277239
275
When positioning a cat for a thoracic radiograph, where do you measure the cat and where do you center the x-ray beam?
Cranial to 13th rib, xiphoid process
Point of elbow on the chest, point of elbow on the chest
C5, L1 vertebral bodies
Caudal to border of scapula, between 5th & 6th ribs
Point of shoulder, spine of scapula
Answer: Caudal to border of scapula, between 5th & 6th ribs.
For thoracic radiographs, measure the cat over the widest part of the thorax, which would be caudal to the border of the scapula.
To ensure that the upper and lower portions of the lungs are included in the thoracic radiograph, center the beam between the 5th and 6th ribs.
The caudal border of the film should be the L1 vertebral body.
This thoracic radiograph of a cat shows the proper centering and cranial and caudal borders. (Image courtesy of the University of Illinois.)
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/feline/thorax/ex02/f0411_Canvas.html
Ref: Tighe and Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians, 4th ed. p.156.
276
Which one of the following is the treatment of choice for a 3-cm diameter infected umbilical hernia in a calf?
Administration of broad spectrum antimicrobials and banding of the hernia sac
Surgical repair and antimicrobials
Repeated reduction of the hernia sac
Placement of a belly bandage/wrap to hold hernia sac contents in place for several weeks
Injection of iodine subcutaneously around the hernia ring
Answer: Surgical repair and antimicrobials.
Surgical repair with resection of infected structures and antimicrobials is the treatment of choice for umbilical hernias in the calf. Umbilical hernias are a common finding in neonatal calves, and they are frequently associated with umbilical abscessation.
Easily reducible masses are typically uninfected, while infected masses may be difficult to reduce and accompanied by other clinical signs such as heat in the area, drainage, fever, inappetance, and ill thrift. Uncomplicated, easily reducible hernias are more common in Holsteins and may be heritable.
It is possible to have infected umbilical remnants while the exterior umbilical structures appear completely normal, and deep palpation, ultrasound, and/or bloodwork may be necessary to rule out occult infections.
Click here to see a good summary on umbilical masses and hernias in calves, with images, courtesy of the American College of Veterinary Surgeons (ACVS).
https://www.acvs.org/large-animal/umbilical-masses-calves
Refs: Smith, Large Animal Internal Medicine, 4th ed. p. 364.
Link: Hernias.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/congenital-and-inherited-anomalies-of-the-digestive-system/hernias
277
What are the fabellae and where could you find them in a dog?
Paired diverticula, frontal sinus
Connective tissue bands between incus & stapes, inner ear
Corniculate processes of arytenoid cartilage, larynx
Rostral bones, nasal plant
Sesamoid bones, gastrocnemius muscle
Answer: Sesamoid bones, gastrocnemius muscle.
The fabellae are a pair of sesamoid bones found embedded in the tendons of origin of the heads of the gastrocnemius muscles.
278
There are 5 steps along the pain pathway necessary to alert the patient to a painful stimulus. Which of the following is the first step, that takes place at the most peripheral pain receptors?
Projection
Transduction
Modulation
Transmission
Perception
Answer: Transduction.
Transduction is the conversion of a stimulus, usually mechanical, thermal, or chemical, into an electrical signal by pain receptors located on nerve endings in the skin, subcutaneous tissues, viscera, etc. The electrical impulse is transmitted via afferent sensory nerves to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord.
Response to the painful stimulus is directed here when appropriate, e.g., a withdrawl reflex. It is also amplified, facilitated and/or suppressed here (modulation). The signal is then projected to higher centers, usually via the spinothalamic or the spinoreticular tracts. Further modulation occurs in the thalamus, reticular formation, and limbic system.
Finally, it reaches the cerebral cortex, where the perception occurs, and physical and emotional responses are produced.
An introduction to pain pathways and mechanisms by Danielle R, Curran N and Stephens R, from University College London Hospital, UK.
Lamont LA, DVM, Tranquilli WJ, & Grimm KA. 2000. Physiology Of Pain. Vet Clinics of NA: Small Animal Practice;30(4): 703-28.
Refs: Gaynor & Muir Handbook of Vet Pain Mgt 2nd ed. pp. 17-9, Greene, Vet Anes and
Pain Mgt Secrets pp. 335-7.
Link: Pain Perception
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/pain-assessment-and-management/pain-perception
279
A cow is presented on emergency with urea/non-protein nitrogen toxicity. What is the treatment of choice?
Rumenotomy
Rumenal infusion 2-8 liters vinegar, 3-10 gallons cold water
Atropine, protopam chloride IV q 4-6 hours
Relieve bloat, drench with 2-8 litres sodium bicarbonate
IV fluids with MgSO4, Na thiosulfate PO
Answer: Rumenal infusion 2-8 litres vinegar, 3-10 gallons cold water.
Treat urea/non-protein nitrogen (NPN) toxicity with a ruminal infusion 2-8 liters 5% acetic acid (vinegar) and 3-10 gallons of cold water.
The vinegar decreases ruminal pH which slows absorption of unionized ammonia.
Repeat Q 6 hours up to 48 hours. Best results if animal is still ambulatory.
It is often impossible to treat these cases before they die because of rapid progression to death. If possible,Tx with IV fluids. If necessary, relieve bloat.
Urea/NPN toxicity is related to ammoniated feed toxicity which causes so-called “bovine bonkers"
Manage ammoniated feed toxicity by removing the ammoniated feed and treating severe cases with anticonvulsants like diazepam, pentobarbital sodium.
280
Which of the following drugs in a human oral hypoglycemic agent sometimes used in combination with dietary therapy when owners cannot give insulin to a cat with diabetes mellitus?
Fomepizole
Azathioprina
Amitryptyline HCL
Glipizide
Perfolide mesylaste
Answer: Glipizide.
Sulfonylureas such as glipizide promote insulin secretion from the pancreas. Glipizide is occasionally used in with dietary therapy to manage cats with uncomplicated type 2 diabetes mellitus and no history of ketoacidosis, however, this is rare.
Glipizide is not a substitute for insulin therapy. It is recommended only when owners cannot give insulin injections and/or may be considering euthanasia. However, it should be noted that diabetes control in cats is typically poor without injectable insulin.
Amitryptyline HCL is a tricyclic antidepressant used for behavior disorders like self mutilation, neuropathic pruritus.
Azathioprine is an immunosuppressive agent used in DOGS with immune-mediated diseases, but is usually NOT USED in cats because they are very sensitive to bone marrow suppressive effects.
Fomepizole (4-MP) is used to treat ethylene glycol toxicity primarily in DOGS, but appears to be effective in cats if used at higher dosages.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/ethylene-glycol-toxicosis/ethylene-glycol-toxicosis-in-animals?autoredirectid=17115
Refs: Cohn and Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 4th ed. pp. 252-3, AHA Diabetes Guidelines 2018 for dogs and cats (PDF) and AHA Guidelines webpage.
https://www.aaha.org/aaha-guidelines/diabetes-management/diabetes-management-home/
https://www.aaha.org/aaha-guidelines/what-are-aaha-guidelines/
Connally HE, et al. 2010. Safety and Efficacy of High-dose Fomepizole Compared with Ethanol Therapy for Ethylene Glycol Intoxication in Cats. J Vet Emerg and Crit Care; 20(2): 191-206.
Link: Diabetes Mellitus in Dogs and Cats.
281
Which reportable condition mainly causes disease in pigs and cattle, but not horses?
Vesicular stomatitis
Foot and mouth diseases (FMD)
Rinderpest
Bluetongue
Anthrax
Answer: Foot and mouth disease (FMD)
Foot and mouth disease (FMD) mainly affects pigs and cattle.
Rinderpest mainly affects one species: cattle.
In 2011, the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) officially declared that rinderpest was eradicated globally. But because it is a classic, severe, reportable, stomatitis-type disease, it’s unlikely that vets will be allowed to forget rinderpest on DDXs for years.
Bluetongue mainly affects one species: almost exclusively a sheep disease (but cattle and deer can get it).
Look for anthrax mainly in two species: cattle, sheep. Can occur in horse, goat. See rarely in pigs, humans.
Vesicular stomatitis (VS) can occur in three species: horses, pigs, cows.
Ref: Smith, Van Metre, and Pusterla's Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed., pp. 834- 36.
Link: Foot-and-Mouth Disease in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/foot-and-mouth-disease/foot-and-mouth-disease-in-animals?autoredirectid=14225
282
A dog is presented with a left foreleg lameness. Palpation elects pain at the level of the shoulder and radiographs are indicated. What positioning criteria are important to remember to optimize image quality for a canine shoulder radiograph?
Top forelimb rotated out of field
Femur distracted out of joint
Humeral head fully seated in acetabulum
Both limbs fully extended
Bottom limb positioned caudally
Answer: Top forelimb rotated out of field.
To allow full visualization of the shoulder joint, the top leg needs to be rotated out of the field of view so that it is not superimposed over the area of interest. The affected leg is down, closest to the cassette/table top.
These shoulder films taken at the University of Illinois College of Veterinary Medicine show only the left shoulder joint, indicating that the right leg has been fully rotated out of the view as desired.
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/canine/forelimb/shoulder/ex01/shoulder01.html
The humerus is the largest bone of the upper forearm and it articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity, NOT the acetabulum.
The acetabulum is in the pelvis - it is the "socket" part of the ball and socket hip joint where the ball of the head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum of the pelvis.
Ref: Tighe and Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians, 4th ed. p. 156.
https://vetmed.wsu.edu
283
When evaluating feline reticulocytes on a complete blood cell count, which kind of reticulocytes are counted?
Target cells
Spherocytic
Poikilocytic
Punctate
Aggregate
Answer: Aggregate.
Only aggregate reticulocytes are counted in cats.
Retics can be punctate (mature, single dot) or aggregate (immature, strand), based on how the RNA stains. This is relevant in cats, in which punctate retics can persist in circulation for seven- ten days. Therefore, in cats, only count aggregate retics to accurately interpret regenerative status.
In other species, both types can be counted because they have similar half-lives.
In dogs and cats, increased reticulocytes indicate a regenerative anemia, in which the bone marrow is responding to a need for more red blood cells (RBC) by releasing immature RBCs.
When you stain blood with new methylene blue (NMB), the immature, polychromatophilic RBCs that contain RNA show up under the microscope as "reticulocytes."
Normal RBCs show up yellowish with NMB stain, but immature RBCs show up with bluish dots or clumps inside (that's the RNA). Immature RBs are polychromatophilic (usually they stain a darker blue than normal RBCs) on routine Romanowsky-based polychrome stains (e.g., Wright's, DiffQuik).
Increased polychromasia SUGGESTS a regenerative anemia, but you need a reticulocyte count to confirm it. Reticulocyte counts are usually expressed as the # of retics per 1000 RBCs.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gthed. p. 378 and Cornell's eclinpath site.
Link: Cells and smears
https://vetclinpathimages.com/2018/03/01/reticulocytes/
Link: Regeneration
https://eclinpath.com/hematology/anemia/assessment-regeneration/
284
Where can subcutaneous (SC or SQ) injections be given in any veterinary species?
Only along the ventrum
Dorsal midline from the point of the scapula to the wings of the ilium
Lateral neck
Lateral upper rear leg
Anywhere the skin can be lifted and tented
Answer: Anywhere the skin can be lifted and tented.
Subcutaneous (SC or SQ) injections may be administered anywhere the skin can be lifted and tented. A common site is over the shoulders.
Medications administered subcutaneously are absorbed more slowly as compared to those given IV or IM.
Commonly administered SC therapeutic agents include vaccines, local aesthetics, and small volumes of other medications. Subcutaneous is also a preferred route for fluid administration by owners at home in small animals, in which a relatively small volume administered can be helpful (for example, in cats with chronic renal failure).
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9thed. p. 590.
Link: Hypodermoclysis: An Alternative Infusion Technique
https://www.aafp.org/pubs/afp/issues/2001/1101/p1575.html
285
A necropsy is performed on a cow that died after several days of depression, fever, circling and dysphagia.
What clfinicopathologic finding would be consistent with listeriosis?
Gram-negative, pleomorphic coccobacillin in necrotic foci
High Listeria tigers
Decreased protein in the CSF
Microabscesses in the brain
Hepatic hemosiderosis
Answer: Microabscesses in the brain.
Microabscesses in the brain are seen with listeriosis.
Listeria are seen as gram-positive pleomorphic coccobacilli on impression smears.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4736329
Antemortem, CSF has an increased protein and a mild pleocytosis of large mononuclear cells.
Serology is not generally used for diagnosis because many healthy animals have high titers for Listeria.
Specimens of choice for bacterial isolation are brain from animals with CNS involvement and aborted placenta and fetus.
Ref: Smith, Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed. p. 1067-1069.
Link: Listeriosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/listeriosis/listeriosis-in-animals?redirectid=3615?ruleredirectid=30
286
What does a Kussmaul breathing pattern (I.e., a deep, laboured respiratory pattern) most often indicate?
Hypoxemia
Increased intracranial pressure
Metabolic acidosis
Pleural effusion
Shock
Answer: Metabolic acidosis.
Kussmaul breathing (deep, labored) most often indicates respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis.
Cheyne-Stokes breathing (i.e., alternating tachypnea and bradypnea) occurs most often as a result of abnormal COy regulation associated with increased intracranial pressure.
Bradypnea (i.e., decreased respiratory rate) can also be due to increased intracranial pressure.
Restrictive breathing (e.g, fast, shallow breaths) typically indicates pleural space disease (e.g, pleural effusion) or rib fractures.
Hypoxemia and shock both usually result in tachypnea in the absence of other factors that affect the breathing pattern.
Refs: Bassert and Thomas, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth edition, pp. 842 and Ettinger, Feldman, and Côté's Textbook of Vet Int Med, 8th ed., p.
Link: Primary Survey (Triage) and Resuscitation in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/emergency-medicine-and-critical-care/evaluation-and-initial-treatment-of-the-emergency-patient/primary-survey-triage-and-resuscitation-in-animals?autoredirectid=14356
287
What is the most common malignant oral tumor in dogs?
Squamous cell carcinoma
Fibrosarcoma
Transitional cell carcinoma
Melanoma
Osteosarcoma
Answer: Melanoma.
Malignant melanoma is the most common oral malignant tumor in dogs, but you can never tell simply by looking at the animal what kind of growth it may be. It takes a biopsy to confirm the diagnosis.
Follow this link to see a malignant melanoma on a dog's lip and a cat's radiograph of malignant melanoma (note the jaw bone and teeth are dissolved away!)
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4732118
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4732136
Squamous cell carcinoma is by far the most common oral malignant tumor in cats and the second most common in dogs.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed., p. 1262.
Link: Oral Tumors in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-mouth-in-small-animals/oral-tumors-in-small-animals
288
A five-year-old female spayed Cocker Spaniel is presented with a drooping right ear and lip. There is ptosis O.D. (right eye) and the dog is drooling on the exam table. She is otherwise bright, alert, and responsive. What anatomic structure is damaged?
Right side inner ear
Trigeminal nerve
Facial nerve
Left side inner ear
Left side medulla, motor tract
Answer: Facial Nerve.
Think of facial nerve paralysis (CN 7) with a unilaterally droopy face.
Remember the facial nerve is motor to the muscles of facial expression (explaining the right side drooped ear, lip and eyelid) and innervates the lacrimal and salivary glands. Loss of innervation can lead to a dry eye, and possibly to exposure keratitis if animal loses ability to close eyelid from damage to facial nerve innervation of the orbicularis oculi muscle. Idiopathic in 75% of canine cases (25% of cats). Can also see these signs with middle ear damage (from otitis media), from facial nerve trauma (ear surgery in dogs, or pressure from halter buckles in anesthetized horse), or neoplasia.
Follow this link to see a horse with facial nerve damage: note the nose pulled to horse’s left. (means facial nerve damaged on right).
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v53770981
Think more of a dropped jaw with trigeminal nerve neuropathy (CN 5-dogs, horses).
Refs: Pasquini & Spurgeon's Anatomy Dom An 11th ed. pp., 552-4, 579 and Pasquini’s, Tschauner's Guide to Sm An Clin, vol 1, 2nd ed. p. 563.
Link: Facial Paralysis in Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/facial-paralysis/facial-paralysis-in-animals?autoredirectid=14324
Link: Physical and Neurologic Examinations.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/nervous-system-introduction/physical-and-neurologic-examinations
Link: Otitis Media and Interna in Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/ear-disorders/otitis-media-and-interna/otitis-media-and-interna-in-animals?redirectid=31733
289
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) have a maximal effect when administered prior to surgery.
What physiologic parameter needs to be monitored during the surgery if the animal is on preoperative NSAIDs?
Respiratory rate
Bleeding
Heart rate
Blood pressure
Anesthetic depth
Answer: Blood pressure.
Blood pressure needs to be closely monitored when non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are given before a procedure because blood flow to the kidneys can be compromised with hypotension. This has the potential to cause significant renal insult and can lead to renal damage/failure after recovery from the anesthetic event.
Administer intravenous fluids if a drop in blood pressure is seen. NSAIDs should not be administered to patients who have already received corticosteroids or aspirin, as this combination increases the chance of gastric ulceration.
The American Animal Hospital Associations provides this information on NSAID use.
https://www.aaha.org/aaha-guidelines/pain-management-config/pharmacological-intervention/nsaids/
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians,
gth ed. p. 990.
Link: Nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs in Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/inflammation/nonsteroidal-anti-inflammatory-drugs-in-animals?autoredirectid=16875
290
Before it is safe to attempt endotracheal intubation of an anesthetized dog, what two reflexes should be ABSENT?
Patellar and tonic vibration
Triceps and Golgi tendon
Pedal and swallowing
Palpebral and stretch
Crossed extensor and corneal
Answer: Pedal and swallowing.
Loss of both the pedal reflex, tested by pinching the toes and looking for withdrawal of the limb, and the swallowing reflex indicate readiness for intubation.
Palpebral and corneal reflexes can be used to assess depth of anesthesia, but may still be present during intubation. A stretch reflex is contraction of a muscle in response to a lengthening stretch; the Golgi tendon reflex is the opposite reaction. Triceps and crossed extensor reflexes are mechanically tested with a reflex hammer.
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth ed. p. 1030
291
Atipamezole and yohimbine are reversal agents for which drugs?
Acepromazine maleate, propofol
Ketamine, physostigmine
Amitraz, xylazine
Organophosphates, hydromorphone
Diazepam, fomipazole
Answer: Amitraz, xylazine.
Atipamezole and yohimbine are reversal agents for amitraz and xylazine (analgesic and sedative).
Amitraz is used to treat generalized demodicosis as a dip. The most common side effect to watch out for with amitraz is SEDATION, seen in 30% of patients within 12-36 hours after treatment.
Fomipazole (4-MP) is used to treat dogs with ethylene glycol to ity.
When you hear organophosphate toxicity, think 3 things:
1. Sedative for seizures (diazepam (Valium®) or pentobarbital)
2. Atropine
3. Pralidoxime chloride (Protopam®)
Refs: Plumb's Veterinary Drug Handbook, 7th ed. pp. 1397-1402 and Blackwell's 5- Minute Vet Consult Canine Feline, 4th ed. pp. 342-43.
Link: Canine Domodicosis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/mange/mange-in-dogs-and-cats#v3279943
292
Which one of the following medications is associated with extrapyramidal neurologic side effects (movement disorders, aggression)?
Enrofloxacin
Metoclopramide
Ketamine
S-adenosyl-methionine (SAMe)
Diazepam
Answer: Metoclopramide.
Metoclopramide crosses the blood-brain barrier, where dopamine antagonism at the medullary chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) causes an antiemetic effect. This dopamine antagonism can also cause adverse extrapyramidal signs, like involuntary muscle spasms, motor restlessness and inappropriate aggression.
The pyramidal and extrapyramidal systems are a complex series of upper motor neurons (UM) that connect the cerebral cortex to distant body parts and influence muscular tone and control.
The pyramidal system controls skilled muscle movement. The extrapyramidal system helps support the body against gravity and recruits spinal reflexes to initiate involuntary movement.
Refs: De Lahunta, Vet Neuroanat & Clin Neuro, 3rd ed. pp. 192, 195-200, Plumb's Vet Drug Handbook, 7th ed. pp. 909-2.
Link: Gastrointestinal Prokinetic Drugs (Monogastric).
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-digestive-system/gastrointestinal-prokinetic-drugs-monogastric
293
What kind of artifact can occur when ultrasound waves hit uroliths (e.g., bladder stones)?
Acoustic enhancement
Shadowing
Through transmission
Mirror image
Reverberation
Answer: Shadowing.
Shadowing occurs when ultrasound hits highly reflective structures like uroliths (e.g., bladder stones).
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4742523
Acoustic shadowing is a dark area distal to the highly dense material. Basically, stones (or bone) block the ultrasound beam.
http://www.veterinaryradiology.net/71/ultrasound-tuesday-4/
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gthed. p. 513.
294
A 3-year-old recently fresh cow is presented with a history of a rapid decrease in milk production, tachypnea, mild fever, and decreases fecal output. She is reluctant to move, stands with an arched back, and has a positive grunt test.
Which surgical procedure is indicated to confirm a diagnosis and treat this cow?
Omentopexy
Pericardiocentesis
Thoracotomy
Rumenotomy
Abomasopexy
Answer: Rumenotomy.
Rumenotomy is indicated to gain access to the reticulum to look for a penetrating foreign body in this case of traumatic reticuloperitonitis ("hardware disease”). These are classic signs of acute "hardware" disease. A rumen magnet can be administered first and is successful in halting progression of the foreign body in about 50% of cases. If there is no improvement in a few days, then rumenotomy is indicated.
In more chronic cases abscesses that are tightly adhered to the reticulum may be drained into the lumen of the reticulum via rumenotomy.
A thoracotomy may be indicated in cases where the foreign body has penetrated into the chest. Prognosis in these cases is grave.
Refs: Smith, Van Metre and Pusterla's Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed., p. 807.
Link: Traumatic Reticuloperitonitis in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-ruminant-forestomach/traumatic-reticuloperitonitis-in-cattle?autoredirectid=18721
295
How early is it possible to determine pregnancy in horses by ultrasonic transrectal examination?
28 days of gestation
45 days of gestation
11 days of gestation
20 days of gestation
Answer: 11 days of gestation.
After just 11 days of gestation it is possible to detect pregnancy in mare with using 3- 5MHz linear array transducer transrectally. This is especially impressive given that gestation lasts an average of 344 days in horses!
Ref: Tighe & Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Vet Techs, 4th ed. p. 314.
296
Which one of the following choices is a proven biologic vector of vesicular stomatitis virus?
Amblyomma americium (Lone Star tick)
Oribatid mites
Culex tarsalis (mosquito)
Ixodes scapularis (deer tick)
Lutzomya spp. (sand flies)
Answer: Lutzomya spp (sand flies).
Lutzomyia spp. (sand flies) are proven biologic vectors of vesicular stomatitis virus in endemic areas.
Simulidae (black flies) are the most likely biologic insect vectors in the southwestern USA. Culicoides spp. can act as vectors as well.
Culex tarsalis is an important vector of western equine encephalitis.
Ixodes scapulars is a tick vector of Lyme disease, human babesiosis, and granulocytic ehrlichiosis.
Amblyomma americanum is a tick vector for several diseases, including tularemia and southern tick-associated rash illness (STARI). STARI causes a rash similar to Lyme disease, but is generally less severe.
Borrelia burgdorferi has occasionally been isolated from lone star ticks, but vector competency tests have shown that the ticks not likely to be able to transmit Lyme disease.
Oribatid mites are intermediate hosts for tapeworms in horses.
Refs: Smith, Large Animal Internal Medicine, 3rd ed. pp. 716-8, Vesicular Stomatitis handout, courtesy of the Center for Food Security and Public Health/USDA.
Link: Vesicular Stomatitis in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/horse-owners/disorders-affecting-multiple-body-systems-of-horses/vesicular-stomatitis-in-horses#v3274491
Link: Biting Midges
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/biting-midges
Link: Mosquitoes
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/mosquitoes
Link: Amblyomma spp
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/ticks/amblyomma-spp
Link: Vesicular Stomatitis
https://www.cfsph.iastate.edu/Factsheets/pdfs/vesicular_stomatitis.pdf
297
Which one of the following choices is most appropriate to use post - operatively following repair of a cranial cruciate ligament (CCL) rupture in a dog?
Hydrotherapy; Passive range of motion (PROM) stretching
Soft bandage w/lateral splint 24-48 hours
Ehmer sling; Strict cage rest
Velpau bandage 2-4weeks; Therapeutic ultrasound
Hot compression system; low level laser therapy (LLLT)
Answer: Soft bandage w/lateral splint 24-48 hours.
Post-operatively, typically wrap a repaired cranial cruciate ligament rupture (CCL) in a soft bandage with a lateral splint for 24-48 hours.
Another valid approach is to leave the limb UN-bandaged and treat with a cold compression system or microcurrent electrical therapy. Immediate postoperative use of a cold compression system can decrease swelling and pain substantially after a cranial cruciate repair surgery.
Strict exercise restriction is important until radiographs show adequate healing. It can take older dogs longer to heal (up to 12 weeks) compared to younger dogs (as early as 4- 5 weeks). Limit activity to specific physical rehabilitation exercises and leash walking for several weeks before attempting a gradual return to normal activity.
Remember that 20-40% of dogs with unilateral rupture of CCL will rupture their contralateral CC within 17 months.
Refs: Fossum, Small Animal Surgery, 5th ed. pp. 1226-45, Bassert, Beal and Samples,
Link: Joint Trauma in Dogs and Cats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/arthropathies-and-related-disorders-in-small-animals/joint-trauma-in-dogs-and-cats
298
Which one of the following is the best explanation of the use of selective media in bacteriology?
Encourages the growth of certain types of bacteria
Inhibits growth of gram - positive strains of bacteria
Allows the growth of the most types of bacteria
Supports growth of gram - negative strains of bacteria only
Allows growth of isolated colonies of bacteria
Answer: Encourages the growth of certain types of bacteria.
Selective media are used to encourage the growth of specific types of bacteria. They have ingredients that inhibit the growth of some types of bacteria while allowing other particular types of bacteria to grow.
For example, MacConkey's agar adds bile salts to the media to encourage growth of gram-negative intestinal organisms such as E. coli.
http://image.slidesharecdn.com/culturemedium-110911091710-phpapp01/95/culture-media-25-728.jpg?cb=1318559666
Refs: McCurnin and Bassert's Clin Textbook for Vet Technicians, gth ed. p. 458.
299
Which of the following statements about polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is true?
Antigen of interest is bound to antibody, then add substrate to cause color change
Cannot distinguish between live and dead organisms
Takes 48-72 hours to complete the testing
PCR us used in bench top SNAP tests (e.g., for Lyme disease)
Performed only on tissue samples, not fluids (e.g., blood, CSF)
Answer: Cannot distinguish between live and dead organisms.
Polymerase chain reaction (PC) cannot distinguish between live and dead organisms.
PC is a technique used to make millions of copies of a specific section of DNA that identifies a certain pathogen. It is extremely sensitive and rapid (takes about 4 hours). It has revolutionized diagnostic testing of infectious diseases.
ELISA is used in bench top SNAP tests. The antigen of interest is bound to an antibody, then a substrate is added which causes a color change in proportion to the amount of antigen present.
Immunohistochemistry is similar to ELISA but only performed on tissue samples, not fluids (e.g., blood, CSF, feces).
Refs: Bassert and Thomas, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth ed, pp.475-6.
Link: Serologic Test Kits
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/clinical-pathology-and-procedures/diagnostic-procedures-for-the-private-practice-laboratory/serologic-test-kits
300
Ingestion of corn contaminated with the fungus Fusarium monoliforme primarily leads to damage of which equine organs?
Bladder and kidney
Spleen and liver
Liver and brain
Pituitary and adrenal glands
Kidney and lung
Answer : Liver and brain.
Liver and brain. Horses that ingest corn contaminated with the fungus Fusarium moniliforme can develop liquefactive necrosis and degeneration of the cerebrum as well as hepatic congestion and necrosis.
A variety of neurologic signs can be displayed, including somnolence, ataxia, head pressing, mania, blindness, and seizures, in addition to icterus and petechiation of the mucous membranes.
Refs: Smith, Large Animal Internal Medicine, 4th ed., pp. 1037-8.
Link: Hepatotoxins in Large Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/hepatic-disease-in-large-animals/hepatotoxins-in-large-animals
301
Erythromycin and tilmicosin are in what family of antibiotics?
Sulfonamide
Aminglycoside
Macrolide
Penicillin
Tetracycline
Answer: Macrolide.
Erythromycin and tilmicosin are macrolides. Most macrolides (e.g., azithromycin, erythromycin, clarithromycin) do not have serious side effects, though gastrointestinal upset has been noted.
NOTE HOWEVER one particular macrolide, TILMICOSIN (Micotil®), is contraindicated in pigs (injection may kill them), and should not be used in an automatically powered syringe because an accidental injection can kill humans (that would be you, doctor).
Refs: The Merck Veterinary Manual online edition.
Link: Macrolides
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/antibacterial-agents/macrolides
302
Yohimbine is the reversal agent for which two drugs?
Xylazine, Amitraz (Mitaban)
Organophosphates, xylazine
Ketamine, physostigmine
Amitraz (Mitaban), fomipazole
Acepromazine maleate, ketamine
Answer: Xylazine, Amitraz (Mitaban).
Yohimbine, atipamezole, or tolazoline are reversal agents for xylazine an alpha 2- adrenergic agonist with analgesic and sedative effects. Remember 2 things about xylazine:
1. Cattle are EXTREMELY SENSITIVE to xylazine. Cow dose is about 10 times LESS than dogs or horses.
2. Used as an EMETIC in CATS, causes vomiting.
Amitraz is used to treat generalized demodicosis as a dip. The most common side effect to watch out for with amitraz is SEDATION, seen in 30% of patients within 12-36 hours after treatment.
Fomipazole (4-MP) is used to treat dogs with ethylene glycol toxicity.
When you hear organophosphate toxicity, think 3 things
Sedative for seizures (diazepam (Valium®), phenobarbital or pentobarbital)
Atropine
Pralidoxime chloride (Protopam®)
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 3rd ed., OPP Toxicosis, Plumb’s Veterinary Drug Handbook, 8th ed. and Blackwell's 5-Minute Vet Consult Canine Feline, 4th ed. pp. 342-43.
Link: Mange in Dogs and Cats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/mange/mange-in-dogs-and-cats
303
Salivation stops in most animals under inhalant anesthesia. Which one of the following animals CONTINUES to salivate regardless of the drug used?
Feline
Porcine
Canine
Bovine
Equine
Answer: Bovine.
Ruminants and camelids continue to salivate under sedation or anesthesia, even when anti-cholinergics are given. This is why it is important to intubate ruminants and camelids during inhalant anesthesia and to position the nose down so that the saliva can drain away from the pharynx. These species also regurgitate rumen fluid under anesthesia, especially during light or deep anesthesia, so be aware of this possibility. Regurgitation can be active or passive; it is active when they are light and esophageal contractions occur. It is generally passive when they are very relaxed and adequately anesthetized.
For more, see Anesthetic Monitoring by Lyon Lee DVM, PhD.
https://stagewp.westernu.edu/mediafiles/veterinary/vet-anesthesia-analgesia/anesthetic-monitoring.pdf
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed. 1055, p., Muir et al., Handbk of Vet Anes 4th ed. pp. 410-11 and Thomas & Lerche, Anesthesia & Analgesia for Vet Techs, 4th ed p. 295.
304
If an animal has a laryngospasm, what is the most likely adverse event that can occur during intubation?
Elevated SpO2
Choking
Cyanosis
Tracheal necrosis
Lidocaine sensitivity
Answer: Cyanosis.
A consequence of laryngospasm is cyanosis and hypoxia if you cannot intubate the animal in a reasonable period of time.
The CO2 may increase, but the SpO2 would not increase, because the animal is not getting supplemental oxygen via the trach tube.
Tracheal necrosis occurs when an endotracheal tube cuff that has been inflated too far, cutting off circulation in the tracheal mucosa.
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians,
gth ed. p. 1032.
305
When a dog suffers a rupture of the cranial cruciate ligament, what other anatomic structure is often also damaged?
Medial meniscus
Meniscofemoral ligament
Caudal cruciate
Patellar cartilage
Lateral collateral suspensory ligament
Answer: Medial meniscus.
Instability in the stifle joint after cranial cruciate ligament damage can cause injury to the medial meniscus.
The "cranial drawer sign" is positive in the stifle (knee) when there has been a rupture of the cranial cruciate ligament. Commonly see this injury after trauma (hit by car) and in active dogs (especially ball and Frisbee-catching dogs who often jump while running, then land badly and rupture the cranial cruciate).
Ref: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 4th ed., p.219.
Link: Joint Trauma in Dogs and Cats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/arthropathies-and-related-disorders-in-small-animals/joint-trauma-in-dogs-and-cats
306
Which one of the following signs may be seen clinically in a dog with severe tricuspid insufficiency?
Pulmonary edema
Cough
Crackles
Jugular pulse
Hemoptysis
Answer: Jugular pulse.
In severe tricuspid insufficiency, look for a jugular pulse or jugular distension caused by blood backflow from a stiff and hypertrophied right ventricle.
In general, think of ascites, pleural effusion, and/or peripheral edema with right-sided heart failure and pulmonary edema and congestion (cough, dyspnea) with left-sided heart failure.
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 3rd ed. pp. 427-8.
Link: Tricuspid Valve Dysplasia in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/congenital-and-inherited-anomalies-of-the-cardiovascular-system/tricuspid-valve-dysplasia-in-animals?redirectid=27887
Link: Specific Cardiac Diseases
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/heart-disease-and-heart-failure/specific-cardiac-diseases
Link: Heart Failure
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/heart-disease-and-heart-failure/heart-failure
307
Canine acanthomatous ameloblastoma is sometimes referred to by what general name?
Malignant melanoma
Papilloma
Epulis
Odontoma
Odontogenic fibroma
Answer: Epulis.
An acanthomatous ameloblastoma is also referred to as an epulis (plural = epulides), which is a general term for a gingival mass. It is an epithelial odontogenic tumor.
Ameloblastomas often invade local tissues, including bone, but generally do not metastasize.
Surgical excision is curative but must include one-cm margins of clinically normal tissue (including bone and teeth) to prevent recurrence. Often requires mandibulectomy/maxillectomy for definitive treatment. Radiation therapy is also effective, but can cause subsequent malignant tumor development in the irradiated area.
Here is an image of an ameloblastoma, and a radiograph of an ameloblastoma.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4732100
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4732109
Px excellent if complete excision. Recurrence likely if margins are not clean.
Peripheral odontogenic fibroma (previously fibrous epulis) is the most common canine benign oral tumor. They are typically slow growing and arise from the periodontal ligament. Surgical excision is typically curative.
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor: Dogs and Cats, 4th ed., pp. 306-9.
Link: Oral Tumors in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-mouth-in-small-animals/oral-tumors-in-small-animals
308
Which of these dental instruments is blunt?
Shepherd’s hook
Periodontal probe
Curette scaler
Periosteal elevator
Sickle scaler
Answer: Periodontal probe.
A periodontal probe is blunt, and is used to gently measure the depth of the gingival sulcus.
Scalers have two parallel sharp sides, used for supragingival calculus removal. A curette scaler has one sharp side and is used for subgingival calculus removal.
A shepherd's hook has a sharp tip and is used to detect cavities and broken teeth.
A periosteal elevator is used during orthopedic surgeries to separate the periosteum from the bone.
Dr. Jan Bellows describes Dental Probes and Explorers and provides descriptions of both.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed., p. 1230.
Link: Dental probes and explorers - must for examination
https://www.dvm360.com/view/dental-probes-and-explorers-musts-examination
309
Which one of these zoonotic pathogens is associated with consumption of undercooked pork?
Hymenolepis nana
Diplylidium suis
Taenia solium
Echinococcus granulosus
Capillaria hepatica
Answer: Taenia solium.
Humans are the definitive host of the cestode, Tania solium; the intermediate host is usually swine.
Ingestion of undercooked pork containing T. solium larvae by humans causes taeniasis (adult tapeworms in the gastrointestinal tract) and ingestion of eggs (including autoinfection by the adult worms) leads to cysticercosis, or the migration off hatched oncospheres into muscle, brain, liver, and other tissues and their development into large cysts.
Link: Zoonotic Diseases
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/public-health/zoonoses/zoonotic-diseases
310
A Thoroughbred racing stable imported a three-year-old mare from the United Arab Emirates two weeks ago. The horse has a mucopurulent nasal discharge with ulcerated nodules in the mucosa of the nasal septum. What disease is of greatest concern?
Equine granulocytic ehrlichiosis
Q fever
Glanders
African horse sickness
Melioidosis
Answer: Glanders.
This could be GLANDERS caused by Burkholderia (Pseudomonas) mallei. Glanders is REPORTABLE and ZOONOTIC - eliminated from U.S. in 1937. Has been reported in recent years from Iraq, Turkey, Pakistan, India, Mongolia, China, Brazil, and the UNITED ARAB EMIRATES.
Don't treat. Confirm diagnosis (culture, ELISA, mallein test) then CULL and REPORT if positive!
Best prevention is detect early, eliminate affected, complete quarantine and rigorous disinfection of area. NO vaccine available.
If you get a question with a horse that came from a foreign location with “NODULES OOZING PUS" think GLANDERS/Farcy.
Refs: Colahan and Mayhew, Eq Med and Surg 5th ed. pp. 536-7.
Link: Glanders in Horses and Other Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/glanders/glanders-in-horses-and-other-animals?redirectid=30621
311
35 wallabies test seropositive and 105 test seronegative. However, postmortem data reveals 5/35 of the seropositive wallabies are disease free and 4/105 fo the seronegative wallabies are diseased. What is the predictive value positive of this serologic test?
96%
77%
88%
95%
86%
Answer : 86%.
Remember, you are comparing TWO TESTS when you calculate Sens, Spec, PVP, PVN. You compare your test (serologic in this case) to a gold standard (necropsy), Predictive value positive (PVP) means, "of the wallabies my test says are positive (35), how many are truly positive?" (35-5=30, this # goes in the "a" box).
Here is how you do it: First, draw a 2x2 table, and label the boxes a,b,c,d. PVP = a (a+b).
Click here to see a Basic 2X2 table.
https://zukureview.com/images/question-images/Epi/2by2_shell_PVP_PVN.GIF
Now, add in the TOTAL number of animals (140), the total positive by YOUR test (35) and the total negative by YOUR test (105), like this diagram: 2x2 with totals.
https://zukureview.com/images/question-images/Epi/2x2_tots_PVP.GIF
Now the (slightly) tricky part. Add in the numbers that YOUR test got WRONG according to the gold standard test. (5 false pos in box b, 4 false neg in box c)
Click here to see 2x2 with b and c cells.
https://zukureview.com/images/question-images/Epi/2by2_tots_bc_cells_PVP.GIF
Last, subtract to fill in your last 2 boxes and do the math to calculate
PVP=a/(a+b)=30/35=0.86 or 86% :
Click here to see the final 2x2 with all cells filled and VP calculated.
https://zukureview.com/images/question-images/Epi/2by2_tots_bc_cells_PVP.GIF
FYI: You can calculate sensitivity a/(a+c), specificity d/ (b+d), Predictive Value POS (PVP)
a/(a+b) and Predictive Value NEG (PVN) d/(c+d) with the same 2x2 table.
Refs: Hennekens and Buring, Epidemiology in Medicine 5th ed. pp. 332-9
312
Which one of the following choices is a proven biologic vector of vesicular stomatitis virus?
Letzomyia spp. (Sand flies)
Culex tarsalis (mosquito)
Oribatid mites
Ixodes scapularis (deer tick)
Amblyomma americanum (Lone Star tick)
Answer: Letzomya spp (sand flies)
Lutzomyia spp. (sand flies) are proven biologic vectors of vesicular stomatitis virus in endemic areas.
Simulidae (black flies) are the most likely biologic insect vectors in the southwestern USA. Culicoides spp. can act as vectors as well.
Culex tarsals is an important vector of western equine encephalitis.
Ixodes scapularis is a tick vector of Lyme disease, human babesiosis, and granulocytic ehrlichiosis.
Amblyomma americanum is a tick vector for several diseases, including tularemia and southern tick-associated rash illness (STARI). STARI causes a rash similar to Lyme disease, but is generally less severe.
Borrelia burgdorferi has occasionally been isolated from lone star ticks, but vector competency tests have shown that the ticks not likely to be able to transmit Lyme disease.
Oribatid mites are intermediate hosts for tapeworms in horses.
Refs: Smith, Large Animal Internal Medicine, 3rd ed. pp. 716-8, Vesicular Stomatitis handout, courtesy of the Center for Food Security and Public Health/USDA.
https://www.cfsph.iastate.edu/Factsheets/pdfs/vesicular_stomatitis.pdf
Link: Vesicular Stomatitis in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/horse-owners/disorders-affecting-multiple-body-systems-of-horses/vesicular-stomatitis-in-horses#v3274491
Link: Biting Midges
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/biting-midges
Link: Mosquitoes
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/mosquitoes
Link: Lyme Borreliosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/lyme-borreliosis/lyme-borreliosis-in-animals?redirectid=3170?ruleredirectid=30
Link: Amblyomma spp
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/ticks/amblyomma-spp
313
A three-year-old male neutered domestic shorthair cat is presented with a two-hour history of rapid onset vomiting, salivation, depression, abdominal pain, and dyspnea. The cat’s head and feet are swollen; mucus membranes are dark and cyanotic. He urinates dark brown urine onto the exam table. What condition is at the top of the differential diagnosis list?
Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (IMTP)
Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA)
Acetaminophen toxicity
Aortic thromboembolism
Answer: Acetaminophen toxicity.
This is the classic picture of feline acetaminophen toxicity in a cat. Owner will almost always say they gave cat Tylenol (acetaminophen).
See methemoglobinuria (brown urine), methemoglobinemia (brown blood), and Heinz body anemia.
Most common cat toxicity. Occasionally in dogs.
Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA) is the most common hemolytic anemia in dogs, but is rare in cats. Look for pale mucous membranes; vague signs of weakness, depression or acute exercise intolerance; tachypnea; fever; +/- icterus.
See an acute hemorrhagic presentation with immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (IMT) (also very rare in cats), and anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity.
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor: Dogs and Cats, 4th ed., pp. 10-12.
Link: Analgesics (Toxicity)
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/toxicities-from-human-drugs/analgesics-toxicity
Link: Anemia in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/anemia/anemia-in-animals
Link: Acquired Thrombocytopenia in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/hemostatic-disorders/platelet-disorders-in-animals#v3258437
Link: Anticoagulant Rodenticide (Warfarin and Congeners) Poisoning in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/rodenticide-poisoning/anticoagulant-rodenticide-warfarin-and-congeners-poisoning-in-animals?autoredirectid=17926
314
Which organism has been associated in horses with dermatitis of the face, neck, chest, and ventral abdomen; uveitis; and fibrosis and mineralization in the nuchal ligament?
Onchocerca cervicalis
Culicoides spp.
Habronema muscle
Dichelobacter nodosus
Dermatophilus congolesi
Adult Onchocerca live in calcified nodules in the ligamentum nuchae and produce microfilaria that migrate to specific areas, including the ventral midline, face, neck, and chest.
The dermatitis resulting from this is believed to be a hypersensitivity reaction to antigens from the microfilaria. Accumulation of microfilaria in the eye may also lead to conjunctivitis and uveitis.
Note that Culicoides spp. (no-see-ums, biting midges) carry the onchocerca microfilariae but do not cause the problems listed above themselves.
Biting midges cause another problem sweet itch (or sweat itch, Queensland itch), a very pruritic warm weather dermatitis secondary to hypersensitivity.
Rain scald, also known as streptothricosis or dermatophilosis, is caused by skin infection with the bacterium Dermatophilus congolensis.
Dichelobacter nodosus, in conjunction with Fusobacterium necrophorum, is the cause of virulent footrot in sheep.
Refs: Smith, Van Metre, and Pusterla's Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed., pp. 1335-
36.
Link: Onchocerciasis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/helminths-of-the-skin/onchocerciasis-in-animals
Link: Biting Midges
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/biting-midges
Link: Dermatophilosis in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/horse-owners/skin-disorders-of-horses/dermatophilosis-in-horses
Link: Contagious Footrot in Sheep
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-sheep/contagious-footrot-in-sheep
315
Which of the following bacteria is most commonly isolated from the lungs of cattle with bovine respiratory disease?
Histophilus somni
Burkholderia pseudomallei
Mycoplasma bovis
Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
Mannheimia haemolytica
Answer: Mannheimia haemolytica.
Think of Mannheimia haemolytica and Pasteurella multocida as the most common bacteria associated with bovine respiratory disease. Mannhemia haemolytica is a normal inhabitat of the tonsillar crypts.
Stress or viral infection suppresses the host's immune system and allows bacterial colonization of the lungs.
Mannheimia hemolytic was formerly called Pasteurella hemolytica.
Histophilus somni, the cause of thrombotic meningoencephalitis (TEME), was formerly called Haemophilus somnus.
Follow this link to see a necropsy image of TEME.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v9180593
Melioidosis is a zoonotic foreign disease caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei.
See a cow with wooden tongue in association with Actinobacillus.
Ref: Smith, Van Metre, and Pusterla's Large Animal Internal Medicine 6th ed. pp. 672-73.
Link: Bacterial Pneumonia in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/respiratory-system/respiratory-diseases-of-cattle/bacterial-pneumonia-in-cattle
Link: Histophilosis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/histophilosis/histophilosis?redirectid=29628
Link: Melioidosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/melioidosis/melioidosis-in-animals?autoredirectid=18728
316
Whare would a cat (or dog) be likely to encounter arsenic around the house?
Silver-polish
De-icer crystals
Ant baits
Snail killer
Anti-mildew paint
Answer: Ant baits.
Ant baits contain inorganic arsenic and are sometimes eaten by pets, especially cats.
Expect Gl presentation - vomiting, diarrhea, hematochezia, weakness, prostration.
The treatment of choice for arsenic toxicity is SUCCIMER (dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA)).
This drug is administered orally (or per rectum in vomiting animals) for 10 days.
See arsenic in wood preservatives (e.g., pressure-treated lumber) and in thiacetarsemide, a heartworm adulticide, now superseded by the safer and more effective melarsomine dihydrochloride.
Refs: Cohn and Cote, Clinical Vet Advisor-Dogs and Cats 4th ed. p. 79 and Papich, Saunders Handbook of Vet. Drugs: Sm & Lg An., 4th ed. pp. 247,744.
Link: Inorganic Arsenical Toxicosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/arsenic-poisoning/inorganic-arsenical-toxicosis-in-animals?autoredirectid=16902
Link: Heartworm Disease in Dogs, Cats, and Ferrets
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/heartworm-disease/heartworm-disease-in-dogs,-cats,-and-ferrets?redirectid=30615
317
In which category of drugs are amrinone and milrinone?
Negative inotropes
Phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitors
Beta blockers
Calcium channel blockers
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Answer: Phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitors.
Amrinone, milrinone, and pimobendan are phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitors, one of three types of positive inotropes. Positive inotropes increase the cardiac muscular contraction strength by making more intracellular calcium available for muscle proteins.
The 3 types of positive inotropes include:
- Beta-adrenergic agonists (dopamine, dobutamine, isoproterenol, and epinephrine)
- Cardiac glycosides (digoxin, digitoxin)
- Phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitors like milrinone, amrinone, and pimobendan
Refs: Plumb's Vet Drug Handbook, 7th ed. pp. 740-2, 1173-6.
Link: Positive Inotropes
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-cardiovascular-system/positive-inotropes#v3329657
Link: beta-adrenergic agonists
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-cardiovascular-system/positive-inotropes?qt=&sc=&alt=#v3329671
318
Lethargy and sedation is seen in almost a third of canine patients treated with which drug?
Terbutaline
Melarsomine
Yohimbine
Amitraz
Cyclosporine
Answer: Amitraz.
Thirty percent of patients treated with amitraz (Mitaban ®) may experience sedation, lethargy, anorexia 12-36 hours post treatment. Amitraz may be toxic to cats, rabbits. Use with caution in DIABETICS because it can cause hyperglycemia. Use with caution in TOY BREEDS.
Amitraz is one treatment for generalized demodicosis. Other treatments include ivermectin (Ivomec®) or topical imidacloprid and moxidectin for ivermectin-sensitive dogs.
Refs: Blackwell's 5-Minute Vet Consult Canine Feline, 4th ed. pp. 342-3.
Link: Mange in Dogs and Cats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/mange/mange-in-dogs-and-cats
Link: Antiparasitic Drugs for Intergumentary Disease in Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-integumentary-system/antiparasitic-drugs-for-integumentary-disease-in-animals?autoredirectid=18674
319
Which of the following is an anti-nociceptive neurotransmitter that also plays a key role in nausea and vomiting?
Epinephrine
Histamine
Acetylcholine
Serotonin
Glutamate
Answer: Serotonin.
Serotonin is an inhibitory (anti-nociceptive) neurotransmitter in the brain and spinal cord.
Serotonin also acts peripherally in the Gl tract and is a key neurotransmitter in the central chemoreceptive trigger zone (CRTZ), which controls the vomiting response to chemotherapeutics. Serotonin receptor antagonists, e.g., ondansetron, are potent antiemetics often used prior to chemotherapy administration and to control nausea and vomiting associated with other conditions.
Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter released by neurons in the spinal cord and is part of the physiologic and pathologic pain response.
High levels of glutamate released with intense pain lead to the 'windup' phenomenon and central sensitization.
Histamine can stimulate nociceptors as part of the pain response, and also causes eosinophil chemotaxis, arteriolar dilation, increased capillary permeability, and nonvascular smooth muscle contraction.
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor: Dogs and Cats, 4th ed., pp. 735-6.
Link: Antiemetic Drugs
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-digestive-system/drugs-to-control-or-stimulate-vomiting-monogastric#v3329965
Link: Pain Perception
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/pain-assessment-and-management/pain-perception
Link: Chemical Mediators of Inflammation in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/inflammation/chemical-mediators-of-inflammation-in-animals?autoredirectid=16870
320
If an animal has a laryngospasm, what is the most likely adverse event that can occur during intubation?
Elevated SpO2
Choking
Cyanosis
Tracheal necrosis
Lidocaine sensitivity
Answer: Cyanosis.
A consequence of laryngospasm is cyanosis and hypoxia if you cannot intubate the animal in a reasonable period of time.
The CO2 may increase, but the SpO2 would not increase, because the animal is not getting supplemental oxygen via the trach tube.
Tracheal necrosis occurs when an endotracheal tube cuff that has been inflated too far, cutting off circulation in the tracheal mucosa.
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians,
gth ed. p. 1032.
321
A mechanical ventilator is most needed for which one of these urgent problems?
Ocular enucleation
Urinary bladder rupture
Pneumothorax
Long bone fracture in more than one leg
Intussusception
Answer: Pneumothorax.
A dog or cat with pneumothorax will have trouble breathing due to under-inflated lungs and a mechanical ventilator will help the patient breathe. The reason that lungs can collapse with thoracic trauma (including pneumothorax, diaphragmatic hernia, or hit-by-car), is because penetration of the pleural cavity disrupt the negative pressure needed for normal lung ventilation.
Mechanical ventilation is useful for procedures where the respiratory muscles are paralyzed (e.g., when pancuronium is used during ophthalmic surgeries) or the patient cannot breathe well on their own (e.g., ivermectin toxicity). Mechanical ventilation is easier and more reliable than hand-bagging the patient for an extended time.
Here is a good summary by Virginia Sinnott VM from Angell Memorial Hospital, covering Mechanical Ventilation, indications and outcomes.
https://www.mspca.org/angell_services/mechanical-ventilation-indications-and-outcomes/
322
Which choice indicates that the soda lime granules in a CO2 absorbent canister have become exhausted?
Color stays pink, regardless of CO2 exposure
Crystals remain white, but patient won’t stay asleep
Crystals become hard and turn off-white
Color change from purple to pink, crystals become powder
Color changes to brown and liquid accumulates at the base of the canister
Answer: Crystals become hard and turn off-white.
The purpose of a canister of soda lime granules is to absorb carbon dioxide (CO2) from exhaled anesthetic gasses. Fresh absorbent crystals are white and can be crushed. But exhausted, saturated crystals become a distinct off-white color and are hard.
https://healthprofessions.udmercy.edu/academics/na/agm/07.htm
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Soda_lime
Most granules contain a pH-sensitive dye that becomes visible as the absorbent granules become saturated. (The color itself is not so important as the color changing). A color change from white to purple or violet typically indicates that the CO2 scavenger granules have become saturated with CO2, but this color change does not always happen, and will dissipate after a few hours.
The Veterinary Anesthesia and Analgesia Support Group is a nice online resource for
anesthesia information.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed., p. 1058.
Link: https://vasg.org/index.htm#
323
Which choice provides a visual and descriptive method for the evaluation of acute pain in dogs and cats?
Pre-emptive Scoring System (PESS)
Health-Related Quality of Life Scale (HRQLS)
Visual Analog Scale (VAS)
World Small Animal Veterinary Association (WSAVA)
Colorado State University Pain Scale
Answer: Colorado State University Pain Scale.
The Colorado State University Canine and Feline Acute Pain Scales include an assessment of behavior and includes the response to manipulation/handling of both the patient and the painful area.
https://www.vasg.org/pdfs/CSU_Acute_Pain_Scale_Canine.pdf
https://www.vasg.org/pdfs/CSU_Acute_Pain_Scale_Kitten.pdf
The Visual Analog Scale (VAS) is a semi-objective scoring system that primarily evaluates the intensity of pain in a patient. It utilizes a linear numerical scale and may miss patients that are actually in pain.
The Preemptive Scoring System (PESS) is a subjective protocol based on an estimate of the pain expected from a particular procedure rather than evaluation of the patient.
The Health-related Quality of Life Scale (HRQLS) is for patients in chronic pain.
The World Small Animal Veterinary Association (WSAVA) guidelines provide a descriptive basis in both cats and dogs to assess patient pain levels.
https://wsava.org/wp-content/uploads/2020/01/Feline-CMPS-SF.pdf
https://wsava.org/wp-content/uploads/2020/01/Canine-CMPS-SF.pdf
Many pain scales/scoring systems exist.
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians,
gth ed. p. 984.
Link: Recognition and Assessment of Pain in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/pain-assessment-and-management/recognition-and-assessment-of-pain-in-animals
324
Which cranial nerve innervates the salivary and lacrimal glands?
Facial (CN VII)
Trigeminal (CN XII)
Hypoglossal (CN XII)
Oculomotor (CN III)
Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
Answer: Facial (CN XII).
Loss of innervation can lead to a dry eye and possibly to exposure keratitis if animal loses ability to close eyelid from damage to facial nerve innervation of the orbicularis oculi muscle.
Think of facial nerve paralysis with a unilaterally droopy face. Idiopathic in 75% of canine cases (25% of cats).
Can also see these signs with middle ear damage (from otitis media), from facial nerve trauma (ear surgery in dogs, or pressure from halter buckles in anesthetized horse), or neoplasia.
Follow this link to see a horse with facial nerve damage (chronic, left-sided). With acute damage, the muzzle droops on the affected side due to loss of muscular tone. With chronic damage, the enervated muscle actually contracts causing the lip to contract on the side of the lesion.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v53770981
Think more of a dropped jaw with trigeminal nerve neuropathy (CN V - dogs, horses).
Ref: Smith, Van Metre, and Pusterla's Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed. pp. 135-38
Link: Physical and Neurologic Examinations
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/nervous-system-introduction/physical-and-neurologic-examinations#v3286845
Link: Facial Paralysis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/facial-paralysis/facial-paralysis-in-animals?autoredirectid=14324
Link: Otitis Media and Interna in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/ear-disorders/otitis-media-and-interna/otitis-media-and-interna-in-animals?redirectid=31733
325
A four-year-old Andalusian gelding is presented for evaluation. There is soft swelling (medial and lateral) just above the hock around the flexor tendons as they pass over the tuber calcanei. There is no heat or pain, and the horse shows no lameness during examination or flexion of the limb. What is the medical name and the corresponding colloquial (common) name for this condition?
Tarsal sheath tenosynovitis; Thoroughpin
Long plantar desmitis; Curb
Tibiotarsal joint inflammation; Bog spavin
Bursitis; Capped hock
Dorsal metacarpal disease; Bucked shins
Answer: Tarsal sheath tenosynovitis; Thoroughpin.
This is consistent with tarsal sheath tenosynovitis ("thoroughpin"), which is distention effusion/inflammation of the tarsal sheath of the lateral deep digital flexor tendon proximal to/at the tarsus. Usually an incidental finding and not associated with any pain or lameness. Esp. common in young horses starting in work.
Occasionally this is due to regional trauma and would be associated with lameness.
Tarsal sheath tenosynovitis may be treated with cryotherapy (ice), rest, and topical/intrathecal/systemic anti-inflammatories.
Similarly, idiopathic synovitis around the metacarpophalangeal or metatarsophalangeal joints are called windgalls or windpuffs; however, this is more common in older horses.
Chronic idiopathic synovitis of the tibiotarsal joint is known as bog spavin.
Thickening or bowing of the plantar tarsal ligament is called "curb". A "capped hock" is bursitis of the actual or acquired bursa over the tuber calcanei.
Ref: Auer and Stick, Equine Surgery, 5th ed. p. 1402 and Ross and Dyson, Diagnosis and Management of Lameness in the Horse, 2nd ed., pp. 800-01.
Link: Disorders of the Tarsal Sheath in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-horses/disorders-of-the-tarsal-sheath-in-horses
Link: Synovitis / Capsulitis of the Tarsocrural Joint in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-horses/synovitis-capsulitis-of-the-tarsocrural-joint-in-horses
Link: Curb in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-horses/curb-in-horses
Link: Lameness in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-horses
326
Where is a canine acanthomatous ameloblastoma most commonly found?
Point of the elbow
Mouth
Near the rectum
Inside third eyelid
Mammary gland
Answer: Mouth.
Acanthomatous ameloblastoma, previously called an acanthomatous epulis, is the most common benign tumor of the canine mouth.
Surgical removal must include a minimum of 1-cm margins of normal tissue in all directions (including deep) to prevent recurrence. Unlike other oral tumors, canine acanthomatous ameloblastoma will often respond to radiation therapy.
This handout from the University of Pennsylvania provides more in-depth information on acanthomatous ameloblastomas.
https://zukureview.com/sites/default/files/ks-epulides.pdf
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth ed. p. 1261.
Link: Oral Tumors in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-mouth-in-small-animals/oral-tumors-in-small-animals#v3266120
327
Which animal has radicular (open root) hypsodontic (high - crown) dentation?
Dog
Ferret
Cat
Fish
Horse
Answer: Horse.
Horses (and ruminants) have radicular hypsodontic (high-crown) cheek teeth. The cheek teeth slowly erupt (about 2-3 mm/year) throughout most of a horse's life to compensate for constant grinding as they eat (think of how a mechanical lead pencil works).
Hypsodontic teeth have a root structure that allows for continued growth, or continued eruption during all or most of the animal's life. The roots are divided up into radicular and aradicular.
In radicular teeth the apices (roots) remain open for a large portion of the animal's life.
After these roots close, tooth growth stops. Very old horses may completely wear down the grinding surfaces and "run out of" cheek teeth.
Aradicular teeth lack a true root structure, and will grow throughout the animal's entire life. This type of growth helps to compensate for occlusal wear produced from their high roughage diets. These can be found in rabbits and some rodents.
Dogs and cats have radicular brachyodontic teeth, with a small crown and well- developed roots. The roots are only open for a short time during eruption and development. These teeth do not continue to erupt or grow.
Note how long the cheek teeth roots are compared to the crown in this article from
Colorado State University on the Dental Anatomy of Horses.
https://rabowen.org/hbooks/pathphys/digestion/pregastric/horsepage.html
Ref: assert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth ed. p. 1218.
328
In what animals are the “fighting teeth” (i.e., upper and lower canines) routinely ground down as needed in intact males?
Cats
Llamas
Cattle
Horses
Dogs
Answer: Llamas
Llamas and alpacas have "fighting teeth", i.e., the upper 3rd incisor and upper and lower canine teeth, which can grow to over 3 cm in length and cause severe trauma. These are usually ground down or removed upon eruption at 18-24 months.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v56771805
Anesthesia should be used for this procedure as it is quite painful. It must be repeated at intervals as these teeth continue to grow.
When only the tips are cut off, this can be done without anesthesia and may be performed by the breeder.
When the crown is removed, the root will be exposed. The stub of the crown can be covered with a gingival flap. However, this is not commonly done and complications are rarely seen The canine teeth can also be completely extracted under general anesthesia. This is a fairly extensive procedure and is not often performed.
Canine teeth in females are poorly developed. After castration, the canines of males will stop growing.
Ref: Fowler's Medicine and Surgery of South American Camelids, 3rd ed. pp. 134-36.
Link: Herd Health of Llamas and Alpacas
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/exotic-and-laboratory-animals/llamas-and-alpacas/herd-health-of-llamas-and-alpacas
329
What percentage of dogs will have periodontal disease by two years of age?
25%
80%
50%
12%
Answer: 80%.
Approximately 80% of dogs and 70% cats will have periodontal disease (around-“peri". "dontal"-teeth) by two years of age. The point is that this is a COMMON problem.
Periodontal disease is a general term that includes gingivitis (gum inflammation) and peridontitis (more chronic, severe damage from bacterial plaque that involves gingiva, periodontal ligament, alveolar bone, root cementum). Periodontal disease is caused by accumulation bacterial plaque at the gingival margin (gumline) due partly to lack of adequate oral hygiene.
Follow these links to see gingivitis in a dog, a radiograph of peridontitis with bone loss, and peridontitis in a dog.
Refs: Tighe and Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians, 4th ed. p. 629.
Link: Periodontal Disease in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/dentistry/periodontal-disease-in-small-animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4731596
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4731632
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4731614
330
Which part of the tooth is the crown?
Above the gum line
Toward the cheek
Toward the tongue
Towards the roof of the mouth
Chewing surface
Answer: Above the gum line.
The crown is the visible tooth above the gum line. The chewing surface of a tooth is occlusal. Buccal means the surface toward the cheek. Lingual is surface toward the tongue. Palatal is towards the roof of the mouth.
Refs: Tighe and Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians, 4th ed. p. 631.
331
Which one of the following lists consists of ectoparasites only?
Dirofilaria immitis, Trichuris vulpis, Fasciola hepatica
Spirocerca lupi, Physaloptera spp, Toxocara canis
Ancylostoma caninum, Strongyloides Western, Taenia krabbei
Demodex canis, Cheyletiella spp, Argas persicus
Answer: Demodex canis, Cheyletiella spp, Argas persicus
Demodex canis, Cheyletiella spp, and Argas persicus are all external parasites or ectoparasites.
Demodex canis is the agent of demodectic mange in dogs.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/mange/mange-in-dogs-and-cats
Cheyletilla spp are skin mites found in dogs, cats, and rabbits.
Argas persicus, the fowl tick, is a type of soft tick.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/veterinary/poultry/ectoparasites/fowl-ticks
Refs: Bassert and Thomas, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed., pp. 406-7.
Link: Mange in Dogs and Cats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/mange/mange-in-dogs-and-cats
332
What is the most common underlying cause of congestive heart failure in dogs?
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
Aortic stenosis
Pulmonic stenosis
Tricuspid insufficiency
Left atrioventricular valve insufficiency
Answer: Left atrioventricular valve insufficiency.
Think first of left atrioventricular valve insufficiency (mitral valve insufficiency. regurgitation), the most common cause of congestive heart failure (CHF).
About 30% of dogs with mitral valve disease ALSO have tricuspid (right AV valve) disease. Because of this, the disease is sometimes called "atrioventricular valve endocardiosis."
It helps to remember your lambs and rats with heart valves. ie:
Left AV is Mitral
Right AV is Tricuspid
Dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) is also a common cause of CHF, but less so than atrioventricular valve disease. DCM is a typically a large dog disease, with an ACUTE onset of clinical signs (labored breathing, cough, tiring if L heart signs, or abdominal distension, jugular pulse if R heart signs). Boxers and Dobermans with DCM may simply die suddenly.
A small percentage of boxer dogs with arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy may develop DCM.
Heartworm is not among your choices, but it is another common cause of CHF.
Prevalence of infection is nearly 100% among unprotected dogs living in highly endemic areas (like Southern U.S.).
Ref: Blackwell's 5-Minute Vet Consult Canine Feline, 4th ed. pp. 146-47.
Link: Specific Cardiac Disease
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/heart-disease-and-heart-failure/specific-cardiac-diseases
Link: Heart Failure
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/heart-disease-and-heart-failure/heart-failure
Link: Heartworm Disease in Dogs, Cats, and Ferrets
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/heartworm-disease/heartworm-disease-in-dogs,-cats,-and-ferrets?redirectid=30615
333
A four-year-old female spayed domestic short-haired cat is presented with vomiting and a tender abdomen that developed over the previous two days. She is approximately 6% dehydrated and hypernatremic. What is the best IV fluid to administer first?
2.5% Dextrose
7.2% Sodium chloride
Lactated Ringer’s solution
20% Mannitol
Sterile water
Answer: Lactated Ringer’s solution.
Isotonic crystalloids should be administered to help improve perfusion and then the rate of correction of the hypernatremia can be determined.
This cat is likely hypernatremic due to hypotonic fluid loss from the Gl tract. After 24 hours of hypernatremia, the brain produces idiogenic osmoles to prevent its dehydration secondary to systemic hyperosmolality.
Therefore, hypernatremia needs to be corrected slowly to prevent cerebral edema. It is best to restore tissue perfusion with an isotonic fluid first and then reassess the Na concentration in the blood - it may even be necessary to add Na to the fluids once perfusion is restored.
In acute cases, fluids should be administered such that the decrease in serum sodium concentration does not exceed 1 mEg/L/h and does not exceed 24 mE/L/day, and in more chronic cases fluids should be provided at a rate such that the decrease in serum sodium concentration does not exceed 0.5 mEq/L/h and does not exceed 12 mEg/L day.
Refs: Coté Clinical Veterinary Advisor: Dogs and Cats, 4th ed. pp. 498-9.
334
What hormone acts in Sertoli cells in the testis to release more sperm cells?
Gonadotropin-release hormone
Follicle-stimulating hormone
Interstitial cell hormone
Luteinizing hormone
Testosterone
Answer: Follicle-stimulating hormone.
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). The hypothalamus releases gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), which in turn causes the release of FSH from the pituitary gland.
https://www.webdicine.com/wp-content/uploads/Pituitary_3.jpg
FSH acts on Sertoli cells in the testis to increase division of primordial sperm cells and release more sperm cells.
Luteinizing hormone is released from the anterior pituitary gland to increase testosterone production from the interstitial cells.
Refs: Bassert and Thomas, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth edition, p. 349.
335
What should the management target for estrus detection rate be in a dairy herd?
100%
80-90%
50-65%
70-80%
40%
Answer: 50-65%
Estrus detection rates should be approximately 50-65%.
Check cattle twice a day, and look for signs of standing to be mounted, riding other cows, restlessness, bellowing, and ruffled hair or hair loss on tail head from being mounted.
Here is a list of some basic reproductive management targets for cows:
Heat (estrus) detection rate: 50-65%
Calving interval: ~ 13 months
First service conception rate: 40% or greater
Average days open (ADO): ~115 days (ideally in the low 100s)
Services per conception: less than 2.5 for pregnant cows, less than 3.5 for all cows serviced
Refs: Ferguson J, Nutrition and Reproduction in Dairy Herds in Vet Clinics of North America Food Animal Practice 21, 325-347 and Parameters Useful to Monitor Health and Production of Dairy Herds (scroll down to table 2), Dairy Reproduction Benchmarks, Smith, et al, UGA Extension.
https://extension.uga.edu/publications/detail.html?number=B1210
Link: The Health Management Program in Dairy Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/health-management-interaction-dairy-cattle/the-health-management-program-in-dairy-cattle#v11667809
336
What should the management target for estrus detection rate be in a dairy herd?
100%
80-90%
50-65%
70-80%
40%
Answer: 50-65%
Estrus detection rates should be approximately 50-65%.
Check cattle twice a day, and look for signs of standing to be mounted, riding other cows, restlessness, bellowing, and ruffled hair or hair loss on tail head from being mounted.
Here is a list of some basic reproductive management targets for cows:
Heat (estrus) detection rate: 50-65%
Calving interval: ~ 13 months
First service conception rate: 40% or greater
Average days open (ADO): ~115 days (ideally in the low 100s)
Services per conception: less than 2.5 for pregnant cows, less than 3.5 for all cows serviced
Refs: Ferguson J, Nutrition and Reproduction in Dairy Herds in Vet Clinics of North America Food Animal Practice 21, 325-347 and Parameters Useful to Monitor Health and Production of Dairy Herds (scroll down to table 2), Dairy Reproduction Benchmarks, Smith, et al, UGA Extension.
https://extension.uga.edu/publications/detail.html?number=B1210
Link: The Health Management Program in Dairy Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/health-management-interaction-dairy-cattle/the-health-management-program-in-dairy-cattle#v11667809
337
What is a paratenic host?
Host that harbors only external parasites
Host in which a parasite doesn’t undergo further development
Host immobilized by its parasite
Host that harbors active, adult stage of the parasite able to undergo reproduction
Host that can be both definitive and intermediate
Answer: Host in which a parasite doesn’t undergo further development.
A paratenic host has a passive role in the parasite's life: no parasite development occurs in the paratenic host. A paratenic host might harbor a parasite's unhatched eggs, or the parasite may remain encysted. For example, Toxocara canis in humans.
A definitive host harbors the adult (mature, sexual) stage of the parasite. For example, Dirofilaria immitis in dogs.
An intermediate host harbors the larval (immature, asexual) stage of the parasite. For example, Fasciola hepatica in snails.
Parasite transmission varies greatly from direct infection to very complicated life cycles with intermediate hosts, transport hosts, and sometimes dead-end (aberrant) hosts.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gthed, pp. 417.
Link: Roundworms in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/gastrointestinal-parasites-of-small-animals/roundworms-in-small-animals
Link: Heartworm Disease in Dogs, Cats, and Ferrets
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/heartworm-disease/heartworm-disease-in-dogs,-cats,-and-ferrets?redirectid=30615
Link: Fasciola hepatica in Ruminants
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/fluke-infections-in-ruminants/fasciola-hepatica-in-ruminants
338
An 11-week-old male Old English Sheepdog is presented with a history of intermittent vomiting and diarrhea since weaning. He drinks and urinates frequently and is undersized compared to his littermates. The owners report pacing, disorientation, and weakness. Physical exam is unremarkable, but only one testicle has descended. As the puppy explores the room he appears ataxic, stumbles a few times, and presses his head into the wall. A congenital portosystemic vascular anomaly (PSVA) is suspected. What laboratory findings would support this diagnosis?
Microcytosis, target cells; ammonium rate crystalluria
Nucleated/basophilic RBCs; struvite crystalluria
Spherocytes; hematuria, calcium oxalate crystalluria
Howell-Jolly bodies; cystine crystalluria
Poikilocytosis, non-regenerative anemia; bilirubin crystalluria
Answer: Microcytosis, target cells; ammonium rate crystalluria.
Young dogs with congenital portosystemic vascular anomalies (PSVAs, also referred to as portosystemic shunts) classically display microcytosis, target cells, and a mild non- regenerative anemia on CBC and ammonium rate crystalluria on urinalysis.
Look for nucleated/basophilic RBCs with lead poisoning. Can also see nucleated RBCs with iron and copper deficiency, hemangiosarcoma, and FeLV infection.
Howell-Jolly bodies are basophilic nuclear remnants inside RBCs seen during accelerated erythropoiesis and post-splenectomy. Follow this link to see an image of a Howell-Jolly body.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4730297
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 4th ed. pp. 814-6.
Link: Portosystemic Vacular Malformations in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/hepatic-disease-in-small-animals/portosystemic-vascular-malformations-in-small-animals
Link: Lead Poisoning in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/lead-poisoning/lead-poisoning-in-animals
Link: Nutritional Deficiency Anemia in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/anemia/nutritional-deficiency-anemia-in-animals?autoredirectid=12635
Link: Feline Leukemia Virus Disease
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/feline-leukemia-virus/feline-leukemia-virus-disease?autoredirectid=17869
339
Which choice is normal to see on cytology smear from a normal external ear canal for a dog or cat?
Occasional anucleate keratinized epithelial cells, cocci, yeast
No infectious agents, scattered mix of white blood cells and skin cells
Copious cerumen, lots of squamous cells
Up to 3 Otodectes spp. mites/high power field, few cells
Mixed population of bacteria, yeast, mites but no cerumen
Answer: Occasional anucleate keratinized epithelial cells, cocci, yeast
A cytology from normal external ear canal may contain a few anucleate keratinized squamous epithelial cells, few cocci, few yeast, and a small amount of cerumen (ear wax).
Large amounts of bacteria (>15-25/hpf), yeasts (>10/hpf), inflammatory cells, or any Otodectes spp. mites and/or their eggs are abnormal to see and indicates infection.
It is common to perform cytology of ear canal samples because otitis externa is common in dogs and cats. Usually evaluate the slide un-stained to look for mites, then stain with Wright stain to look for abnormal cells, bacteria, yeasts.
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, qthed, pp. 389-90.
Link: Otitis Externa in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/ear-disorders/otitis-externa/otitis-externa-in-animals?redirectid=31732
340
Focal-film distance is the distance between which two objects?
Dorsal and ventral aspect of the structure being radiographed
Glass envelope and the filament
Bottom of the x-ray tube and the floor
Tungsten target and surface of the x-ray detector
Cathode and the anode
Answer: Tungsten target and surface of the x-ray detector.
The focal-film distance (FFD) is the distance between the tungsten target in the x-ray tube (the region of the anode that generates x-rays) and the surface of the x-ray detector.
The tungsten target is contained within the anode, which is the positive side of the x-ray tube. Electrons from the cathode are accelerated towards the anode and hit the tungsten target to generate the primary x-ray beam.
The FFD influences many factors, including x-ray beam intensity and image detail. Ideally, it should be kept constant from one exposure the next.
Doubling the FFD decreases the number of x-rays reaching the x-ray detector by a factor of four, this is known as the inverse square law. In other words, doubling the FFD decreases the x-ray beam intensity by ¾.
When FFD is increased, the milliampere seconds (mAs), which controls the number of x- rays generated by the anode, must also be increased to maintain radiographic density and image detail.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 10th ed., p. 450.
341
A five-onth-old Siamese kitten presented for an ovariohysterectomy. Which one of the following choices is the recommended method of abdominal closure?
Rectus fascia: horizontal mattress; subcutis: Gambee, skin: intraderma
Rectus fascia: simple interrumpted; subcutis: Connell, skin: Kessler
Rectus fascia: Ford interlocking; subcutis: Cushing, skin: Parker-Kerr
Rectus fascia: simple continuous; subcutis: Simple comnituous, skin: subcuticular
Rectus fascia: Lembert; subcutis: Halsted, skin: horizontal mattress
Answer: Rectus fascia: simple continuous; subcutis: Simple continuous; skin: subcuticular.
The most appropriate suture choice would be: Rectus fascia: simple continuous; subcutis: simple continuous; skin: subcuticular. The abdomen is closed in three layers: the rectus fascia, subcutis, and skin using appositional suture patterns.
Simple interrupted or continuous patterns may be used.
Remember that the holding layer of the abdomen is the rectus fascia, not the muscle.
Closure of the subcutaneous layer is performed to reduce dead space. However, some clinicians choose to skip closure of the subcutaneous layer in order to reduce procedure time.
Refs: Fossum, Small Animal Surgery, 5th ed., pp. 517-8.
342
Phenylpropanomaline is a typically used to treat which one of the following conditions?
Canine Cushing’s disease (hyperadrenocorticism)
Urinary tract irritation
Detrusor muscle atony
Degenerative myelopathy
Urethral sphincter incompetence
Answer: Urethral sphincter incompetence.
Phenylpropanolamine is used to treat urinary incontinence associated with urethral sphincter mechanism incompetence (USMl) in dogs and cats.
Phenylpropanolamine is a sympathomimetic drug. Potential side effects include anxiety, restlessness, hypertension, tachycardia, urinary retention and vomiting.
This drug has been removed from the U.S. market for human use due to an increase risk of strokes. It is still available for veterinary use.
https://www.fda.gov/drugs/information-drug-class/phenylpropanolamine-ppa-information-page
Phenazopyridine is a urinary tract analgesic agent.
Refs: Papich, Saunders Handbook of Vet. Drugs: Sm & Lg An., 4th ed. p. 633.
Link: Urinary Incontinence
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-urinary-system/urinary-incontinence#v3333479
343
Atipamezole and Yohimbine are reversal agents for which two drugs?
Diazepam, fomipazole
Acepromazine maleate, propofol
Amiraz, Xylazine
Organophosphates, hydromorphone
Ketamine, Physostigmine
Answer: Amitraz, Xylazine.
Atipamezole and yohimbine are reversal agents for amitraz and xylazine (analgesic and sedative).
Amitraz is used to treat generalized demodicosis as a dip. The most common side effect to watch out for with amitraz is SEDATION, seen in 30% of patients within 12-36 hours after treatment.
Fomipazole (4-MP) is used to treat dogs with ethylene glycol toxicity.
When you hear organophosphate toxicity, think 3 things:
1. Sedative for seizures (diazepam (Valium®) or pentobarbital)
2. Atropine
3. Pralidoxime chloride (Protopam®)
Refs: Plumb's Veterinary Drug Handbook, 7th ed. pp. 1397-1402 and Blackwell's 5- Minute Vet Consult Canine Feline, 4th ed. pp. 342-43.
Link: Canine Demodicosis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/mange/mange-in-dogs-and-cats#v3279943
344
Which insulin type acts the fastest but has the shortest duration of action in the dog?
NPH
Ultralente
Regular
Lente
Insulin Glargine
Answer: Regular.
Regular insulin acts fastest and has the shortest duration. The easiest way to remember
these:
1. Regular is FASTEST-acting insulin (so often used to Tx emergencies), but SHORTEST duration (4-10 hrs).
2. Ns are Ntermediate duration-NPH (6-18 hr, dogs; 4-12 hr, cats) and LeNte (8-20 hr, dogs; 6-18 hr, cats).
3. U and Z are at the end of the alphabet, and they are longest duration too: Ultralente means "ultra-slow" (6-24 hr duration, dog and cat) and PZI (6-28 hr, dogs; 6-24 hr, cats).
In general, duration of insulin action is SHORTER IN CATS than in dogs, which may explain why 75% of cats need BID insulin.
Increasingly, Glargine (a long-acting insulin) is preferred in cats, in combination with a high protein, low carbohydrate diet. Lente insulin or NPH insulin are commonly used in dogs.
The types of insulin available change as products go on or off the market. For example, Ultralente insulin and PI are no longer available.
For more on diabetes mellitus, see the Merck Veterinary Manual online.
Ref: Papich, Saunders Handbook of Vet Drugs, 4th ed., Insulin.
Link: Diabetes Mellitus in Dogs and Cats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/endocrine-system/the-pancreas/diabetes-mellitus-in-dogs-and-cats
345
Which anesthetic breathing system has an intermediate fresh gas flow rate during maintenance of anesthesia? (i.e., 20-200 ml/kg/min, not the highest, and not the lowest)
Closed system
Semi-closed system
Nonrebreathing system
Open system
Bain system
Answer: Semi-closed system.
Semi-closed and partial rebreathing systems (they are the same thing).
They run at intermediate flow rates where fresh gas is delivered in excess of metabolic consumption, from about 10 ml/kg/min (large animals) or 30 ml/kg/min (small animals).
A Bain system run at HIGH fresh gas flow rates of ~300 ml/kg/min is a nonrebreathing system. However, a Bain anesthetic circuit run at a MODERATE flow rate of ~20-300 ml/kg/min will allow partial rebreathing of exhaled gasses.
Remember that a Bain system is like a tube within a tube. New oxygen and anesthetic gas is inhaled down the inner tube, and exhaled gas exits through the outer tube.
A closed anesthetic rebreathing system only provides enough fresh gas flow to meet an animal's metabolic needs (LOW flow rate), about 5-10 ml/kg/min (depending on animal size; low is lower for larger animals and higher for smaller animals).
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed. pp. 1025-27 & Tighe and Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians, 4th ed. p. 458.
346
A dog is anesthetized for ovariohysterectomy with isoflurane in oxygen following premedication with atropine, ace-romaine, and hydromorphone given intramuscularly, and intravenous induction with midazolam and ketamine. As the surgeon exteriorizes the first ovary, the dog’s blood pressure increases and the heart rate goes down. What is this phenomenon?
Sympathethic release
The Valsalva maneuver
Baroreceptor response
Vaso-vagal reflex
Fluid volume overload
Answer: Baroreceptor response.
This is an example of the baroreceptor response or reflex that relates heart rate (HR) and blood pressure (BP). It is sometimes also called Mary's reflex.
To maintain perfusion, BP is kept within a particular range. When BP increases, HR goes down, when BP decreases, HR goes up. The BP increase is usually because of an increase in sympathetic tone. This causes a corresponding increase in parasympathetic tone (via the vagus nerve) that slows HR.
Anesthestic drugs and adjunct medication may accentuate (alpha 2 agonists), attenuate (inhalants) or abolish (anti-cholinergics) this response.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed., p. 866, Thomas & Lerche Vet Anes and Analgesia for Vet Techs, 4th ed. pp. 57,152-3.
Link: The cardiovascular System in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/cardiovascular-system-introduction/the-cardiovascular-system-in-animals?qt=ischemia&alt=sh#v4499086
347
Which choice is important to remember when administering inhalant anesthesia to a bird?
They have complete tracheal rings
The trachea terminates directly into the right and left lungs
Their MAC is much lower than in mammals
Inhalant anesthesia is very irritating to their trachea and lung tissues
The trachea is located to the right of the esophagus
Answer: They have complete tracheal rings.
The avian trachea is made of completely closed cartilaginous rings which can be damaged by a cuffed endotracheal tube. Therefore, use only NON-cuffed endotracheal tubes for intubation. A Cole tube is an example of an non-cuffed endotracheal tube.
https://www.woodlibrarymuseum.org/museum/cole-tracheal-tube/
If you use a cuffed tube in birds, the pressure of the inflated cuff can damage the mucosal layer in the trachea and lead to tracheal stricture.
Remember to place a mouth gag AFTER intubation to prevent the beak of larger birds from severing the endotracheal tube during anesthetic recovery.
https://www.vetfolio.com/learn/article/anesthesia-for-companion-birds
This article by Sondra Biggs, LVT, provides more in-depth information on avian anesthesia.
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth ed. p. 771.
348
Radiogrphic findings with aspiration pneumonia most commonly demonstrate pulmonary changes in which location?
Ventral
Cauda
Dorsal
Rostral
Prihiliar
Answer: Ventral.
Aspiration pneumonia is associated with radiographic changes in dependent lung fields (cranio-ventral).
Click here to see cranioventral lung consolidation in a necropsy image from a pig with Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae (enzootic pneumonia).
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4740773
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 3rd ed. pp. 812-3.
Link: Aspiration Pneumonia in Large Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/respiratory-system/aspiration-pneumonia-in-large-animals/aspiration-pneumonia-in-large-animals
349
How many weight bearing claws are present on the foot of a cow with syndacyly?
Three
None
Four
One
Two
Answer: One.
A claw with syndactyly ("mule foot") has only one weight-bearing claw, since the claws are fused. One to all four feet may be affected.
This syndrome is inherited in Holstein-Friesian cattle.
Refs: Smith's Large An Med 3rd ed. p. 289.
Link: Congenital and Inherited Anomalies in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/congenital-and-inherited-anomalies/congenital-and-inherited-anomalies-in-animals?redirectid=31738
350
Where are the majority of equine lamenesses located, anatomically?
Foot
Pastern
Carpus and tarsus
Femorotibial (knee) joint
Stifle
Answer: Foot
90% of all lameness is in the FOOT. That means the three LOWEST nerve blocks will help you isolate most lamenesses.
These 3 are (in the forelimb):
1) PALMAR DIGITAL nerve block (also called heel block, used to help Dx navicular syndrome)
2) ABAXIAL SESAMOID nerve block (also known as basisesamoid nerve block - can use to make a horse with acute laminitis comfortable)
3) LOW FOUR-POINT block (also called low palmar or volar)
If horse is still lame after these 3 blocks, continue up limb with metacarpal/high 4-point, then prox. metacarpal blocks next.
Refs: Ross and Dyson, Diagnosis and Management of Lameness in the Horse, 2nd ed., pp. 100-34
Link: Regional Anesthesia in Equine
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-horses/regional-anesthesia-in-equine-lameness?qt=nerve%20blocks&alt=sh
Link: Navicular Disease in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-horses/navicular-disease-in-horses
Link: Laminitis in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-horses/laminitis-in-horses
351
Which two reportable diseases have a similar presentation and are caused by a closely related causative agent?
Foot and mouth disease (FMD), vesicular stomatitis (VS)
Rinderpest, peste des petits ruminants
Malignant catarrhal fever, blue tongue
Aphthous fever, bovine ephemeral fever
Pseudorabies, Aujesky’s disease
Answer: Rinderpest, peste des petits ruminants.
Rinderpest and peste des petits ruminants are both caused by a morbillivirus and both cause a syndrome characterized by fever, necrotic stomatitis, gastroenteritis/diarrhea.
In 2011, the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) officially declared that rinderpest was eradicated globally. But because it is a classic, severe, reportable, stomatitis-type disease, it’s unlikely that vets will be allowed to forget rinderpest on DDXs for years.
Canine distemper and human measles are also caused by morbilliviruses.
Pseudorabies and Aujesky's are the same disease. Aphthous fever is just another name for foot and mouth disease (FMD).
Bluetongue is almost exclusively a sheep disease that is mild in cows. In contrast, malignant catarrhal fever (MCF) is almost 100% fatal once see clinical signs.
Ref: Pasquini's Guide to Bovine Clinics, 4th ed. pp 8-11.
Link: Rinderpest
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/rinderpest/rinderpest?redirectid=29132
Link: Overview of Peste des Petits Ruminants
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/rinderpest/rinderpest?redirectid=29132
Link: Animal Production and Health Division (NSA)
https://www.fao.org/agriculture/animal-production-and-health/en/
Link: Canine Distemper Overview
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/canine-distemper/canine-distemper-overview
Link: Pseudorabies in Pigs
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/pseudorabies/pseudorabies-in-pigs?autoredirectid=14329
Link: Foot-and-Mouth Disease in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/foot-and-mouth-disease/foot-and-mouth-disease-in-animals?autoredirectid=14225
Link: Bluetongue in Ruminats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/bluetongue/bluetongue-in-ruminants?autoredirectid=17866
Link: Malignant Catarrhal Fever in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/malignant-catarrhal-fever/malignant-catarrhal-fever-in-animals?autoredirectid=17867
352
The tails of lambs are typically “docked” or shortened. Which one of the following adverse outcomes has an increased risk if a lamb’s tail is docked too shirt?
Fly strike
Fecal soiling
Caseous lymphadenitis
Rectal prolapse
Urinary incontinences
Answer: Rectal prolapse.
Tails of lambs are docked to reduce fecal soiling and fly strike but making it too short is associated with increased risk of rectal prolapse.
Fly strike occurs when blowflies lay eggs on sheep. When the maggots then burrow into the sheep they secrete ammonia and poison the sheep. It's a self-perpetuating cycle because the skin irritation attracts additional flies. It is very painful and death can ensue within 3-6 days.
Tail docking has welfare implications because it is painful for the lambs. Reported benefits include increased weight gain, feed efficiency, and reproductive capacity; and improved tolerance of heat.
The AVMA notes that excessively short docking is inappropriate from a welfare point of view. Appropriate docking at the level of the distal end of the caudal tail fold, using analgesia and appropriate procedures, is recommended.
Click here to read the AVMA's Position of the Docking of Lambs Tails and check out the Welfare Implications of Tail Docking of Lambs by the AMA.
https://www.avma.org/resources-tools/avma-policies/docking-lambs-tails
https://www.avma.org/resources-tools/literature-reviews/welfare-implications-tail-docking-lambs
The Canadian Veterinary Medical Association (CVMA) has similar guidelines regarding appropriaté and humane Tail Docking of Sheep.
Refs: The American Veterinary Medical Association (AMA) Policy Resources and the CVMA, Policy Statement.
Link: Facultative Myiasis-producing Flies
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/facultative-myiasis-producing-flies
353
Eastern tent caterpillars have been associated with which disease?
Contagious agalactia of sheep
Postpartum dysgalactia syndrome of swine
Mare reproductive loss syndrome
Prolonged gestation association with fetal deformity
Ulcerative posthitis and vulvitis
Answer: Mare reproductive loss syndrome.
Mare reproductive loss syndrome (MRLS) is poorly understood, but has been associated with wild cherry trees, Eastern tent caterpillars and weather changes that affect pasture conditions.
Click here to see Eastern tent caterpillars and a wild cherry tree, Prunus avium.
Refs: Dwyer, etal., Case-control study of factors associated with early fetal losses associated with mare reproductive loss syndrome in central Kentucky during 2001 , JAVMA, Vol 222, No. 5, March 1, 2003.
Link: Abortion in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/abortion-in-large-animals/abortion-in-horses
Link: Eastern tent caterpillar
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eastern_tent_caterpillar
354
Which one of the following choices is the preferred imaging modality for the brain and spinal cord?
Magnetic resonance imaging
Diagnostic nuclear medicine
Ultrasonography
Contrast computed tomography
Radiography
Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging modality for the brain and spinal cord.
With MRI, a radiofrequency pulse disrupts hydrogen nuclei within tissues.
The intensity of the radio wave signal produced from this disruption creates the image.
Like computed tomography (CT), MRI provides a cross-sectional image of the patient’s anatomy.
However, unlike CT, no ionizing radiation is used to create the image.
Also, MRI provides superior image resolution and anatomic definition compared to CT.
Refs: McCurnin and Bassert, Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed. pp. 516-7, the Virginia-Maryland School of Vet Med, and the Merck Vet Manual online edition.
Link: Magnetic Resonance Imaging in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/clinical-pathology-and-procedures/diagnostic-imaging/magnetic-resonance-imaging-in-animals
Link: Computed Tomography in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/clinical-pathology-and-procedures/diagnostic-imaging/computed-tomography-in-animals
355
A twelve-year-old female spayed mixed breed dog is presented following an acute episode and difficulty breathing. Abdominal radiographs are shown below. What is the primary significant radiographic finding?
Small intestinal foreign body obstruction
Peritoneal effusion
Gastric dilatation and volvulus
Diaphragmatic hernia
Spondylosis deformans
There is peritoneal effusion and a cranial abdominal mass effect. The abdomen is distended, and there is decreased serosal detail throughout the abdomen.
The cranial abdominal mass effect is characterized by organs being displaced by a mass or other soft tissue structure even if you cannot see the mass itself. In these radiographs there is an area of poor detail with increased soft tissue opacity in the cranial abdomen, and the organs are displaced from this region.
https://zukureview.com/sites/default/files/vet/masseffect.jpg
The remainder of the abdominal organs are obscured by the poor detail due to the peritoneal effusion.
Ultrasound examination showed a large splenic mass and cytology of the effusion showed acute hemorrhage. The dog also had a hemorrhagic pleural effusion and diffuse hemangiosarcoma was the top differential.
Incidentally, there is ventral spondylosis deformans of the L1 and L2 vertebrae. This is unrelated to the dog's collapse and difficulty breathing. Spondylosis deformans is a noninflammatory formation of bony projections where the annulus fibrous attaches to the cortical surface of adjacent vertebrae. This is a common condition, 25% to 70% of all dogs are affected.
There is no clear correlation between spondylosis and clinical signs, it is typically an incidental radiographic finding. Click here to see spondylosis bridging multiple vertebrae in a dog.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v9051369
Click here to see normal abdominal radiographs.
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/canine/ab/ex03/ab03.html
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor, 4th ed., Pp. 424-7. Radiographic interpretation and images courtesy, Dr A. Zwingenberger and Veterinary Radiology. Normal radiograph links courtesy, Imaging Anatomy Univ. of Illinois Vet Med.
Link: Identifying and Abdominal Mass on Radiographs
http://www.veterinaryradiology.net/160/identifying-an-abdominal-mass-on-radiographs/
Link: Connective Tissue Tumors in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/tumors-of-the-skin-and-soft-tissues/connective-tissue-tumors-in-animals#v3281334
Link: Spondylosis Deformans in Animals
356
Why is it beneficial to have an intravenous catheter in place during anesthetic procedures?
Maintains body temperature more evenly
Ensures the animal remains still
Allows for blood pressure measurements
To administer drugs
Provides additional monetary income
Answer: To administer drugs.
In nearly all anesthetic situations, having an intravenous (IV) catheter in place is a good idea: it permits quick and reliable administration of additional injectable anesthetic drugs, analgesic drugs, and IV fluids as needed. If there is a complication, you can give emergency medications IV.
An anesthetized animal should not be moving, and invasive blood pressure requires an arterial catheter. External warming devices are useful for maintaining body temperature.
Ref: Tighe and Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians, 4th
Link: Patient Preparation
https://www.aaha.org/aaha-guidelines/2020-aaha-anesthesia-and-monitoring-guidelines-for-dogs-and-cats/phase-2-day-of-anesthesia/step-3-patient-preparation/
357
What change in a patient’s condition indicates that the endotracheal tube may be blocked with mucus during anesthesia?
SpO2 over 95%
ETCO2 below 35 mmHg
Hypoventilation
Waking up
HCO3- above 26 mEq
Answer: Waking up
If an endotracheal tube is blocked with mucus the patient will start to wake up because the anesthetic gas cannot flow. Secondary hypoxia can also develop if the endotracheal tube is blocked.
Commonly-used pre-meds like atropine and glycopyrrolate can thicken the respiratory secretions and contribute to endotracheal tube blockage with mucus.
Remove a blocked tube and replace it with a new, clean tube. If the patient is too awake to re-intubate, you may need to administer injectable induction agents to deepen the animal's level of anesthesia.
Ref: Tighe and Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians, 4th ed. p. 469
358
What is the function of the ventriculus in psittacines and poultry?
Vocalization in males
Replaces function of teeth
Esophageal diverticulum for food storage
Glandular stomach
Avian version of gall bladder
Answer: Replaces function of teeth.
The ventriculus (also called the gizzard), is the muscular stomach that contains grit and small rocks. The gizzard helps birds grind up hard seeds and other foods, in effect, acting like teeth.
The proventriculus is the glandular stomach in birds.
The crop is a diverticulum of the esophagus, used for temporary food storage that empties into the proventriculus.
The purpose of the crop is to allow a bird to quickly swallow what food it can, then fly to safety and digest the meal at leisure.
In hand-fed pediatric birds (usually valuable parrots), there a many potential problems possible with crop burn, crop puncture or proventricular impaction.
Refs: The Merck Veterinary Manual online edition and Wikipedia online.
Link: Crop (anatomy)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crop_%28anatomy%29
Link: Pediatric Diseases of Pet Birds
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/exotic-and-laboratory-animals/pet-birds/pediatric-diseases-of-pet-birds
359
Which one of the following tissues is formes in part from an evagination of the embryonic oral cavity called Rathke’s pouch?
Pituitary
Parathyroids
Tonsils
Hypothalamus
Thymus
Answer: Pituitary.
The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is formed from an evagination of the oropharyngeal ectoderm of the cranial pharyngeal duct (Rathke's pouch).
The anterior lobe contains the trophic-hormone-secreting cells of the pars distalis.
The posterior lobe is formed from a diverticulum from the floor of the brain.
Refs: Senger, Pathways to Pregnancy and Parturition, 2nd rev ed. pp. 81-85.
Link: Rathke’s pouch
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rathke%27s_pouch
360
What is the most common cause of lymphocytic - plasmocytic stomatitis in cats?
Immune-mediated
Viral exposure
Uremic toxicosis
Foreign body
Reaction to a drug
Answer: Immune-mediated.
Lymphocytic-plasmacytic stomatitis in cats is most often immune-mediated. Cats’ immune systems may overreact to plaque accumulation.
While many cats with this disorder do shed herpesvirus and calicivirus, they are not thought to be causative. The other answers listed can cause stomatitis, but not as commonly.
Therapy may include increased home care and frequent dental cleanings, immunosuppressive therapy, or full-mouth tooth extraction.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed., p. 1263.
Link: Oral Infamllatory and Ulcerative Disease in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-mouth-in-small-animals/oral-inflammatory-and-ulcerative-disease-in-small-animals
361
Which of the following list of drugs are all normally found in the crash cart for use with emergency patients?
Pentoxyfiline, polymicin B, amikacin, meloxicam
Epinephrine, Atropine, Dobutamine, Vasopressin
Penicillin, Enrofloxacin, Saline, Heparin
Glycopyrrolate, catheters, morphine, ketamine
Isoflurane, sevoflurane, desflurane, methoxyflurane
Answer: Epinephrine, Atropine, Dobutamine, Vasopressin
Epinephrine, atropine, dobutamine, and vasopressin are used in the treatment of emergency patients, especially those in cardiac arrest or in shock.
Endotracheal tubes, intravenous catheters and fluids, syringes and needles, clippers, tape, and other supplies needed for emergency therapy are kept in the crash cart.
Oxygen, an electrocardiogram machine, and a defibrillator should be close by. A chart with drug dosages and emergency protocols should be posted on the wall in full view.
Morphine and ketamine are controlled substances that must be kept in a double locked box. Antibiotics are needed for some emergency patients but are not usually kept in the crash cart.
Refs: McCurnin's Clin Textbk for Vet Techs, 8th ed. pp. 915, 925.
Link: Ready Area for Emergency Medicine in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/emergency-medicine-and-critical-care/emergency-medicine-introduction/ready-area-for-emergency-medicine-in-animals?redirectid=31736
362
An African gray parrot is presented with chlamydiosis. It will be treated with oral doxycycline suspension at 25mg/kg, once daily for 45 days. If the parrot weighs 400 grams and the concentration of the drug is 50mg/5 ml, how many milliliters are necessary for a single dose?
1.5 ml
90 ml
0.5 ml
5 ml
1 ml
Answer: 1 milliliter.
To determine the answer here, you must first find the amount of milligrams [mg] in one dose, then determine how many milliliters [ml] are required for that dose at the concentration.
Since there are 1000 g in a kg, determine the bird's weight in kg --> 400 g/1000 g = 0.4 kg Then, to determine the amount of mg in one dose, multiply that result by 25 mg/kg - > 10 mg per dose
Then, since there is a concentration of 50 mg/5 ml, or 10 mg/ml --> one dose is 1 ml Chlamydiosis in birds is caused by the bacteria Chlamydophila psittaci and is a dangerous, zoonotic disease.
Ref: Bassert and Thomas. McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinarv Technicians. 9th
Link: Avian Chlamydiosis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/avian-chlamydiosis/avian-chlamydiosis
363
In which stage of wound healing are neutrophils found in the largest numbers in the affected tissue?
Inflammation
Granulation
Proliferation
Epithelization
Remodeling
Neutrophils predominate in wounded tissues during the inflammatory stage.
Wound healing occurs in most tissues of the body in three major stages: inflammation, proliferation, and remodeling (sometimes called "maturation").
Inflammation is the first stage, when neutrophils migrate into a new wound within 30 minutes. Neutrophils phagocytize bacteria and die off, leaving monocytes (called macrophages once they exit the blood stream) to become the predominant cell type for the next phase of inflammation: wound debridement.
Monocytes are essential in this next step because they secrete growth factors that promote wound healing.
Fibroblasts predominate during the proliferative stage of wound healing, first laying down fibrin for epithelial cell migration and then collagen for wound stability.
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed. pp. 917-21.
Link: General Principles of Wound Healing in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/emergency-medicine-and-critical-care/wound-management/general-principles-of-wound-healing-in-animals
364
Which of the following types of dissecting scissors are more delicate and useful for cutting finer muscle and fat tissue?
Aebli
Mayo
Lister
White
Metzenbaum
Answer: Metzenbaum.
Metzenbaum scissors are designed for more delicate work.
https://www.integralife.com/metzenbaum-scissors/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-padgett-plastic-reconstructive-surgery-scissors-metzenbaum-scissors
Both the heavier-duty Mayo scissors and more delicate Metzenbaum dissection scissors have blades with blunt points for opening up tissue planes.
https://www.integralife.com/mayo-scissors/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-padgett-plastic-reconstructive-surgery-scissors-mayo-scissors
Aebli scissors are for ophthalmic work, specifically corneal surgery.
https://www.integralife.com/aebli-corneal-scissors/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-surgical-scissors-operating-aebli-corneal-scissors
Lister bandage scissors have one blunt-ended blade (for slipping under a bandage without cutting the patient) and one sharp-pointed blade (which goes above the bandage).
White scissors are designed for toe nail trimming.
https://www.integralife.com/white-canine-nail-scissors/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-veterinary-scissors-white-canine-nail-scissors
Surgical scissors with sharp points on the ends of both blades are sometimes used for delicate cutting, as with tiny iris scissors.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9thed. p. 1067.
365
Which process is appropriate when opening an instrument sterilized in a plastic peel pouch?
The pouch is secured under the elbow and slowly opened so as to not drop it
Once the sterile field is established, no other instruments are allowed to enter
Assistant holds bottom of the pouch and the surgeon peels it open
Edges are pulled back, keeping package facing away from the body
Pouch is placed on the mayo stand; surgeon pushes the instrument through the plastic to open it
Answer: Edges are pulled back, keeping package facing away from the body.
The pouch should be slowly peeled open while facing the opening away from the assistant's body and towards the surgeon or sterile field. The surgeon can either take the item directly from the opened package (for smaller or awkward items) or the contents can be dropped onto the sterile field. Instruments should always be opened with the handle towards the surgeon.
This image shows how to correctly open suture packets. With practice and skill, they can be 'popped' onto the sterile field.
https://www.lotus-surgicals.com/images/infra/packaging1.jpg
It is important to keep in mind where the sterile field is at all times, so as to not break it.
The Vet Surgery site has a wealth of information on gloving, patient prep, and pretty much anything you might need to know about prepping for surgery.
https://www.vetsurgeryonline.com
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, qthed, p. 1114.
366
Which statement is true about the use of mares in the pregnant mare urine collection industry in North America?
This use of pregnant mare is inhumane and condemned by the veterinary industry
The pregnancies are aborted in the fifth month, then the mares are rebred
This is an appropriate practice
Not ethical to maintain mares for collection of pregnant mare urine
Only miniature horse mares are used because they are the easiest to work with
Answer: This is an appropriate practice.
The American Association of Equine Practitioners (AAP) and the Canadian Veterinary Medicine Association (CVMA) believes the use of mares to collect pregnant mare urine is an appropriate practice when horses are cared for humanely. When appropriately managed, these horses produce an important commodity for human medicine.
The urine of pregnant mares is collected and estrogens are extracted for human pharmaceutical use. These mares are kept under excellent conditions and the resultant offspring are highly desired. The ranches are under close scrutiny and frequent veterinary oversight.
For more information, check out the white paper, The care and oversight of horses managed for the collection of pregnant mares' urine (PMU).
https://aaep.org/sites/default/files/Guidelines/Equine%20Ranching%20White%20Paper%20June%202014.pdf
Refs: The AVMA's position statement, Management of Mares Used in the Pregnant Man Urine (PM) Collection Industry and the CVMA's Recommended Code of Practice for the Care and Handling of Horses in PMU Operations (2007).
Link: Position on the Management of Mares Utilized in the Pregnant Mare (PMU) Collection Industry
https://aaep.org/position-management-mares-utilized-pregnant-mare-pmu-collection-industry
Link: Management of Mares used in the Pregnant Mare Urine (PMU) collection industry.
https://www.avma.org/resources-tools/avma-policies/management-mares-used-pregnant-mare-urine-pmu-collection-industry
367
Which choice is the most appropriate way to induce molting in commercial poultry?
Supplement amprolium in the feed
Reduction of photoperiod
Water deprivation
None-this is considered unethical by the AVMA
Fasting
Answer: Reduction of photoperiod.
Molting can humanely be induced in commercial flocks using photoperiod reduction or by alternating specific nutrients (e.g., high zinc, low sodium). This is considered acceptable by the American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA), Molting is a natural seasonal occurrence when birds decrease feed intake, stop producing eggs, and replace plumage…egg production and quality increases thereafter.
Humanely induced molting extends the life of commercial layers and therefore deceases the resources needed to grow more birds. It is inappropriate to use water deprivation or fasting to induce molting.
The Canadian Veterinary Medical Association (CVMA) is also opposed to induced molting by methods that use food and/or water deprivation. Induced molting is not considered acceptable routine practice in Canada. It can only be done (using photoperiod and nutrient alteration) in specific instances under vet oversight.
Amprolium is a thiamine antagonist used to prevent and/or treat coccidiosis in poultry (and other species).
Refs: The AMVA's Position Statement on Induced Molting of Layer Chickens, the AMA's Welfare Implications of Induced Molting of Layer Chickens, and the CVMA’s Position Statement on Induced Moulting of Poultry.
Link: Induced molting of layer chickens
https://www.avma.org/resources-tools/avma-policies/induced-molting-layer-chickens
Link: Overview of Coccidiosis in Poultry
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/coccidiosis/overview-of-coccidiosis-in-poultry
Link: Welfare Implication of Inducen Molting of Layer Chickens
https://www.avma.org/resources-tools/literature-reviews/welfare-implications-induced-molting-layer-chickens
368
What statement is most correct regarding a highly specific test?
Expected low false negatives
You can trust a positive test
You can trust a negative test
Predictive value positive is intermediate
Expect high false positives
Answer: You can trust a positive test.
A highly specific test will have FEW FALSE POSITIVES. So the few positives you DO see, you can probably trust. Remember that SPEC=d/(b+d) and that the number in the “b" cell is the number of FALSE POSITIVES.
For specificity to be HIGH, the number of false pos in "b" must be very SMALL. Like all of epidemiology, it is "a little" confusing, so a picture may help.
Follow this link to see a diagram of false positives and false negatives in a classic 2x2 table.
https://zukureview.com/images/question-images/Epi/Hi_Spec_means_can_Trust_Pos_result.GIF
Refs: Hennekens and Buring, Epidemiology in Medicine 5th ed. pp. 332-9.
369
You decide to treat a cat with severe chin acne with a trial course of isotretinoin. What should you tell the owner?
Must give 6cc water after pill to prevent esophageal stricture
Keep medicine bottle refrigerated
Men should not handle the pills
Keep medicine bottle separate from human meds
Must feed before treatment to avoid GI upset
Answer: Keep medicine bottle separate from human meds.
Keep medicine bottle separate from human meds.
Severe cases of feline acne may need a trial of isotretinoin or cyclosporin. Must warn owner, if you prescribe isotretinoin, a powerful teratogen.
Best practice is to clearly label medicine bottle "For animal use only" and to keep it separate from human meds. Pregnant women (and animals) should avoid it.
Oral doxycycline has been implicated in cases of esophageal stricture in cats.
Plumb's recommends giving 6 cc water after pilling with doxycycline. Do not dry pill.
Refs: Blackwell's 5-Min. Vet Consult, 4th ed. p.14, Plumb's Vet Drug Handbook, 7th ed. pp. 486-92. 744-6.
Link: Esophageal Strictures in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-esophagus-in-small-animals/esophageal-strictures-in-small-animals
370
Which drug can cause “euthyroid sick” syndrome in dogs?
Halothane, Timolol maleate, Ranitidine
Allopurinol, Benzodiazepines, Prednisolone
Phenylbutazone, Phenoxybenzamine, Fluoroquinolones
Tetracyclines, Iodine-containing supplements, Ipodate
Furosemide, Phenobarbital, Mitotane (o,p DDD)
Answer: Furosemide, Phenobarbital, Mitotane (o,p DDD)
Euthyroid sick syndrome in dogs occurs when drug treatment or a non-thyroidal illness causes a decrease in T3/T4 hormones. Not to be confused with true hypothyroidism.
Many drugs can depress T3/T4 hormones, including:
Glucocorticoids, anabolic steroids
Anticonvulsants (phenytoin, phenobarbital)
Phenylbutazone
Ipodate (radiographic contrast agent)
Furosemide
Aesthetics/induction agents (methoxyflurane, halothane)
Mitotane (o,p DDD)
Think of these diseases with euthyroid sick syndrome:
Hyperadrenocorticism(Cushings)
Diabetes mellitus
Hypoadrenocorticism(Addisons)
Chronic renal disease (hard to miss-these dogs are very sick)
Hepatic disease
Calorie or protein deficiency
Surgery/anesthesia
Finally, (because endocrine problems like to be complicated), sulfonamide antibiotics can induce overt primary hypothyroidism.
Ref: Blackwell's 5-Minute Vet Consult Canine Feline, 4th ed. pp. 732-33.
Link: Hypothyroidism in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/endocrine-system/the-thyroid-gland/hypothyroidism-in-animals
Link: Cushing Syndrome
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/endocrine-system/the-adrenal-glands/cushing-syndrome-hyperadrenocorticism
Link: Diabetes Mellitus in Dogs and Cats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/endocrine-system/the-pancreas/diabetes-mellitus-in-dogs-and-cats
Link: Addison Diseases
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/endocrine-system/the-adrenal-glands/addison-disease
Link: Renal Dysfunction in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/urinary-system/noninfectious-diseases-of-the-urinary-system-in-small-animals/renal-dysfunction-in-small-animals
371
Oral sulfonylurea drugs are sometimes used in cats for which one of the following disorders?
Urethral sphincter (urinary) incompetence
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Fungal choreoretinitis (cryptococcosis)
Multicentric intestinal lymphosarcoma
Uncomplicated diabetes mellitus
Answer: Uncomplicated diabetes mellitus.
Uncomplicated diabetes mellitus. Sulfonylurea is an oral hypoglycemic agent (glipizide) used in humans.
Glipizide is sometimes used with dietary therapy to manage cats with uncomplicated type 2 diabetes mellitus and NO history of ketoacidosis.
It is not a substitute for insulin therapy. Typically, diabetic cats whose owners refuse to give insulin injections are candidates for oral sulfonylurea therapy.
Refs: Cohn and Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 4th ed. pp. 252-3, AHA Diabetes Guidelines 2018 for dogs and cats (PDF) and AHA Guidelines webpage.
https://www.aaha.org/aaha-guidelines/diabetes-management/diabetes-management-home/
https://www.aaha.org/aaha-guidelines/what-are-aaha-guidelines/
Link: Diabetes Mellitus in Dogs and Cats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/endocrine-system/the-pancreas/diabetes-mellitus-in-dogs-and-cats#v3271697
372
Which domestic animal has a clavicle?
Bovine
Porcine
Equine
Ovine
Feline
Answer: Feline.
Cats have a clavicle, the others listed do not. The thin clavicle is embedded in the
shoulder musculature without any direct bony attachments.
Clavicles help anchor the forelimbs to the trunk while allowing the scapulae and shoulder joints to move relative to the trunk. This increases the mobility of the shoulder joint compared to ball-and-socket joints.
Click here to see nice images of feline clavicles, courtesy of the University of Washington.
http://courses.washington.edu/chordate/453photos/skeleton_photos/amniote_skeleton_photos2.htm
For comparison, click here to see an example of a shoulder without a clavicle (from a horse).
https://zukureview.com/sites/default/files/wm/eq_shldr_bones.jpg
Refs: Pasquini, Anat. Dom. Animals, 11th ed., p. 77 and the University of Washington, Seattle, Dr. Karen Peterson's Comparative Vertebrate Anatomy. Image courtesy of Xälzbär.
373
Why can’t a horse kick sideways as powerfully as a cow?
Horses have more substantial gluteal musculature
Cattle have underdeveloped illiopsoas muscles
Cows lack an accessory ligament of the femur
Trochanteric bursa of horse stabilizes hip too much
Cattle have a dip acetabulum and no sacrotuberous ligament
Answer: Cows lack an accessory ligament of the femur.
A horse cannot kick sideways as powerfully as a cow, because horses have an accessory ligament of the hip and femoral head, (unique to horses) and a deep acetabulum.
The accessory ligament connects the prepubic ligament (base of pelvis) to the fovea capiitis on the head of the femur, essentially stabilizing the hip.
The stabilizing influence of the accessory ligament is what prevents horses from kicking out to the side to the same degree that cows do.
Because of the accessory ligament, coxofemoral luxation is rare in horses compared to cattle and small animals.
Coxofemoral luxation in cattle may occur when bulls mount cows or cows mount each other on slippery flooring.
Hip luxation in dogs and cats is usually secondary to trauma, like being hit by a car.
Click here to see a radiograph of hip dislocation.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v50504534
Refs:Pasquinis, Jahn & Bahr, Guide to Eq Clin: LAMENESS vol. I1, p. 290 and Pasquini and Spurgeon's Anatomy Dom An 11th ed. pp. 118-19.
Link: Disorders of the Hip in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-horses/disorders-of-the-hip-in-horses
Link: Coxofemoral Luxation in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-cattle/coxofemoral-luxation-in-cattle
374
Which of the following are best radiographed using bisecting radiograph technique?
Mandibular premolars
Temporomandibular joints (TMJ)
Maxillary incisors
Mandibular molars
All deciduous teeth
Answer: Maxillary incisors.
The bisecting radiograph technique is generally preferred for all teeth EXCEPT for the mandibular premolars 3 and 4, and the molars.
Mandibular cheek teeth for horses are composed of molars and premolars.
Bisecting radiograph technique minimizes the image distortion that occurs because of an inability to place x-ray film parallel to the central axis of a tooth.
If you do not use the bisecting angle technique, a tooth may appear artificially foreshortened or elongated.
The idea is easier to understand with a picture.
https://www.rvc.ac.uk/review/dentistry/Media/Radiography_Media/thumbnails/BA_Angles.gif
Click here to see a good summary article with images of bisecting technique, courtesy of the Veterinary Dentistry website from Dr. Norman Johnston and the Royal Veterinary College of London.
https://www.rvc.ac.uk/review/dentistry/Radiography/radioTechniques/IOB.html
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed., p. 1234 and Tighe and Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for
375
What is the function of molar teeth?
Grinding
Cutting
Nibbling
Shearing
Holding
Answer: Grinding.
Molars grind food. Incisors are for cutting, nibbling food. Canines grip and tear food.
The upper fourth premolar and lower first molar in carnivores are used to shear meat and are called the carnassial teeth.
Refs: Tighe and Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians, 4th ed. p. 693.
376
Which of these dental instruments is blunt?
Shepherd’s hook
Periosteal elevator
Curette scaler
Sickle scaler
Periodontal probe
Answer: Periodontal probe.
A periodontal probe is blunt, and is used to measure the depth of the gingival sulcus.
Scalers have two parallel sharp sides, used for supragingival calculus removal. A curette scaler has one sharp side and is used for subgingival calculus removal.
A shepherd's hook has a sharp tip and is used to detect cavities and broken teeth.
A periosteal elevator is used during orthopedic surgeries to separate the periosteum from the bone.
Here are the 2013 AHA dental care guidelines for dogs and cats.
https://www.aaha.org/globalassets/02-guidelines/dental/dental_guidelines_2013.pdf
Here is some useful information, with images, from Ohio State University about dental instrumentation.
https://ohiostate.pressbooks.pub/osuvcpslhandbook/chapter/saclin_oraldentalone_charting_identifying-instrumentation/
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 10th ed., pp. 1127-31.
Link: Periodontal Disease in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/dentistry/periodontal-disease-in-small-animals#v3261243
377
Chronically elevated levels of the hormone cortisol are characteristic of which one of the following diseases?
Hashimoto’s disease
Diabetes mellitus
Cushing’s disease
Addison’s disease
Answer: Cushing’s disease.
Cushing's disease, or hyperadrenocorticism, is a condition in which the adrenal cortex
produces excess cortisol.
Refs: Bassert and Thomas, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 8th
ed., p. 699, Blackwell's 5 Minute Consult: Canine and Feline 4th ed. pp. 644-9.
Link: Cushing Syndrome (Hyperadrenocorticism)
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/endocrine-system/the-adrenal-glands/cushing-syndrome-hyperadrenocorticism
378
Mitral regurgitation is the number one cause of cognitive heart failure in dogs. Which breeds are predisposed to mitral regurgitation?
Great Dane, Afghan hound
Miniature schnauzer, German shepherd
Cavalier King Charles spaniel, Cocker spaniel
Doberman pinscher, Boxer
Wire-haired fox terrier, Border Collie
Answer: Cavalier King Charles spaniel, Cocker spaniel.
Think of mitral regurgitation/insufficiency in a Cavalier King Charles Spaniel of any age, or in old male Cockers with a Hx of cough, labored breathing, and exercise intolerance.
Remember that chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with fibrosis can cause similar signs-primarily older animals, and primarily Westies.
Here are 4 other big cardio predispositions:
If you see an intermittently fainting Boxer, think of Boxer cardiomyopathy.
A rapid, irregular heart rate in a middle-aged, depressed, coughing, exercise-intolerant
Doberman, suggests dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM).
Think of sick sinus syndrome (SSS) when you hear "fainting female Min. Schnauzer" (also see SSS in dachshunds, cockers, west highland whites). Follow this link to see an ECG of SSS.
https://zukureview.com/images/question-images/Cardio/TerriD_FS_min_Schnauzer.JPG
Think tetralogy of Fallot in a young Bulldog, Keeshond, Wirehaired Fox Terrier with cyanosis, exercise intolerance.
Ref: Blackwell's 5-Min Vet Consult Canine Feline, 4th ed. pp. 206-07, 210-11, 1262-63.
Link: Diagnosis of Cardiovascular Disease in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/cardiovascular-system-introduction/diagnosis-of-cardiovascular-disease-in-animals
Link: Specific Cardiac Diseases
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/heart-disease-and-heart-failure/specific-cardiac-diseases
Link: Abnormalities of the Cardiovascular System in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/cardiovascular-system-introduction/abnormalities-of-the-cardiovascular-system-in-animals?redirectid=31128
Link: Tetralogy of Fallot in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/congenital-and-inherited-anomalies-of-the-cardiovascular-system/tetralogy-of-fallot-in-animals?redirectid=27886
379
Which infectious case of colitis in horses occurs primarily in June through October, east of the Mississippi River and in California?
Right dorsal colitis
Salmonellosis
Clostridiosis
Larval cyathostomiasis
Potomac horse fever
Answer: Potomac horse fever.
Potomac horse fever is a syndrome of fever, acute diarrhea, laminitis, and abortion caused by Neorickettsia risticii.
N. risticii infects parasites that infect fresh water snails, which are then eaten by mayflies and caddis flies.
Horses are infected when they accidentally ingest any of these vectors or the feces of infected birds or bats.
Cases are seen most often in June through October, near fresh water, east of the Mississippi River or in California.
Ref: Bassert and Thomas, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth ed. pp. 257, 671.
Link: Potomac Horse Fever
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/intestinal-diseases-in-horses-and-foals/potomac-horse-fever
380
What key characteristic do transmissible venereal tumors, mast cell tumors and cutaneous lymphoma have in common?
Intracytoplasmic granules
Easy to identify cytologically
Pleomorphism
Typically progress to malignancy
Good response to cryotherapy
Answer: Easy to identify cytologically.
Because they exfoliate well, round cell tumors like cutaneous lymphoma, transmissible venereal tumor and mast cell tumor are easier to identify cytologically than other skin tumors. Round cell tumors of the skin include:
Mast cell tumors (MCT). Click here to see mast cell cytology.
https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Mast_cell_tumor_cytology_2.JPG
Histiocytoma. Click here to see a benign histiocytoma.
https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Histiocytoma.JPG
Plasmacytoma Cutaneous lymphoma.
Transmissible venereal tumor. (TVT). Click here to see transmissible venereal tumor cytology.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Canine_transmissible_venereal_tumor_cytology.JPG
Note that malignant melanoma is often classified as a round cell tumor when its highly variable cells look round, but it is not a round cell tumor per se.
Click here to see a dog with malignant melanoma on the paw, a cat with oral malignant melanoma and the same lesion, on radiograph.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4737940
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4732127
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4732136
Ref: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 3rd ed. pp. 655-7, 890-1, Leiomyoma, online. images courtesy Dr. Joel Mills, Wikimedia Commons.
Link: Lymphocytic, Histiocytic, and Related Cutaneous Tumors in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/tumors-of-the-skin-and-soft-tissues/lymphocytic,-histiocytic,-and-related-cutaneous-tumors-in-animals?autoredirectid=14260
Link: Canine Lymphoma
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/canine-lymphoma/canine-lymphoma
Link: Canine Transmissible Venereal Tumor
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/canine-transmissible-venereal-tumor/canine-transmissible-venereal-tumor?redirectid=29135
Link: Tumors of Melanocytic Origin in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/tumors-of-the-skin-and-soft-tissues/tumors-of-melanocytic-origin-in-animals?autoredirectid=14261
381
What key characteristic do transmissible venereal tumors, mast cell tumors and cutaneous lymphoma have in common?
Intracytoplasmic granules
Easy to identify cytologically
Pleomorphism
Typically progress to malignancy
Good response to cryotherapy
Answer: Easy to identify cytologically.
Because they exfoliate well, round cell tumors like cutaneous lymphoma, transmissible venereal tumor and mast cell tumor are easier to identify cytologically than other skin tumors. Round cell tumors of the skin include:
Mast cell tumors (MCT). Click here to see mast cell cytology.
https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Mast_cell_tumor_cytology_2.JPG
Histiocytoma. Click here to see a benign histiocytoma.
https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Histiocytoma.JPG
Plasmacytoma Cutaneous lymphoma.
Transmissible venereal tumor. (TVT). Click here to see transmissible venereal tumor cytology.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Canine_transmissible_venereal_tumor_cytology.JPG
Note that malignant melanoma is often classified as a round cell tumor when its highly variable cells look round, but it is not a round cell tumor per se.
Click here to see a dog with malignant melanoma on the paw, a cat with oral malignant melanoma and the same lesion, on radiograph.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4737940
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4732127
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4732136
Ref: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 3rd ed. pp. 655-7, 890-1, Leiomyoma, online. images courtesy Dr. Joel Mills, Wikimedia Commons.
Link: Lymphocytic, Histiocytic, and Related Cutaneous Tumors in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/tumors-of-the-skin-and-soft-tissues/lymphocytic,-histiocytic,-and-related-cutaneous-tumors-in-animals?autoredirectid=14260
Link: Canine Lymphoma
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/canine-lymphoma/canine-lymphoma
Link: Canine Transmissible Venereal Tumor
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/canine-transmissible-venereal-tumor/canine-transmissible-venereal-tumor?redirectid=29135
Link: Tumors of Melanocytic Origin in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/tumors-of-the-skin-and-soft-tissues/tumors-of-melanocytic-origin-in-animals?autoredirectid=14261
382
Which one of the following options is the most appropriate time to perform a urinalysis after the sample is collected?
Two hours after proper centrifugation
24 hours after collection
Within 30 minutes of collection
After two hours of refrigeration
After sitting at room temperature for ten minutes
Answer: Within 30 minutes of collection.
Whenever possible, urine samples should be analyzed within 30 minutes of collection, to avoid changes in results.
For example, bacteria present may increase in number, casts often dissolve in alkaline urine, and cells may become unrecognizable due to degeneration.
Refrigeration may preserve some characteristics, but specific gravity and biochemical test strips should be performed prior to storage. Refrigerated samples should be brought to room temperature and analyzed within four hours.
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth ed. p. 398.
383
A 13-year-old female spayed cat is presented for routine annual evaluation. She appears very nervous and requires considerable restraint for her blood draw. The only abnormality on the clinical biochemistry is significant hyperglycaemia. Which of the following statements about this finding is most accurate?
Indicates dietary imbalances; suggest low-carb diet and nutritional evaluation
Consistent with Cushing’s disease; collect urine for cortisol measurement
Probably excitement-related; check fructosamine level
Cat has diabetes mellitus; recommend starting insulin therapy
Hyperthyroidism is likely; submit additional resting including total thyroid hormone
Answer: Probably excitement - related; check fructosamine level.
Excitement- or stress-induced hyperglycemia is quite common in cats. Re-evaluation when the cat is quieter should reveal normal glucose levels.
However, this can be tricky in animals that are nervous at the vet. Instead, you can check the blood fructosamine level-fructosamine will be elevated if a cat is truly diabetic but it should be normal if the cat is just temporarily excited or stressed.
Fructosamine is a protein found in the blood created by the binding of glucose to amino acid residues, especially albumin. Since the bond is irreversible, fructosamine can be used to evaluate the average blood glucose level present over time. It's half life (T1/2) is similar to that of serum proteins/albumin, 2-3 weeks.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gthed, pp. 392, the eClinPath website, courtesy of Cornell CVM,.
Link: Clinical Biochemistry
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/clinical-pathology-and-procedures/diagnostic-procedures-for-the-private-practice-laboratory/clinical-biochemistry
Link: Diabetes Mellitus in Dogs and Cats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/endocrine-system/the-pancreas/diabetes-mellitus-in-dogs-and-cats
Link: Fructosamine
https://eclinpath.com/chemistry/energy-metabolism/fructosamine/
384
What is the function of the proximal tubule in the nephron?
Reabsortion of Na+, Cl-; dilute tubule fluid
Generation of medullary hypertonicity
Maintenance of medullary hypertonicity
Regulation of acid, HCO3-; water excretion
Bulk reabsorption of filtered water, solutes
Answer: Bulk reabsorption of filtered water, solutes.
The proximal tubule is the part of the nephron that comes immediately after the glomerulus. The proximal tubule is where the bulk of reabsorption of water and solutes occurs, like Na+, CI-HCO3-, glucose, amino acids. That is, water and solutes are reabsorbed from the tubule urinary filtrate back into the blood.
Here are the functions of the parts of the nephron, from glomerulus (blood enters) to collecting tubule (urine leaves):
Glomerulus: Filters fluids, soluble materials from blood
Proximal tubule: Bulk reabsorption of filtered water, solutes (Na+, Cl-, HCO3-, glucose, amino acids) back into blood; carbonic anhydrase inhibitors act here
Loop of Henle: Creates and maintains the renal medullary hypertonicity gradient; furosemide acts here
Distal convoluted tubule: Helps regulate pH, Na+, Cl-reabsorption and dilution of tubule fluid; thiazide diuretics (like chlorothiazide, hydrochlorothiazide) and aldosterone act here Collecting tubule/duct: Final regulation of water, urea, acid excretion
Refs: Cunningham and Klein, Vet Physiology 4th ed. pp. 529, 538-9, Wikipedia.
Link: Nephron
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nephron
Link: Glomerulus
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glomerulus_(kidney)
Link: Proxima tubule
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proximal_tubule
Link: Diuretics
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-urinary-system/diuretics
Link: Loop of Henle
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Loop_of_Henle
Link: Distal convoluted tubule
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Distal_convoluted_tubule
Link: Aldosterone
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aldosterone
Link: Collecting duct system
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Collecting_duct_system
385
In digital radiography, which one of the following choices will create a grainy appearance on an image?
A positioning trough underneath the patient
Metal implants
Double image
Underexposure
Plate saturation
Answer: Underexposure.
With severe underexposure, few photons strike the detector panel resulting in a grainy image with poor resolution (also called "noise" or "quantum mottle").
Plate saturation (overexposure) results in linear striations on the image background.
Double exposures can result in "ghost" images where the first exposure is visible on the second image because the detector plate has not yet lost all of its charge.
Positioning troughs do not typically affect the image quality.
Refs: McCurnin and Bassert, Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed. p. 491-2.
386
When positioning a dog for radiographic evaluation of the hips for dysplasia, where do you measure the dog and what is the caudal border of the radiograph?
Over the acetabulum, distal patella
Sacrum, midway down the tail
Wings of the ilium, bottom of femoral condyles
Tips of ischium, mid-tibia
Umbilicus, mid-femur
Answer: Over the acetabulum, distal patella.
For ventral-dorsal (VD) pelvic radiographs evaluating for hip dysplasia, measure the dog over the widest part of the pelvis, which is usually midline over the acetabulum.
Due to variations in body confirmation, take your measurement over the thickest portion of the pelvis.
The caudal border of the radiograph needs to include the patellae, which should be centered over the patellar grooves. This distraction will allow the heads of the femurs to be visualized in each acetabulum.
This VD pelvic radiograph of a dog shows the proper centering and cranial and caudal borders. Notice the patellae centered over the patellar grooves in the femurs. (Image courtesy of the University of Illinois.)
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/canine/hindlimb/pelvis/ex02/c0211_Canvas.html
Ref: Tighe and Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians, 4th
387
The body of a three-year-old Standardbred gelding is presented for necropsy. The horse had a several week history of fever, lethargy, weight loss, and shifting limb lameness. An image from the necropsy is shown below, with arrows pointing to the tricuspid valve leaflets. Which is the most likely etiology?
Streptococcus equi sosp. zooepidemicus and Acinobacillus spp. are the most common isolates from equine valvular vegetative endocarditis, as seen in this image. The presentation here is classic: fever, weight loss, shifting joint effusions/lameness, tachypnea, tachycardia, +/- cardiac murmur.
Diagnose with echocardiography and blood culture. Bloodwork changes are consistent with chronic infection/inflammation (e.g., hyperfibrinogenemia, hyperglobulinemia, +/-monocytosis).
Tx with long-term antimicrobials, rest, and anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs). Most common on aortic and pulmonic valves, associated with poor prognosis. Tricuspid bacterial endocarditis is less common and has a guarded prognosis.
Henderson et al's "Valvular endocarditis in the horse: 20 cases (1993-2020)" is available free online from the Canadian Vet J and provides a great overview, with images.
Link: Infectious Endocarditis in Dogs and Cats
https://www.msdvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/various-heart-diseases-in-dogs-and-cats/infectious-endocarditis-in-dogs-and-cats
Link: Valvular endocarditis in the horse: 20 cases (1993–2020)
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC7659875/
388
A rancher has some calves that have respiratory disease. He says he thinks they have "red nose". What disease is he referring to?
"Red nose" is the lay terminology for infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR) caused by bovine herpesvirus-1 (BHV-1). BHV-1 is associated with a number of syndromes: rhinotracheitis, vulvovaginitis, conjunctivitis, abortion, enteritis, and encephalomyelitis.
Prevention with immunization is usually effective.
Moraxella bovis is a bacteria that causes infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis, which can also occur in sheep and goats.
Link: Viral Infections Associated with Bovine Respiratory Disease Complex in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/respiratory-system/bovine-respiratory-disease-complex/viral-infections-associated-with-bovine-respiratory-disease-complex-in-cattle?mredirectid=1755
Link: Infectious Keratoconjunctivitis in Cattle and Small Ruminants
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/eye-diseases-and-disorders/infectious-keratoconjunctivitis/infectious-keratoconjunctivitis-in-cattle-and-small-ruminants?autoredirectid=23792&redirectid=28048&redirectid=27602
389
Umbilical hernias may be more common in which one of the bovine breeds?
Umbilical hernias are a common finding in neonatal calves, especially in calves of the Holstein breed.
They are typically easily reducible and uninfected. Infected masses may occur in any breed and be difficult to reduce and accompanied by other clinical signs such as heat in the area, drainage, fever, inappetance, and ill thrift.
It is possible to have infected umbilical remnants while the exterior umbilical structures appear completely normal, and deep palpation, ultrasound, and/or bloodwork may be necessary to rule out occult infections. Infections may also weaken the umbilical area and lead to hernias.
Tx: Surgical repair with resection of infected structures is the treatment of choice for umbilical hernias in the calf.
Click here to see a good summary on umbilical masses and hernias in calves, with images. courtesy of the American College of Veterinary Surgeons (ACVS).
390
Which choice most accurately describes a patient's skin condition after a surgical scrub?
Skin prepared for surgery is aseptic (clean, but NOT sterile).
Aseptic means the number of microorganisms is significantly reduced. Aseptic technique is the use of surgical practices that restrict microorganisms in the environment and prevent contamination of the surgical wound.
391
Which surgical materials are best sterilized with radiation?
Gloves and suture materials are sterilized with radiation during the manufacturing process because heat can destroy them.
Gowns, drapes, and surgical instruments are also sterilized by heat.
Endotracheal tubes and other meltable materials are usually sterilized with ethylene
oxide gas.
392
Which would be the most appropriate way to sterilize an endoscope?
Endoscopes should be sterilized using glutaraldehyde. Hydrogen peroxide is also used, but can cause damage to the scope. Ethylene oxide (gas sterilization) is also utilized.
Endoscopes are exposed to numerous types of microbial contamination due to the body
cavities they typically enter.
Link: Reducing Agents as Antiseptics and Disinfectants for Use With Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/antiseptics-and-disinfectants/reducing-agents-as-antiseptics-and-disinfectants-for-use-with-animals?autoredirectid=18891
393
Which would be the most appropriate way to sterilize an endoscope?
Endoscopes should be sterilized using glutaraldehyde. Hydrogen peroxide is also used, but can cause damage to the scope. Ethylene oxide (gas sterilization) is also utilized.
Endoscopes are exposed to numerous types of microbial contamination due to the body
cavities they typically enter.
Link: Reducing Agents as Antiseptics and Disinfectants for Use With Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/antiseptics-and-disinfectants/reducing-agents-as-antiseptics-and-disinfectants-for-use-with-animals?autoredirectid=18891
394
Which instruments is most appropriate for ligation of the uterine stump in a large breed dog?
Use Rochester-Carmalts to ligate the uterine stump in a large-breed dog. Rochesters are large hemostatic forceps used for vascular/tissue stump ligations: Rochester-Carmalts have longitudinal grooves and Rochester-Pean have transverse grooves.
Kelly and Crile forceps are smaller hemostatic forceps used to clamp off small- to medium-sized blood vessels.
Halsted-mosquito forceps are small hemostats used to clamp small blood vessels.
Cooley vascular clamps are used to clamp specific blood vessels, typically during vascular surgery.
Link: Hemostatic Forceps
https://www.vetsurgeryonline.com/hemostatic-forceps/
Link: Kelly Hemostatic Forceps
https://products.integralife.com/kelly-hemostatic-forceps/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-veterinary-miscellaneous-kelly-hemostatic-forceps
Link: Crile Hemostatic Forcep
https://products.integralife.com/crile-hemostatic-forcep/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-integra-ent-general-forceps-crile-hemostatic-forcep
Link: Halsted Mosquito Forceps
https://products.integralife.com/halsted-mosquito-forceps/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-surgical-forceps-hemostatic-halsted-mosquito-forceps
Link: Cooley Vascular Clamp.
https://products.integralife.com/cooley-vascular-clamp/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-thoracic-cardiovascular-clamps-cooley-vascular-clamp
395
Which forceps are used to clamp intermediate-sized blood vessels?
Kelly and Crile forceps are medium-sized hemostats, used to clamp off intermediate-
sized blood vessels.
Halsted "mosquito" forceps are small hemostats used to clamp small bleeding vessels.
Adson and Brown-Adson forceps are so-called "thumb forceps" (held in a pencil grip, like chop sticks) used to hold tissue.
Allis tissue forceps have teeth on the gripping end, like a horse's teeth, and can cause trauma to delicate tissue.
Doyen forceps are long and flat-bladed, used to hold bowel.
Metzenbaum are dissecting tissue scissors, not forceps.
Link: Kelly Forcep
https://products.integralife.com/kelly-forcep/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-general-operating-forceps-kelly-forcep
Link: Crile Forcep
https://products.integralife.com/crile-forcep/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-general-operating-forceps-crile-forcep
Link: Adson Dressing Forcep
https://products.integralife.com/adson-dressing-forcep/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-general-operating-forceps-adson-dressing-forcep
Link: Allis Tissue Forcep
https://products.integralife.com/allis-tissue-forcep/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-general-operating-forceps-allis-tissue-forcep
Link: Doyen Intestinal Clamp
https://products.integralife.com/doyen-intestinal-clamp/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-general-operating-clamps-doyen-intestinal-clamp
Link: Metzenbaum Dissecting Scissors
https://products.integralife.com/metzenbaum-dissecting-scissors/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-surgical-scissors-supercut-metzenbaum-dissecting-scissors
396
How long should minor surgical instruments be in contact with a disinfectant before use (i.e., for "cold sterilization")?
Exposure time should be at least 3 hours.
Soaking instruments in chlorhexidine or glutaraldehyde is known as cold sterilization.
The instruments are NOT really sterile, and can be used only for minor procedures, like dental work or repair of minor lacerations.
Equipment must be rinsed thoroughly before use.
397
Which absorbable suture material would be recommended for urinary bladder closure?
Which absorbable suture material would be recommended for urinary bladder closure?
PDS ® and Maxon ® retain their strength in urine and are recommended for surgical
closure of the urinary bladder.
Vicryl ® and Dexon ® are rapidly degraded in alkaline environments and dissolve faster
in urine.
Stainless steel and silk are non-absorbable.
398
Which forceps might be used to hold bowel?
Doyen intestinal forceps (and Babcock intestinal forceps) lack gripping teeth and can be
used to hold bowel.
Backhaus and Roeder forceps are towel clamps used to secure drapes to the patient's skin.
Allis tissue forceps have teeth on the gripping end, and can cause trauma to delicate tissue.
Cooley forceps are vascular clamps.
Link: Doyen intestinal clamp
https://products.integralife.com/doyen-intestinal-clamp/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-general-operating-clamps-doyen-intestinal-clamp
Link: Backhaus Towel Clamp
https://products.integralife.com/backhaus-towel-clamp/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-veterinary-forceps-sponge-towel-clamps-backhaus-towel-clamp
Link: Cooley Iliac Clamp
https://products.integralife.com/cooley-iliac-clamp/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-thoracic-cardiovascular-clamps-cooley-iliac-clamp
399
An inverting suture pattern is indicated to close which of the following in a cat?
An inverting suture pattern is indicated to close which of the following in a cat?
Use an inverting suture pattern, such as the Cushing or Lembert, to close the stomach.
When closing the stomach it is imperative to create a good seal to prevent contamination of the peritoneal cavity; test the incision site for leakage before closure.
Use a Cushing pattern (or some surgeons prefer a simple continuous pattern) for the first layer (serosa, muscularis, and submucosa) and a Cushing or Lembert pattern for the second layer (serosa and muscularis) to provide the best seal. The mucosa may be closed separately in a simple continuous pattern to reduce bleeding postoperatively if desired.
400
What do you usually cut with Metzenbaum scissors?
Metzenbaum dissecting scissors are mostly used to cut delicate tissue.
Do NOT cut sutures with Metzenbaum scissors or you will dull them, causing the blades to separate and lose their effectiveness.
Mayo dissecting scissors are used to cut tough tissue. Lister bandage scissors are used to cut bandage material. Think more of tiny, specialized iris scissors or tenotomy scissors for eye surgery.
Link: Metzenbaum Scissors
https://products.integralife.com/metzenbaum-scissor/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-general-operating-scissors-metzenbaum-scissor
401
A four-year-old male Great Dane recovering from emergency surgery to correct a gastric dilatation-volvulus (GDV) is still weak and depressed after 24 hours.
Auscultation of the heart reveals an irregularly irregular heart rhythm with pulse deficits.
An ECG strip is shown below.
What is this rhythm?
This is ventricular tachycardia (VT) with a sustained ventricular rate of >180 beats/min (cut-off in large dogs) and >4 consecutive premature impulses. VT here is identified by the rapid heart rate, lack of P waves associated with QRS complexes, and the wide and bizarre appearance of the QRS complexes.
Cardiac arrhythmias are common with gastric dilatation and volvulus (GDV). The distended stomach compresses the caudal vena cava and impairs venous return to the heart,
causing myocardial ischemia.
Only Tx cardiac arrhythmias if there is hemodynamic compromise (i.e., hypotension). Tx the patient not the ECG. Goal of Tx: maintain organ perfusion and resolve arrhythmia-
related clinical signs such as weakness and collapse.
Lidocaine is a standard Tx, typically given as an initial IV bolus, followed by a constant-rate infusion if conversion to normal sinus rhythm is achieved with the bolus. Tx should also include correction of electrolyte abnormalities (e.g., hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia), metabolic acidosis, hypovolemia, and anemia.
Image courtesy of Dr JG Adams.
Link: Abnormalities of the Cardiovascular System in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/cardiovascular-system-introduction/abnormalities-of-the-cardiovascular-system-in-animals
Link: Gastric Dilation and Volvulus in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-stomach-and-intestines-in-small-animals/gastric-dilation-and-volvulus-in-small-animals
Link: Antiarrhythmics for Use in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-cardiovascular-system/antiarrhythmics-for-use-in-animals?autoredirectid=21720
402
A three-year-old Dorset ewe is bred by a ram on November 15 and confirmed pregnant at 70 days by ultrasound. When is the ewe likely to lamb in the following year?
Mid April.
Sheep and goats have an 5-month-long gestation, so if they get bred in mid-November this year, they lamb or kid in mid-April NEXT year.
Small ruminants are seasonally polyestrous - they cycle when daylight is short so they can have their babies when daylight is increasing, the pastures are improving, and it's getting warmer.
CLICK HERE for a gestation table, most animals.
Link: The Reproductive System in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/reproductive-system-introduction/the-reproductive-system-in-animals?redirectid=30657
403
A dog receiving metoclopramide for vomiting is now displaying involuntary muscle spasms and inappropriate aggression. Which neurologic system is affected?
Extrapyramidal
Metoclopramide is a centrally-acting antiemetic that acts in the chemoreceptor trigger zone via dopaminergic receptor antagonism. Dopaminergic antagonism in the striatum results in extrapyramidal signs such as muscle spasms, restlessness, and aggression.
The pyramidal and extrapyramidal systems are a complex series of upper motor neurons (UMN) that connect the cerebral cortex to distant body parts and influence muscle tone
and control.
The pyramidal system controls skilled muscle movement. The extrapyramidal system helps support the body against gravity (posture) and recruits spinal reflexes to initiate voluntary movement.
If recognized in time, extrapyramidal signs can be reversed by restoring the dopamine:acetylcholine balance with the anticholinergic action of an antihistamine like diphenhydramine.
Link: Gastrointestinal Prokinetic Drugs Used in Monogastric Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-digestive-system/gastrointestinal-prokinetic-drugs-used-in-monogastric-animals?autoredirectid=21589
404
A dog receiving metoclopramide for vomiting is now displaying involuntary muscle spasms and inappropriate aggression. Which neurologic system is affected?
Extrapyramidal
Metoclopramide is a centrally-acting antiemetic that acts in the chemoreceptor trigger zone via dopaminergic receptor antagonism. Dopaminergic antagonism in the striatum results in extrapyramidal signs such as muscle spasms, restlessness, and aggression.
The pyramidal and extrapyramidal systems are a complex series of upper motor neurons (UMN) that connect the cerebral cortex to distant body parts and influence muscle tone
and control.
The pyramidal system controls skilled muscle movement. The extrapyramidal system helps support the body against gravity (posture) and recruits spinal reflexes to initiate voluntary movement.
If recognized in time, extrapyramidal signs can be reversed by restoring the dopamine:acetylcholine balance with the anticholinergic action of an antihistamine like diphenhydramine.
Link: Gastrointestinal Prokinetic Drugs Used in Monogastric Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-digestive-system/gastrointestinal-prokinetic-drugs-used-in-monogastric-animals?autoredirectid=21589
405
Antibodies to acetylcholine receptors develop in which disease?
Myasthenia gravis.
In myasthenia gravis, antibodies develop to acetylcholine receptors in the skeletal muscle causing weakness, and possibly dysphagia, regurgitation, and/or dyspnea. It can be congenital or acquired.
Bell's palsy is idiopathic facial nerve paralysis in humans.
Dermatomyositis is an inflammatory skin disease causing alopecia and crusting. Collies and Shelties are most commonly affected.
Polyradiculoneuritis (and Coonhound paralysis) are idiopathic inflammatory diseases of nerve roots and axons; look for flaccid paresis beginning in the pelvic limbs and progressing to tetraparesis within 1-2 days. Thought to be associated with an immune reaction to an antigen exposure (e.g.: post-vaccination or raccoon bite).
Link: Myasthenia Gravis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/immune-system/immunologic-diseases/hypersensitivity-diseases-in-animals#Myasthenia-Gravis_v48829608
Link: Neuromuscular Disorders in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/congenital-and-inherited-anomalies-of-the-nervous-system/neuromuscular-disorders-in-animals?redirectid=30651
Link: Acute Idiopathic Polyradiculoneuritis in Dogs and Cats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/diseases-of-the-peripheral-nerves-and-neuromuscular-junction/inflammatory-disorders-of-the-peripheral-nerves-and-neuromuscular-junction-in-animals?autoredirectid=14317#Acquired-Myasthenia-Gravis_v26304915
406
Which cells of the nervous system provide structural support, modulate neural communication, help produce myelin sheaths, and modulate the growth of developing and damaged neurons?
Glial cells.
Glial cells (Greek for glue) were once thought only to provide support for the neurons, but they do more than that.
Glial cells modulate neural communication, help produce myelin sheaths, and modulate the growth of developing and damaged neurons.
Glial cells of the CNS include astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and microglia.
Schwann cells are the neuroglial cells of the peripheral nervous system. They are equivalent to the oligodendrocyte.
Think of demyelinating diseases with glial cell damage, like equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy. (EDM). See young horses with incoordination, weakness. Note that EDM horses also lose functional neurons.
Link: Myelin Disorders in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/myelin-disorders/myelin-disorders-in-animals?mredirectid=1628
Link: Degenerative Myeloencephalopathy in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/diseases-of-the-spinal-column-and-cord/degenerative-diseases-of-the-spinal-column-and-cord-in-animals?autoredirectid=16745#Degenerative-Myelopathy-of-Dogs_v26305110
407
A six-year-old cow is presented with a 48-hour history of steep drop in milk production and being off feed. She stands with an arched back and abducted elbows and is reluctant to move.
Physical exam reveals bilateral jugular distention and some brisket edema. Pressure applied to the cow's xiphoid elicits a grunt.
There is a loud continuous heart murmur audible on both right and left sides and very little rumen activity.
What condition is at the top of the differential diagnosis list?
A loud continuous ("washing machine") murmur, the painful stance, and respiratory grunting all point to hardware disease (a.k.a. traumatic reticuloperitonitis/pericarditis or TRP), and bilateral dilated jugulars say "heart problem." TRP is more a disease of mature dairy cattle living around barns who indiscriminately eat baling wire, nails.
Click here to see an ultrasound image of traumatic pericarditis.
Cull this cow because treatment is unrewarding for traumatic reticuloperitonitis.
Prevent problems by making every cow on farm swallow a small bar magnet to attract and hold nails, wire, sharp metal inside the reticulum.
A compass can tell you if a cow already has a magnet. Hold it near the brisket and if there is a magnet, compass needle will point to the cow, even it you move the compass.
Cardiac lymphosarcoma may present with heart failure signs, but less likely to have such an acute onset of agalactia, painful stance or classic "washing machine" murmur.
Monensin/Lasalocid are ionophore coccidiostats associated with cardiac failure- they are most toxic to horses.
Cottonseed meal contains gossypol - see cardiac toxicity/dyspnea/ sudden death in calves; sterility/decreased conception in adults.
Link: Traumatic Reticuloperitonitis in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-ruminant-forestomach/traumatic-reticuloperitonitis-in-cattle?autoredirectid=18721
https://zukureview.com/sites/default/files/2024-04/cow pericarditis.png
Link: Bovine Leukosis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/bovine-leukosis/bovine-leukosis?autoredirectid=20435
Link: Traumatic, Toxic, and Anesthetic Myopathies in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/myopathies-in-horses/traumatic,-toxic,-and-anesthetic-myopathies-in-horses
Link: Gossypol Poisoning in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/gossypol-poisoning/gossypol-poisoning-in-animals?mredirectid=948
408
What is the interpretation of this image from a mare?
Claslick’s procedure was performed; likely bred previously
This mare has had a Caslick's procedure (or vulvoplasty); and thus she was likely bred previously. If you look closely at the image, you can see there is only a small ventral vulvar opening and there is an uneven suture line within the tissue visible proximally/dorsally.
This is performed in mares with poor perineal conformation to help improve pregnancy rates. It prevents aspiration of air into the vaginal vault that can lead to chronic uterine infections.
Click here to see a mare with poor perineal conformation.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/image/poor-perineal-conformation-mare
Link: Breeding Soundness Examination of the Mare
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/management-of-reproduction-horses/breeding-soundness-examination-of-the-mare
409
Which one of the following choices correctly defines what a unit of Gray (GY) measures in radiology?
Distance between target in x-ray tube and surface of the x-ray detector
Energy produced by x-ray beam
Degree of echogenicity in an ultrasound image
Quantity of x-ray photons produced by anode
Absorbed dose of ionizing radiation by a unit mass of material
Answer: Absorbed dose of ionizing radiation by a unit mass of material
The absorbed dose of ionizing radiation by a unit mass of irradiated material is measured in Gray (Gy).
Understanding such measurements is important in regards to radiation safety for patients and personnel.
Milliamperage is a measure of the quantity of x-ray photons (a.k.a. the number of x rays) produced by the anode.
Kilivoltage is a measure of the energy produced by an x-ray beam.
The focal-film distance is the distance between the tungsten target in the x-ray tube and the surface of the x-ray detector.
Refs: McCurnin and Bassert, Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed. p. 502.
Link: Radiation Safety During Diagnostic Imaging in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/clinical-pathology-and-procedures/diagnostic-imaging/radiography-of-animals?redirectid=4195?ruleredirectid=30#v3298731
Link: Radiographic of Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/clinical-pathology-and-procedures/diagnostic-imaging/radiography-of-animals?redirectid=4195?ruleredirectid=30#v3298692
410
What should you do to help visualize a right ovarian pedicle bleeder during surgery?
Retract the proximal duodenum to the LEFT to visualize a right ovarian pedicle bleeder.
Retract the descending colon to the RIGHT to visualize a left ovarian pedicle bleeder.
411
In horses, what is Galvayne's groove?
Channel on third incisor
Galvayne's groove appears on the buccal (lip) side of the third incisor at around ten years old, then disappears as horses age. Aging horses using Galvayne's groove is NOT consistent, but you often see it mentioned in the literature.
Colorado State University offers this information on aging horses based on their teeth and wear of the incisor occlusal surfaces.
Galvayne's groove in an approximately 13-year-old horse:
412
Cows or sheep with grass tetany (hypomagnesemia) may bellow, gallop in a blind frenzy, fall, and exhibit severe paddling convulsions or die suddenly. What other electrolyte disturbance is commonly associated with grass tetany?
Hypocalcemia
Typically, clinical signs of grass tetany due to hypomagnesemia (low plasma Mg - i.e., less than 0.5 mg/dL [0.2 mmol/L]) appear when blood calcium is low (plasma Ca below 8 mg/dL [2.0 mmol/L]) .
It is called grass tetany because many pasture grasses and cereal crops are somewhat low in magnesium, but much magnesium is lost in the milk too, so the problem is primarily seen in lactating animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/metabolic-disorders/disorders-of-magnesium-metabolism/hypomagnesemic-tetany-in-cattle-and-sheep
413
Which one of the following choices is a type of mechanical restraint used to position a patient for a radiograph?
Foam wedges are a type of mechanical restraint used to position patients for a radiograph. Other examples include V- or U-troughs, sandbags, wooden spoons, tape and gauze.
Tranquilizers, anesthetics and analgesics are examples of chemical restraints used to relax or immobilize a patient for a radiograph.
Manual restraint is achieved via a technician's/doctor's hands. This type of restraint should be minimized for radiograph positioning to reduce the radiation exposure of the holder (s).
If using manual restraint, always wear appropriate protective lead gear (e.g., apron, thyroid shield).
414
What is the pressure difference between an E tank and an H tank for pressurized oxygen?
Both an E and H tanks contain oxygen and are pressurized to 2200 psi. The only difference is volume - an E tank contains 660 liters of oxygen and an H tank contains 6600 liters of oxygen.
415
What are the physiologic effects of digoxin?
Positive inotrope, decreased heart rate.
Die. Digoxininie asles osite and is casti waiti aine, ias eure the rin et efts which ate cardiat conia tity and tie rootrope lie, decreases the heart
Pimobendan (a phosphodiesterase inhibitor) has largely replaced digoxin as a positive inotrope and digoxin is now mainly used to treat supraventricular tachyarrhythmias via
suppression of the atrioventricular node.
Digoxin has significant side effects and a narrow therapeutic index. It can cause anorexia, vomiting, and diarrhea as well as induce arrhythmias. Always carefully calculate dosage and monitor closely.
Link: Positive Inotropes for Use in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-cardiovascular-system/positive-inotropes-for-use-in-animals?autoredirectid=21729
416
Which drug is associated with aplastic anemia in humans?
Chloramphenicol is associated with bone marrow suppression/ aplastic anemia in humans, and is PROHIBITED IN FOOD ANIMALS.
Use with extreme caution in small animals due to the risk of inadvertent human exposure and potentially fatal aplastic anemia.
Note that trimethoprim-sulfa, a sulfonamide antimicrobial, is associated with hemolytic anemia and bone marrow suppression in dogs.
Link: Sulfonamides and Sulfonamide Combinations Use in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/antibacterial-agents/sulfonamides-and-sulfonamide-combinations-use-in-animals?autoredirectid=19879
Link: Phenicols Use in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/antibacterial-agents/phenicols-use-in-animals?autoredirectid=19878
417
A three-year-old Dachchund presents with acute onset of severe thoracolumbar pain, arched back, and hypermetria, ataxia, and weakness in the pelvic limbs. Ambulation is normal int the thoracic limbs. The cutaneous trunk reflex caudal to T13 is absent on the right and absent caudal to L3 on the left. Of the following choices, where is the likely location of this dog’s lesion?
L2, mostly left side
T11-12, mostly right side
C7-T1 mostly right side
L7-S1 mostly left side
Cannot determine without more information
Answer: T11-12, mostly right side.
This dog's lesion is roughly at T11-12, mostly on the right. The loss of the cutaneous trunci reflex occurs about 1-4 (usually 2) spinal cord segments caudal to the actual lesion.
Dorsal cutaneous branches do not exit the spinal cord at around L3-4 so the the loss of the reflex on the left at L3 is normal.
The lateral thoracic nerve, which innervates the ipsilateral cutaneous trunci muscle, exits the spinal cord at C7-T1. So with a brachial plexus avulsion you may see an ipsilateral loss of the cutaneous trunci "twitching" while lightly pinching on the skin on the ipsilateral side, however the contralateral side will twitch!
Ref: Platt and Garosi, Small Animal Neurological Emergencies, 1st ed.
Link: Physical and Neurologic Examinations
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/nervous-system-introduction/physical-and-neurologic-examinations
418
Which type of dentistry is a root canal procedure?
Gingival
Endodontic
Prophylactic
Cosmetic
Dental equilibration
Answer: Endodontic.
Endodontic procedures treat the inside of the tooth and the periapical tissues, including the tooth pulp and the tissues around the tooth tip and root.
Root canals involve removing dead or dying tooth pulp and filling the canal to seal the tissue surrounding the tooth root. Only dogs and cats older than 12 months can undergo root canals because the root apex doesn't close until 10-18 months of age and the root canal narrows due to dentin production as the animal ages.
Dr. John Lewis gets to the bottom of Root Canal Therapy.
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth ed. p. 1252.
Link: Getting to the bottom of root canal therapy
https://www.veterinarypracticenews.com/getting-to-the-bottom-of-root-canal-therapy/
419
Which one of the following intravenous fluids is the best isotonic fluid to use for replacement of fluid losses in most patients?
Lactated Ringer’s solution
0.45% saline
Plasma
Herarstarch
5% Dextrose
Medicine:
Lactated Ringer's solution (LRS) is the optimal isotonic fluid for replacing fluid losses in most patients due to its balanced electrolyte profile, which closely resembles plasma. This solution effectively replenishes sodium, chloride, and potassium, and is particularly beneficial in correcting metabolic acidosis, offering an alkalinizing effect, unlike normal saline, which can have an acidifying impact.
420
What adverse effect does azathioprine have on feline patients?
Bone Marrow Suppression
Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant agent that
is contraindicated in feline patients due to the likelihood for bone marrow suppression.
Cats are deficient in the enzyme thiopurine methyltransferase
(TPMT), increasing their susceptibility to toxicity.
Azathioprine can be safely used in dogs, and side effects include bone marrow suppression and hepatotoxicity.
Link: Immunomodulators for Integumentary Disease in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-integumentary-system/immunomodulators-for-integumentary-disease-in-animals?autoredirectid=18671
421
A ewe from a herd is presented because of a large swelling on the flank. On evaluation the swelling is fluctuant and purulent discharge is found draining from another swelling in the parotid region. Several other sheep in the herd have nonpainful subcutaneous swellings on the neck, shoulder, and inguinal region. A few animals in the herd appear emaciated. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
This is a common presentation of caseous lymphadenitis (CL) in goats and sheep. Bacterial culture of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis from an aspirate is your best choice to confirm a diagnosis of CL.
Abscesses may be external, obvious, and cause little interference with function or may be internal and cause emaciation. Abscess capsules limit the penetration of antibiotics: they can be lanced and flushed or excised but frequently recur.
CL abscesses are a cause of carcass condemnation in sheep.
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis also causes:
Ulcerative lymphangitis in cows and horses-see nasty draining leg ulcers. Follow this link to see a cow with ulcerative lymphangitis leg ulcers.
Pigeon fever in horses - similar to CL in small ruminants. See external abscesses or internal abscesses.
Streptococcal lymphadenitis is a pig disease-see abscessation of cervical, mandibular, cephalic lymph nodes.
Link: Caseous Lymphadenitis of Sheep and Goats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/lymphadenitis-and-lymphangitis-of-large-animals/caseous-lymphadenitis-of-sheep-and-goats?autoredirectid=22709
Link: Lymphangitis of Horses and Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/lymphadenitis-and-lymphangitis-of-large-animals/lymphangitis-of-horses-and-cattle?autoredirectid=22722
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/image/ulcerative-lymphangitis-cow
Link: Streptococcal Infections in Pigs
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/streptococcal-infections-in-pigs/streptococcal-infections-in-pigs?redirectid=31115
422
What should you do to help visualize a right ovarian pedicle bleeder during surgery?
Retract the proximal duodenum to the LEFT to visualize a right ovarian pedicle bleeder.
Retract the descending colon to the RIGHT to visualize a left ovarian pedicle bleeder.
423
Which organisms/diseases are both associated primarily with late-term abortion (3rd trimester) in cows?
Chlamydiosis, Ureaplasma diversum
Chlamydiosis and Ureaplasma diversum are both associated with late-term abortion in cows.
Other causes of late-term abortion include brucellosis, epizootic bovine abortion (foothill abortion), listeriosis, and leptospirosis.
The common abortion timelines are guidelines only - they help with boards questions but it's not always so cut and dried in practice.
Causes that have variable timelines include: mycotic abortion, infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR), Campylobacter spp., Trueperella pyogenes, and bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVD).
Neosporosis can cause abortion from 3 months on, but typically around 4-6 months (mid-term).
Trichomoniasis, bluetongue virus and heat usually causes abortion in the first half of gestation (early).
Link: Abortion in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/abortion-in-large-animals/abortion-in-cattle#v3290844
Link: Ureaplasma diversum Infection as a Cause of Abortion in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/abortion-in-large-animals/abortion-in-cattle#Ureaplasma-diversum-Infection_v3290852
Link: Trueperella pyogenes as a Cause of Abortion in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/abortion-in-large-animals/abortion-in-cattle#Trueperella-pyogenes_v3290808
424
As you look closely at an abdominal radiograph form a large German Shepherd, you see many regularly placed alternating light and dark lines on the radiograph. What do these lines mean?
The x-ray was short through a Potter-Bucky diaphragm
The kilo voltage was too high
The x-ray was shot with a grid under the dog
This is a sign of static electricity
The focal-film distance was too long
Answer: The x-ray was shot with a grid under the dog.
These are grid lines.
An x-ray grid is basically a plate made of alternating strips of lead, which block scattered x-rays, interspersed between strips of plastic or aluminum, which allow the straight x-rays through.
Thick body parts like thorax, abdomen, skull, and joints greater than 10 cm require a grid.
Agrid is like the focusing lens in a camera.
The grid prevents scattered radiation from reaching an x-ray film, so that only the primary, directly aimed x-rays penetrate straight into the animal for the best, highest resolution image.
A Potter-Bucky diaphragm is a movable x-ray grid that moves in time with a particular x ray exposure setting, so that grid lines from the lead strips in the grid do not show up on the x-ray film.
Refs: Bassert and Thomas, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed. p. 487.
425
How can proper endotracheal tube placement be confirmed?
Palpation of the neck
Absence of a palpebral reflex
Expansion of the reservoir bag
Normal breathing
Sp)2 >95%
Answer: Palpation of the neck.
When palpating the neck, normally only one firm structure is present, the trachea. If you can feel two tubes, then the endotracheal tube is in the esophagus, not the trachea. If you feel only one firm tube, then the endotracheal tube is correctly placed in the trachea.
An end tidal CO2 monitor can also show if you have correct placement (or not). If the tube placement is correct, then you will see a normal waveform. When a trach tube is misplaced into the esophagus, there is no waveform at all.
Lastly, feeling breath moving out of the tube can also help confirm proper tube placement.
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technician: gth ed. p. 1032.
426
A two-year-old Angus cow is presented with weakness of the hind limb and a staggering gait. On physical exam, the heart rate and respiratory rate are slow and irregular, and the pupils are dilated. The cow’s breath and urine smell like the door of mouse urine. Suddenly the cow’s pulse becomes rapid and thready, she collapses, and dies of apparent respiratory failure. **Which one of the following plans is most likely to have caused this spectrum of clinical signs?**
- Conium maculatum (Poison hemlock)
- Centaurea spp (Knapweed, yellow star thistle)
- Pinus ponderosa (Western yellow pine)
- Tetradymia spp (Horsebrush)
- Veratrum spp (False hellebore, skunk cabbage)
Answer: **Conium maculatum (Poison hemlock).**
Poisoning with Conium maculatum (Poison hemlock) is responsible for the death of this cow. At least eight toxic piperidine alkaloids have been isolated from poison hemlock.
Coniine is found in seeds and the mature plants; g-coniceine is found in young growing plants.
Poison hemlock is toxic to all livestock and humans. Signs of toxicity develop one to two hours after ingestion and are usually fatal.
Signs include nervousness, trembling, weakness especially of the hind limbs, weak pulse, irregular heart rate, recumbency, coma and death.
A mousy odor exuding from the urine and breath is pathognomonic.
Ingestion of poison hemlock during gestation causes arthrogryposis and other congenital defects in cattle, goats, and pigs.
Click here to see an image of Conium maculatum [(Poison hemlock)](https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4741241)
Click Here to see a Merck table of Poisonous Range Plants of Temperate North America.
[Link](https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/poisonous-plants/range-plants-of-temperate-north-america)
Refs: Forero, Livestock-Poison Plants of CA, U of CA, Davis, ANR, p. 39, Knight and Walter's A Guide to Plant Poisoning of Animals in NA, pp. 38-40, 282.
427
Which choice best describes the process of repairing a clean wound within a few hours of injury by first intention?
Allow wound to contract and epithelialize
Suture the wound closed
Let wound granulate closed
Delay primary closure
Application of a tissue graft
Answer: Suture the wound closed.
First intention healing (also called appositional healing or primary wound closure) means you suture up a fresh, clean wound within 6-8 hours of injury. 6-8 hours is the so-called "golden period" of wound healing, because bacteria contaminating a wound have not had enough time to multiply to the critical level of 100,000 organisms per gram of tissue. It means the wound tissues are not technically "infected" yet.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gthed. p. 919.
Link: Initial Wound Management in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/emergency-medicine-and-critical-care/wound-management/initial-wound-management-in-animals?autoredirectid=11874
428
What organism causes heart waterdisease of cattle, sheep, and goats?
Anaplasma phagocytophila
Ehrlichia ruminantium
Cowdria jellisoni
Burkholderia pseudomallei
Hidtophilus somni
Answer: Ehrlichia ruminantium.
Ehrlichia ruminantium is the organism responsible for heartwater disease of ruminants, a tick-borne foreign disease characterized by high fevers, lung edema, and hydropericardium. The causative organism was FORMERLY classified as Cowdria ruminantium.
Molecular testing has led to the reclassification of several organisms that cause infectious disease...
Equine granulocytic ehrlichiosis (EGE) was originally classified as Ehrlichia equi, but is now classified as Anaplasma phagocytophilum.
Ehrlichia ruminantium is the organism responsible for heartwater disease of ruminants, a tick-borne foreign disease characterized by high fevers, lung edema, and hydropericardium. The causative organism was FORMERLY classified as Cowdria ruminantium. Molecular testing has led to the reclassification of several organisms that cause infectious disease...
Equine granulocytic ehrlichiosis (EGE) was originally classified as Ehrlichia equi, but is now classified as Anaplasma phagocytophilum.
Potomac Horse Fever (PHF), formerly classified as Ehrlichia risticii, is now called Neorickettsia risticii.
Histophilus somni, the cause of thrombotic meningoencephalitis (TEME), was formerly called Haemophilus somnus. Follow this link to see a necropsy image of TEME.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v9180593
Mannheimia haemolytica, a primary cause of pneumonic pasteurellosis, was formerly called Pasteurella hemolytica.
Refs: Smith, Van Metre, and Pusterla's Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed., pp. 1048- 49
Link: Overview of Heartwater (Cowdriosis)
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/heartwater/overview-of-heartwater
Link: Equine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/equine-granulocytic-anaplasmosis/equine-granulocytic-anaplasmosis?redirectid=31747
Link: Potomac Horse Fever
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/intestinal-diseases-in-horses-and-foals/potomac-horse-fever
Link: Histophilosis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/histophilosis/histophilosis?redirectid=29628
Link: Bacterial Pneumonia in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/respiratory-system/respiratory-diseases-of-cattle/bacterial-pneumonia-in-cattle
429
Which one of the following statements about dehorning and castration of cattle is most accurate?
Livestock should be dehorned and castrated at the earliest possible age to minimize pain, stress, and complications.
Disbudding before horns have attached is the preferred method of dehorning calves.
Elastrator rubber bands and surgical castration are both painful and selection of techniques vary depending on the animalâs age, weight, facilities, skill, and available equipment.
The American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA) and Canadian Veterinary Medical Association (CVMA) support the use of castration and dehorning in livestock to improve animal and human safety. Preoperative NSAIDs and local anesthetics are recommended for these procedures.
Link: Bovine disbudding and dehorning.
https://www.avma.org/resources-tools/avma-policies/bovine-disbudding-dishorning
Link: Dehorning and Disbudding of Cattle.
https://www.avma.org/sites/default/files/resources/dehorning_cattle_bgnd.pdf
430
A four-year-old Doberman pinscher mix is presented after being hit by a car. The dog is non-weight bearing and knuckling on the right thoracic limb and has ipsilateral Horner syndrome. There is a brachial plexus avulsion. How does a lesion at C6-T2 cause Horner syndrome in the right eye?
Damage to cervical sympathetic innervation of the eye
Horner syndrome secondary to brachial plexus avulsion occurs due to damage to the cervical sympathetic innervation to the eye, which originates at T1 - T2 and courses cranially in the sympathetic trunk of the cervical spinal cord.
Clinical signs vary depending on lesion severity. Complete spinal nerve avulsion causes flaccid paralysis of the limb, dropped elbow, knuckling, and loss of sensation distal to the elbow. Look also for ipsilateral loss of the cutaneous trunci reflex and ipsilateral Horner syndrome.
Tx: Consider limb amputation for complete brachial plexus avulsion to prevent ongoing trauma to the distal limb. In some cases, in which only inflammation of the plexus occurred,
clinical signs improve with time.
Link: Limb Paralysis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/limb-paralysis/limb-paralysis-in-animals?autoredirectid=14325
Link: Brachial Plexus Avulsion in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/diseases-of-the-peripheral-nerves-and-neuromuscular-junction/trauma-of-the-peripheral-nerves-and-neuromuscular-junction-in-animals?autoredirectid=14322
Link: The Neurologic Examination of Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/the-neurologic-examination/the-neurologic-examination-of-animals?mredirectid=1632
431
Which drug is associated with aplastic anemia in humans?
Chloramphenicol is associated with bone marrow suppression/ aplastic anemia in humans, and is PROHIBITED IN FOOD ANIMALS.
Use with extreme caution in small animals due to the risk of inadvertent human exposure and potentially fatal aplastic anemia.
Note that trimethoprim-sulfa, a sulfonamide antimicrobial, is associated with hemolytic anemia and bone marrow suppression in dogs.
Link: Sulfonamides and Sulfonamide Combinations Use in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/antibacterial-agents/sulfonamides-and-sulfonamide-combinations-use-in-animals?autoredirectid=19879
Link: Phenicols Use in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/antibacterial-agents/phenicols-use-in-animals?autoredirectid=19878
432
A lesion of the left vestibular nerve would cause which one of the following signs?
Nystagmus, fast phase right.
A lesion of the left vestibular nerve would cause nystagmus, fast phase right (away from the lesion). Vestibular diseases also cause a head tilt toward the lesion (in this case, left)
and circling toward the lesion.
With peripheral vestibular disease, the fast phase of the nystagmus is away from the side of the lesion. Dogs with severe vestibular lesions may flail and roll and their presentation may be confused with their having a seizure.
The vestibular nerve maintains posture, muscle tone, and equilibrium. It is a branch of cranial nerve 8 (CN VIII), the vestibulocochlear nerve. The other branch of CN VIII is the cochlear nerve, which transmits auditory stimuli.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/ear-disorders/otitis-media-and-interna/otitis-media-and-interna-in-animals?redirectid=31733
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/the-neurologic-examination/the-neurologic-examination-of-animals?mredirectid=1632#v3286855
433
Aflatoxins are primarily associated with which clinical signs?
Icterus, hemorrhages
The liver is the major target organ of aflatoxins, with widespread hemorrhages, icterus, and death in acute cases.
Aflatoxicosis is caused by toxigenic strains of Aspergillus (A. flavus, A. parasiticus) on peanuts, soybeans, corn (maize), and other cereal grains.
Subacute outbreaks are more common, with nonspecific signs of anorexia, weakness, unthriftiness and sudden death.
Think of lameness and hyperthermia in cattle and horses with fescue lameness, due to a toxin produced by an ergot-like mold (Neotyphodium coenophialum) on tall fescue grass.
Slaframine toxicosis causes profuse salivation, primarily in horses and occasionally in cattle. Due to the fungus Rhizoctonia leguminocola (black patch disease) on red clover (Trifolium pratense) especially in wet, cool years.
Fumonisin is another Fusarium spp. mycotoxin associated with moldy corn. In equids, look for CNS disease (equine leukoencephalomalacia). In pigs, see hypertension and pulmonary edema (porcine pulmonary edema-PPE).
Click here to see a table of Mycotoxicoses in Domestic Animals.
Link: Aflatoxicosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/mycotoxicoses/aflatoxicosis-in-animals?autoredirectid=16887
Link: Fescue Poisoning in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/mycotoxicoses/fescue-poisoning-in-animals?autoredirectid=16892
Link: Slaframine Toxicosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/mycotoxicoses/slaframine-toxicosis-in-animals?autoredirectid=16896
Link: Fumonisin Toxicosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/mycotoxicoses/fumonisin-toxicosis-in-animals?autoredirectid=16893
Link: Overview of Mycotoxicoses in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/mycotoxicoses/overview-of-mycotoxicoses-in-animals?autoredirectid=16886
434
The following image is a recording of an arterial blood pressure waveform from a horse anesthetized with isoflurane in oxygen. Which one of the following choices is the correct mean arterial pressure in this patient?
93mmHg
The mean arterial pressure is 93 mmHg. Click here to see an illustration of the answer.
Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is approximately half the area under the pulse pressure curve as measured from one heartbeat. It can be calculated (estimated) from the systolic (SAP) and diastolic arterial pressures (DAP) as follows:
DAP plus 1/3 of the pulse pressure (SAP - DAP).
The mean arterial blood pressure (MAP) is important as this is the "driving" pressure for tissue perfusion. A low MAP results in ischemia and organ damage if present too long.
Note that MAP is actually closer to the DAP than the SAP as shown by the dotted red line on the graph shown in the answer. A low DAP has a great effect on the overall mean. The lower the DAP, the higher the systolic AP must be to compensate and bring the mean up to adequate levels.
Hypotension is common in anesthetized horses and can result in myopathy. Muscle damage occurs in horses at pressures not low enough to produce damage to other organs.
Myopathy can result in serious injury and difficulty standing during anesthetic recovery if not treated in a timely fashion.
Note the dip in the BP waveform very close to the mean pressure line on the illustration of the answer. This is the "dicrotic notch" which is produced by changes in blood flow in the large vessels when the aortic valve closes.
Check out this great article on Blood Pressure Management in Equine Anesthesia by Samantha Rowland, LVT, VTS, courtesy of Vetlearn.com.
Link: Blood Pressure Management in Equine Anesthesia
http://vetfolio-vetstreet.s3.amazonaws.com/e5/00d0b0ab7711e2b140005056ad4734/file/VT2013_Rowland_CE-EquE.pdf
435
During physical exam on a cow that is off-feed, the vet gently but firmly pushes her fist rapidly into the cow's left side several times while listening with a stethoscope. What is she doing?
Succussion is a physical exam technique used to elicit sounds of splashing in the gut. It involves pushing your fist gently but firmly into an the animal's side several times while listening with a stethoscope.
Ballottement is a similar technique, but you use it to feel for the rebound "bump" of an organ or of a baby animal's head or hips in the uterus of a late-pregnant cow, sheep or goat.
Link: The Digestive System in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/digestive-system-introduction/the-digestive-system-in-animals?redirectid=31723
436
Which choice best describes the process of repairing a dirty and traumatized wound by second intention?
Allow wound to epithelialize and contract to closure.
Second intention healing is used for dirty, traumatized wounds, where the injury is cleaned and allowed to contract and epithelialize on its own until closed.
This kind of wound closure has risks because new epithelium is easily damaged, and contracted skin can sometimes impede normal movement.
Because of this, many wounds like this are allowed a time left open to contract and granulate in (3-5 days) and then closed surgically (delayed closure, also called third intention healing).
First intention healing (also called appositional healing or primary wound closure) means you suture a fresh, clean wound closed within 6-8 hours of injury.
Link: Initial Wound Management in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/emergency-medicine-and-critical-care/wound-management-in-small-animals/initial-wound-management-in-small-animals?mredirectid=337
437
Phenylpropanolamine is typically used to treat which one of the following conditions?
Urethral sphincter incompetence
Pheny|propanolamine is used to treat urinary incontinence associated with urethral sphincter mechanism incompetence
(USMI) in dogs and cats.
Phenylpropanolamine is a sympathomimetic drug. Potential side effects include anxiety, restlessness, hypertension, tachycardia, urinary retention and vomiting.
This drug has been removed from the U.S. market for human use due to an increase risk of strokes. It is still available for veterinary use.
Phenazopyridine is a urinary tract analgesic agent.
Link: Pharmacotherapeutics in Urinary Incontinence in Dogs and Cats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-urinary-system/pharmacotherapeutics-in-urinary-incontinence-in-dogs-and-cats?autoredirectid=22714#v3333479
https://www.fda.gov/drugs/information-drug-class/phenylpropanolamine-ppa-information-page
438
What pathology is evident in this necropsy image of a dead chicken?
This is ascites in a chicken. Suddenly dead or cyanotic, panting chickens with abdomens distended by ascites fluid suggests ascites syndrome (waterbelly). Essentially a form of right ventricular heart failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension or more rarely, hepatic failure.
Because broilers affected with ascites syndrome frequently die on their backs, differential diagnosis includes flip-over disease.
Dissecting aneurysm is another cause of sudden death, but animals display severe hemorrhage on necropsy. Click here to see a necropsied turkey with frank abdominal hemorrhage and a ruptured aorta.
Link: Ascites Syndrome in Poiltry
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/miscellaneous-conditions-of-poultry/ascites-syndrome-in-poultry
Link: Sudden death Syndrome in Broiler Chickens
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/sudden-death-syndrome-of-broiler-chickens/sudden-death-syndrome-of-broiler-chickens?autoredirectid=12763
Link: Hemorrhagic Vasculopathy of Turkeys
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/hemorrhagic-vasculopathy-of-turkeys/hemorrhagic-vasculopathy-of-turkeys?redirectid=29138
439
Where can subcutaneous (SC or SQ) injections be given in any veterinary species?
Only along the ventrum
Dorsal midline from the point of the scapula to the wings of the ilium
Lateral neck
Lateral upper rear leg
Anywhere the skin can be lifted and tented
Answer: Anywhere the skin can be lifted and tented.
Subcutaneous (SC or SQ) injections may be administered anywhere the skin can be lifted and tented. A common site is over the shoulders.
Medications administered subcutaneously are absorbed more slowly as compared to those given IV or IM.
Commonly administered SC therapeutic agents include vaccines, local aesthetics, and small volumes of other medications. Subcutaneous is also a preferred route for fluid administration by owners at home in small animals, in which a relatively small volume administered can be helpful (for example, in cats with chronic renal failure).
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9thed. p. 590.
Link: Hypodermoclysis: An Alternative Infusion Technique
https://www.aafp.org/pubs/afp/issues/2001/1101/p1575.html
440
How often, at a minimum, should radiographic personal protective equipment (PPE) be evaluated for wear and cracks in the lead?
Annually.
At a minimum, radiograph all lead protective devices once a year (annually) to look for any breaks in the lead protection or any areas of wear that would minimize the efficacy.
Do an immediate check if any areas are known to have been damaged, as when an animal bites a glove, before the protective equipment is put back into use.
Gowns should NEVER be stored folded, as this can crack the lead protection. They may be rolled for transport. Gowns should be hung up between uses, and gloves should be stored open so that the lead does not become cracked (plus this helps minimize smells in the gloves!).
441
What clinical sign is most associated with molybdenum poisoning in ruminants?
Submandibular edema
Photosensitization
Coprophagy
Scours
Blindness
Answer: Scours.
Both molybdenum poisoning and associated copper deficiency cause a gastroenteritis.
Look for so-called "peat scours" or "teart" (severe scours with gas bubbles).
Additional possible clinical signs include unthriftiness, emaciation, coat depigmentation, pica, a microcytic hypochromic anemia, joint pain/lameness, and bone fractures (osteoporosis).
Ref: Osweiler's NVMS Toxicology pp. 185-86, 199-200.
Link: Molybdenum Toxicity in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/molybdenum-toxicity/molybdenum-toxicity-in-animals/?autoredirectid=1529&autoredirectid=14447
442
A cat is anesthetized for ovariohysterectomy (OHE) with isoflurane in oxygen after premedication with atropine, acepromazine, and hydromorphone intramuscularly, and induction with midazolam and ketamine intravenously. As the surgeon exteriorizes the first ovary for ligation, the cat’s heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate begin to increase rapidly, but she does not move. Which of the following is the next nest step?
Increase the isoflurane vaporizer setting
Put the cat on a ventilator
Increase analgesia with dose of hydromorphone IV
Raise the inspired oxygen flow rate to a higher setting
Decrease the fluid rate
Answer: Increase analgesia with dose of hydromorphone IV.
Increase the analgesia: The cat is experiencing a sympathetic response to pain from surgical stimulation. Response during OHE is common at the skin incision, and with tension on the ovarian ligaments or uterus.
Surgical stimulation raises sympathetic tone, which increases heart rate (HR), blood pressure (BP), and respiratory rate (R). This is known as nociception since the animal unconscious and therefore cannot "feel" pain. Increases in HR, RR, or BP do not necessarily mean.the patient feels pain as awareness is lost before the autonomic response to surgery.
The sympathetic responses may be blunted by increasing the concentration of inhalant however, this does not address the underlying cause which is sympathetic response to pain.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed., pp. 1035-9 and table 31.3, Thomas & Lerche Vet Anes and Analgesia for Vet Techs, 4thed. pp. 142-3, 177.
Link: The Cardiovascular System in Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/cardiovascular-system-introduction/the-cardiovascular-system-in-animals#v4499086
443
A dog is presented with a left foreleg lameness. Palpation elects pain at the level of the shoulder and radiographs are indicated. What positioning criteria are important to remember to optimize image quality for a canine shoulder radiograph?
Top forelimb rotated out of field
Femur distracted out of joint
Humeral head fully seated in acetabulum
Both limbs fully extended
Bottom limb positioned caudally
Answer: Top forelimb rotated out of field.
To allow full visualization of the shoulder joint, the top leg needs to be rotated out of the field of view so that it is not superimposed over the area of interest. The affected leg is down, closest to the cassette/table top.
These shoulder films taken at the University of Illinois College of Veterinary Medicine show only the left shoulder joint, indicating that the right leg has been fully rotated out of the view as desired.
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/canine/forelimb/shoulder/ex01/shoulder01.html
The humerus is the largest bone of the upper forearm and it articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity, NOT the acetabulum.
The acetabulum is in the pelvis - it is the "socket" part of the ball and socket hip joint where the ball of the head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum of the pelvis.
Ref: Tighe and Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians, 4th ed. p. 156.
https://vetmed.wsu.edu
444
A dog is presented with a left foreleg lameness. Palpation elects pain at the level of the shoulder and radiographs are indicated. What positioning criteria are important to remember to optimize image quality for a canine shoulder radiograph?
Top forelimb rotated out of field
Femur distracted out of joint
Humeral head fully seated in acetabulum
Both limbs fully extended
Bottom limb positioned caudally
Answer: Top forelimb rotated out of field.
To allow full visualization of the shoulder joint, the top leg needs to be rotated out of the field of view so that it is not superimposed over the area of interest. The affected leg is down, closest to the cassette/table top.
These shoulder films taken at the University of Illinois College of Veterinary Medicine show only the left shoulder joint, indicating that the right leg has been fully rotated out of the view as desired.
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/canine/forelimb/shoulder/ex01/shoulder01.html
The humerus is the largest bone of the upper forearm and it articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity, NOT the acetabulum.
The acetabulum is in the pelvis - it is the "socket" part of the ball and socket hip joint where the ball of the head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum of the pelvis.
Ref: Tighe and Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians, 4th ed. p. 156.
https://vetmed.wsu.edu
445
What is the surgical term for an incision into the crop of a parrot?
Enterotomy
Ventriculotomy
Ingluviotomy
Gastrotomy
Typhlectomy
Answer: Ingluviotomy.
An ingluviotomy is a surgical opening into the crop of a bird. Typically, ingluviotomy is done to remove a foreign body, like broken off end to a feeding tube in hand-fed pediatric birds. In larger or older birds, an endoscope may be needed to see and remove ingluvial (crop) foreign bodies.
Click here to see a budgerigar with a full crop and here to see an anatomic diagram showing the crop.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Budgerigar_with_full_crop.jpg
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:PigeonAnatomy.png
Refs: The Merck Veterinary Manual online edition and Wikipedia online.
Link: Pediatric Diseases of Pet Birds
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/exotic-and-laboratory-animals/pet-birds/pediatric-diseases-of-pet-birds
446
Prior to the 1950s, heat pasteurization of milk was done principally to prevent transmission of one organism to people. Today, that organism is re-emerging in bi-national communities with ties to Mexico who consume unpasteurized milk products.
What is the organism?
Mycobacterium bovis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli O157:H7
Mycobacterium avium subespecies paratuberculosis
Mycobacterium avium
Answer: Mycobacterium bovis.
A century ago, Mycobacterium bovis (bovine tuberculosis) used to be a common zoonotic health threat, transmitted through milk to children through their emerging teeth at the gums.
Today, human cases of M. bovis are emerging more in bi-national communities with ties to Mexico who consume unpasteurized milk products (like fresh queso).
Temperature of pasteurization is set by the toughest, most heat-resistant organism, which is Coxiella burnetii, the cause of Qfever. If the temperature is high enough, for long enough to kill Coxiella, it will also kill the other organisms.
Brucella and Listeria can also be transmitted in milk.
E. coli is typically a contaminant from unsanitary milking conditions.
Ref: Rodwell et al., M. bovis tuberculosis in binational communities, Emerg Infect Dis. 2008 Jun., Smith, Large Animal Interal Medicine, 6th ed. pp. 695-8.
Link: Overview of Tuberculosis and other Mycobacterial Infections
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/tuberculosis-and-other-mycobacterial-infections/overview-of-tuberculosis-and-other-mycobacterial-infections
Link: Human Tuberculosis Caused by Mycobacterium bovis
https://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/mm5424a4.htm
Link: Overview of Coxiellosis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/coxiellosis/overview-of-coxiellosis
Link: Brucellosis in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/brucellosis-in-large-animals/brucellosis-in-cattle
Link: Listeriosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/listeriosis/listeriosis-in-animals?redirectid=3615?ruleredirectid=30
Link: Mastitis in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/mastitis-in-large-animals/mastitis-in-cattle
Link: Emerging Infectious Diseases
https://wwwnc.cdc.gov/eid/article/14/6/07-1485_article
447
Prior to the 1950s, heat pasteurization of milk was done principally to prevent transmission of one organism to people. Today, that organism is re-emerging in bi-national communities with ties to Mexico who consume unpasteurized milk products.
What is the organism?
Mycobacterium bovis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli O157:H7
Mycobacterium avium subespecies paratuberculosis
Mycobacterium avium
Answer: Mycobacterium bovis.
A century ago, Mycobacterium bovis (bovine tuberculosis) used to be a common zoonotic health threat, transmitted through milk to children through their emerging teeth at the gums.
Today, human cases of M. bovis are emerging more in bi-national communities with ties to Mexico who consume unpasteurized milk products (like fresh queso).
Temperature of pasteurization is set by the toughest, most heat-resistant organism, which is Coxiella burnetii, the cause of Qfever. If the temperature is high enough, for long enough to kill Coxiella, it will also kill the other organisms.
Brucella and Listeria can also be transmitted in milk.
E. coli is typically a contaminant from unsanitary milking conditions.
Ref: Rodwell et al., M. bovis tuberculosis in binational communities, Emerg Infect Dis. 2008 Jun., Smith, Large Animal Interal Medicine, 6th ed. pp. 695-8.
Link: Overview of Tuberculosis and other Mycobacterial Infections
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/tuberculosis-and-other-mycobacterial-infections/overview-of-tuberculosis-and-other-mycobacterial-infections
Link: Human Tuberculosis Caused by Mycobacterium bovis
https://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/mm5424a4.htm
Link: Overview of Coxiellosis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/coxiellosis/overview-of-coxiellosis
Link: Brucellosis in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/brucellosis-in-large-animals/brucellosis-in-cattle
Link: Listeriosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/listeriosis/listeriosis-in-animals?redirectid=3615?ruleredirectid=30
Link: Mastitis in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/mastitis-in-large-animals/mastitis-in-cattle
Link: Emerging Infectious Diseases
https://wwwnc.cdc.gov/eid/article/14/6/07-1485_article
448
What image problems are avoided with proper bisecting radiograph technique of teeth?
Increased scatter
Overloap of soft tissue
Decreased contrast
Elongation
Answer: Elongation.
The bisecting radiograph technique minimizes the image distortion that occurs because of an inability to place x-ray film parallel to the central axis of a tooth.
If you do not use the bisecting angle technique, a tooth may appear artificially foreshortened or elongated.
The bisecting radiograph technique for generally preferred for maxillary teeth and mandibular canines and incisors (the rostral mandibular teeth).
Bisecting radiograph technique minimizes the image distortion that occurs because of an inability to place x-ray film parallel to the central axis of a tooth.
If you do not use the bisecting angle technique, a tooth may appear artificially foreshortened or elongated.
The idea is easier to understand with a picture.
https://www.rvc.ac.uk/review/dentistry/Media/Radiography_Media/thumbnails/BA_Angles.gif
Click here to see a good summary article with images of bisecting technique, courtesy of the Veterinary Dentistry website from Dr. Norman Johnston and the Royal Veterinary College of London.
https://www.rvc.ac.uk/review/dentistry/Radiography/radioTechniques/IOB.html
https://www.rvc.ac.uk/review/dentistry/index.htm
Refs: Bassert and Thomas, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth ed. pp. 1319-20, figures 34-26, 34-28 and Tighe 1319-20, Brown, Mosby’s Comprehensive Review for Vet Techs, 3rd ed. p. 499.
449
How many permanent teeth are found in a normal horse?
28 - 32
36 - 44
28 - 48
20 - 30
18 - 24
Answer: 36-44
Adult horses vary between 36 and 44 permanent teeth, depending upon whether they have canines and/or wolf teeth.
Cats have 30 permanent teeth. Ruminants are in the middle between cats and dogs with 32. Dogs have 42 permanent teeth. Food-loving pigs have the most teeth at 44.
Follow these links to see a diagram of normal horse dentition and a dental formula table for large and small animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4731452
Refs: Bassert, Beal, and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 10th ed., pp. 1156-7.
Link: Dentition and Dental Nomenclature of Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/dental-development-and-anatomy/dentition-and-dental-nomenclature-of-animals
450
How many permanent teeth are found in a normal horse?
28 - 32
36 - 44
28 - 48
20 - 30
18 - 24
Answer: 36-44
Adult horses vary between 36 and 44 permanent teeth, depending upon whether they have canines and/or wolf teeth.
Cats have 30 permanent teeth. Ruminants are in the middle between cats and dogs with 32. Dogs have 42 permanent teeth. Food-loving pigs have the most teeth at 44.
Follow these links to see a diagram of normal horse dentition and a dental formula table for large and small animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4731452
Refs: Bassert, Beal, and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 10th ed., pp. 1156-7.
Link: Dentition and Dental Nomenclature of Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/dental-development-and-anatomy/dentition-and-dental-nomenclature-of-animals
451
Why can’t horse kick sideways as powerfully as a cow?
Horses have more substantial gluteal musculature
Cattle have a deep acetabulum and no sacrotuberous ligament
Trochanteric bursa of horse stabilizes hip too much
Cattle have underdeveloped illiopsoas muscles
Cows lack an accessory ligament of the femur
Answer: Cows lack an accessory ligament of the femur.
A horse cannot kick sideways as powerfully as a cow, because horses have an accessory ligament of the hip and femoral head, (unique to horses) and a deep acetabulum. The accessory ligament connects the prepubic ligament (base of pelvis) to the fovea capiitis on the head of the femur, essentially stabilizing the hip.
The stabilizing influence of the accessory ligament is what prevents horses from kicking out to the side to the same degree that cows do. Because of the accessory ligament, coxofemoral luxation is rare in horses compared to cattle and small animals.
Coxofemoral luxation in cattle may occur when bulls mount cows or cows mount each
other on slippery flooring.
Hip luxation in dogs and cats is usually secondary to trauma, like being hit by a car.
Click here to see a radiograph of hip dislocation. https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v50504534
Refs:Pasquinis, Jahn & Bahr, Guide to Eq Clin: LAMENESS vol. Il, p. 290 and Pasquini and Spurgeon's Anatomy Dom An 11th ed. pp. 118-19.
Link: Disorders of the Hip in Horses.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-horses/disorders-of-the-hip-in-horses
Link: Coxofemoral Luxation in Cattle.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-cattle/coxofemoral-luxation-in-cattle
452
What is the effect of small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) on serum vitamin concentrations in dogs?
Decreased cobalamin.
Decreased cobalamin (enteric bacteria utilizing the cobalamin) and increased folate (bacterial production of folate) is associated with small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO).
The causes of SIBO are often unknown. It occurs primarily in dogs.
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency. (EPI) in dogs is often complicated by SIBO.
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 3rd ed. pp. 74-6.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-stomach-and-intestines-in-small-animals/malabsorption-syndromes-in-small-animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/the-exocrine-pancreas/exocrine-pancreatic-insufficiency-in-dogs-and-cats?redirectid=31744
453
Diazepam, atropine and pralidoxime chloride might be used to treat a dog with which of the following conditions?
Cholecalciferol toxicity
Inorganic arsenic toxicity
Organophosphate toxicity
Permethrin toxicity
Ethylene glycol toxicity
Answer: Organophosphate toxicity.
Treatment for organophosphate (OPP) toxicity includes seizure control (diazepam, phenobarbital or pentobarbital), Pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM) and Atropine.
Organophosphate (OPP) toxicity, is common; Can present with hypersalivation, vomiting, diarrhea, MIOSIS, ataxia, depression, seizures and hyperthermia.
Remember that Carbamate toxicity looks similar to OPP toxicity.
Methocarbamol (Robaxin-V ®) is the Tx of choice to treat Permethrin toxicity in cats.
Refs: Plumb's Vet Drug Handbook, 7th ed. pp. 1131-3, Blackwell's 5-Min Vet Consult Canine Feline, 4th ed. pp. 998-9, 1104-5,
Link: Organophosphate Toxicosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/insecticide-and-acaricide-organic-toxicity/organophosphate-toxicosis-in-animals?autoredirectid=19572
Link: Carbamate Toxicosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/insecticide-and-acaricide-organic-toxicity/carbamate-toxicosis-in-animals?autoredirectid=19575
Link: Plant-Derived Insecticide Toxicosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/insecticide-and-acaricide-organic-toxicity/plant-derived-insecticide-toxicosis-in-animals?autoredirectid=19576
454
Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to sterilize an endoscope?
10% Povidone-iodine
Autoclave
Quaternary ammonium
70% Isopropyl alcohol
Glutaraldehyde
Answer: Glutaraldehyde.
Endoscopes should be sterilized using glutaraldehyde. Hydrogen peroxide is also used, but can cause damage to the scope. Ethylene oxide (gas sterilization) is also utilized.
Endoscopes are exposed to numerous types of microbial contamination due to the body cavities they typically enter.
Refs: The Centers for Disease Control Healthcare Infection Control Practices Advisory Committee and Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9thed. p. 1099.
https://www.cdc.gov/hicpac/index.html
Link: Reducing Agents
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/antiseptics-and-disinfectants/reducing-agents
455
Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to sterilize an endoscope?
10% Povidone-iodine
Autoclave
Quaternary ammonium
70% Isopropyl alcohol
Glutaraldehyde
Answer: Glutaraldehyde.
Endoscopes should be sterilized using glutaraldehyde. Hydrogen peroxide is also used, but can cause damage to the scope. Ethylene oxide (gas sterilization) is also utilized.
Endoscopes are exposed to numerous types of microbial contamination due to the body cavities they typically enter.
Refs: The Centers for Disease Control Healthcare Infection Control Practices Advisory Committee and Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9thed. p. 1099.
https://www.cdc.gov/hicpac/index.html
Link: Reducing Agents
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/antiseptics-and-disinfectants/reducing-agents
456
Which type of point is the most common in bandage scissors?
Sharp / Sharp with a hook of the end
Blunt / Blunt
Sharp / Sharp
Blunt / Sharp
Plain curved
Answer: Blunt / Sharp.
Lister bandage scissors have one blunt-ended blade (for slipping under a bandage without cutting the patient) and one sharp-pointed blade (which goes above the bandage).
Surgical scissors with sharp points on the ends of both blades are sometimes used for delicate cutting, as with tiny iris scissors.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9thed. p. 1067 and Tighe and Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Vet Techs, 4th ed. p. 501.
Link: Lister Bandage Scissor
https://www.integralife.com/lister-bandage-scissor/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-general-operating-scissors-lister-bandage-scissor
457
A dog is presented with a left foreleg lameness. Palpation elects pain at the level of the shoulder and radiographs are indicated. What positioning criteria are important to remember to optimize image quality for a canine shoulder radiograph?
Top forelimb rotated out of field
Femur distracted out of joint
Humeral head fully seated in acetabulum
Both limbs fully extended
Bottom limb positioned caudally
Answer: Top forelimb rotated out of field.
To allow full visualization of the shoulder joint, the top leg needs to be rotated out of the field of view so that it is not superimposed over the area of interest. The affected leg is down, closest to the cassette/table top.
These shoulder films taken at the University of Illinois College of Veterinary Medicine show only the left shoulder joint, indicating that the right leg has been fully rotated out of the view as desired.
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/canine/forelimb/shoulder/ex01/shoulder01.html
The humerus is the largest bone of the upper forearm and it articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity, NOT the acetabulum.
The acetabulum is in the pelvis - it is the "socket" part of the ball and socket hip joint where the ball of the head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum of the pelvis.
Ref: Tighe and Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians, 4th ed. p. 156.
https://vetmed.wsu.edu
458
What is the surgical term for an incision into the crop of a parrot?
Enterotomy
Ventriculotomy
Ingluviotomy
Gastrotomy
Typhlectomy
Answer: Ingluviotomy.
An ingluviotomy is a surgical opening into the crop of a bird. Typically, ingluviotomy is done to remove a foreign body, like broken off end to a feeding tube in hand-fed pediatric birds. In larger or older birds, an endoscope may be needed to see and remove ingluvial (crop) foreign bodies.
Click here to see a budgerigar with a full crop and here to see an anatomic diagram showing the crop.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Budgerigar_with_full_crop.jpg
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:PigeonAnatomy.png
Refs: The Merck Veterinary Manual online edition and Wikipedia online.
Link: Pediatric Diseases of Pet Birds
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/exotic-and-laboratory-animals/pet-birds/pediatric-diseases-of-pet-birds
Pediatric Diseases of Pet Birds
Common Pediatric Diseases
• Aspiration Pneumonia: Increased respiration, poor feeding response.
• Bacterial Disease: Gram-negative bacteria or yeast infection, causing crop stasis, depression.
• Yeast Infection: Candida albicans proliferation due to stress or antibiotics.
• Viral Diseases: Polyoma virus, avian bornavirus, circovirus.
• Foreign Bodies: Ingestion of inappropriate objects requiring surgical intervention.
• Crop Stasis: Inability of crop to empty, caused by poor husbandry.
• Crop Burns: From overheated formula, requiring surgical repair.
• Esophageal Trauma: Due to improper feeding technique, requiring surgical intervention.
• Hepatic Lipidosis: Seen in hand-fed, high-fat diet birds.
• Failure to Thrive: Due to hereditary, congenital, or husbandry issues.
• Beak Deformities: Corrective measures required for conditions like mandibular prognathism.
• Splayleg: Caused by nutritional deficiencies or improper substrate, treated with coaptation.
• Constricted Toe Syndrome: Circulation issues in digits, treated with debridement or amputation.
• Cryptophthalmia: Eyelid atresia requiring possible surgical correction.
• Choanal Atresia: Incomplete choana requiring surgical intervention.
459
What is the surgical term for an incision into the crop of a parrot?
Enterotomy
Ventriculotomy
Ingluviotomy
Gastrotomy
Typhlectomy
Answer: Ingluviotomy.
An ingluviotomy is a surgical opening into the crop of a bird. Typically, ingluviotomy is done to remove a foreign body, like broken off end to a feeding tube in hand-fed pediatric birds. In larger or older birds, an endoscope may be needed to see and remove ingluvial (crop) foreign bodies.
Click here to see a budgerigar with a full crop and here to see an anatomic diagram showing the crop.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Budgerigar_with_full_crop.jpg
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:PigeonAnatomy.png
Refs: The Merck Veterinary Manual online edition and Wikipedia online.
Link: Pediatric Diseases of Pet Birds
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/exotic-and-laboratory-animals/pet-birds/pediatric-diseases-of-pet-birds
Pediatric Diseases of Pet Birds
Common Pediatric Diseases
• Aspiration Pneumonia: Increased respiration, poor feeding response.
• Bacterial Disease: Gram-negative bacteria or yeast infection, causing crop stasis, depression.
• Yeast Infection: Candida albicans proliferation due to stress or antibiotics.
• Viral Diseases: Polyoma virus, avian bornavirus, circovirus.
• Foreign Bodies: Ingestion of inappropriate objects requiring surgical intervention.
• Crop Stasis: Inability of crop to empty, caused by poor husbandry.
• Crop Burns: From overheated formula, requiring surgical repair.
• Esophageal Trauma: Due to improper feeding technique, requiring surgical intervention.
• Hepatic Lipidosis: Seen in hand-fed, high-fat diet birds.
• Failure to Thrive: Due to hereditary, congenital, or husbandry issues.
• Beak Deformities: Corrective measures required for conditions like mandibular prognathism.
• Splayleg: Caused by nutritional deficiencies or improper substrate, treated with coaptation.
• Constricted Toe Syndrome: Circulation issues in digits, treated with debridement or amputation.
• Cryptophthalmia: Eyelid atresia requiring possible surgical correction.
• Choanal Atresia: Incomplete choana requiring surgical intervention.
460
Prior to the 1950s, heat pasteurization of milk was done principally to prevent transmission of one organism to people. Today, that organism is re-emerging in bi-national communities with ties to Mexico who consume unpasteurized milk products.
What is the organism?
Mycobacterium bovis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli O157:H7
Mycobacterium avium subespecies paratuberculosis
Mycobacterium avium
Answer: Mycobacterium bovis.
A century ago, Mycobacterium bovis (bovine tuberculosis) used to be a common zoonotic health threat, transmitted through milk to children through their emerging teeth at the gums.
Today, human cases of M. bovis are emerging more in bi-national communities with ties to Mexico who consume unpasteurized milk products (like fresh queso).
Temperature of pasteurization is set by the toughest, most heat-resistant organism, which is Coxiella burnetii, the cause of Qfever. If the temperature is high enough, for long enough to kill Coxiella, it will also kill the other organisms.
Brucella and Listeria can also be transmitted in milk.
E. coli is typically a contaminant from unsanitary milking conditions.
Ref: Rodwell et al., M. bovis tuberculosis in binational communities, Emerg Infect Dis. 2008 Jun., Smith, Large Animal Interal Medicine, 6th ed. pp. 695-8.
461
Which one of the following choices correctly pairs the drug with its receptor and mechanism by which it causes an increase in blood pressure in an anesthetized patient?
Phenylephrine - alpha - 1 agonist - vasoconstriction
Dobutamine - beta - 1 antagonist - increased myocardial contractility
Norepinephrine - alpha - 1 antagonist - increases heart rate
Atropine - nicotine receptor - tachycardia
Dopanine - alpha - 2 agonist - venoconstriction
Answer: Phenylephrine - alpha - 1 agonist - vasoconstriction.
Phenylephrine - alpha 1 agonist - vasoconstriction
Blood pressure (BP) is determined by cardiac output (CO) and systemic vascular resistance (SVR).
CO = heart rate (HR) X stroke volume (SV)
Depending on circumstances, blood pressure should increase under anesthesia when stroke volume or heart rate increase and when systemic vascular resistance increases (peripheral vasoconstriction).
Vasoconstriction is produced by alpha-1 stimulation.
Phenylephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine produce vasoconstriction via alpha-1 receptors.
Increased heart rate and/or myocardial contractility will increase SV via stimulation of beta-1 receptors.
Dobutamine and dopamine increase cardiac contractility via beta-1 receptors. HR can also be increased by anticholinergic drugs that block parasympathetic input to the heart.
Atropine blocks cholinergic muscarinic receptors to produce a parasympatholytic effect - increasing HR.
Refs: Grimm, Tranquilli, and Lamont's Essentials of Anes and Analgesia in SA, 2nd ed. pp. 483-4, Muir and Hubbell's Equine Anesthesia, 2nd ed. pp. 401-6.
462
Which of the following are best radiographed using the bisecting radiograph technique?
All deciduous teeth
Mandibular molars
Maxillary incisors
Temporomandibular joits (TMJ)
Mandibular premolars
Answer: Maxillary incisors.
The bisecting radiograph technique is generally preferred for all teeth EXCEPT for the mandibular premolars 3 and 4, and the molars.
Mandibular cheek teeth for horses are composed of molars and premolars.
Bisecting radiograph technique minimizes the image distortion that occurs because of an inability to place x-ray film parallel to the central axis of a tooth. If you do not use the bisecting angle technique, a tooth may appear artificially foreshortened or elongated. The idea is easier to understand with a picture.
https://www.rvc.ac.uk/review/dentistry/Media/Radiography_Media/thumbnails/BA_Angles.gif
Click here to see a good summary article with images of bisecting technique, courtesy of the Veterinary Dentistry website from Dr. Norman Johnston and the Royal Veterinary College of London.
https://www.rvc.ac.uk/review/dentistry/Radiography/radioTechniques/IOB.html
https://www.rvc.ac.uk/review/dentistry/index.htm
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary
463
Which choice might explain why a radiograph comes out very dark?
Long focal distance
Poor entering of the primary x-ray beam
High kilo voltage
Low milliampere-seconds
Answer: High kilo voltage.
An overexposed radiograph (i.e., very dark) may occur if milliampere-seconds (mAs) or kilovoltage (kV) are set too high, or if the speed of an intensifying screen is too FAST.
An incorrect measurement of body part thickness, or too short a focal distance from the x-ray tube to the patient can also overexpose a radiograph.
Poor centering of the primary x-ray beam causes image blurring or distortion.
Low milliampere-seconds causes a reduction in film density, resulting in a lighter radiograph.
For good tables that list common technical errors in taking and developing x-ray films, see Bassert and Thomas, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians 9th ed. p. 498, Boxes 16-2 and 16-3.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9thed. pp. 498-9.
464
What organism causes heartwater disease of cattle, sheep, and goats?
Ehrlichia Ruminntium.
Ehrlichia ruminantium is the organism responsible for heartwater disease of ruminants, a tick-borne foreign disease characterized by high fevers, lung edema, and hydropericardium. The causative organism was FORMERLY classified as Cowdria ruminantium.
Molecular testing has led to the reclassification of several organisms that cause infectious disease...
Equine granulocytic ehrlichiosis (EGE) was originally classified as Ehrlichia equi, but is now classified as Anaplasma phagocytophilum.
Potomac Horse Fever (PHF), formerly classified as Ehrlichia ristici, is now called Neorickettsia ristici.
Histophilus somni, the cause of thrombotic meningoencephalitis (TEME), was formerly called Haemophilus somnus. Follow this link to see a necropsy image of TEME.
Mannheimia haemolytica, a primary cause of pneumonic pasteurellosis, was formerly called Pasteurella hemolytica.
Refs: Smith, Van Metre, and Pusterla's Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed., pp. 1048-49.
Link: Overview of Heartwater.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/heartwater/overview-of-heartwater
Link: Equine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/equine-granulocytic-anaplasmosis/equine-granulocytic-anaplasmosis?redirectid=31747
Link: Potomac Horse Fever.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/infectious-diarrheal-diseases-in-horses/potomac-horse-fever?autoredirectid=19925
465
In what animals are the “fighting teeth” (i.e., upper and lower canines) routinely ground down as needed in intact males?
Answer: Llamas.
Llamas and alpacas have "fighting teeth", i.e., the upper 3rd incisor and upper and lower canine teeth, which can grow to over 3 cm in length and cause severe trauma. These are usually ground down or removed upon eruption at 18-24 months.
Anesthesia should be used for this procedure as it is quite painful. It must be repeated at intervals as these teeth continue to grow.
When only the tips are cut off, this can be done without anesthesia and may be performed by the breeder.
When the crown is removed, the root will be exposed. The stub of the crown can be covered with a gingival flap. However, this is not commonly done and complications are rarely seen.
The canine teeth can also be completely extracted under general anesthesia. This is a fairly extensive procedure and is not often performed.
Canine teeth in females are poorly developed. After castration, the canines of males will stop growing.
Ref: Fowler's Medicine and Surgery of South American Camelids, 3rd ed. pp. 134-56.
Link: Herd Health of Llamas and Alpacas
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/exotic-and-laboratory-animals/llamas-and-alpacas/herd-health-of-llamas-and-alpacas
Herd Health of Llamas and Alpacas
Neonatal Care
• Newborn Care: Stand within 15-45 minutes, nurse within 30-60 minutes. Healthy weight gain: 250-500 g/day for llamas, 100-250 g/day for alpacas.
• Common Issues: Choanal atresia, prematurity, failure of passive transfer of immunity. Requires intensive care and possibly plasma transfusions.
Parasite Control
• Common Parasites: Gastrointestinal nematodes, liver flukes, Haemonchus contortus.
• Management: Strategic deworming, fecal flotations, nontraditional parasite control methods.
Vaccination
• Common Vaccines: Clostridium perfringens type C and D, tetanus toxoid, rabies, West Nile virus, equine encephalitis viruses.
Routine Care
• Foot Care: Regular nail trimming, radiographs for overgrown feet.
• Shearing: Necessary before hot weather, care to avoid lacerations and burns.
466
What is the most likely process involving the first digit of this cat’s right front paw?
Traumatic
Neoplastic
Immune-mediated
Nutritional
Degenerative
The process is highly likely to be neoplastic. There is severe lysis of all of the bones of the first digit of the right manus, with nearly complete destruction of the metacarpal bone and proximal phalynx.
There is severe regional soft tissue swelling over the medial aspect of the right manus as well. The second metacarpal bone has thinning and irregularity of the cortex.
There is a transverse fracture in the mid diaphysis of the third metacarpal bone, the margins of the fractures are irregular and there is a moderate irregular periosteal proliferation present circumferentially around the fracture.
Click here to see normal feline carpus and foot radiographs.
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/feline/forelimb/carpus_foot/ex01/car-ft-01-f%20.html
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 4th ed. pp. 726-8. Radiographic interpretation and images courtesy, Dr A. Zwingenberger and Veterinary Radiology. Normal radiograph links courtesy, Imaging Anatomy Univ. of Illinois Vet Med.
Link: Bone Tumors in Dogs and Cats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/osteopathies-in-small-animals/bone-tumors-in-dogs-and-cats
Link: Veterinary Radiology - Sarcoma
http://mirc.veterinaryradiology.net/storage/ss1/docs/9999.57774252296894874239183665468552083016/MIRCdocument.xml
Link: Imaging Anatomy
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/index.html
467
An 11 year-old male neutered dog is presented with a 4 week history of worsening problems with urination. The dog appears to have abdominal pain and strains to urinate a small volume of reddish urine.
Urinalysis:
USp.G= 1.028 [N=1.016-1.060]
WBC 15-20/hpf
RBC +++
Protein +
Bacterial rods +++
A pneumosystogram radiograph looks like this
Which one of the following choices is the most likely underlying pathologic process?
Answer: Neoplasia.
This is likely to be neoplasia, specifically, a transitional cell carcinoma seen here in trigone of the bladder after pneumocystogram (air in bladder) and here after injection of contrast media.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4742460
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4742469
Hematuria, pollakiuria, abdominal pain and bacterial cystitis in an older dog may also suggest urolithiasis, but if stones were visible on radiograph, they would be less likely to sit in the trigone.
The most common form is struvite urolithiasis (generally radio-opaque), seen in 60% dogs, 90% cats.
Click here to see a radiograph of a cat with urolithiasis.
https://zukureview.com/images/Question%20images/feline_cystic_calculi_DrScotNachbar_med.jpg
Look for classic "staghorns" of renal calculi in the kidneys on DV rads.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4742505
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 3rd ed. pp. 1015-6, 1045-7 and Blackwell's 5-Minute Vet Consult Canine Feline, 4th ed. pp. 1384-5.
Link: Neoplasia of the Urinary System in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/urinary-system/noninfectious-diseases-of-the-urinary-system-in-small-animals/neoplasia-of-the-urinary-system-in-small-animals
Link: Urolithiasis in Small Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/urinary-system/noninfectious-diseases-of-the-urinary-system-in-small-animals/urolithiasis-in-small-animals
468
In which tissue would the organism that laid this off cause damage to a sheep or cow?
Skin
Abomasum
Liver
Lungs
Cecum
Answer: Liver.
If you look carefully at the upper end of this egg you can see a flattened area called the operculum, identifying this as a trematode fluke egg (of Fasciola hepatica). Flukes like Fasciola hepatica and Fascioloides magna cause liver damage to ruminants.
Click here to see post-mortem images of an adult fluke in a bile duct, multiple hypertrophied bile ducts, and encysted flukes in a deer liver.
https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/Category:Fasciola_hepatica
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/a/a2/F._hepatica_hypertrophia_of_bile_duct.jpg
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:F.magna_fibrous_capsule.JPG
Ref: Bowman and Georgi, Parasitology for Veterinarians, 9th ed. pp. 115-20. Image courtesy of Flukeman, Wikimedia commons.
Link: Fasciola hepatica in Ruminants
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/fluke-infections-in-ruminants/fasciola-hepatica-in-ruminants
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/zk/v4731785
Link: Fascioloides Magna
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fascioloides_magna
469
Which one of the following choices is a proven biologic vector of vesicular stomatitis virus?
Amblyomma americium (Lone Star tick)
Oribatid mites
Culex tarsalis (mosquito)
Ixodes scapularis (deer tick)
Lutzomya spp. (sand flies)
Answer: Lutzomya spp.
Lutzomyia spp. (sand flies) are proven biologic vectors of vesicular stomatitis virus in endemic areas.
Simulidae (black flies) are the most likely biologic insect vectors in the southwestern USA. Culicoides spp. can act as vectors as well. Culex tarsalis is an important vector of western equine encephalitis. Ixodes scapulars is a tick vector of Lyme disease, human babesiosis, and granulocytic ehrlichiosis. Amblyomma americanum is a tick vector for several diseases, including tularemia and southern tick-associated rash illness (STARI). STARI causes a rash similar to Lyme disease, but is generally less severe. Borrelia burgdorferi has occasionally been isolated from lone star ticks, but vector competency tests have shown that the ticks not likely to be able to transmit Lyme disease.
Oribatid mites are intermediate hosts for tapeworms in horses.
Refs: Smith, Large Animal Internal Medicine, 3rd ed. pp. 716-8, Vesicular Stomatitis handout, courtesy of the Center for Food Security and Public Health/USDA.
Link: Vesicular Stomatitis in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/horse-owners/disorders-affecting-multiple-body-systems-of-horses/vesicular-stomatitis-in-horses#v3274491
Link: Biting Midges
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/biting-midges
470
Which suction tip is used mostly for abdominal and thoracic surgeries and has an outer sleeve to prevent it form clogging with aspirated material?
Adson
Frazier
Yankauer
Poole
Answer: Poole.
The Poole tip has a protective outer sleeve that helps prevent it from clogging with tissue and fat. It is used primarily for abdominal and thoracic surgery.
Suction tips are connected to sterile suction tubing that is in turn attached to a mechanical vacuum. They are used to remove excess fluids during surgical procedures (e.g., bodily fluids or rinsing solutions).
The Frazier tip is most often used for neurologic and orthopedic surgeries, during which bleeding is not as severe as with abdominal surgeries.
The Yankauer tip is a multi-purpose tip that can be used in many situations. However. it does not have a protective sleeve so it can easily clog during aspiration.
The Adson tip is used in neurosurgery in humans.
To see a visual selection of surgical tools, including Balfour retractors, go to Dr. Brigitte Brisson's helpful website, Vet Surgery Online, hosted by the University of Guelph.
https://www.vetsurgeryonline.com/index.html
Link: Poole Suction Tube
https://www.integralife.com/poole-suction-tube/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-surgical-suction-tubes-poole-suction-tube
Link: Frazier Ferguson Suction Tube
https://www.integralife.com/frazier-ferguson-suction-tube/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-surgical-suction-tubes-frazier-ferguson-suction-tube
Link: Yankauer Suction Tube
https://www.integralife.com/yankauer-suction-tube/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-general-operating-suction-tubes-accessories-yankauer-suction-tube
Link: Adson Suction Tube
https://www.integralife.com/adson-suction-tube/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-neurosurgery-spine-suction-tubes-accessories-adson-suction-tube
Link: Surgical Instruments
https://www.vetsurgeryonline.com/other-instruments/
471
During which phase of anesthesia is the American Association of Anesthesiologists (ASA) classification for risk of adverse outcome assigned?
Preanesthetic
At the time the appointment is scheduled
Introduction
Maintenance
Recovery
Answer: Preanesthetic.
An anesthetist assigns the ASA status during the preanesthetic phase. This phase is also when the preanesthetic sedation and analgesics are chosen and administered. The patient's health status and stability before anesthesia determines the ASA physical status. ASA classifications range from I-V, from healthy/minimal risk to moribund/high risk (see below). An increase in ASA status increases the chances of anesthesia-related death.
ASA I - normal and healthy, minimal anesthetic risk
ASA I - mild systemic disease
ASA Ill - severe systemic disease
ASA IV - severe systemic life-threatening disease
ASA V - extreme anesthetic risk, patient may not survive without surgery
Any emergency is assigned an "E" in addition to the ASA classification. For example: A dog with gastric torsion admitted for emergency surgery would be ASA IV E.
The American Animal Hospital Association (AHA) provides these Guidelines for assignment of ASA status.
https://www.aaha.org/aaha-guidelines/2020-aaha-anesthesia-and-monitoring-guidelines-for-dogs-and-cats/phase-1-preanesthesia/
Here is a review by Dr. Phil Zeltzman covering How ASA Scores Help to Make Anesthesia Safer.
https://www.veterinarypracticenews.com/how-asa-scores-help-make-anesthesia-safer-for-your-pet-patients/
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth ed. p. 1011.
472
Which part of a cow’s digestive system has honeycomb appearance to the lining?
Rumen
Omasum
Abomasum
Reticulum
Answer: Reticulum.
The lining of the reticulum has a honeycomb appearance in cattle.
The proximity of the reticulum to the heart is important because sometimes cows indiscriminately eat pieces of baling wire or nails, which land in the reticulum and then puncture the reticulum and even the heart, causing traumatic reticuloperitonitis (hardware disease).
If you scroll down on the previous link, you can see a picture showing how close everything is anatomically-The esophagus empties food into the reticulum, which is adjacent to the diaphragm and the heart.
Ref: The Merck Veterinary Manual online edition.
Link: Traumatic Reticuloperitonitis in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-ruminant-forestomach/traumatic-reticuloperitonitis-in-cattle?autoredirectid=18721
473
Several minutes after a giving a routine vaccination to a four-month-old Weimaraner puppy, there is unchecked bleeding from the injection site. A coagulation profile shows the following: Thrombocytes= 258,534 per microliter.[N=200,000-900,000]. Buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT), increased. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), normal. Prothrombin time (PT), normal. Thrombin time (TT), normal. Fibrin degradation products (FDPs), normal. What is the diagnosis?
Chediak’-Higashi syndrome
Familial microvascular dysplasia
Pelger-Huet anomaly
Von Willebrand’s disease
Congenital Factor X deficiency
Answer: Von Willebrand’s disease.
Suspect von Willebrand's disease, in dogs with bleeding disorders, who have a lab pattern of normal platelet counts, and across the board normal coagulation tests (except for BMBT).
Von Willebrand's factor is needed for the first step in clot formation. Signs include gingival bleeding, epistaxis, and hematuria. Disease may go undetected in a puppy until an excessive bleeding episode after vaccination injection, venipuncture, or surgery (ie: tail docking, dewclaw removal).
Chediak'-Higashi syndrome, caused by a congenital platelet defect, can have this lab pattern, but does not occur in dogs. Associated with dilute hair color-think of smoke- blue Persian cats and beige mice.
Pelger-Huet anomaly (scroll down) is a white cell defect. Granulocytes, especially neutrophils are stuck in band form. A CBC shows an apparent left shift with a normal WBC count. Usually an incidental finding because cell function is normal.
Click here for an image of Pelger-Huet anomaly in a dog.
Follow this link to see a table of the four most important coagulation disorder patterns.
Ref: Blackwell's 5-Min. Vet Consult Canine-Feline, 4th ed. pp. 1436-67.
Link: Von Villebrand Disease in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/hemostatic-disorders/platelet-disorders-in-animals#v3258487
Link: Chédiak-Higashi Syndrome in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/hemostatic-disorders/platelet-disorders-in-animals#v3258495
Link: Pelger-Huet anomaly
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/leukocyte-disorders/leukogram-abnormalities-in-animals?autoredirectid=17110#v3258730
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v12762869
474
A two-day-old pup has a GGT level of 500 times the adult upper reference range. Which one of the following choices is the most likely interpretation?
Associated with neonatal cholestasis
Caused by traumatic placental detachment
Due to colostrum absorption
Suggestive of a congenital liver shunt
Related to bone development
Answer: Due to colostrum absorption.
Very high GGT levels are seen with colostrum absorption.
In newborn pups, lambs, and calves, an increase in GGT up to a 1000 times is normal when they receive high levels of colostrum from the dam.
High levels of GGT are produced in the mammary epithelium during lactation. When evaluating bloodwork, reference ranges specific for the age of the patient should be utilized.
Ref: Latimer, Mahaffey, Prasse, Duncan and Prasse's: Veterinary Laboratory Medicine 4th ed. pp. 193-214.
Link: Gamma-Glutamyl Transferase
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/hepatic-disease-in-small-animals/enzyme-activity-in-hepatic-disease-in-small-animals#v3267944
Link: Serum Enzyme Concentrations
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/hepatic-disease-in-large-animals/overview-of-hepatic-disease-in-large-animals#v3265330
475
Horses are typically about _____ year (s) old when they first have all of their permanent incisors.
3 years old
2 years old
1 year old
5 years old
7 years old
Answer: 5 years old.
Deciduous incisors erupt in foals at approximately 1 week, 6 weeks, and 6 months (01, 02, and _03, respectively, numbered by modified Triadan system).
Permanent incisors erupt at approximately 2.5, 3.5, and 4.5 years (_01,_02, and_03, respectively).
Refs: Guide for Determining the Age of the Horse, American Association of Equine Practitioners, Lexington, KY, 2002.
Link: Dental Development in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/dental-development-and-anatomy/dental-development-in-animals/?autoredirectid=556&autoredirectid=14174
Dental Development in Animals
Concepts
Odontogenesis, or tooth development, starts in early embryonic stages and involves the formation of teeth from ectodermal and mesenchymal tissues.
Etiology
• Genetics: Determines size, shape, and location of teeth.
• Environmental Factors: Trauma, metabolic, chemical, or infectious agents can affect dental development.
Stages of Development
1. Initiation: Formation of dental lamina at 25 days of gestation in dogs.
2. Bud Stage: Initial development of tooth buds.
3. Cap Stage: Formation of enamel organ, dental papilla, and follicle.
4. Bell Stage: Differentiation of cells forming enamel, dentin, pulp, cementum, alveolar bone, and periodontal ligament.
Tooth Types and Development
• Deciduous Teeth: Develop first, calcification begins at day 55 of gestation.
• Permanent Teeth: Develop from successional lamina, except for first premolars and molars which develop directly from dental lamina.
• Root Formation: Starts after crown development, influenced by the dental papilla.
Diagnostic Methods
• Imaging: Radiographs to evaluate developmental stages and detect anomalies.
• Histopathology: Examination of dental tissues for genetic anomalies like dentinogenesis imperfecta and amelogenesis imperfecta.
Pathological Findings and Diseases
1. Enamel Hypoplasia: Incomplete or defective enamel formation.
2. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta: Genetic disorder affecting dentin.
3. Amelogenesis Imperfecta: Genetic disorder affecting enamel.
Treatments
• Preventive Care: Regular dental check-ups to monitor development.
• Surgical Intervention: Corrective surgeries for severe malformations.
• Restorative Procedures: Addressing defects in enamel or dentin.
Species Differences
• Dogs and Cats: Have similar developmental stages but differ in timing and sequence of tooth eruption.
• Horses and Cattle: Exhibit continuous tooth growth and wear patterns unique to herbivores.
476
You have just taken an x-ray of a dog at 10 milliampere-second (mAs) form 100 cm away. Now you need to reposition the dog and take another x-ray form 50cm. What mAs setting should you use to get a similar exposure to the first x-ray?
20mAs
5 mAs
2.5 mAs
10 mAs
Answer: 2.5 mAs
A decrease in distance between the film and the x-ray source INCREASES the x-ray intensity.
If you halve the distance between an x-ray source and the film, you must decrease the mAs to 1/4th in order have a similar exposure.
So, halving the distance (from 100cm to 50cm) means the mAs must equal 2.5 (one quarter the original mAs).
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9thed. pp. 487-9.
477
There is a concern that recumbent patients will develop atelectasis. Which of the following is recommended to help prevent atelectasis and possible progression to hypostatic pneumonia?
Restrain animal to keep movements to a minimum
Give dextromethorphan for the cough
Administer a sedative to relieve pain of respiration
Initiate supplemental oxygen
Re-position patient every hour
Answer: Re-position patient every hour.
Reposition animals hourly to minimize risk of atelectasis and hypostatic pneumonia.
Passive, or hypostatic, pneumonia occurs in older or debilitated animals who are recumbent for long periods and have trouble getting up.
Lack of movement allows fluids to accumulate in the lungs which may lead to dyspnea, cyanosis, and a wet, productive cough.
If the patient is able to exercise, movement will help them recover.
Dextromethorphan is an antitussive (cough suppressant). Patients with hypostatic pneumonia need to cough to help clear their lungs so this would be contraindicated.
Sedating or restraining an animal with hypostatic pneumonia will discourage movement, which is also contraindictated.
Refs: For a review clinical signs associated with respiratory disease, see McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Vet Techs, 9th ed. pp. 639-42.
For a review of pneumonia, see the Merck Vet Manual, Pneumonia in small animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/respiratory-system/respiratory-diseases-of-small-animals/pneumonia-in-dogs-and-cats?autoredirectid=17857
478
A schizont is part of the life cycle of which one of the following organisms?
Dipterans
Trematodes
Coccidia
Trypanosomes
Cestodes
Answer: Coccidia.
Coccidia have schizonts-multi-nucleated structures that are part of the asexual reproductive cycle.
An infective oocyst ingested from the environment releases sporozoites. These invade a cell in the large intestine, enlarge, and become multi-nucleated.
This enlarged multi-nucleated cell is the schizont. Each nucleus becomes the next stage, called a merozoite.
Merozoites are released into the intestinal lumen, invade another intestinal cell, and then reproduce sexually to produce more oocysts.
Thousands of oocysts are produced via this two part life cycle and released into the environment in the feces.
Ref: Bassert and Thomas, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth ed. p. 436.
479
Which drug can be used to induce vomiting in cats?
Ketamine
Meperidine
Diazepam
Xylazine
Famotidine
Answer: Xylazine.
Xylazine is used as an EMETIC in CATS, causes vomiting.
Three things to remember about xylazine:
1. Cattle are EXTREMELY SENSITIVE to xylazine. For example, cattle need only 1/10th the dose of xylazine used in horses.
2. Reversed with yohimbine, atipamezole, or tolazoline.
3. Pretreatment with Atropine can decrease bradycardia, hypersalivation seen with xylazine in cattle.
Two ANTI-emetics in cats are diphenhydramine (Benadryl®), and metoclopramide.
Refs: Papich, Saunders Handbook of Vet Drugs, 4th ed., Xylazine, Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth ed., p.1017.
480
What is freemartin?
Bird species associated with histoplasmosis in farm animals
Offspring of a mule and a horse
Sterile female calf, born twin to a male
Unrelated female ferret that cares for babies while mother hunts
Ram used to bring ewes into estrus at same time
Freemartins are sterile female calves which are born twin to a male. Occurs in roughly 90% of mixed twin calvings.
Answer: Sterile female calf, born twin to a male.
THINK SMALL: May have small vulva, small stature. Look for a short vagina, no cervix, anestrus. On rectal feel HYPOPLASIA of uterus (small). Can sometimes detect 2 bloodtypes in a single animal.
Freemartins should be culled upon identification.
Ref: Smith, Van Metre, and Pusterla's Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed. p. 1317.
Link: Intersex Conditions of Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/congenital-and-inherited-anomalies-of-the-reproductive-system/intersex-conditions-of-animals?redirectid=3162?ruleredirectid=30
481
A teenager brings in a wild fox he found with a mouth full of porcupine quills. What is the best course of action?
Tranquilize, then euthanize
Anesthetize, then remove quills
Report to health authorities
Hospitalize, intravenous antibiotics, quill extraction
Refer to local wildlife rehabilitation
Answer: Report to health authorities.
The preferred answer is to REPORT to health authorities (also isolate the animal. alert
client of possible rabies exposure).
A fox with porcupine quills = RABIES until proven otherwise. Foxes do NOT normally attack porcupines (only dogs appear to be dumb enough to do this...).
What is the client doing with a fox anyway? Foxes do not normally allow themselves to be captured.
Ref: Merck Veterinary Manual online edition.
Link: Rabies
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/rabies/rabies
482
What is the purpose of a ronguer?
Opens a hole for an arthroscope
To help remove teeth
Break up, remove bone
Lifts muscle off bone
Lifts uterine horn out of abdomen
Answer: Break up, remove bone.
A rongeur is used to break up and remove bone.
They may look like heavy-duty needle holders, but the inside of each half of the nose is scooped out and has sharp edges for biting away chunks of bone.
A trocar opens a hole for an arthroscope.
A periosteal elevator lifts muscle off bone.
A spay hook lifts the uterine horn out of abdomen.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gthed. p. 1074.
Link: Adson Rongeur
https://www.integralife.com/adson-rongeur/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-orthopedic-rongeurs-adson-rongeur
483
The vet has asked you to prepare for a perianal urethrostomy surgery on a four-year-old male cat. What kind of problem does the cat most likely have to necessitate this surgery?
Kidney failure
Infertility
Bladder tumor
Urolithiasis
Undescended testicle
Answer: Urolithiasis.
A perineal urethrostomy is a surgery to make an opening in the urethra at the perineum (skin between anus and genitals) of a blocked male cat with urolithiasis (bladder stones and crystals) so that he can urinate.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gthed. pp. 1169.
Link: Urinary Obstruction in Male Cats
https://www.acvs.org/small-animal/urinary-obstruction-cats
Link: Urolithiasis in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/urinary-system/noninfectious-diseases-of-the-urinary-system-in-small-animals/urolithiasis-in-small-animals
484
A 5-year-o;d male neutered pit bull terrier that lives pimarily outdoors in southern Florida is presented with an acute onset of inappetence, vomiting, ataxia and seizures. The dog has a prior history of dietary indiscretion. Physical examination reveals pink but icteric mucous membranes and dull mentation. Labwork results reveal severe elevations in ALT, ALP, total bilirubin and pre- and post-bile acids. The presumptive diagnosis is hepatotoxin ingestion based on the patient’s history of indiscriminant eating. Which one of the following plants may cause hepatotoxicity if ingested?
Marijuana
Foxglove
Sago palm
Yew
Oleander
Answer: Sago Palm.
Sago palm ingestion causes acute hepatic necrosis. Sago palm is highly lethal.
Click here for an image of a sago palm tree.
https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Cycas_Sago.palm.arp.750pix.jpg
Typical clinical signs include hepatic encephalopathy, seizures, and hemorrhagic gastroenteritis.
Marijuana causes prolonged sedation, hypotension, bradycardia, hypothermia, and mydriasis.
Hyperexcitability may occur. It is rarely lethal.
Foxglove and oleander are cardiac glycosides.
Cardiac arrhythmias, lethargy, Gl upset, and hyperkalemia may occur. Both are highly lethal.
Yew may cause vomiting, diarrhea, hypotension, bradycardia, tremors, and seizures. It I potentially lethal.
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 3rd ed. pp. 808-809, Merck Veterinary Manual online edition, and the Animal Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals online.
Link: Hepatotoxins in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/hepatic-disease-in-small-animals/hepatotoxins-in-small-animals
Link: Marijuana. Toxicities form Illicit and Abused Drugs
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/toxicities-from-human-drugs/toxicities-from-illicit-and-abused-drugs#v3353174
Link: Houseplants and Onamentals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/poisonous-plants/houseplants-and-ornamentals#v4742123
Link: Range Plants of Temperate
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/poisonous-plants/range-plants-of-temperate-north-america#v4741862
485
Where is a preliminary TB screening test performed on a cow?
Cervical skin
Caudo-dorsal to eye
Left ear base
Caudal tain fold
Caudal udder skin
Answer: Caudal tain fold.
Confirmatory test is the Comparative Cervical Test (CCT), done on the neck skin only AFTER a positive CFT.
Refs: Pasquini's Guide to Bov Clin, 4 th ed. p. 70.
Link: Overview of Tuberculosis and other Mycobacterial Infections
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/tuberculosis-and-other-mycobacterial-infections/overview-of-tuberculosis-and-other-mycobacterial-infections
486
Which stain best highlights reticulocytes on a blood smear?
Diff-Quick
Romanowsky stain
Gram stain
Warthin-Starry stain
New methylene blue
Answer: New methylene blue.
When you stain blood with new methylene blue (NMB), immature, polychromatophilic red blood cells (RBCs) show up under the microscope as "reticulocytes."
Normal RBCs show up yellowish with NMB stain, but immature RBCs show up with bluish dots or clumps inside (that's the RNA).
Click here to see how "reticulocytes" got their name (i.e., the reticulated giraffe).
https://zukureview.com/sites/default/files/reticgiraffe.jpg
Immature RBCs are polychromatophilic (usually they stain a darker blue than normal RBCs) on routine Romanowsky-based polychrome stains (e.g., Wright's, DiffQuik).
Increased polychromasia SUGGESTS a regenerative anemia, but you need a reticulocyte count to confirm it.
Reticulocyte counts are usually expressed as the # of retics per 1000 RBCs.
Reticulocytes can be punctate (mature) or aggregate (immature), based on how the RNA stains. This is relevant in cats, in which punctate retics can persist in circulation for 7-10 days. Therefore, in cats, only count aggregate retics to accurately interpret regenerative status. In other species, both types can be counted because they have similar half-lives.
Refs: Bassert and Thomas, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 8th ed. p. 411, F 12-12 and Cornell's eclinpath site.
487
What is considered to be most accurate red blood cell (RBC) index?
MCHC
Buffy coat volume
MCV
MCH
RBC count
Answer: MCHC.
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is considered to be the most accurate.
A red blood cell (RBC) INDEX is calculated from red blood cell measures like erythrocyte counts, packed cell volume (PCV, %) and hemoglobin concentration (Hb, g/dI).
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is considered the most accurate BC index because it is calculated using PCV (%) which is more accurate than calculations that rely on the less accurate BC count (like the mean cell hemoglobin (MCH) calculation, for example).
Two things to remember about red cell measurements:
1. Normal animal Hb is about one third the PCV. So, if a cat has a PCV of 30 %, then the Hb will be roughly 10 g/dI.
2. Electronic cell counters are usually used to get a red cell count, but results from these machines are affected by blood that is lipemic (fatty, especially common after a meal), hemolyzed, or contains RBCs with too many Heinz bodies.
Click here for more information on interpretation of the erythrogram on Cornell’s eClinPath website.
https://eclinpath.com/hematology/hemogram-basics/erythrogram/
Follow this link to see Small and large Animal reference values.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/special-subjects/reference-guides
Refs: Bassert and Thomas, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 8th ed. p. 400 and Tighe & Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Vet Techs, 3rd ed. p. 46.
Link: Clinical Hematology
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/clinical-pathology-and-procedures/diagnostic-procedures-for-the-private-practice-laboratory/clinical-hematology
Link: Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mean_corpuscular_hemoglobin_concentration
488
What is the most common cause of lymphocytic - plasmocytic stomatitis in cats?
Immune-mediated
Viral exposure
Uremic toxicosis
Foreign body
Reaction to a drug
Answer: Immune-mediated.
Lymphocytic-plasmacytic stomatitis in cats is most often immune-mediated. Cats’ immune systems may overreact to plaque accumulation.
While many cats with this disorder do shed herpesvirus and calicivirus, they are not thought to be causative. The other answers listed can cause stomatitis, but not as commonly.
Therapy may include increased home care and frequent dental cleanings, immunosuppressive therapy, or full-mouth tooth extraction.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed., p. 1263.
Link: Oral Infamllatory and Ulcerative Disease in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-mouth-in-small-animals/oral-inflammatory-and-ulcerative-disease-in-small-animals
489
What is the most common cause of lymphocytic - plasmocytic stomatitis in cats?
Immune-mediated
Viral exposure
Uremic toxicosis
Foreign body
Reaction to a drug
Answer: Immune-mediated.
Lymphocytic-plasmacytic stomatitis in cats is most often immune-mediated. Cats’ immune systems may overreact to plaque accumulation.
While many cats with this disorder do shed herpesvirus and calicivirus, they are not thought to be causative. The other answers listed can cause stomatitis, but not as commonly.
Therapy may include increased home care and frequent dental cleanings, immunosuppressive therapy, or full-mouth tooth extraction.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed., p. 1263.
Link: Oral Infamllatory and Ulcerative Disease in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-mouth-in-small-animals/oral-inflammatory-and-ulcerative-disease-in-small-animals
490
An adult Alpine dairy goat is presented with a 2-month history of worsening lameness and decreased mil production since parturition. The goat is in poor body condition with a rough hair coat and a swollen hock on the left. What condition is the most likely presumptive diagnosis?
Caprine arthritis and encephalitis
Maedi-Visna disease
Peste des petits ruminants
Mycoplasma capricolum polyarthyritis
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae infection
Answer: Caprine arthritis and encephalitis.
This is a classic description of caprine arthritis and encephalitis (CAE) in an adult goat - progressive lameness, hard udder/agalactia at parturition, low milk production, swollen carpi. With chronicity, may see an interstitial pneumonia in some, but LAMENESS is the hallmark sign of CAE in adult goats.
Less common in kids, but they present with progressive paresis (leukoencephalomyelitis).
Refs: Smith and Sherman, Goat Medicine 1st ed. pp. 73-7.
Link: Caprine Arthritis and Encephalitis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/caprine-arthritis-and-encephalitis/caprine-arthritis-and-encephalitis
491
Which one of the following is the treatment of choice for a 3-cm diameter infected umbilical hernia in a calf?
Administration of broad spectrum antimicrobials and banding of the hernia sac
Surgical repair and antimicrobials
Repeated reduction of the hernia sac
Placement of a belly bandage/wrap to hold hernia sac contents in place for several weeks
Injection of iodine subcutaneously around the hernia ring
Answer: Surgical repair and antimicrobials.
Surgical repair with resection of infected structures and antimicrobials is the treatment of choice for umbilical hernias in the calf. Umbilical hernias are a common finding in neonatal calves, and they are frequently associated with umbilical abscessation.
Easily reducible masses are typically uninfected, while infected masses may be difficult to reduce and accompanied by other clinical signs such as heat in the area, drainage, fever, inappetance, and ill thrift. Uncomplicated, easily reducible hernias are more common in Holsteins and may be heritable.
It is possible to have infected umbilical remnants while the exterior umbilical structures appear completely normal, and deep palpation, ultrasound, and/or bloodwork may be necessary to rule out occult infections.
Click here to see a good summary on umbilical masses and hernias in calves, with images, courtesy of the American College of Veterinary Surgeons (ACVS).
https://www.acvs.org/large-animal/umbilical-masses-calves
Refs: Smith, Large Animal Internal Medicine, 4th ed. p. 364.
Link: Hernias.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/congenital-and-inherited-anomalies-of-the-digestive-system/hernias
492
Which of the following drugs in a human oral hypoglycemic agent sometimes used in combination with dietary therapy when owners cannot give insulin to a cat with diabetes mellitus?
Fomepizole
Azathioprina
Amitryptyline HCL
Glipizide
Perfolide mesylaste
Answer: Glipizide.
Sulfonylureas such as glipizide promote insulin secretion from the pancreas. Glipizide is occasionally used in with dietary therapy to manage cats with uncomplicated type 2 diabetes mellitus and no history of ketoacidosis, however, this is rare.
Glipizide is not a substitute for insulin therapy. It is recommended only when owners cannot give insulin injections and/or may be considering euthanasia. However, it should be noted that diabetes control in cats is typically poor without injectable insulin.
Amitryptyline HCL is a tricyclic antidepressant used for behavior disorders like self mutilation, neuropathic pruritus.
Azathioprine is an immunosuppressive agent used in DOGS with immune-mediated diseases, but is usually NOT USED in cats because they are very sensitive to bone marrow suppressive effects.
Fomepizole (4-MP) is used to treat ethylene glycol toxicity primarily in DOGS, but appears to be effective in cats if used at higher dosages.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/ethylene-glycol-toxicosis/ethylene-glycol-toxicosis-in-animals?autoredirectid=17115
Refs: Cohn and Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 4th ed. pp. 252-3, AHA Diabetes Guidelines 2018 for dogs and cats (PDF) and AHA Guidelines webpage.
https://www.aaha.org/aaha-guidelines/diabetes-management/diabetes-management-home/
https://www.aaha.org/aaha-guidelines/what-are-aaha-guidelines/
Connally HE, et al. 2010. Safety and Efficacy of High-dose Fomepizole Compared with Ethanol Therapy for Ethylene Glycol Intoxication in Cats. J Vet Emerg and Crit Care; 20(2): 191-206.
Link: Diabetes Mellitus in Dogs and Cats.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/endocrine-system/the-pancreas/diabetes-mellitus-in-dogs-and-cats
493
Which reportable condition mainly causes disease in pigs and cattle, but not horses?
Vesicular stomatitis
Foot and mouth diseases (FMD)
Rinderpest
Bluetongue
Anthrax
Answer: Foot and mouth disease (FMD)
Foot and mouth disease (FMD) mainly affects pigs and cattle.
Rinderpest mainly affects one species: cattle.
In 2011, the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) officially declared that rinderpest was eradicated globally. But because it is a classic, severe, reportable, stomatitis-type disease, it’s unlikely that vets will be allowed to forget rinderpest on DDXs for years.
Bluetongue mainly affects one species: almost exclusively a sheep disease (but cattle and deer can get it).
Look for anthrax mainly in two species: cattle, sheep. Can occur in horse, goat. See rarely in pigs, humans.
Vesicular stomatitis (VS) can occur in three species: horses, pigs, cows.
Ref: Smith, Van Metre, and Pusterla's Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed., pp. 834- 36.
Link: Foot-and-Mouth Disease in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/foot-and-mouth-disease/foot-and-mouth-disease-in-animals?autoredirectid=14225
Link: Rinderpest
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/rinderpest/rinderpest?redirectid=29132
Link: Bluetongue in Ruminants
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/bluetongue/bluetongue-in-ruminants?autoredirectid=17866
Link: Overview of Anthrax
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/anthrax/overview-of-anthrax
Link: Vesicular Stomatitis in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/horse-owners/disorders-affecting-multiple-body-systems-of-horses/vesicular-stomatitis-in-horses
494
Which suture material is made of polypropylene (i.e., just like synthetic long underwear)?
Dexon
Prolene
Monolene
PDS
Vicryl
Answer: Prolene.
Prolene® is made of polypropylene (notice how the names sound the same?).
Dexon® is made of polyglycolic acid. Polyglactin acid is Vicry|®. Polydioxanone is PDS®.
It is more important and useful to remember the big names, and whether they are:
ABSORBABLE sutures (Dexon®, Maxon®, Vicry|®, PDS®, catgut) or NONabsorbable sutures (nonsynthetics: silk, steel wire and synthetics: Prolene®, Ethilon®, Vetafil®).
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gthed. p. 1130 and Tighe & Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Vet Techs, 4th ed. pp. 506-507.
495
Which choice describes excessive growth of granulation tissue around a healing wound?
Ulceroproliferative faucitis
Proud flesh
Suspensory desmitis
Villonodular synovitis
Hygroma
Answer: Proud flesh.
Proud flesh is excessive growth of cauliflower-like granulation tissue around a healing wound. Especially common with lower-leg wounds in horses.
A hygroma is inflammation of an acquired bursa that develops where normally there is no bursa due to trauma to the dorsum of the carpus.
Villonodular synovitis is an inflammation of the synovial membrane of the dorsoproximal aspect of the forelimb fetlock joints.
Ulceroproliferative faucitis is a progressively worsening gingivitis and stomatitis in cats.
The glossopalatine arches (fauces) often have severely ulcerated, friable, inflamed, and proliferative lesions.
Click here to see a cat with ulceroproliferative faucitis.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4732199
Refs: Auer and Stick, Equine Surgery, 5th edition and Equaide current cases online, and Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gthed, p. 938.
Link: Hygroma in dogs
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/hygroma/hygroma-in-dogs?redirectid=27899
Link: Chronic Proliferative Synovitis in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-horses/chronic-proliferative-synovitis-in-horses
Link: Oral Inflammatory and Ulcerative Disease in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-mouth-in-small-animals/oral-inflammatory-and-ulcerative-disease-in-small-animals
https://equaide.com
496
A cow is presented on emergency with urea/non-protein nitrogen toxicity. What is the treatment of choice?
Rumenotomy
Rumenal infusion 2-8 liters vinegar, 3-10 gallons cold water
Atropine, protopam chloride IV q 4-6 hours
Relieve bloat, drench with 2-8 litres sodium bicarbonate
IV fluids with MgSO4, Na thiosulfate PO
Answer: Rumenal infusion 2-8 litres vinegar, 3-10 gallons cold water.
Treat urea/non-protein nitrogen (NPN) toxicity with a ruminal infusion 2-8 liters 5% acetic acid (vinegar) and 3-10 gallons of cold water.
The vinegar decreases ruminal pH which slows absorption of unionized ammonia.
Repeat Q 6 hours up to 48 hours. Best results if animal is still ambulatory.
It is often impossible to treat these cases before they die because of rapid progression to death. If possible,Tx with IV fluids. If necessary, relieve bloat.
Urea/NPN toxicity is related to ammoniated feed toxicity which causes so-called “bovine bonkers"
Manage ammoniated feed toxicity by removing the ammoniated feed and treating severe cases with anticonvulsants like diazepam, pentobarbital sodium.
Ref: Smith I arge Animal Internal Medicine 6th ed n 1059
Link: Nonprotein Nitrogen Poisoning in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/nonprotein-nitrogen-poisoning/nonprotein-nitrogen-poisoning-in-animals?autoredirectid=14439
497
There are 5 steps along the pain pathway necessary to alert the patient to a painful stimulus. Which of the following is the first step, that takes place at the most peripheral pain receptors?
Projection
Transduction
Modulation
Transmission
Perception
Answer: Transduction.
Transduction is the conversion of a stimulus, usually mechanical, thermal, or chemical, into an electrical signal by pain receptors located on nerve endings in the skin, subcutaneous tissues, viscera, etc. The electrical impulse is transmitted via afferent sensory nerves to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord.
Response to the painful stimulus is directed here when appropriate, e.g., a withdrawl reflex. It is also amplified, facilitated and/or suppressed here (modulation). The signal is then projected to higher centers, usually via the spinothalamic or the spinoreticular tracts. Further modulation occurs in the thalamus, reticular formation, and limbic system.
Finally, it reaches the cerebral cortex, where the perception occurs, and physical and emotional responses are produced.
An introduction to pain pathways and mechanisms by Danielle R, Curran N and Stephens R, from University College London Hospital, UK.
Lamont LA, DVM, Tranquilli WJ, & Grimm KA. 2000. Physiology Of Pain. Vet Clinics of NA: Small Animal Practice;30(4): 703-28.
Refs: Gaynor & Muir Handbook of Vet Pain Mgt 2nd ed. pp. 17-9, Greene, Vet Anes and
Pain Mgt Secrets pp. 335-7.
Link: Pain Perception
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/pain-assessment-and-management/pain-perception
498
What are the fabellae and where could you find them in a dog?
Paired diverticula, frontal sinus
Connective tissue bands between incus & stapes, inner ear
Corniculate processes of arytenoid cartilage, larynx
Rostral bones, nasal plant
Sesamoid bones, gastrocnemius muscle
Answer: Sesamoid bones, gastrocnemius muscle.
The fabellae are a pair of sesamoid bones found embedded in the tendons of origin of the heads of the gastrocnemius muscles.
Follow these links to see canine stifle radiographs which show the fabellae caudally on a lateral view, and fabellae on ventrodorsal view superimposed medially and laterally adjacent to the distal femoral head.
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/canine/hindlimb/stifle/ex01/stifle01.html
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/canine/hindlimb/stifle/ex01/c0231_Canvas.html
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/canine/hindlimb/stifle/ex01/c0232_Canvas.html
There is a rostral bone in the nasal planum of the pig, which aids them in rooting through soil for food.
Refs: Pasquini & Spurgeon's Anatomy Dom An 11th ed. pp. 52, 190, 305. Radiographic image links courtesy, University of Illinois Veterinary Imaging Anatomy website (an excellent resource).
Link: Imaging Anatomy
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/index.html
499
A cat is presented depressed and tachypneic with cyanotic mucous membranes after receiving paediatric acetaminophen three times over the past 24 hours. Blood drawn for a CBC and biochemical analysis is brown. Which one of the following choices is the most likely the cause of the brown - colored blood?
Heinz bodies
Methemoglobinemia
Hemoglobinemia
Carboxyhemoglobinemia
Immune-mediated hemolysis
Answer: Methemoglobinemia.
Methemoglobinemia. This is a classic history and clinical picture of feline acetaminophen toxicity one of the most common cat toxicities.
Clinically, you can see methemoglobinemia (brown blood), methemoglobinuria (brown urine), and a Heinz body anemia.
Click here to see more information on Heinz body anemia at Cornell's eClinPath website.
Ref: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 4th ed. pp. 10-12.
Link: Analgesics toxicity (Acetaminophen)
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/toxicities-from-human-drugs/analgesics-toxicity#v3352833
Link: Incusions
https://eclinpath.com/hematology/morphologic-features/red-blood-cells/rbc-inclusions/
Analgesics Toxicity in Animals
Concepts
• Analgesics: Pain-relief medications including NSAIDs (Ibuprofen, Naproxen) and Acetaminophen.
Medications and Dosages
• Ibuprofen
• Normal Dose: Not recommended for animals.
• Toxic Dose: >25 mg/kg in dogs, highly toxic to cats.
• Naproxen
• Normal Dose: Not recommended for animals.
• Toxic Dose: >5 mg/kg in dogs, extremely toxic to cats.
• Acetaminophen
• Normal Dose: 10-15 mg/kg (dogs), not recommended for cats.
• Toxic Dose: >150 mg/kg in dogs, >50 mg/kg in cats.
Symptoms and Pathogenesis
• NSAIDs: GI irritation, ulceration, renal failure.
• Dogs: Vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, renal damage.
• Cats: Severe GI and renal toxicity at lower doses.
• Acetaminophen: Methemoglobinemia, hepatotoxicity.
• Dogs: Liver injury, cyanosis.
• Cats: Severe methemoglobinemia, Heinz body anemia.
Diagnostic Methods
• History and Clinical Signs: Exposure to analgesics, vomiting, lethargy.
• Laboratory Tests: Blood tests for liver and kidney function, methemoglobin levels.
Treatments
• Decontamination: Induce vomiting, activated charcoal.
• Supportive Care: IV fluids, oxygen therapy.
• Specific Antidotes:
• NSAIDs: H2-receptor antagonists, proton-pump inhibitors.
• Acetaminophen: N-acetylcysteine, ascorbic acid.
Complications
• Clinical Changes: Persistent GI ulceration, renal failure.
• Diagnostic Findings: Elevated liver enzymes, azotemia, hyperkalemia.
• Pathological Findings: GI ulceration, hepatic necrosis, renal tubular necrosis.
Mechanisms of Action and Toxic Effects of Analgesics in Animals
Mechanisms of Action
• NSAIDs (Ibuprofen, Naproxen):
• Inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes (COX-1 and COX-2).
• Reduce prostaglandin synthesis, decreasing inflammation and pain.
• Acetaminophen:
• Inhibits COX enzymes centrally, altering pain perception and reducing fever.
Toxic Effects (Pathophysiology)
• NSAIDs:
• Toxicity: Overdose leads to excessive COX inhibition, disrupting protective gastric mucosal barriers and renal blood flow.
• Consequences: Gastric ulceration, renal ischemia, and failure.
• Acetaminophen:
• Toxicity: Metabolized in the liver to toxic metabolites (NAPQI).
• Consequences: Oxidative damage to red blood cells (methemoglobinemia), hepatic necrosis, and liver failure.
Why They Are Toxic
• Species Sensitivity: Cats lack efficient glucuronidation pathways, making them highly susceptible.
• Overdose: Exceeds metabolic capacity, leading to accumulation of toxic metabolites.
• Physiological Effects: Disruption of homeostatic processes leading to organ damage and failure.
500
What angle should be AVOIDED when using a magnetostrictive ultrasound scaler to prevent tooth damage?
Tooth surface contact is important, not the angle
45o
180o
90o
Parallel
Answer: 90 degrees.
A magnetostrictive scaler can damage the tooth enamel if it is directed at a 90° angle (perpendicular to the tooth like a "T") because the highest power dispersal is on the very tip.
The back and the side surfaces of the scaler have the lowest power dispersal and are used most often for ultrasonic scaling.
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth ed. p. 1240.
501
Which of the following choices correctly defines “dosimetry”?
The rate of decay of a radionuclide
The quantity of ionizing radiation produced by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
A measurement of personal radiation exposure
The magnitude of energy produced by an x-ray beam
The amount of scatter radiation emitted per radiograph taken
Answer: Dosimetry is a measurement of personal radiation exposure.
All personnel exposed to ionizing radiation (e.g. x-rays, computed tomography) should wear a personal dosimeter to measure an individual's radiation exposure.
The maximum permissible dose (MPD) is the maximum dose of radiation an individual is allowed to receive over a given time period.
The MPD for occupational exposure is 0.05 Sv (Sievert) per year. Exposure to levels greater than the MPD can cause physical effects (e.g., cancer, cataracts) from radiation exposure.
Note: Unlike radiography and computed tomography, MRI does NOT produce ionizing radiation.
Refs: Bassert, Beal, and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 10th ed., pp. 462-4.
Link: Radiation Safety During Diagnostic Imaging in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/clinical-pathology-and-procedures/diagnostic-imaging/radiography-of-animals?redirectid=4195?ruleredirectid=30#v3298731
Link: Radiation and Your Health
https://www.cdc.gov/nceh/radiation/alara.html
502
A two-year-old intact female ferret is presented for a swollen vulva. Physical exam reveals extremely pale skin and mucous membranes.
What is the top differential diagnosis?
Hyperestrogenism
Extremely pale skin and a swollen vulva in an intact female ferret is estrus-induced aplastic anemia (also known as hyperestrogenism) until proven otherwise. The majority of ferrets are spayed or neutered before six weeks because females are induced ovulators and can develop severe hyperestrogenism if not bred.
Insulinomas are common in ferrets two to three years of age. Look for weakness, lethargy, posterior paresis, drooling, teeth-grinding, and seizures (due to severe hypoglycemia).
The most common clinical sign of hyperadrenocorticism (HAC) is alopecia beginning on tail/rump, progressing flank and head. In females, may see a swollen vulva in spayed animals or [less commonly] enlarged mammillae in intact females. Males become aggressive and develop stranguria secondary to prostatic enlargement.
With HAC, enlarged adrenal glands are often palpable cranial to kidneys. HAC can also cause hyperestrogenism and bone marrow suppression.
May be more appropriate to refer to this disease in ferrets as "adrenocortical disease" rather than "hyperadrenocorticism" since pathogenesis and clinical signs are different than hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's disease) in dogs.
Aleutian disease causes an immune-complex glomerulonephritis and arteritis (seen more in MINK).
Link: Management of Ferrets.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/exotic-and-laboratory-animals/ferrets/management-of-ferrets
Link: Endocrine Disorders of Ferrets.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/exotic-and-laboratory-animals/ferrets/endocrine-disorders-of-ferrets
Link: Viral Diseases of Mink.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/exotic-and-laboratory-animals/mink/viral-diseases-of-mink
503
What does a Kussmaul breathing pattern (i.e., a deep, labored respiratory pattern) most often indicate?
Answer: Metabolic Acidosis
Kussmaul breathing (deep, labored) most often indicates respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis. CO2 is also an acid, and this respiratory type helps to blow off excess CO2, bringing the pH back closer to normal.
Cheyne-Stokes breathing (i.e., alternating tachypnea and bradypnea) occurs most often as a result of abnormal CO2 regulation associated with increased intracranial pressure.
Bradypnea (i.e., decreased respiratory rate) can also be due to increased intracranial pressure.
Restrictive breathing (e.g, fast, shallow breaths) typically indicates pleural space disease (e.g, pleural effusion) or rib fractures.
Hypoxemia and shock both usually result in tachypnea in the absence of other factors that affect the breathing pattern.
504
It is July in Louisiana. An adult male neutered barn cat with exposure to horses is presented for a one-week history of left pelvic limb lameness. Exam reveals a wound on the lateral aspect of the left thigh. An image is shown below. What is the diagnosis?
Facultative myasis.
This is an example of facultative myiasis. Myiasis is the infestation of live animals with the larvae of dipteran flies. Facultative means that the larvae (maggots) are free-living but can invade damaged tissue (wounds, moist flesh). Obligatory myiasis occurs when the parasites require infection of the host to complete their life cycle.
Another differential is Cuterebra spp. These larvae are ingested or inhaled (or occasionally enter through wounds) and then migrate subcutaneously, causing localized swelling and sometimes pain.
Look for a breathing pore in the overlying skin.
The main example of obligatory myiasis, screwworm (Cochliomyia hominivorax), has been eliminated from North America, though occasional incursions occur through importation of animals.
Screwworm infestation must be reported to state and federal authorities.
Culicoides spp. (biting midges or "no-see-ums") irritate livestock and are associated with sweet itch (allergic dermatitis) in horses.
Cutaneous habronemiasis in horses is caused by larvae of stomach worms and is characterized by granulomatous skin lesions with "sulfur crystals."
The rat-tailed maggot (Eristalis tenax) is associated with pseudomyiasis. These common larvae live in liquid feces and dairy farmers may mistakenly assume they came out of the cow (they didn't: flies laid eggs in the manure). The maggots are the larvae of nonparasitic free-living flies.
Onchocerca cervicalis is associated with dermatitis, fistulous withers, poll evil, and uveitis in horses.
Link: Facultative Myiasis-producing Flies of Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/facultative-myiasis-producing-flies-of-animals?autoredirectid=19557
Link: Obligatory Myiasis-producing Flies of Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/obligatory-myiasis-producing-flies-of-animals?autoredirectid=19543
Link: Cochliomyia hominivorax
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/obligatory-myiasis-producing-flies-of-animals
Link: Biting Midges of Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/biting-midges-of-animals?autoredirectid=19549
Link: Cutaneous Habronemiasis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/helminths-of-the-skin/cutaneous-habronemiasis-in-animals
Link: Pseudomyiasis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/pseudomyiasis-in-animals?autoredirectid=19548
Link: Onchocerciasis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/helminths-of-the-skin/onchocerciasis-in-animals
505
How long after a booster rabies vaccination is a cat (or dog or ferret) considered to be currently vaccinated and protected against rabies?
After 7 days
After 14 days
Immediately
After 24 hours
After 48 hours
Answer: Immediately.
A previously vaccinated cat, dog, or ferret receiving a rabies booster vaccination is immediately considered to be protected against rabies.
According to the 2016 Compendium for Rabies Prevention and Control, a peak rabies virus antibody tier is reached 28 days after initial vaccination and immediately after booster vaccination.
http://nasphv.org/Documents/NASPHVRabiesCompendium.pdf
Here is some additional information on rabies:
When in doubt, check with your local health department.
Basically, all potential rabies exposures boil down to two questions:
1. Who is involved?
- Animal-animal exposure: less alarm bells
- Animal-human exposure (e.g. bite): more alarm bells
2. Was the animal vaccinated?
Documented up-to-date rabies vaccination: booster + 45 downer observation
- Documented vaccinated, but overdue: booster + 45 d owner observation
- UN-documented vaccinated, and overdue: handle on case-by-case basis
- Ferrets OVERDUE for booster: handle on case-by-case basis
- UN-vaccinated pet: euthanize or vaccinate + 4-6 m strict isolation
-- Wild animal (esp. bats, raccoon, skunk): euthanize, send head to state lab
When dealing with rabies questions, determine if there is a HIGH-risk exposure (e.g.,
wild raccoon bites a child) or a LOWER-risk exposure (e.g., up-to-date vaccinated dog
messes with woodchuck but no bite wounds on dog).
In high-risk situations, consider euthanasia/testing or immediate vaccination + long,
strict isolation (4 mons dogs/cats; 6 mons, ferrets).
In low-risk situations, consider immediate vaccination + shorter observation period (45
In general, both Canadian and U.S. guidance on rabies post exposure management conforms with compendium guidelines.
References:
United States guidelines 2016 Compendium for Rabies Prevention and Control, JAVMA, Vol 248, No. 5., 505-517.
Here is some information on post-exposure prophylaxis in people from the CDC.
https://www.cdc.gov/rabies/medical_care/index.html
Canadian guidelines
Canadian Food Inspection Agency (CFIA) rabies home page and rabies testing summary.
https://inspection.canada.ca/animal-health/terrestrial-animals/diseases/reportable/rabies/eng/1356138388304/1356152541083
https://www.canadianveterinarians.net/rabies/en/documents/1_general%20information%20and%20submission%20guidelines%20v1%202014.pdf
The Canadian Veterinary Medical Association (CVMA) on rabies guidance homepage.
Click here for a CVMA post-exposure management summary.
https://www.canadianveterinarians.net/rabies/en/elearning%20course%20handouts/module%203%20course%20handouts.pdf
Link: Rabies
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/rabies/rabies
506
ow long does Brucella abortus survive in a cool, moist environment, (like manure, aborted fetal tissue)?
Months
Days
Weeks
Hours
Answer: Months,
Brucella abortus can survive more than 2 months in cool, moist environments.
Link: Brucellosis in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/brucellosis-in-large-animals/brucellosis-in-cattle
507
Which choice is the best description for surgical gut?
Answer: Absorbable, non-synthetic
Surgical gut (also known as catgut) is an absorbable (nonsynthetic) material made from the submucosal layer of sheep intestine.
Absorbable synthetic sutures include Dexon®, Maxon®, Vicryl®, and PDS®. Nonsynthetic nonabsorbable sutures include silk and stainless steel. Synthetic nonabsorbable sutures include Prolene®, Ethion®, and Vetafil®.
508
Which forceps secure drapes to the patient by penetrating the skin?
Backhaus.
Backhaus (and Roeder forceps) are towel clamps used to secure drapes to the patient's skin. Backhaus forceps look like the sharp pincers of an ant, and penetrate both the cloth drapes and the patient's skin. Roeder forceps look like Backhaus clamps, but they have a metal ball welded to the points of the jaws to prevent as deep of tissue penetration.
Lorna clamps are non-perforating and can be used to secure tubing or lines to the drapes. Allis and Brown-Adson are tissue forceps. Cooley forceps are vascular clamps.
https://products.integralife.com/backhaus-towel-clamp/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-veterinary-forceps-sponge-towel-clamps-backhaus-towel-clamp
https://products.integralife.com/roeder-towel-clamp/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-veterinary-forceps-sponge-towel-clamps-roeder-towel-clamp
https://products.integralife.com/brown-adson-tissue-forceps/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-veterinary-forceps-dressing-tissue-brown-adson-tissue-forceps
https://products.integralife.com/cooley-iliac-clamp/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-thoracic-cardiovascular-clamps-cooley-iliac-clamp
509
Which of the following is an accurate difference between povidone-iodine and chlorhexidine antiseptic agents?
Answer: Povidone-iodine causes acute contact dermatitis in 50% of dogs.
Povidone-iodine causes acute contact dermatitis in up to 50% of dogs and can also cause skin problems for vet staff. It is inactivated by contact with alcohol, blood, and lavage solutions.
Chlorhexidine is superior to povidone-iodine because it is not inactivated by alcohol or organic matter, is generally nonirritating to the skin, and has been shown to be superior as a surgical hand scrub.
Both povidone-iodine and chlorhexidine are similarly effective as surgical scrubs for canine surgeries.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/antiseptics-and-disinfectants/oxidizing-agents-as-antiseptics-and-disinfectants-for-use-with-animals?autoredirectid=18896#Halogens-and-Halogen-Containing-Compounds_v3338382
Link: Biguanides asAntiseptics and Desinfectants for use with Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/antiseptics-and-disinfectants/biguanides-as-antiseptics-and-disinfectants-for-use-with-animals?autoredirectid=18884
510
Which of the following is a cause of abdominal fat necrosis (lipomatosis) in cattle?
Answer: Grazing tall fescue
One cause of abdominal fat necrosis (lipomatosis) in adult cattle (and some deer) is prolonged grazing of tall fescue infected with Neotyphodium coenophialum. Seen throughout the USA where tall fescue is the primary pasture grass. Over 90% of such pastures are infected with the endophyte. There are some new varieties that are non-toxic.Even without fescue exposure, hard masses of necrotic fat are relatively common in adult cattle. On rectal exam, the masses feel like "floating corks" similar to cotyledons, and may be mistaken for a developing pregnant uterus.
Remember the other fescue-related problem, fescue mycotoxins, which can cause lameness and hyperthermia in cattle and horses due to an ergot-like mold on tall fescue grass.
Fatty liver disease in cattle is a complex metabolic imbalance that can occur when an overconditioned cow reduces feed intake.
Most common in periparturient cattle (think of fat cows at calving).
Link: Abdominal Fat Necrosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/abdominal-fat-necrosis/abdominal-fat-necrosis-in-animals?autoredirectid=14190
Link: Fescue Poisoning in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/mycotoxicoses/fescue-poisoning-in-animals?autoredirectid=16892
Link: Fatty Liver Disease in Catte
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/metabolic-disorders/hepatic-lipidosis/fatty-liver-disease-of-cattle
511
Which one of the following is the most correct explanation of how electrical defibrillation works in patients with cardiac arrest?
Answer: Shock stops all cells in heart simultaneously, allowing pacemaker cells to regain control of myocardial contraction
Shock stops all cells in heart simultaneously, allowing pacemaker cells to regain control of myocardial contraction.
Defibrillation is performed with electrical shock to stop the activity of all myocardial cells at once.
Essentially, the heart is put into systole, to allow the pacemaker cells to regain control of the cardiac rhythm.
Pacemaker cells can produce an effective depolarization and contraction only when the myocardial cells are able to respond.
They must not be actively contracting (or fibrillating) or in a refractory period.
Click here to download Vet Emergency and Critical Care with CPR guidelines for animals.
https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/toc/14764431/2012/22/s1
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed. pp. 852-54.
Link: Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/emergency-medicine-and-critical-care/specific-diagnostics-and-therapy/cardiopulmonary-resuscitation-in-animals
512
The palpebral reflex tests which cranial nerves?
Answer: V and VII
The palpebral reflex input is via cranial nerve (CN) V (trigeminal), which is sensory to the face, and the motor output is via CN VII (facial) to close the eyelids.
To test the palpebral reflex, tap the medial and lateral canthi of the eyelids. Neurologically normal animals will blink. If there is a CN VIl lesion look for other signs such as nictitans protrusion to indicate integrity of CN V.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/the-neurologic-examination/the-neurologic-examination-of-animals?mredirectid=1632#v3286755
Key Information on the Neurologic Examination of Animals
Taking a History
• Signalment: Age, breed, sex.
• Chief Concern: Reason for evaluation.
• Onset and Course: Trauma, vascular disorders (acute); inflammatory, metabolic disorders, tumors (progressive).
• Medications: Response to treatments.
• Exposure: Trauma, toxins, vaccination status.
Evaluating Posture
• Normal Posture: Upright head, straight posture.
• Abnormal Posture: Head tilt (vestibular dysfunction), head turn (forebrain lesions), torticollis (cervical lesions), decerebrate and decerebellate rigidity, Schiff-Sherrington syndrome.
Assessing Mentation and Behavior
• Consciousness Levels: Normal, lethargy, delirium, dementia, obtundation, stupor, coma.
• Behavior Abnormalities: Disruptions in sleep-wake cycle, restlessness, wandering, cognitive dysfunction.
Examining the Cranial Nerves
1. Olfactory (I): Tested by offering food.
2. Optic (II): Visual following, menace response, PLR.
3. Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), Abducens (VI): Eye movements, PLR, strabismus, nystagmus, corneal reflex.
4. Trigeminal (V): Sensory to face, motor to mastication.
5. Facial (VII): Motor to facial expression, lacrimation.
6. Vestibulocochlear (VIII): Hearing, vestibular function.
7. Glossopharyngeal (IX), Vagus (X): Pharyngeal and laryngeal function.
8. Spinal Accessory (XI): Motor to trapezius.
9. Hypoglossal (XII): Motor to tongue.
Evaluating Gait
• Observation: Side, front, rear; walking, trotting, turning.
• Abnormalities: Ataxia (sensory, cerebellar, vestibular), weakness (UMN, LMN), lameness.
Assessing Postural Reactions
• Proprioceptive Positioning: Paw turn-over test.
• Hopping Reaction: One-limb support test.
• Placing Response: Visual and tactile tests.
Testing Spinal Reflexes
• Patellar Reflex: Stifle extension.
• Pelvic Limb Withdrawal Reflex: Flexion of hip, stifle, hock.
• Thoracic Limb Withdrawal Reflex: Flexion of thoracic limb.
• Perineal Reflex: Anal sphincter contraction, tail flexion.
• Cutaneous Trunci Reflex: Skin twitching.
Palpation
• Spine and Limbs: Detect curvature, displacement, masses, atrophy, pain.
Evaluating Nociception
• Superficial Pain: Skin fold pinch test.
• Deep Pain: Observation for reflex and behavioral response.
Neuroanatomical Localization
• Localizing Lesions: Based on clinical signs and reflex tests.
513
The following objects are evident on a routine wet mount fecal exam form a dog. What organism is this?
Lung fluke eggs
Hookworms
Cryptosporidium eggs
Tapeworm eggs
Giardia trophozoite
Answer: Tapeworm eggs.
These are tapeworm eggs (Dipylidium caninum), carried in the intestines of fleas.
The owner may report, or you may see, segments of the mature tapeworm called proglottids stuck to the hair around the rear end of a cat or dog like flat pieces of rice. Can also see flea larvae or the black spirals of flea larvae feces in the coat.
The Companion Animal Parasite Council (CAPC) website is a good visual resource for parasitology.
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook fo.& Veterinary Technicians, gthed, pp. 411-13. Image courtesy of The Centers for Disease Control DPDx Parasite Image Library - Dipylidium Dr. Joel Mills, Wikimedia commons.
Link: Tapeworms in Dogs and Cats.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/gastrointestinal-parasites-of-small-animals/tapeworms-in-dogs-and-cats?autoredirectid=3608
https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Diphyl_proglottidE.JPG
https://www.cdc.gov/dpdx/dipylidium/index.html
Link: https://capcvet.org/guidelines/
514
A horses age, the occlusal surface of the incisors become more _______ and the angle between the upper and lower incisors becomes _______.
Elliptical, less acute
Triangular, more acute
Elliptical, closer to 90 degrees
Elliptical, more acute
Triangular, less acute
Answer: Triangular, more acute.
When equine incisors first erupt, their occlusal surfaces are elliptical, then subsequently become trapezoid, round, and then triangular with the apex toward the lingual side.
Click here to see the incisors of a 6 year-old horse.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4766704
The angle between the upper and lower incisors also becomes more acute with age.
Click here to see a diagram of equine dentition.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v4731452
Refs: Guide for Determining the Age of the Horse, American Association of Equine Practitioners, Lexington, KY, 2002.
Link: Estimation of Age by Examination of the Teeth in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/dental-development-and-anatomy/estimation-of-age-by-examination-of-the-teeth-in-animals/?autoredirectid=556&autoredirectid=14175
515
A three-year-old male neutered Lhasa apso is presented with a one month of left pelvic limb lameness and depression. Two view pelvic radiographs are shown below. Where is the lesion?
L6-7
Right femoral head
Rigt sacrum
Left ilium
Left stifle
Answer: Left ilium.
There is a mixed lytic and productive bone lesion on the left ilial body, extending to the cranial acetabulum. The femoral head is not involved.
The lesion is seen best on the VD projection. Differentials include neoplasia or osteomyelitis.
The diagnosis in this case is osteomyelitis secondary to coccidioidomycosis.
Images courtesy, Dr A Zwingenberger and Veterinary Radiology.
Link: Osteomyelitis in Dogs and Cats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/osteopathies-in-small-animals/osteomyelitis-in-dogs-and-cats
Link: Coccidioidomycosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/fungal-infections/coccidioidomycosis-in-animals
516
Which one of the following lists consists of ectoparasites only?
Demodex canis, Cheyletiella spp, and Argas persicus are all external parasites or ectoparasites.
Demodex canis is the agent of demodectic mange in dogs.
Cheyletilla spp are skin mites found in dogs, cats, and rabbits.
Argas persicus, the fowl tick, is a type of soft tick.
Link: Mange in Dogs and Cats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/mange/mange-in-dogs-and-cats
Link: Fowl Ticks
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/ectoparasites/fowl-ticks?ruleredirectid=463
517
A five-year-old female spayed Boxer dog is presented for intermittent collapse and weakness. Thoracic auscultation is unremarkable and femoral pulses are strong and synchronous. A lead Il electrocardiogram strip shows normal sinus rhythm, however, an arrhythmia is still suspected. What is the best diagnostic test to identify the presence of an arrhythmia?
Holter monitor recording is the best way to diagnose a rhythm disturbance in a dog (or horse) that is not identified during routine ECG.
A Holter monitor records the heart rhythm for 24 to 48 hours to identify arrhythmias. This is particularly useful for diagnosing intermittent arrhythmias that are not apparent on a single ECG strip. It can also be used to evaluate the response to antiarrhythmic therapy.
Thoracic radiographs, echocardiogram, and systolic blood pressure are important in diagnosing structural/functional heart disease. Remember that not all dogs with arrhythmias have impaired cardiac function so these tests may be normal even when there is a significant rhythm disturbance. A normal echocardiogram does not rule out an arrhythmia.
Link: Diagnosis of Cardiovascular Disease in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/cardiovascular-system-introduction/diagnosis-of-cardiovascular-disease-in-animals
Link: The Cardiovascular System in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/cardiovascular-system-introduction/the-cardiovascular-system-in-animals
518
A three-day-old, 110 pound (50 kg), Holstein heifer calf with a history of watery diarrhea for 36 hours is presented in lateral recumbency. She quite thin and barely responds to examination. The mucous membranes are pale and dry, bluish in color, and capillary refill time is 4 seconds. Her eyes are sunken, and a skin tent remains in place. She quite thin and barely responds to examination.
The mucous membranes are pale and dry, bluish in color, and capillary refill time is 4 seconds. Her eyes are sunken, and a skin tent remains in place. Which of the following is the best therapy for this calf?
Intravenous fluids with sodium bicarbonate must be given immediately for this calf to survive. She likely has a bacterial enteritis and may also be septic.
Calf diarrhea is often a hypersecretory diarrhea that results in loss of huge volumes of fluid and bicarbonate. Dehydration and metabolic acidosis are life-threatening in severe cases.
Isotonic bicarbonate at 100 ml/kg is recommended as the initial fluid volume, given over four to six hours. Dextrose is added as many calves are hypoglycemic.
Once the calf is stronger and able to suckle, oral fluids alternated with milk are given in addition to maintenance fluids given intravenously.
Link: Diarrhea in Neonatal Ruminants
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/intestinal-diseases-in-ruminants/diarrhea-in-neonatal-ruminants
519
What organism causes "rabbit syphilis"?
Treponema paraluis-cuniculi causes rabbit syphilis (treponematosis, vent disease, "rabbit syphilis").
Think of dry crusty exudates around perineum, vulva, nostrils, eyes. In spite of the name, this is NOT a zoonotic disease.
Link: Treponematosis.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/exotic-and-laboratory-animals/rabbits/bacterial-and-mycotic-diseases-of-rabbits
Bacterial and Mycotic Diseases of Rabbits - Comprehensive Information for BCSE Test
Pasteurellosis
• Causative Agent: Pasteurella multocida.
• Symptoms: Rhinitis, pneumonia, abscesses, reproductive tract infections, torticollis, septicemia.
• Diagnosis: Clinical signs, bacterial culture, serotyping.
• Treatment: Enrofloxacin, trimethoprim sulfa, chloramphenicol, penicillin G, azithromycin.
Listeriosis
• Causative Agent: Listeria monocytogenes.
• Symptoms: Sudden deaths, abortions, anorexia, depression, weight loss.
• Diagnosis: Necropsy, liver lesions.
• Treatment: Rarely attempted due to rapid progression.
Enterotoxemia
• Causative Agent: Clostridium spiroforme.
• Symptoms: Diarrhea, lethargy, rough coat, rapid death.
• Diagnosis: Fecal smear, necropsy.
• Treatment: Fluid therapy, supportive care, cholestyramine.
Mastitis
• Causative Agents: Staphylococci, streptococci.
• Symptoms: Swollen mammary glands, fever, lethargy.
• Diagnosis: Clinical signs, culture.
• Treatment: Penicillin, supportive care, high-fiber diet.
Treponematosis
• Causative Agent: Treponema paraluiscuniculi.
• Symptoms: Ulcers, scabs on genitalia, lips, eyelids.
• Diagnosis: Darkfield microscopy, serologic tests.
• Treatment: Benzathine penicillin G, procaine penicillin.
520
You are presented with a dog who has an eye problem OU (both eyes): What is wrong?
This is ectropion (everted lid margin, eyelid rolled outward). See it in droopy dogs (i.e., too much extra skin on face): Bloodhound, Newfoundland, St. Bernard, Bull Mastiff, Great Dane, some Spaniels.
521
Which of the following pharmaceutical agents has been shown to bind to endotoxin, which helps to minimize the effects of endotoxemia in horses?
Flunixin meglumine
Pentoxifylline
Polymyxin B
Lidocaine
Doxycycline
Answer: Polymyxin B.
Polymyxin B is a polypeptide antibiotic that, at low doses, has been shown to bind endotoxin in horses' circulation, thus ameliorating the effects.
At higher doses polymyxin B can be nephro- and neurotoxic. Topical applications are common due to low systemic absorption and thus, toxicity.
The other listed medications are used in various situations to combat endotoxemia, but none have the same mechanism of action in binding to endotoxin.
Pentoxifylline is a xanthine-derivative phosphodiesterase inhibitor with anti-tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) activity (among other anti-inflammatory and rheologic properties) also used to manage endotoxemic horses.
Flunixin meglumine is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used at low doses to combat endotoxemia.
Lidocaine is a local anesthetic that acts as an anti-inflammatory when used as a continuous rate infusion.
Doxycycline is an antimicrobial that also inhibits matrix metalloproteinases.
522
Which three diseases are all associated with type III immune reactions (antigen - antibody complex deposition)?
Amyloidosis, bee sting allergy, autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Glomerulonephritis, anterior uveitis, purpura hemorrhagica
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia, transplant reaction, pemphigus vulgarism
Systemic lupus erythematosus, vaccination reaction, allergic broncholitis
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis, keratoconjunctivitis sicca, autoimmune thyroiditis
Answer: Glomerulonephritis, anterior uveitis, purpura hemorrhagica
Glomerulonephritis, anterior uveitis, and purpura hemorrhagica are examples of type III diseases.
In type Ill reactions antigen-antibody complexes are deposited on the endothelium, stimulating complement, a neutrophilic inflammatory response, and vascular damage.
Look for multisystemic vasculitis.
Classic type III diseases include:
Glomerulonephritis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/immune-system/immunologic-diseases/hypersensitivity-diseases-in-animals#v3277390
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (think moldy hay)
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/immune-system/immunologic-diseases/hypersensitivity-diseases-in-animals#v3277395
Purpura hemorrhagica (think post-strangles)
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/immune-system/immunologic-diseases/hypersensitivity-diseases-in-animals#v3277379
Anterior uveitis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/immune-system/immunologic-diseases/hypersensitivity-diseases-in-animals#v3277379
Link: Type III Reactions. Hypersensitivity Diseases in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/immune-system/immunologic-diseases/hypersensitivity-diseases-in-animals#v3277379
523
Which three diseases are all associated with type III immune reactions (antigen - antibody complex deposition)?
Amyloidosis, bee sting allergy, autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Glomerulonephritis, anterior uveitis, purpura hemorrhagica
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia, transplant reaction, pemphigus vulgarism
Systemic lupus erythematosus, vaccination reaction, allergic broncholitis
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis, keratoconjunctivitis sicca, autoimmune thyroiditis
Answer: Glomerulonephritis, anterior uveitis, purpura hemorrhagica
Glomerulonephritis, anterior uveitis, and purpura hemorrhagica are examples of type III diseases.
In type Ill reactions antigen-antibody complexes are deposited on the endothelium, stimulating complement, a neutrophilic inflammatory response, and vascular damage.
Look for multisystemic vasculitis.
Classic type III diseases include:
Glomerulonephritis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/immune-system/immunologic-diseases/hypersensitivity-diseases-in-animals#v3277390
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (think moldy hay)
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/immune-system/immunologic-diseases/hypersensitivity-diseases-in-animals#v3277395
Purpura hemorrhagica (think post-strangles)
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/immune-system/immunologic-diseases/hypersensitivity-diseases-in-animals#v3277379
Anterior uveitis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/immune-system/immunologic-diseases/hypersensitivity-diseases-in-animals#v3277379
Link: Type III Reactions. Hypersensitivity Diseases in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/immune-system/immunologic-diseases/hypersensitivity-diseases-in-animals#v3277379
524
How long should minor surgical instruments be in contact with a disinfectant before use (i.e., for “cold sterilization”)?
At least 3 hours
This is not an acceptable practice
At least 30 minutes
Overnight
Answer: At least 3 hours.
Exposure time should be at least 3 hours.
Soaking instruments in chlorhexidine or glutaraldehyde is known as cold sterilization.
The instruments are NOT really sterile, and can be used only for minor procedures, like dental work or repair of minor lacerations.
Equipment must be rinsed thoroughly before use.
525
Icterus, hemorrhage, and sudden death are primarily associated with which mycotoxin?
4-Ipomeanol
Fescue mycotoxins
Fumonisin
Trichethecenes
Aflatoxin
Answer: Aflatoxin .
Aflatoxicosis is caused by toxigenic strains of Aspergillus (A. flavus, A. parasiticus) on corn (maize), peanuts, other cereal grains, and soybeans.
The liver is the major target organ, with widespread hemorrhages, icterus, and death in acute cases. Subacute outbreaks are more common, with nonspecific signs of anorexia, weakness, unthriftiness, and sudden death.
Think of lameness and hyperthermia in cattle and horses with fescue lameness, due to a toxin produced by an ergot-like mold (Neotyphodium coenophialum) on tall fescue grass.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/mycotoxicoses/fescue-poisoning-in-animals?autoredirectid=16892
4-Ipomeanol toxicity (moldy sweet potato) causes a respiratory disease, indistinguishable from acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and edema (ABPEE).
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/respiratory-system/non-infectious-respiratory-system-diseases-in-cattle/4-ipomeanol-toxicosis-moldy-sweet-potato-and-perilla-ketone-toxicosis-purple-mint-toxicosis-in-cattle?redirectid=4694?ruleredirectid=30
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/respiratory-system/non-infectious-respiratory-system-diseases-in-cattle/pulmonary-emphysema,-edema,-and-interstitial-pneumonia-in-cattle?redirectid=4695?ruleredirectid=30
Fumonisin is another Fusarium spp. mycotoxin associated with moldy corn. In equids, look for CNS disease (equine leukoencephalomalacia). In pigs, see hypertension and pulmonary edema (porcine pulmonary edema-PPE).
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/mycotoxicoses/fumonisin-toxicosis-in-animals?autoredirectid=16893
Click here to see a table of Mvcotoxicoses in Domestic Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/mycotoxicoses/overview-of-mycotoxicoses-in-animals?autoredirectid=16886
Link: Aflatoxicosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/mycotoxicoses/aflatoxicosis-in-animals?autoredirectid=16887
526
Icterus, hemorrhage, and sudden death are primarily associated with which mycotoxin?
4-Ipomeanol
Fescue mycotoxins
Fumonisin
Trichethecenes
Aflatoxin
Answer: Aflatoxin .
Aflatoxicosis is caused by toxigenic strains of Aspergillus (A. flavus, A. parasiticus) on corn (maize), peanuts, other cereal grains, and soybeans.
The liver is the major target organ, with widespread hemorrhages, icterus, and death in acute cases. Subacute outbreaks are more common, with nonspecific signs of anorexia, weakness, unthriftiness, and sudden death.
Think of lameness and hyperthermia in cattle and horses with fescue lameness, due to a toxin produced by an ergot-like mold (Neotyphodium coenophialum) on tall fescue grass.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/mycotoxicoses/fescue-poisoning-in-animals?autoredirectid=16892
4-Ipomeanol toxicity (moldy sweet potato) causes a respiratory disease, indistinguishable from acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and edema (ABPEE).
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/respiratory-system/non-infectious-respiratory-system-diseases-in-cattle/4-ipomeanol-toxicosis-moldy-sweet-potato-and-perilla-ketone-toxicosis-purple-mint-toxicosis-in-cattle?redirectid=4694?ruleredirectid=30
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/respiratory-system/non-infectious-respiratory-system-diseases-in-cattle/pulmonary-emphysema,-edema,-and-interstitial-pneumonia-in-cattle?redirectid=4695?ruleredirectid=30
Fumonisin is another Fusarium spp. mycotoxin associated with moldy corn. In equids, look for CNS disease (equine leukoencephalomalacia). In pigs, see hypertension and pulmonary edema (porcine pulmonary edema-PPE).
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/mycotoxicoses/fumonisin-toxicosis-in-animals?autoredirectid=16893
Click here to see a table of Mvcotoxicoses in Domestic Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/mycotoxicoses/overview-of-mycotoxicoses-in-animals?autoredirectid=16886
Link: Aflatoxicosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/mycotoxicoses/aflatoxicosis-in-animals?autoredirectid=16887
527
You are presented with a seven-year-old spayed female Chow mix who lives mostly outside her Georgia home all year and has a one-month history of weight loss and worsening exercise intolerance and wet cough. Lateral and DV chest radiographs show enlarged and tortuous pulmonary arteries, increased cardiac-sternal contact and right heart enlargement.
What do these anatomic findings suggest to you?
Likely dilated cardiomyopathy, need an echocardiogram
Likely hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, grave prognosis
Suspect heart worm disease, need an antigen test
Suspect pulmonary thrombosis, need emergency oxygen
Possible blastomycosis in Georgia, reportable
Answer: Suspect heart worm disease, need an antigen test.
Suspect heartworm disease in an outdoor dog with these findings.
Radiographically, look for right ventricular enlargement and bulging of the main pulmonary artery ("pulmonary knob" sign, VD view) in 60-70%o of cases. Follow this link to see "pulmonary knob" sign. A severe case may exhibit the "reverse D" sign, on VD view.
Follow these links to see radiographs from canine heartworm cases with right ventricular enlargement (tortuous pulmonary arteries and increased sternal contact- looks like it is lying down) and "reverse D" sign.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v49774422
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v49774429
Dilated cardiomyopathy could have these signs, but expect to see a huge, round heart on radiographs.
Ref: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor-Dogs and Cats, 4th ed. pp. 418-20.
Link: Heartworm Disease in Dogs, Cats, and Ferrets.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/heartworm-disease/heartworm-disease-in-dogs,-cats,-and-ferrets?redirectid=30615
Link: Specific Cardiac Diseases.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/heart-disease-and-heart-failure/specific-cardiac-diseases
528
Why is intervertebral disc herniation uncommon in the thoracic spine (T1-T10)?
Hyperflexion is prevented by sternocostal joints
Annulus fibrosus thicker in this part of the vertebral column
Intercapital ligaments reinforce disc dorsally
Vertebral bodies superimposed dorsally
Dorsal longitudinal ligament reinforced
Answer: Intercapital ligaments reinforce disc dorsally.
Intervertebral disc herniation is uncommon in the thoracic spine between T1-T10 because the intercapital ligament travels transversely over the dorsal surface of the intervertebral disc.
The intercapital ligament connects the heads of the ribs at the articulation point with adjacent vertebrae. This ligament also functions to stabilize and support the articulation of vertebral bodies in this region, which helps prevent intervertebral disc herniation.
Link: Intervertebral Disk Disease in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/diseases-of-the-spinal-column-and-cord/degenerative-diseases-of-the-spinal-column-and-cord-in-animals#v26305131
529
A ten-year-old female spayed miniature schnauzer is presented for a six-week history of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss despite a good appetite. Serum chemistries are performed on an in-house analyzer, however, halfway through the analysis an error message reads: "Interference detected, retest with new rotor or sample." The blood sample is centrifuged to obtain plasma for testing. What is the best explanation of the appearance of this blood sample?
Answer: Dog was lipemic when blood was collected.
The white layer of lipid above the plasma in the centrifuged tube indicates that the dog was lipemic when the blood sample was collected. Lipemia means an increased level of lipids in the blood - i.e., hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia is caused by an increase in blood triglyceride concentration - i.e., hypertriglyceridemia.
Blood triglyceride concentration is made of chylomicrons and lipoproteins. Remember, hypercholesterolemia does not cause lipemia, it is only hypertriglyceridemia that causes visible lipemia.
Lipemia may be seen postprandially; it may take 4-6 hrs to clear after eating. Since lipemia interferes with testing, use fasted samples to avoid inaccurate results.
Hyperlipidemia is also seen commonly secondary to disease states where lipoprotein metabolism is altered - e.g., pancreatitis, diabetes mellitus, hepatic disease, hypothyroidism, and hyperadrenocorticism.
Primary hyperlipidemia is an inherited or congenital dysfunction of lipoprotein metabolism. Most commonly seen in miniature schnauzers; likely inherited.
Link: Nutrition in Disease Management in Small Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/nutrition-small-animals/nutrition-in-disease-management-in-small-animals#v3328947
Link: Diabetes and Insulin Resistance in Miniature Schnauzers
https://endocrinevet.blogspot.com/2012/11/association-of-hypertriglyceridemia.html?m=1
Link: Triglycerides
https://eclinpath.com/chemistry/energy-metabolism/triglycerides/
530
A one-week-old Quarter horse colt is presented who was born weak. The foal required a neonatal intensive care unit and a lot of handling in his first few days of life. Now the night technician has called and says when he urinates, there are two streams visible coming from his ventral abdomen. What abnormality is this?
This is a classic history for acquired patent urachus.
The cranial stream is from the umbilical stump; the caudal stream is from the penis. Recall that the urachus connects the fetal bladder to the allantoic sac via the umbilicus during gestation. Normally, the urachus closes in the first days after birth. Patent urachus is a common problem. Can be congenital, but mostly associated with excessive handling (e.g., improper lifting, handling umbilicus too much) or in foals that spend a lot of time recumbent (i.e., it develops in a high percentage of foals in the neonatal intensive care) Can also be associated with umbilical infection (omphalophlebitis) - one paper found that 81% of 16 foals with umbilical infections also had patent urachus. With uroperitoneum, look for stranguria, enlarging abdomen.
Umbilical hernias may become hot and infected, and possibly leak a little pus, but are not characterized by clear fluids leaking out coincident with urination.
Expect urine leaking from the penile anatomy, not the umbilicus with hypospadias.
Link: Bladder Anomalies
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/urinary-system/congenital-and-inherited-anomalies-of-the-urinary-system/bladder-anomalies
Link: Omphalitis, Omphalophlebitis, and Patent Urachus
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/management-of-the-neonate/specific-diseases-associated-with-sepsis-in-foals?autoredirectid=20489
Link: Uroperitoneum in Foals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/urinary-system/noninfectious-diseases-of-the-urinary-system-in-large-animals/uroperitoneum-in-foals
Link: Hernias in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/congenital-and-inherited-anomalies-involving-the-digestive-system/hernias-in-animals?autoredirectid=20413
Link: Urethral Anomalies
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/urinary-system/congenital-and-inherited-anomalies-of-the-urinary-system/urethral-anomalies
531
What is the presumptive diagnosis in a chicken with the following necropsy finding?
This is infectious bursal disease. Note the enlarged, balloon-like hemorrhagic bursa of Fabricius. Caused by a birnavirus, shed in feces and transferred barn to barn via fomites. Very stable. Difficult to eradicate from premises.
Signs include clinical picture given above in older birds, or MORE IMPORTANT subclinical form in young birds, which causes immunosuppression via destruction of immature lymphocytes in bursa, thymus, spleen.
Immunosuppressed birds do not respond well to vaccination and are predisposed to infections with normally nonpathogenic viruses and bacteria.
Common disease usually exacerbated by IBDV infections. See large economic losses.
Link: Infectious Bursal Disease in Poultry
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/poultry/infectious-bursal-disease/infectious-bursal-disease-in-poultry
532
You visit a finishing farm where the pigs are 14-weeks-old. In the last three weeks five percent of the pigs have died after a short bout of hemorrhagic diarrhea. About five percent of the remaining pigs are pale and you see evidence of bloody manure in some of the pens. What is the top differential?
Answer: Porcine proliferation enteritis.
The top differential for this presentation is porcine proliferative enteropathy. (a.k.a. ileitis). Caused by Lawsonia intracellularis, it is a common condition in growing-finishing pigs and young breeding pigs. Think thickened intestine.
Ileitis more commonly causes acute, non-hemorrhagic diarrhea (watery, brown) with most recovering spontaneously and some developing chronic diarrhea and loss of condition. The hemorrhagic form presents as described in this question, with pale pigs, bloody manure, and sudden death.
The main rule-out is gastric ulcers, which would not typically affect so many pigs at once.
Clostridium perfringens type C enteritis causes a highly fatal, necrohemorrhagic enteritis, but typically occurs in NEWBORN piglets one to five days of age, and up to three weeks.
Escherichia coli causes outbreaks of mild, non-hemorrhagic, diarrhea in piglets about one to three days after they are born.
Coccidiosis (Cystoisospora suis) is seen at approximately seven to 11 days of age, but up to three weeks is possible.
Link: Porcine Proliferative Enteropathy
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/intestinal-diseases-in-pigs/porcine-proliferative-enteropathy
Link: Gastric Ulcers in Pigs
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/gastrointestinal-ulcers-in-large-animals/gastric-ulcers-in-pigs
Link: Clostridium perfringens Type C Enteritis in Pigs
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/intestinal-diseases-in-pigs/clostridium-perfringens-type-c-enteritis-in-pigs
Link: Enteric Colibacillosis in Pigs
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/intestinal-diseases-in-pigs/enteric-colibacillosis-in-pigs
Link: Coccidiosis of Pigs.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/coccidiosis/coccidiosis-of-pigs
533
Helicobacter spp. infection is a common cause of gastrointestinal disease in people. Which of the following statements regarding Helicobacter infection in small animals is correct?
Helicobacter spp. are potentially zoonotic so recommend proper hygiene practices for owners when Helicobacter spp. are documented on gastric biopsy. The pathologic significance of Helicobacter in dogs and cats is unknown. The incidence of Helicobacter organisms on gastric biopsy in normal dogs and cats and those with clinical signs of gastrointestinal Dz is the same.
H. pylori is an uncommon species in dogs and cats.
Consider triple antibiotic therapy or combinations of antibiotics and antacids in patients with Helicobacter documented on gastric biopsy and relevant clinical signs. Treatment is unlikely to eradicate the organism longterm, although it may improve clinical signs in some cases.
Link: Helicobacter Infection in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-stomach-and-intestines-in-small-animals/helicobacter-infection-in-small-animals
534
An unthrifty dorset ewe is presented with dicolored, thin ragged fleece. Examination of the wool shows the following organism. What is the diagnosis?
Tromboculid mites.
Melophagus ovinus (sheep keds) are wingless flies that look like ticks.
Keds bite the neck, chest, shoulder, flanks, and rump of the sheep (and sometimes goats), feeding on their blood and causing pruritus.
Keds damage the skin, their excrement discolors wool, and self-inflicted scratching to relieve the itching further damages both skin and wool.
Link: Sheep Keds
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/sheep-keds
Sheep Keds - Comprehensive Information for BCSE Test
Definitions and Causative Agent:
• Sheep Keds: Wingless, blood-sucking flies (Melophagus ovinus) that infest sheep.
• Appearance: Brown or reddish, covered with short bristly hairs, about 7 mm long.
Life Cycle:
• Reproduction: Females produce larvae which pupate in wool within 12 hours, emerging as adults in ~22 days. Entire life cycle on host, increasing in winter and spring.
Pathology:
• Symptoms: Pruritus, wool damage, anemia, decreased vitality, particularly in lambs and pregnant ewes.
• Lesions: Brown discoloration of fleece, skin defects (cockle).
Diagnosis:
• Inspection: Visual confirmation of wingless, hairy flies in wool.
Treatment and Control:
• Medications: Insecticides with residual activity (e.g., pyrethroids).
• Methods: Shearing, dipping, spraying, jetting, powder dusting, spot-on/pour-on applications.
535
An unthrifty dorset ewe is presented with dicolored, thin ragged fleece. Examination of the wool shows the following organism. What is the diagnosis?
Tromboculid mites.
Melophagus ovinus (sheep keds) are wingless flies that look like ticks.
Keds bite the neck, chest, shoulder, flanks, and rump of the sheep (and sometimes goats), feeding on their blood and causing pruritus.
Keds damage the skin, their excrement discolors wool, and self-inflicted scratching to relieve the itching further damages both skin and wool.
Link: Sheep Keds
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/integumentary-system/flies/sheep-keds
Sheep Keds - Comprehensive Information for BCSE Test
Definitions and Causative Agent:
• Sheep Keds: Wingless, blood-sucking flies (Melophagus ovinus) that infest sheep.
• Appearance: Brown or reddish, covered with short bristly hairs, about 7 mm long.
Life Cycle:
• Reproduction: Females produce larvae which pupate in wool within 12 hours, emerging as adults in ~22 days. Entire life cycle on host, increasing in winter and spring.
Pathology:
• Symptoms: Pruritus, wool damage, anemia, decreased vitality, particularly in lambs and pregnant ewes.
• Lesions: Brown discoloration of fleece, skin defects (cockle).
Diagnosis:
• Inspection: Visual confirmation of wingless, hairy flies in wool.
Treatment and Control:
• Medications: Insecticides with residual activity (e.g., pyrethroids).
• Methods: Shearing, dipping, spraying, jetting, powder dusting, spot-on/pour-on applications.
536
Which of the following choices are best for treating a patient that survives cardiac arrest but continues to have a persistent and unstable ventricular tachycardia?
Calcium gluconate or sodium bicarbonate
Lidocaine or mexilitine
Amiodarone or magnesium sulfate
Atropine or dexamethasone
5% Dextrose or hypertonic saline solution
Answer: Amiodrone or Magnesium Sulfate.
Amiodarone or magnesium sulfate are preferred for treatment of persistent ventricular tachycardia following cardiac arrest.
Lidocaine is sometimes used, however, amiodarone is associated with better outcomes.
Mexilitine is an oral medication that is not used in these patients. It is used in dogs with ventricular arrhythmias caused by cardiomyopathy. Atropine is used for bradyarrhymias.
Dexamethasone is an corticosteroid and not used in CPR.
Download this free issue of the Journal of Vet Emergency and Critical Care with CPR guidelines for animals.
https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/toc/14764431/2012/22/s1
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed. p. 854.
Link: Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/emergency-medicine-and-critical-care/specific-diagnostics-and-therapy/cardiopulmonary-resuscitation-in-animals
537
Which scissors are best to use for bandage removal?
Answer: Lister.
Lister bandage scissors have one blunt-ended blade (for slipping under a bandage without cutting the patient) and one sharp-pointed blade (which goes above the bandage).
Spencer scissors are small instruments used for suture removal.
Metzenbaum scissors are fine dissecting scissors used for more delicate tissue.
White scissors are used to cut toe nails in dogs.
Mayo scissors can be curved or straight, in a variety of sizes, and are used to dissect tissues.
https://products.integralife.com/lister-bandage-scissor/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-general-operating-scissors-lister-bandage-scissor
https://products.integralife.com/spencer-stitch-scissors/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-padgett-plastic-reconstructive-surgery-scissors-spencer-stitch-scissors
https://products.integralife.com/metzenbaum-scissor/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-general-operating-scissors-metzenbaum-scissor
https://products.integralife.com/white-canine-nail-scissors/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-veterinary-scissors-white-canine-nail-scissors
538
Surgery:
Which scissors are best to use for bandage removal?
Answer: Lister.
Lister bandage scissors have one blunt-ended blade (for slipping under a bandage without cutting the patient) and one sharp-pointed blade (which goes above the bandage).
Spencer scissors are small instruments used for suture removal.
Metzenbaum scissors are fine dissecting scissors used for more delicate tissue.
White scissors are used to cut toe nails in dogs.
Mayo scissors can be curved or straight, in a variety of sizes, and are used to dissect tissues.
https://products.integralife.com/lister-bandage-scissor/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-general-operating-scissors-lister-bandage-scissor
https://products.integralife.com/spencer-stitch-scissors/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-padgett-plastic-reconstructive-surgery-scissors-spencer-stitch-scissors
https://products.integralife.com/metzenbaum-scissor/product/surgical-instruments-hospitals-surgery-centers-tissue-banks-jarit-general-operating-scissors-metzenbaum-scissor
https://products.integralife.com/white-canine-nail-scissors/product/surgical-instruments-miltex-instruments-veterinary-scissors-white-canine-nail-scissors
539
The spay hook is a manual retractor used primarily for what purpose?
Answer: Grasping the uterine horn.
The spay hook is used during an ovariohysterectomy to grasp the uterine horn for visualization.
To see a visual selection of surgical tools, including the spay hook, go to Dr. Brigitte Brissonas helpful website, Vet Surgery_Online, hosted by the University of Guelph.
The inventor of the spay hook was Dr. J. H. Snook, who headed the Ohio State School of Veterinary Medicine in the 1920s. He led a colorful life as a gold-medal winning Olympic marksman and founder of the Alpha Psi veterinary fraternity, but came to a sad end.
Link: Ovariohysterectomy
https://www.acvs.org/small-animal/ovariohysterectomy/
https://www.vetsurgeryonline.com/other-instruments/
Ovariohysterectomy in Small Animals - Comprehensive Information for BCSE Test
Definitions:
• Ovariohysterectomy: Surgical removal of the ovaries and uterus.
• Ovariectomy: Surgical removal of only the ovaries.
Indications:
• Prevents mammary cancer, pyometra, unwanted estrous behavior, and pregnancies.
Preoperative Diagnostics:
• Physical examination, blood tests, urinalysis, radiographs, ultrasound (for complicated cases).
Surgical Procedure:
1. Preparation: General anesthesia, aseptic preparation.
2. Incision:
• Open Surgery: Midline or flank approach.
• Laparoscopic Surgery: Small incisions for laparoscope and instruments.
3. Ligature and Removal: Ligate blood vessels, remove ovaries/uterus.
4. Closure: Suture layers of the abdominal wall.
Postoperative Care:
• Pain management, rest, Elizabethan collar, monitor for complications.
Complications:
• Infection, hemorrhage, urinary obstruction, rare but serious.
540
How long do we consider a double-wrapped muslin or crepe paper-wrapped surgical pack to remain reliably sterile on an open shelf?
Answer: One month.
The open shelving life of sterile items is not more than about 1 month. You can double the sterilization shelf life by keeping items in a clean, closed, dust-free cabinet.
The CDC suggests that published expiration dates are not very helpful and it would be better to move to event-type sterilization guidelines. Thus, these specific timelines might be phased out in coming years.
Events that would mean a package is no longer sterile include: package becomes wet, tear in packaging, seal is broken, etc.
Link: Sterilizing practices.
https://www.cdc.gov/infection-control/hcp/disinfection-sterilization/sterilizing-practices.html?CDC_AAref_Val=https://www.cdc.gov/infectioncontrol/guidelines/disinfection/sterilization/sterilizing-practices.html
541
Which process is appropriate when opening an instrument sterilized in a plastic peel pouch?
Edges are pulled back, keeping package facing away from the body
The pouch should be slowly peeled open while facing the opening away from the assistantâs body and towards the surgeon or sterile field. The surgeon can either take the item directly from the opened package (for smaller or awkward items) or the contents can be dropped onto the sterile field. Instruments should always be opened with the handle towards the surgeon.
This image shows how to correctly open suture packets. With practice and skill, they can be popped onto the sterile field.
It is important to keep in mind where the sterile field is at all times, so as to not break it.
The Vet Surgery site has a wealth of information on gloving, patient prep, and pretty much anything you might need to know about prepping for surgery.
https://www.lotus-surgicals.com/frontend/images/gallery-packaging-unit1.jpg
https://www.vetsurgeryonline.com
542
An eighteen-month-old male neutered domestic shorthair cat is presented for acute non-weight bearing lameness of the left hind limb. Radiographs are shown below.
What is the diagnosis?
Answer: Capital physical fracture.
This is a type 1 Salter-Harris fracture of the femoral capital physis. The Salter-Harris classification describes the site of the fracture relative to the joint and the physis (growth plate). Type 1 fractures pass transversely through the physis.
We see Salter-Harris fractures in immature animals. Young, neutered, overweight male cats are at an increased risk of non-traumatic femoral capital physeal fracture. The femoral capital physis and distal femur (stifle) are common locations for traumatic type 1 Salter-Harris fractures in dogs.
Here's a good image of coxofemoral luxation (dislocated hip) in a cat.
Here's more information about aseptic necrosis of the femoral head from VIN.
Here's an interesting article about ligament and tendon injuries in dogs.
Radiographic image courtesy of Suzy Gray, BSc(Hons), BVetMed (Hons), MFA, Dip ACVIM (Small Animal Internal Medicine).
Link: Joint trauma in Dogs and Cats.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/arthropathies-and-related-disorders-in-small-animals/joint-trauma-in-dogs-and-cats
Link: Legg-Perthes Disease in Dogs
https://veterinarypartner.vin.com/default.aspx?pid=19239&id=4952619
Link: Ligament and musculotendinous injuries in dogs
https://www.veterinary-practice.com/article/ligament-and-musculotendinous-injuries-in-dogs
543
What are the three most important factors to remember for radiation safety?
Answer: For radiation safety, think time, distance, shielding.
TIME: Take the time to get your shot right the first TIME. Less shots=less exposure.
DISTANCE: Stay as far away from the patient and the X-ray beam as possible. Chemical restraint, sand bags, tapes, and wedges all help you position the animal and then to step safely AWAY.
SHIELDING: Wear lead-lined gloves, thyroid protectors, and aprons.
https://www.nrc.gov/about-nrc/radiation/protects-you/protection-principles.html
Radiation Protection Principles - Comprehensive Information for BCSE Test
Definitions and Concepts:
• Radiation Protection: Methods to safeguard people from harmful effects of ionizing radiation.
• Ionizing Radiation: Radiation that carries enough energy to liberate electrons from atoms or molecules, ionizing them.
Key Principles:
1. Time: Reducing time spent near a radiation source minimizes exposure.
2. Distance: Increasing distance from a radiation source decreases exposure.
3. Shielding: Using barriers like lead, concrete, or water to block or reduce radiation.
Containment:
• Methods: Confine radioactive materials to prevent environmental release.
• Examples: Closed handling facilities, closed systems in nuclear reactors, rooms with reduced air pressure.
NRC’s System of Radiation Protection:
• Regulations: Dose limits for workers and the public, monitoring, labeling, and reporting requirements.
• Dose Limits: Public: ≤0.1 rem/year; Workers: ≤5 rem/year.
• Monitoring: Use of dosimeters to track exposure.
544
An immunochromatographic test kit for detection of fecal canine parvoviruses (CPV) antigen is being tested in a local cat shelter where as many as 10% of the cats there may have panleukopenia secondary to infection with the canine parvovirus. Here are simulated test results, compared to a gold standard test for CPV. What is the specificity of this test kit?
Specificity=1575/2309 (68%) d/(b+d).
This is a classic example of a 2x2 table in epidemiology, used to compare a new test (the immunochromatographic test kit) to a gold standard test (the CPV test).
Draw a 2x2 table, and label the boxes a,b,c,d. Specificity = d/(b+d). Click here to see a Basic 2X2 table.
Feline panleukopenia virus(FPV) is closely related to type 2 canine parvoviruses (CPV-2, CPV-2a, CPV-2b). CPV-2a and CPV-2b have been shown to cause a panleukopenia-like illness in domestic cats.
Link: Canine Parvovirus.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-stomach-and-intestines-in-small-animals/canine-parvovirus
Link: Feline Panleukopenia.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/feline-panleukopenia/feline-panleukopenia?redirectid=30620
Link: Canine and Feline Parvovirus in Animal Shelters
https://sheltermedicine.vetmed.ufl.edu/files/2017/01/Canine-and-feline-parvovirus-in-shelters.2018.pdf
545
Which toxic agent causes severe colic, weakness, salivation, and pronounced hemorrhagic diarrhea?
Arsenic
Cantharidin
Chlorinated hydrocarbons
Lead
Urea
Answer: Arsenic.
When you hear arsenic, think severe Gl signs, including a hemorrhagic diarrhea. Cattle are exposed to arsenic by pesticide-contaminated foliage. Pets find arsenic in ant baits and in pressure-treated wood (like on backyard decks) or wood preservative.
Urea toxicity causes wildly aberrant behavior ("bovine bonkers"), tremors, acute death.Tx, if time, with VINEGAR.
Lead toxicity causes more CNS signs (encephalopathy, blind), but can see diarrhea or constipation.
Cantharidin toxicity from blister beetles, is basically a horse disease. Potent irritant: see colic, renal disease, hematuria, peracute death. Follow this link to see a Merck image of
hemorrhagic gastritis. Follow this link to see a Merck image of hemorrhagic cystitis.
Chlorinated hydrocarbons (insecticides like lindane, methoxychlor) - look for CNS depression or stimulation (convulsive seizures).
Refs: Smith, Van Metre, and Pusterla's Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed., pp. 1794-
Link: Inorganic Arsenical Toxicosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/arsenic-poisoning/inorganic-arsenical-toxicosis-in-animals?autoredirectid=16902
Link: Nonprotein Nitrogen Poisoning in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/nonprotein-nitrogen-poisoning/nonprotein-nitrogen-poisoning-in-animals?autoredirectid=14439
Link: Lead Poisoning in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/lead-poisoning/lead-poisoning-in-animals
Link: Cantharidin Toxicosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/cantharidin-toxicosis/cantharidin-toxicosis-in-animals?autoredirectid=17116
Link: Overview of Insecticide and Acaricide (Organic) Toxicosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/toxicology/insecticide-and-acaricide-organic-toxicity/overview-of-insecticide-and-acaricide-organic-toxicosis-in-animals?redirectid=4486?ruleredirectid=30
546
An eight-month-old male neutered cat is presented with a five-day history of bilateral conjunctivitis and rhinitis. An image taken of a conjunctival scrape is shown. What is the likely etiology of this disease?
Mycoplasma
Viral
Bacterial
Immune-mediated
Chlamydia
Answer: Chlamydiosis.
This is chlamydiosis (Chlamydophila felis infection), a cause of conjunctivitis/rhinitis seen most commonly in cats less than one year of age. The image shows a cellular inclusion body consistent with this infection.
C. felis infection is part of the feline upper respiratory disease complex; look for co-infection with other agents such as feline herpesvirus-1.
Tx: Systemic doxycycline or pradofloxacin. Tx all cats in a household regardless of clinical signs. Systemic therapy is superior to topical therapy; relapse is common with topical tetracyclines alone. Continue Tx two weeks beyond resolution of clinical signs.
Link: Chlamydial Conjunctivitis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/eye-diseases-and-disorders/chlamydial-conjunctivitis/chlamydial-conjunctivitis-in-animals?autoredirectid=14197
Chlamydial Conjunctivitis in Animals - Comprehensive Information for BCSE Test
Definitions and Causative Agents:
• Chlamydial Conjunctivitis: Infection of the conjunctiva caused by intracellular bacteria of the family Chlamydiaceae.
• Causative Agents: Chlamydia felis (cats), C. psittaci (birds, sheep), C. pecorum (cattle, sheep, pigs), C. suis (pigs), and C. caviae (guinea pigs).
Clinical Findings:
• Cats: Serous to mucopurulent conjunctivitis, nasal discharge, sneezing, conjunctival hyperemia, chemosis, follicle formation on third eyelid.
• Guinea Pigs: Conjunctival hyperemia, chemosis, mucopurulent discharge, potential respiratory and genital infections.
• Livestock: Often asymptomatic, but may present with bilateral epiphora, conjunctival hyperemia, and follicle formation.
Diagnosis:
• Methods: PCR on conjunctival swabs, cytologic examination of conjunctival secretions, exclusion of other causes.
• Tests: Chlamydial inclusions in cytologic preparations, PCR for chlamydial DNA.
Treatment:
• Medications: Systemic tetracyclines (e.g., doxycycline at 10 mg/kg/day for at least 4 weeks).
• Alternatives: Fluoroquinolones, amoxicillin-clavulanic acid for cats.
• Note: All cats in the household should be treated.
Prevention:
• Vaccination: Available for cats, reducing disease severity.
• Hygiene: Hand washing before and after handling infected animals.
Zoonotic Risk:
• Humans: Rare, but possible in immunocompromised individuals or those in close contact with infected animals.
547
By what age should a cat have all its permanent teeth, and how many teeth are in the feline adult dental formula?
30 by 7 months
42 by 6 months
36-44 by 5 years
44 by 20 months
32 by 4 years
Answer: 30 by 7months.
Cats should have 30 teeth by 7 months of age.
Ruminants have 32 by 4 years, horses 36-44 by 5 years, dogs 42 by 7 months, and pigs 44 by 20 months.
Eruption times used to estimate ages are important to study--Follow this link to a Merck Manual tooth eruption table.
Refs: The Merck Vet Manual online edition.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/dental-development-and-anatomy/estimation-of-age-by-examination-of-the-teeth-in-animals
Estimation of Age by Examination of the Teeth in Animals
Horses:
• Dentition: Hypsodont (high-crowned) teeth with continual eruption.
• Age Indicators:
• Eruption Times: Specific ages for deciduous and permanent teeth.
• Occlusal Wear: Changes in shape and appearance (elliptical to triangular).
• Dental Stars and Cups: Secondary dentin, enamel infoldings, and wear patterns.
• Galvayne’s Groove and 7-year Hook: Inconsistent indicators.
Cattle:
• Dentition: Brachydont (low-crowned) teeth.
• Age Indicators:
• Eruption Times: Reliable for age estimation.
• Wear Patterns: Less reliable due to nutritional influences.
Dogs:
• Dentition: Brachydont teeth.
• Age Indicators:
• Dental Wear: Variable due to chewing behaviors and diet.
• Root Canal Width: Evaluated radiographically, affected by endodontic disease.
548
With which part of the cardiac cycle is the fourth heart sound (S4) associated?
End of rapid ventricular filling
Atrial contraction
Emptying of the aorta
Closure of the semilunar valves
Closure of the atrioventricular valves
Answer: Atrial contraction.
The tourth heart sound (54) Is assoclated with atrial contraction.
The first heart sound (S1 - the "lub" in "lub-dub" is caused by closure of the atrioventricular valves (AV valves - mitral and tricuspid) and opening of the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonic valves). This is the start of systole and end of diastole.
The second sound (S2) is the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves and opening of the AV valves. This is the end of systole and start of diastole.
The third sound (S3) is the end of rapid ventricular filling.
You can often hear all 4 heart sounds during auscultation in normal horses, but typically hear only S1 and S2 in cattle and small animals.
Loss of S4 can help differentiate between atrial fibrillation (no atrial contraction so no
S4) and 2nd degree AV block in horses (can hear S4 in the pause between beats).
Both cause an irregular rhythm - but irregularly irregular for Afib and regularly irregular for 2nd degree AV block.
Link: Heart Sounds in Animals. Diagnosis of Heart Disease in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/diagnosis-of-heart-disease/diagnosis-of-heart-disease-in-animals?redirectid=4750?ruleredirectid=30#v3259374
549
A significantly hypokalemic and dehydrated 500-kg horse needs a high level of potassium chloride (KCI) supplementation. K+ typically should not be administered at a rate over 0.5 mEq/ kg/hr. The KCI is 2 mEq/mL. Lactated Ringer's solution (LRS) contains 4 mEq K+/L. What is the approximate maximum amount of potassium chloride (KCI) that could be added to 10 L of LRS in order to run the fluids at 4 L/h?
About 300 mLs of KCI can be added to 10 L of LRS if the maximum safe dose is 0.5 mEq/kg/hr.
This is a very important calculation because potassium supplementation can be fatal if done too quickly. Hyperkalemia raises the resting membrane potential of cells, causing a hyper-excitable state. This can result in muscle and nerve excitability, which can cause cardiac arrhythmias or ARREST.
Here's the calculation:
500 kg horse x 0.5 mEq/kg/hr = 250 mEq/hr of KCI is maximum safe dose
250 mEq/hr divided by 2 mEq/mL = 125 mLs/hr of KCI
At a rate of 4 L/hr, each 4L can contain 125 mLs of KCI
10L will take 2.5 hours to administer at a rate of 4 L/hr
So, 125 mLs x 2.5 = 312.5 mLs of 2 mEq/mL KCI can be in 10 L
The 10 L LRS contains 4 mEq/L = 40 mEq total. This is negligible in
the calculation for a horse but is included below to show it.
Working backwards to check your work:
10 L = 10,000 mLS
Add 300 mLs of KCI So total volume to infuse is 10300 mLs
The concentration of this solution is 640 mEq KCI (= 300 mLs of
KC| x 2 mEq/mL) + 40 mEq in the LRS)/10300 mLs = 0.06 mEq/mL
(note: try it - if you donât include the K+ in the LRS, you still get 0.06 mEq/mL)
0.06 mEq/mL x 4000 mLs/hr = 242 mEq/hr...compare to first calculation: 500 kg horse x 0.5 mEq/kg/hr = 250 mEq/hr of KCI is maximum safe dose - so pretty close!
550
What adverse effect is reported with oral diazepam in cats?
Answer: Hepatic failure
Do not use oral diazepam as an appetite stimulant or anxiolytic in cats due to the risk of serious hepatotoxicity/hepatic failure. Intravenous diazepam is safe in cats and may be used as a pre-anesthetic/sedative agent or to stop seizure activity.
Other oral benzodiazepines (e.g., oxazepam, alprazolam) may be used as anxiolytics in cats.
Mirtazapine and cyproheptadine are alternative, safer, and more effective appetite stimulants for cats.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-nervous-system/psychotropic-agents
Link: Drugs That Affect Appetite in Monogastric Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-digestive-system/drugs-that-affect-appetite-in-monogastric-animals?autoredirectid=21578
Psychotropic Agents in Veterinary Medicine - Comprehensive Information for BCSE Test
Anxiolytics:
• Benzodiazepines: Diazepam, alprazolam, oxazepam, clorazepate.
• Mechanism: Enhance GABA-mediated chloride influx.
• Uses: Anxiety, panic disorders, urine spraying in cats.
• Doses: Oxazepam (dogs: 0.2–0.5 mg/kg, cats: 1–2.5 mg/cat, PO, bid).
• Side Effects: Sedation, muscle relaxation, dependence, withdrawal.
• Buspirone:
• Mechanism: Serotonin blocker, dopamine agonist.
• Uses: Anxiety-related behaviors, urine spraying in cats.
• Dose: 2.5–7.5 mg/cat.
• Side Effects: Less sedative effect compared to benzodiazepines.
Antipsychotics:
• Low-potency agents: Acepromazine, chlorpromazine, thioridazine.
• Uses: Nonselective tranquilization, behavioral arousal reduction.
• Side Effects: Sedation, anticholinergic and cardiovascular effects, fewer extrapyramidal effects.
• High-potency agents: Haloperidol, fluphenazine, trifluoperazine.
• Uses: Behavioral control.
• Side Effects: Extrapyramidal symptoms (parkinsonism, dystonia).
Mood-Stabilizing Drugs:
• Lithium:
• Mechanism: Unknown; used for bipolar disorder.
• Dose: 75 mg total dose, bid.
• Side Effects: Polyuria, polydipsia, weight gain, diarrhea.
• Carbamazepine:
• Mechanism: Sodium channel blocker, antiepileptic.
• Dose: 25 mg/cat, PO, bid.
• Side Effects: Possible increased aggression.
Antidepressants:
• Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs): Amitriptyline, imipramine, clomipramine.
• Mechanism: Block serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake.
• Uses: Obsessive-compulsive behaviors, aggression, inappropriate elimination.
• Doses: Amitriptyline (dogs: 1–2 mg/kg, cats: 0.5–1 mg/kg).
• Side Effects: Vomiting, diarrhea, sedation, arrhythmias.
• Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs): Fluoxetine, sertraline, paroxetine.
• Mechanism: Inhibit serotonin reuptake.
• Uses: Alopecia, pruritus, aggression, obsessive-compulsive behaviors.
• Doses: Fluoxetine (dogs: 1 mg/kg/day, cats: 0.5–1 mg/kg/day).
• Side Effects: Appetite changes, GI signs, possible seizures.
Other Agents:
• Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs): Selegiline.
• Uses: Cognitive impairment in aging dogs.
• Mechanism: Inhibit monoamine oxidase enzyme, increasing dopamine levels.
• Progestins: Megestrol acetate, medroxyprogesterone acetate.
• Uses: Aggression, urine marking, roaming.
• Side Effects: Diabetes mellitus, mammary gland hyperplasia, adenocarcinoma, bone marrow suppression.
Drugs That Affect Appetite in Monogastric Animals
Appetite Suppression:
• Dirlotapide: MTP inhibitor for weight loss in dogs.
• Mechanism: Decreases fat absorption, increases satiety via peptide YY.
• Side Effects: Abdominal pain, diarrhea, increased serum transaminases.
Appetite Stimulation:
• Anabolic Steroids:
• Mechanism: Counteract catabolism, improve nitrogen balance.
• Side Effects: Hepatotoxicosis, masculinization, early epiphyseal closure.
• Glucocorticoids:
• Mechanism: Induce euphoria, stimulate appetite.
• Side Effects: Long-term use leads to muscle catabolism.
• Megestrol Acetate:
• Mechanism: Synthetic progestin with glucocorticoid activity.
• Side Effects: Adrenal suppression, diabetes mellitus in cats.
• Benzodiazepines (Diazepam, Oxazepam):
• Mechanism: Enhance taste via GABA-A receptor activation.
• Side Effects: Hepatic necrosis in cats (oral diazepam).
• Cyproheptadine:
• Mechanism: Antihistamine with serotonin-antagonist action.
• Side Effects: CNS excitement, decreased seizure threshold.
• Mirtazapine:
• Mechanism: Antagonist of presynaptic alpha-2-adrenergic autoreceptors.
• Side Effects: Drowsiness, serotonin syndrome at high doses.
• Capromorelin:
• Mechanism: Ghrelin receptor agonist.
• Side Effects: Vomiting, diarrhea, polydipsia, hypersalivation.
551
Which organism causes the condition seen in this skull from a cow?
Answer: Actinomyces bovis is the cause of lumpy_jaw in cattle.
Actinomyces bovis is a slender gram-positive rod that is part of the normal mouth flora.
It enters soft tissue after damage from traumatic feed (stems, grass awns) or foreign objects (baling wire) then causes damage/granulomatous abscesses in the mandible, maxilla, or other bony structure of the head. Remember "MY lumpY" for lumpy jaw (ie: MYces, lumpY)
Actinobacillus ligniersi causes wooden tongue (remember LIGNIN is what makes WOOD).
Fusobacterium necrophorum is associated with anything rotten. Think foot rot, quittor, necrotic stomatitis, calf diphtheria, necrotic rhinitis.
Acremonium spp. are fungi that cause Mycetomas.
Refs: Smith, Van Metre and Pusterla's Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed., pp. 811-13. Images courtesy of Steve Loncosky and Kevin Terra.
Link: Actinomycosis in Cattle, Swine, and Other Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/actinomycosis/actinomycosis-in-cattle,-swine,-and-other-animals
Link: Actinobacillosis.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/actinobacillosis/actinobacillosis
Link: Necrotic Laryngitis in Cattle.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/respiratory-system/infectious-respiratory-system-diseases-in-cattle/necrotic-laryngitis-in-cattle?autoredirectid=20487
Link: Mycetomas in Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/fungal-infections/mycetomas-in-animals?autoredirectid=21091
552
When positioning a cat for a thoracic radiograph, where do you measure the cat and where do you center the x-ray beam?
Cranial to 13th rib, xiphoid process
Point of elbow on the chest, point of elbow on the chest
C5, L1 vertebral bodies
Caudal to border of scapula, between 5th & 6th ribs
Point of shoulder, spine of scapula
Answer: Caudal to border of scapula, between 5th & 6th ribs.
For thoracic radiographs, measure the cat over the widest part of the thorax, which would be caudal to the border of the scapula.
To ensure that the upper and lower portions of the lungs are included in the thoracic radiograph, center the beam between the 5th and 6th ribs.
The caudal border of the film should be the L1 vertebral body.
This thoracic radiograph of a cat shows the proper centering and cranial and caudal borders. (Image courtesy of the University of Illinois.)
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/feline/thorax/ex02/f0411_Canvas.html
Ref: Tighe and Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians, 4th ed. p.156.
553
Which type of immune reaction is occurring in this picture?
Type II
Type IV
Type III
None of these
Type I
Answer: Type I
Type I immune reactions are the classic ACUTE allergic reaction - can be a localized allergy like wheals or urticaria or a severe systemic anaphylaxis.
Free allergen binds IgE antibodies on mast cells and basophils, triggering release of histamine, leukotrienes, eosinophilic chemotactic factor, platelet activating factor, kinins, serotonins, and proteolytic enzymes. These chemicals cause vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and smooth muscle contraction.
Agents that can cause anaphylactic and allergic reactions include: vaccines, venom (like bee stings), drugs, food, and blood products.
TypicallyTx localized anaphylactic (allergic) reactions with things like diphenhydramine hydrochloride (1-2mg/kg IV or IM), dexamethasone enterally or parenterally, prednisolone PO, or epinephrine hydrochloride (0.15 cc SC at site of allergy initiation, dog).
Ref: Blackwell's 5-Min. Vet Consult Canine-Feline, 4th ed. pp. 68-69.
Link: Hypersensitivity Diseases in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/immune-system/immunologic-diseases/hypersensitivity-diseases-in-animals#v3277239
Hypersensitivity Diseases in Animals - Comprehensive Information for BCSE Test
Type I Hypersensitivity
• Mediated by: IgE antibodies and mast cells.
• Examples: Anaphylaxis, urticaria, allergic rhinitis, asthma.
• Symptoms: Pruritus, facial edema, dyspnea, vomiting, diarrhea, shock.
• Treatment: Epinephrine, antihistamines, corticosteroids, bronchodilators.
Type II Hypersensitivity
• Mediated by: IgG or IgM antibodies against cell surface antigens.
• Examples: Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia.
• Symptoms: Anemia, leukopenia, vasculitis.
• Treatment: Immunosuppressive therapy, removal of causative agent.
Type III Hypersensitivity
• Mediated by: Immune complexes.
• Examples: Glomerulonephritis, vasculitis, arthritis.
• Symptoms: Polyarthritis, cutaneous lesions, renal insufficiency.
• Treatment: Supportive care, immunosuppressive therapy.
Type IV Hypersensitivity
• Mediated by: T lymphocytes.
• Examples: Contact dermatitis, granulomatous reactions.
• Symptoms: Skin lesions, granulomas.
• Treatment: Corticosteroids, removal of allergen.
Medications and Details
1. Epinephrine:
• Action: Vasoconstriction, bronchodilation.
• Dose: 0.01 mg/kg IM/IV.
• Effects: Increased heart rate, blood pressure.
2. Antihistamines:
• Action: Block histamine receptors.
• Examples: Diphenhydramine, chlorpheniramine.
• Dose: Varies by drug and species.
• Effects: Sedation, dry mouth.
3. Corticosteroids:
• Action: Anti-inflammatory.
• Examples: Prednisone, dexamethasone.
• Dose: Varies by drug and species.
• Effects: Immunosuppression, increased appetite, polydipsia/polyuria.
4. Bronchodilators:
• Action: Relax bronchial muscles.
• Examples: Theophylline, albuterol.
• Dose: Varies by drug and species.
• Effects: Increased heart rate, tremors.
5. Immunosuppressive Agents:
• Action: Reduce immune response.
• Examples: Azathioprine, cyclosporine.
• Dose: Varies by drug and species.
• Effects: Increased infection risk, liver toxicity.
554
What is a Potter-Bucky diaphragm?
Canine birth control device
Shield protecting the end of an endoscope
Moveable x-ray grid
Ultrasound focusing element
Anesthetic gas filter.
Answer: Moveable x-ray grid
A Potter-Bucky diaphragm is a moveable x-ray grid.
An x-ray grid is basically a plate made of alternating strips of lead, which block scattered x-rays, interspersed between strips of plastic or aluminum, which allow the straight x- rays through.
A Potter-Bucky diaphragm grid moves in time with a particular ×-ray exposure setting, so that gridlines from the lead strips in the grid do not show up on the x-ray film.
Ref: Bassert and Thomas, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed. p. 488.
555
Which one of the following is TRUE about Brucella vaccination in cattle?
Increases resistance to infection, but doesn’t protect 100%
Should be performed on all calves less than 3 months of age
Should only be given to bull calves less than 8 mos
Should not be given to heifer calves between 4-12 month old
Answer: Increases resistance to infection, but doesn’t protect 100%.
Vaccination against brucellosis with strain 19 or RB51 vaccines should be done on ALL HEIFER calves between 4-12 months of age. Vaccination INCREASES resistance but DOES NOT PROTECT 100%.
Typically don't vaccinate males- can't tattoo them or put in official èar tags like with females.
(Example of state brucellosis regs, PA).
http://www.pacodeandbulletin.gov/Display/pacode?file=/secure/pacode/data/007/chapter7/chap7toc.html
Refs: The Merck Veterinary Manual online edition.
Link: Brucellosis in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/brucellosis-in-large-animals/brucellosis-in-cattle
Comprehensive List of Important Information on Brucellosis in Cattle for BCSE Test
Etiology and Epidemiology
1. Causative Agent:
• Brucella abortus; occasionally B. suis, B. melitensis (not in the US).
2. Transmission:
• Ingestion of contaminated feed/water, contact with aborted fetuses, placentas, uterine and amniotic fluids.
• Rare venereal transmission.
Pathogenesis
1. Infection Process:
• Causes bacteremia, abortion, stillbirth, and weak calves.
• Organisms shed in milk and uterine fluids.
Clinical Findings
1. Symptoms:
• Abortion, retained placenta, decreased milk production.
• Bulls: Seminal vesicles, testicular infections, and arthritis.
Diagnosis
1. Diagnostic Methods:
• Serologic tests: Agglutination, complement fixation, ELISA.
• Culture of placenta, milk, aborted fetal tissues.
Control and Prevention
1. No practical treatment available.
2. Vaccination:
• B. abortus Strain 19 or RB51 for young animals.
3. Management Practices:
• Test and slaughter programs, isolation of replacements, and biosecurity.
556
Collies have a nonfunctional P-glycoprotein pump on the cellular membrane. This affects what aspect of pharmacokinetics?
Drug distribution
Biotransformation
It has no effect on pharmacokinetics
Mechanism of action
Clearance
Answer: Drug distribution.
Distribution describes how a drug moves to various parts and tissues of the body after absorption (pharmacokinetics). The blood-brain barrier (BBB) is one of the most important physical barriers to drugs.
Collies have a genetic mutation in the -glycoprotein pump on the BBB that renders it nonfunctional. This allows drugs like ivermectin to readily cross into the central nervous system and cause toxicity.
Mechanism of action is a factor of pharmacodynamics.
Refs: Bassert and Thomas, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th
edition, p. 956.
557
Which one of the following choices is the preferred treatment for ionophore toxicity?
Cisapride
Merformin
Neostigmine
Dimercaprol
There is no antidote
Answer: There is no antidote.
Unfortunately, there is NO ANTIDOTE that will reverse clinical signs of ionophore toxicity.
You may decrease absorption of ionophores with activated charcoal or mineral oil (bind or speeds up passage, respectively). Early administration of vitamin E/selenium may lessen muscle damage. lonophores are used as feed additives/growth promoter for cattle to decrease intake while maintaining weight gain (push gut microflora to make more volatile fatty acids), decrease feedlot bloat and acidosis.
HORSES are the most sensitive by far to ionophore toxicity (e.g.: Monensin®, Lasalocid®). In HORSES look for HISTORY OF EATING CATTLE FEED.
See anorexia, colic, stiffness ("tying up"), tachycardia, posterior paresis, and high creatine kinase (skeletal muscle necrosis). In cattle, toxicity affects multiple organ systems, esp. HEART FAILURE.
Refs: Smith, Van Metre, and Pusterla's Large Animal Internal Medicine, 6th ed., pp. 495-
99. 1440 and Osweiler's NVMS Toxicology pp. 338-40.
Link: Performance Modifiers in Beef Cattle.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/nutrition-beef-cattle/performance-modifiers-in-beef-cattle?redirectid=25025
Growth Promoters and Metabolic Modifiers for Beef Cattle
Definitions and Causative Agents:
• Growth Promoters: Substances used to enhance growth rates, feed efficiency, and muscle mass.
• Metabolic Modifiers: Compounds that modify metabolic processes to improve growth and production efficiency.
Types and Mechanisms:
1. Ionophores (e.g., Monensin, Lasalocid):
• Mechanism: Selective antimicrobial activity; shifts ruminal fermentation, improves feed efficiency, decreases bloat and acidosis.
• Usage: Feed additive, not used in human medicine.
2. Antimicrobials (e.g., Tylosin, Virginiamycin):
• Mechanism: Decrease liver abscesses.
• Usage: Veterinary feed directive required in the US.
3. Beta Agonists (e.g., Ractopamine):
• Mechanism: Stimulate muscle protein synthesis.
• Usage: Improve weight gain, feed efficiency, carcass yield during final feeding days.
4. Progestins (e.g., Melengestrol Acetate):
• Mechanism: Suppress estrus in finishing heifers.
• Usage: Enhance feed efficiency.
5. Growth-Promoting Hormone Implants:
• Mechanism: Provide hormones/hormone analogues over an extended period.
• Usage: Increase lean tissue accretion.
Application and Regulations:
• Approval: All products approved by the FDA for use in medicated feed.
• Usage Restrictions: Must adhere to label instructions; extra-label use is not permitted.
Benefits:
• Production Efficiency: Improve sustainability, positive returns on investment, minimize environmental footprint.
558
When using a stylet to stiffen an endotracheal tube, how far past the tip should it extended?
It should not extend past the end at all
At least 2 inches to allow it to enter the laryngeal folds first
A stylet should never be used
3-5 centimeters
1-2 mm
Answer: it should not extend past the end at all.
If a stylet is needed to stiffen an endotracheal tube, it should never extend past the end
of the tube.
Numerous styles of stylets exist, and the size and length will vary depending on the size and length of the endotracheal tube. There is an increased chance of trauma to the laryngeal folds, oropharynx, and trachea if the stylet extends past the end of the endotracheal tube.
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth ed. p. 1030.
559
Which animal consistently has 44 teeth (the most) in its adult dental formula?
Horse
Cow
Cat
Dog
Pig
Answer: Pig.
Adult PIGS consistently have the most teeth, 44, followed by dogs (42), horses (36-44), ruminants (32) and cats (30).
Eruption times used to estimate ages is more important to study--Follow this link to a Merck Manual tooth eruption table.
Refs: Smith's Large An Med 3rd ed. pp. 601-05 and the Merck Veterinary Manual online edition
560
Clostridium botulinum causes which syndrome in horses?
Limberneck
Malignant hyperthermia
Shaker foals
Redwater
Lockjaw
Answer: Shaker foals.
Shaker foal syndrome, or toxicoinfectious botulism, occurs when Clostridium botulinum sporulates in the tissues of a living animal and elaborates toxins. Foals demonstrate signs of progressive symmetric motor paralysis, including stilted gait, muscular tremors, and recumbency.
Botulism in Animals - Comprehensive Information for BCSE Test
Definitions and Causative Agents:
• Botulism: A neuroparalytic disease caused by ingestion of neurotoxins produced by Clostridium botulinum types A–G.
• Causative Agents: Clostridium botulinum types A, B, C1, D, E, F, and G.
Clinical Findings:
• Symptoms: Flaccid muscle paralysis, disturbed vision, difficulty chewing and swallowing, generalized progressive paresis. Death often due to respiratory or cardiac paralysis.
• Lesions: No characteristic gross or histologic lesions; pathologic changes mainly due to paralytic action on respiratory muscles.
Diagnosis:
• Methods: Clinical signs, elimination of other causes, mouse inoculation test, ELISA testing for toxin detection, culture from tissues.
Treatment:
• Medications:
• Botulinum Antitoxin: Variable success depending on toxin type and host species.
• Supportive Care: Hydration, electrolyte correction, general supportive measures.
• Antitoxin for Foals: Type B specific or polyvalent antitoxin (30,000 IU, IV) before recumbency.
Prevention:
• Dietary Management: Correct deficiencies, remove decaying grass or spoiled silage.
• Vaccination: Types C and D toxoid in cattle and mink; type B toxoid in horses in endemic areas.
Botulism in Poultry - Comprehensive Information for BCSE Test
Definitions and Causative Agents:
• Botulism: Toxic disorder from ingestion of exotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum.
• Causative Agents: Clostridium botulinum types C, D, C/D, D/C; occasionally type E.
Pathogenesis:
• Mechanism: Neurotoxins bind to presynaptic membranes of cholinergic nerve terminals, blocking acetylcholine release, causing flaccid paralysis.
• Environment: Anaerobic, high temperatures (>25°C), decaying organic matter.
Clinical Findings:
• Symptoms: Leg weakness, flaccid paralysis of legs, wings, neck (limberneck), nictitating membranes; labored breathing, ruffled feathers.
• Onset: 2 hours to ~2 weeks post-ingestion.
Diagnosis:
• Methods: Clinical signs, absence of lesions, toxin detection (mouse bioassay, ELISA, mass spectrometry), PCR for clostridia.
• Differentiation: Marek’s disease, enterococcal spondylitis, drug toxicosis, skeletal problems.
Treatment:
• Medications: Beta-lactam antibiotics (for toxicoinfectious component), botulism antitoxins (cost-prohibitive, limited availability).
• Supportive Care: Hydration, electrolytes, separating affected birds, litter replacement, biosecurity measures.
Prevention:
• Environmental Control: Dispose of carcasses, disinfect, control vectors, stabilize water levels.
• Vaccination: Not cost-effective commercially but used in recurring cases.
561
A canine vaginal smear is examined through a microscope. There are about 85% small, round, nucleated paranasal cells and larger nucleated intermediate cells and some neutrophils. In what stage of extras cycle is this dog?
Cannot tell from this description
Proestrus
Diestrus
Anestrus
Estrus
Answer: Diestrus.
This is diestrus. DI-estrus canine vaginal smears are made up of >80% nucleated, round- edged parabasal and intermediate cells. Look for the reappearance of some neutrophils (variable numbers). In anestrus, parabasal and intermediate cells will predominate the smear, with only a few neutrophils and bacteria visible.
In contrast to di-estrus, think of CORN FLAKES with ESTRUS. Look for more than 90% CORNIFIED superficial cells (angular, sharp edges like corn flakes, tiny pyknotic nuclei or no nuclei) when you think canine estrus, and NO NEUTS.
Serum progesterone can predict the H surge and help estimate ovulation.
RULE OF THUMB: Breed bitch as soon as she will allow a male to mate or as soon as you see > 90% cornified superficial epithelial cells in a vaginal smear. Typically breed every 2- 4 days until bitch enters diestrus for maximum fertility success.
Refs: Current Therapy in Therio 2, Morrow pp. 460-5 and Blackwell's 5-Minute Vet Consult Canine Feline, 4th ed. pp. 180-1.
Link: Breeding Management of Dogs and Cats.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/management-of-reproduction-dogs-and-cats/breeding-management-of-dogs-and-cats#v49773406
562
Which domestic animal is most sensitive to the toxins of Clostridium tetani?
Ferrets
Cattle
Horses
Sheep
Dogs
Answer: Horses.
Horses are extremely susceptible to the neurotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani, which causes spasmodic, tonic muscular contractions. Spasms of muscles around the head lead to the common name of "lockjaw."
Refs: Smith, Large Animal Internal Medicine, 3rd ed. pp. 995-8 and Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gthed, p. 265.
563
Which choice best describes the process of repairing a dirty and traumatized wound by second intention?
Insert a drain and bind the wound closed with bandages
Suture the wound closed
Allow wound to epithelialize and contract to closure
Application of a tissue graft
Delay primary closure.
Answer: Allow wound to epithelialize and contract to closure.
Second intention healing is used for dirty, traumatized wounds, where the injury is cleaned and allowed to contract and epithelialize on its own until closed. This kind of wound closure has risks because new epithelium is easily damaged, and contracted skin can sometimes impede normal movement.
Because of this, many wounds like this are left open to contract and granulate in (3-5 days) and then closed surgically (delayed closure, also called third intention healing).
First intention healing (also called appositional healing or primary wound closure) means you suture up a fresh, clean wound within 6-8 hours of injury.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gthed. p. 919.
Link: Initial Wound Management in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/emergency-medicine-and-critical-care/wound-management/initial-wound-management-in-animals
Initial Wound Management in Small Animals
Concepts
Initial wound management prioritizes the patient’s overall stability and addresses the wound using principles of debridement, infection control, and moisture balance. Proper management includes prompt assessment, stabilization, and first aid.
Wound Lavage
• Purpose: Remove debris and decrease bacterial load.
• Technique: Use large volumes of nontoxic fluids, preferably saline. Low-pressure systems for clean wounds; higher pressure (48-55 kPa) for contaminated wounds.
• Fluids: Saline, chlorhexidine diacetate (0.05%), povidone-iodine.
Surgical Debridement
• Purpose: Remove nonviable tissue.
• Techniques: Sharp dissection, autolytic, mechanical, enzymatic, biological (maggot therapy).
• Considerations: Assess tissue viability, staged debridement for essential structures.
Wound Closure
• Options: Primary, delayed primary, or secondary closure.
• Considerations: Wound contamination, infection status, skin availability.
• Techniques: Suture, staples, cyanoacrylate.
Open Wound Management
• Indications: When closure isn’t feasible due to infection, extensive skin loss.
• Management: Regular bandage changes, mechanical debridement, moist wound healing.
• Advantages: Enables progressive debridement, doesn’t require specialized equipment.
Analgesia and Antimicrobial Therapy
• Analgesia: Essential for pain management.
• Antimicrobial Therapy: Broad-spectrum bactericidal agents pending culture results for dirty or infected wounds.
Key Points
• Stabilization: Prioritize overall patient stability.
• Lavage and Debridement: Essential for removing contamination.
• Wound Management: Choose closure or open wound management based on wound assessment.
564
Which one of the following artifacts is caused by an uneven distribution of photons, resulting in an increase in intensity of the x-ray beam on the cathode side of the x-ray tube?
Elongation
Ghost image
Heel effect
Gridlines
Foreshortening
Answer: Heel effect.
The heel effect is due to an uneven distribution of photons leaving the x-ray tube.
This causes the x-ray beam to be more intense at the cathode side compared to the anode side.
The variation in intensity is related to the angle of the tungsten target and its absorption of photons.
The result is a darker image on the cathode side of the image.
To create a uniform density across the image, position the thicker portion of the anatomic structure being radiographed towards the cathode side of the -ray tube.
Foreshortening occurs when the structure being radiographed is lifted off the table, causing the structure to appear shorter than its actual size.
Elongation artifact occurs when the x-ray beam is not centered on the structure being radiographed, causing the image to appear longer than its normal size.
Gridlines occur if the lead strips in the grid are too thick, causing them to appear in the image.
Refs: McCurnin and Bassert, Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed. pp. 480-499
565
What is the main function of the lateral line system in fish, highlighted here with an arrow in a goldfish (Carassius auratus)?
Answer: Detect movement and pressure changes.
The lateral line system helps fish to detect movement, vibration, and pressure differences in the water. This sensitivity gives them spatial awareness and the ability to navigate.
Fish use the information they receive from the lateral line organs to orient in water, hunt, hide, and in schooling behavior.
The main functional unit of the lateral line is a mechanoreceptor called the neuromast, which resembles the hair cells of the inner ear of mammals. Neuromasts sense changes in water pressure, movement, and vibration. In a way, the lateral line system is one type of "ear" of the fish.
Click here to see a diagram of the lateral line sensory organ with neuromasts.
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/1/10/LateralLine_Organ.jpg
566
What is the primary use of xylazine in cattle?
Xylazine is primarily used for chemical restraint in cattle. Xylazine is an alpha-two agonist with sedative, analgesic, and muscle relaxation properties.
Cattle are very sensitive to xylazine - the bovine dose is about 1/10 the dose used in dogs or horses. It is often used in combination with ketamine and butorphanol.
Bloat and hypoxemia are a concern when you use xylazine in cattle at doses that can cause recumbency.
Xylazine is reversed with yohimbine, atipamezole, or tolazoline.
Link: Recommended Cattle Analgesic and Anesthetic Agents
https://www.depts.ttu.edu/iacuc/Anesthetics_and_Analgesics_Cattle.pdf
567
Which hematologic abnormalities would be consistent with traumatic reticuloperitonitis in a cow?
Answer: Hyperfibrinogenemia.
Fibrinogen is markedly increased in most cases of chronic inflammation in cattle (and horses).
Cows with chronic pyogenic infections usually have neutrophilia, not leukopenia. The degree of neutrophilia depends on the amount of inflammation and the bone marrow's ability to respond. After 3 weeks, the antibody fraction of plasma should be markedly increased. Electrophoretic analysis should show a polyclonal gammopathy. (hypergammaglobulinemia). Blood glucose concentrations are often increased due to the stress of chronic inflammation.
Hyperamylasemia is often seen in dogs with exocrine pancreatitis, but is relatively nonspecific (i.e., other renal, Gl and hepatobiliary disease can also cause hyperamylasemia).
Link: Fibrinogen
https://eclinpath.com/hemostasis/tests/fibrinogen/
Link: Gammopathies in animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/immune-system/immunologic-diseases/gammopathies-in-animals?redirectid=31139
Link: Pancreatitis in Dogs and Cats.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/the-exocrine-pancreas/pancreatitis-in-dogs-and-cats?redirectid=31746
568
What is the numerical classification for the canine tooth in the right maxilla in dog?
Answer: 104
There are two slightly different tooth numbering systems, the anatomical and the Triadan systems, but they both number the canines and incisors the same way.
This chart shows the modified Triadian system for the dog:
The upper right canine is 104.
The lower right canine is 404.
The upper left canine is 204.
The lower left canine is 304.
The first upper left premolar is 205.
569
What is the numerical classification for the canine tooth in the right maxilla in dog?
Answer: 104
There are two slightly different tooth numbering systems, the anatomical and the Triadan systems, but they both number the canines and incisors the same way.
This chart shows the modified Triadian system for the dog:
The upper right canine is 104.
The lower right canine is 404.
The upper left canine is 204.
The lower left canine is 304.
The first upper left premolar is 205.
570
What is the best test to diagnose a suspected brain tumor in dogs and cats?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the diagnostic test of choice for diagnosis of brain tumors in small animals. MRI is more sensitive than computed tomography (CT) scanning, although it is a more expensive and less widely available test. Older techniques such as myelography have largely been superseded by advanced imaging for diagnosis of brain/spinal cord Dz.
Cerebrospinal fluid analysis (CSF) maybe abnormal with a brain tumor but the results are non-specific.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/clinical-pathology-and-procedures/diagnostic-imaging/magnetic-resonance-imaging-in-animals
Link: Brain tumors.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/neoplasia-of-the-nervous-system/neoplasia-of-the-nervous-system-in-animals#Diagnosis_v3288940
Neoplasia of the Nervous System in Animals - Comprehensive Information for BCSE Test
Definitions and Types:
• Primary Neoplasia: Tumors originating from the brain, spinal cord, or peripheral nerves.
• Secondary Neoplasia: Tumors originating from other organs and metastasizing to the nervous system.
Causative Agents and Conditions:
• Primary Tumors: Meningiomas, gliomas (astrocytomas, oligodendrogliomas), choroid plexus tumors, ependymomas.
• Secondary Tumors: Hemangiosarcoma, mammary carcinoma, lymphosarcoma.
Clinical Findings:
• Symptoms: Seizures, mentation changes, sensory deficits, muscle dysfunction, paresis, visual deficits.
• Lesions: Brain masses, spinal cord involvement, peripheral nerve thickening.
Diagnosis:
• Imaging: MRI, CT for presumptive diagnosis.
• Biopsy: Definitive diagnosis through histopathology.
Treatment:
• Surgery: Tumor resection.
• Radiation Therapy: Targeted treatment for inoperable tumors.
• Chemotherapy: Systemic or localized depending on tumor type.
Tumors of the Nervous System in Animals - Comprehensive Information
Primary Tumors:
1. Meningiomas:
• Location: Arise from the meninges, common in dogs and cats.
• Treatment: Surgical removal, radiation therapy.
2. Gliomas (Astrocytomas, Oligodendrogliomas):
• Location: Neuroectodermal origin, common in brachycephalic breeds.
• Treatment: Surgery, radiation therapy, chemotherapy.
3. Choroid Plexus Papillomas:
• Location: Ventricular system.
• Treatment: Surgical removal, radiation therapy.
4. Ependymomas:
• Location: Ventricular system and spinal cord.
• Treatment: Surgery, radiation therapy.
5. Pituitary Tumors:
• Location: Pituitary gland.
• Treatment: Surgery, radiation therapy, hormone therapy.
6. Neuroblastomas, Ganglioneuroblastomas, Ganglioneuromas:
• Location: Peripheral nerves.
• Treatment: Surgery, chemotherapy.
Secondary Tumors:
• Metastatic Tumors: Originate from other organs (e.g., mammary carcinoma, lymphosarcoma).
• Treatment: Address primary tumor, palliative care for neurological symptoms.
Diagnosis:
• Imaging: MRI, CT.
• Biopsy: Histopathological examination.
Symptoms:
• Common Signs: Seizures, mentation changes, sensory deficits, motor dysfunction.
571
Which one of the following statements is true regarding the legal utilization of compounded medications?
Answer: Use of a compounded medication constitutes extra-label drug use
The use of a compounded medication is an example of extra-label drug use (the use of a drug in a way not in accordance with the label, for example a different dosage, interval, route, or indication).
Compounding medications involves the manipulation of a federally-approved drug by a licensed veterinarian or pharmacist to meet the specific needs of a veterinary patient. This includes adding flavoring, using crushed tablets to prepare a paste or suspension, or mixing different drugs together.
Legal compounding does not typically involve the use of bulk or raw active ingredients. If a federally approved drug is available, it must be used for the compounding process.
In rare situations where no United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA) or Health Canada approved drug is available that would relieve an animals suffering or prevent death, then compounding is acceptable but this is a last resort. Legal compounding is not a way to avoid the drug approval process or market drugs for a cheaper price.
Generic drugs are not the same as compounded drugs. Generic drugs are approved by the FDA or Health Canada, meaning that their safety and efficacy has been proven by testing to be equivalent to that of the pioneer drug product. Compounded drugs are subject to no federal testing or approval.
Link: New Animal Drugs, Extralabel Drug Use, Compounded Drugs, and Generic Drugs
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/pharmacology-introduction/new-animal-drugs,-extralabel-drug-use,-compounded-drugs,-and-generic-drugs
Comprehensive Information on New Animal Drugs, Extralabel Drug Use, Compounded Drugs, and Generic Drugs
Definitions and Regulatory Aspects:
• New Animal Drug (NAD): Any drug intended for animal use, reviewed by FDA’s CVM for safety, efficacy, quality control, environmental impact, and proper labeling.
• Extralabel Drug Use: Use of a drug in a manner not in accordance with its approved label, legalized by AMDUCA under specific conditions.
Prescribing Requirements:
• Veterinary Prescription: Must include veterinarian’s details, drug name and strength, usage directions, client details, animal identification, cautionary statements, and refills.
Compounding:
• Compounded Drugs: Manipulation of drugs beyond the label instructions, often used when no suitable NAD is available. Compounding from bulk substances is under regulatory guidelines and limited circumstances.
Generic Drugs:
• Generic Equivalents: Must contain the same active ingredient as the proprietary drug and meet bioequivalence standards. Therapeutic equivalence is relevant only for the approved species.
Specific Regulations:
• Prohibited Drugs for Extralabel Use in Food Animals: Includes chloramphenicol, clenbuterol, diethylstilbestrol, nitroimidazoles, fluoroquinolones, and others due to safety concerns.
572
Why is monensin used as a feed supplement in lactating dairy cattle?
Answer: Increase feed efficiency
lonophore antibiotics (e.g., monensin, lasalocid) increase feed efficiency by causing rumen microorganisms to produce more propionic acid (a volatile fatty acid or VFA) and less acetic and butyric acids. Propionic acid is more efficiently converted to glucose than are the other VAs. lonophores also lead to reduced methane output, decreased lactic acidosis, and help control coccidiosis. Use of monensin in dry cows can decrease post-partum ketosis and other metabolic diseases common in the transition period.
Despite these benefits, ionophores are only labeled for increasing milk production efficiency and therefore can not be used in an extra-label manner. Always check the label and laws of the country to be sure antibiotics are used appropriately.
Link: Growth Promoters and Metabolic Modifiers for Beef Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/nutrition-beef-cattle/growth-promoters-and-metabolic-modifiers-for-beef-cattle?autoredirectid=22125&redirectid=25025
Growth Promoters and Metabolic Modifiers for Beef Cattle
Types and Functions
1. Ionophores (e.g., monensin, lasalocid, laidlomycin propionate)
• Function: Enhance feed efficiency, reduce bloat, coccidiostats.
• Mechanism: Shift ruminal fermentation to promote energy availability.
2. Antimicrobials (e.g., tylosin, virginiamycin)
• Function: Decrease liver abscesses.
• Regulation: Require a veterinary feed directive (VFD) in the US.
3. Beta Agonists (e.g., ractopamine)
• Function: Improve weight gain, feed efficiency, carcass yield.
• Mechanism: Increase muscle protein synthesis.
4. Progestins (e.g., melengestrol acetate)
• Function: Suppress estrus in finishing heifers.
Regulatory and Safety Information
• Approval: All growth promoters and metabolic modifiers must be FDA-approved.
• Label Use: Veterinarians must follow label instructions; extra-label use is prohibited.
• Sustainability: Enhance production efficiency and minimize environmental impact.
- Ionophore antibiotics (e.g., monensin, lasalocid) improve feed efficiency.
- Increase propionic acid production, decrease acetic and butyric acids.
- Propionic acid efficiently converted to glucose.
- Ionophores reduce methane output, lactic acidosis, control coccidiosis.
- Monensin in dry cows reduces post-partum ketosis, metabolic diseases.
- Labeled for increasing milk production efficiency only.
Check label and laws for appropriate antibiotic use.
573
Which statement about brucellosis is correct?
Answer: Infected cows abort only once
A cow infected with brucellosis typically aborts only once after exposure, in the second half of the gestation; later pregnancies and lactations appear normal. Some infected cows that previously aborted will shed from the uterus at subsequent (though clinically normal) parturitions, acting as a source of infection for other cattle.
The Brucella milk ring test is used to identify affected herds but has high false positives.
Serum agglutination at dilutions of 1:100 or more in nonvaccinated animals and of 1:200 in animals vaccinated between 4 and 12 months old are considered positive (reactors).
Brucellosis affects all the domestic animals including pigs, which have their own brucellosis organism, Brucella suis.
Here are summaries about infection abortion in various species:
Infectious abortion agents in cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/abortion-in-large-animals/abortion-in-cattle
Infectious abortion agents in sheep
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/abortion-in-large-animals/abortion-in-sheep
Infectious abortion agents in goats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/abortion-in-large-animals/abortion-in-goats
Infectious abortion agents in pigs
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/abortion-in-large-animals/abortion-in-pigs
Infectious abortion agents in horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/abortion-in-large-animals/abortion-in-horses
Link: Brucellosis in Cattle.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/brucellosis-in-large-animals/brucellosis-in-cattle
Link: Brucellosis in Pigs.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/brucellosis-in-large-animals/brucellosis-in-pigs
Brucellosis in Cattle
Etiology and Epidemiology
1. Causative Agent:
• Brucella abortus; occasionally B. suis, B. melitensis (not in the US).
2. Transmission:
• Ingestion of contaminated feed/water, contact with aborted fetuses, placentas, uterine and amniotic fluids.
• Rare venereal transmission.
Pathogenesis
1. Infection Process:
• Causes bacteremia, abortion, stillbirth, and weak calves.
• Organisms shed in milk and uterine fluids.
Clinical Findings
1. Symptoms:
• Abortion, retained placenta, decreased milk production.
• Bulls: Seminal vesicles, testicular infections, and arthritis.
Diagnosis
1. Diagnostic Methods:
• Serologic tests: Agglutination, complement fixation, ELISA.
• Culture of placenta, milk, aborted fetal tissues.
Control and Prevention
1. No practical treatment available.
2. Vaccination:
• B. abortus Strain 19 or RB51 for young animals.
3. Management Practices:
• Test and slaughter programs, isolation of replacements, and biosecurity.
574
An eight-month-old male Shepherd-mix dog is presented for acute forelimb lameness after running into a tree at the park. Radiographs reveal a single mid-diaphyseal greenstick fracture of the right radius. External coaptation is applied in the form of a cast. Which statement regarding cast placement is most correct?
Answer: Keep distal 3rd and 4th phalanges exposed.
When placing a cast, splint, or Robert Jones bandage always keep the distal 3rd and 4th phalanges exposed to monitor for signs of ischemic injury.
A cast is appropriate for a greenstick fracture below the elbow in a young dog or cat. Include the joint above and below the fracture in the cast. Apply cast padding and conforming gauze as tightly as possible, working from distal to proximal.
As a rule do not use casts for fractures above the elbow or knee. They increase instability at the fracture site and it is difficult to achieve adequate stabilization in this manner.
Link: Bone Trauma in Dogs and Cats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/osteopathies-in-small-animals/bone-trauma-in-dogs-and-cats
Bone Trauma in Dogs and Cats - Comprehensive Information for BCSE Test
Definitions:
• Bone Fractures: Result from vehicular accidents, firearms, fights, or falls.
• Types of Fractures: Simple, comminuted, oblique, transverse, spiral.
Causes and Clinical Changes:
• Disruptive Trauma Forces: Bending, compression, tension, rotation.
• Symptoms: Lameness, pain, swelling.
Assessment:
• Radiography: Key for delineating fracture patterns.
Treatment:
• External Splints/Casts: For young, healthy dogs with incomplete fractures.
• External/Internal Fixators: Bone plates, screws, orthopedic wires, interlocking nails, pins.
• Cancellous Bone Grafts: Augment healing in ill/aged patients.
• Antibiotics: For open fractures or prolonged repairs.
• Analgesics: Epidural morphine, narcotic skin patches, systemic narcotics, oral NSAIDs.
• Physical Therapy/Rehabilitation: Critical for restoring limb function.
Prognosis:
• Good Recovery: Dependent on injury nature and repair success.
• Follow-Up: Radiographic and clinical assessments.
575
Which drug is PERMITTED for use in food animals?
Answer: Dexamethasone is allowed in food animals, but may cause abortion in pregnant animals. Typically, use dexamethasone in cattle to induce parturition (20-30 mg, IM, given within 2 wk of normal term).
Here is an FDA summary on the Ins and Outs of Extra-Label Drug Use in Animals.
Diethylstilbesterol (DES) is banned for use in food producing animals and should never be used.
Chloramphenicol has been associated with bone marrow suppression/aplastic anemia in exposed humans, and is contraindicated in food-animals.
According to a 2006 report from the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) the use of Estradiol cypionate (ECP) in animals is illegal. ECP has been used as an estrogenic hormone for reproductive therapy in food animals, but even extra-label, this is not allowed
Furazolidone a nitrofuran, is not allowed in food animals.
Link: Overview of Systemic Pharmacotherapeutics of the Reproductive System in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-reproductive-system/overview-of-systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-reproductive-system-in-animals?autoredirectid=14415
Link: The Ins and Outs of Extra-Label Drug Use in Animals: A Resource for Veterinarians
https://www.fda.gov/animal-veterinary/resources-you/ins-and-outs-extra-label-drug-use-animals-resource-veterinarians
Link: Update on drugs prohibited from extralabel use in food animals
http://www.farad.org/publications/digests/092009ProhibitedDrugsUpdated.pdf
576
In the bull, scrotal circumference is directly related to which choice?
Answer: Sperm Count
A bull's sperm count and percentage of morphologically normal sperm is directly related to scrotal circumference (usually 30-34 cm, depending on age). Large scrotal size in bulls is also correlated with early puberty in both heifer and bull calves.
A breeding soundness exam begins with a physical exam and measurement of scrotal circumference. Evaluate libido (if possible) by observing the bull with cows in standing heat (i.e., does he mount?).
Can culture preputial wash samples for two venereal diseases of cattle - bovine genital campylobacteriosis (Campylobacter fetus sp. venerealis) and bovine trichomoniasis (Tritrichomonas foetus).
Semen evaluation for motility and morphology is a key component of a bull breeding soundness exam.
Click here to see a diagram of spermatozoan anatomy.
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/1/13/Simplified_spermatozoon_diagram.svg
Click here to see a selection of sperm morphology images from different animals.
Click here to see a microcephalic spermatozoa in a dog, a major defect.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/image/dog-semen-microcephalic-sperm
Link: Overview of Breeding Soundness Examination of the Male Animal
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/breeding-soundness-examination-of-the-male/overview-of-breeding-soundness-examination-of-the-male-animal?autoredirectid=22727
Link: Bovine Genital Campylobacteriosis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/bovine-genital-campylobacteriosis/bovine-genital-campylobacteriosis?redirectid=30654
Link: Trichomoniasis in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/trichomoniasis/trichomoniasis-in-cattle
577
Which part of the tooth is considered to be living tissue?
Answer: Dentin and pulp are living tissue. Dentin is formed by odontoblasts.
Pulp is composed of odontoblasts and fibroblasts and is supplied by blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics.
Enamel is acellular and considered nonliving tissue.
Follow this link to see a tooth cross-section diagram.
https://commons.m.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:ToothSection.jpg
578
Which part of the tooth is considered to be living tissue?
Answer: Dentin and pulp are living tissue. Dentin is formed by odontoblasts.
Pulp is composed of odontoblasts and fibroblasts and is supplied by blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics.
Enamel is acellular and considered nonliving tissue.
Follow this link to see a tooth cross-section diagram.
https://commons.m.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:ToothSection.jpg
579
The cardiologist asks to have an ECG run on one of the local police dogs. A sinus arrhythmia is noted on the ECG. What changes are typically seen with this condition?
Answer: Heart rate increases with inhalation, decreases with exhalation.
Sinus arrhythmia is related to breathing or high vagal tone. It is normal in dogs and horses and abnormal in cats.
Link: Introduction to Heart and Blood Vessel Disorders in Dogs
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/dog-owners/heart-and-blood-vessel-disorders-of-dogs/introduction-to-heart-and-blood-vessel-disorders-in-dogs
Key Information for BCSE Test: Heart and Blood Vessel Disorders in Dogs
Cardiovascular System:
• Heart Function: Pumps blood; right side to lungs, left side to body.
• Heart Anatomy: Four chambers (left/right atria, left/right ventricles), myocardium muscle.
• Valves: Atrioventricular (mitral, tricuspid), semilunar (aortic, pulmonary).
Heart Rate:
• Sinoatrial Node: Heart’s pacemaker, generates rhythmic electrical impulses.
• Normal Rates: Varies by species size (e.g., 60-120 bpm in dogs).
Heart Sounds and Murmurs:
• Heart Sounds: Produced by blood flow vibrations; two sounds heard in dogs.
• Murmurs: Turbulent blood flow, vary in timing, intensity, and location.
Arrhythmias:
• Types: Bradycardia (slow rate), tachycardia (fast rate), irregular rhythms.
• Diagnosis: ECG for abnormal rhythms.
Pulse:
• Examination: Femoral artery pulse; jugular pulse can be normal.
Disorders and Symptoms:
• Common Issues: Arrhythmias, heart murmurs, varying pulse strength, respiratory sinus arrhythmia.
• Clinical Signs: Exercise intolerance, coughing, difficulty breathing, fainting.
Diagnostics:
• Stethoscope: Heart sounds and murmurs.
• Electrocardiogram (ECG): Abnormal rhythms.
• Blood Pressure Monitoring: Assesses heart function.
Medications:
• Antiarrhythmics: E.g., atenolol, sotalol; regulate heart rate.
• Diuretics: E.g., furosemide; reduce fluid accumulation.
• Vasodilators: E.g., enalapril; improve blood flow.
• Cardiac Glycosides: E.g., digoxin; improve heart contractility.
580
The cardiologist asks to have an ECG run on one of the local police dogs. A sinus arrhythmia is noted on the ECG. What changes are typically seen with this condition?
Answer: Heart rate increases with inhalation, decreases with exhalation.
Sinus arrhythmia is related to breathing or high vagal tone. It is normal in dogs and horses and abnormal in cats.
Link: Introduction to Heart and Blood Vessel Disorders in Dogs
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/dog-owners/heart-and-blood-vessel-disorders-of-dogs/introduction-to-heart-and-blood-vessel-disorders-in-dogs
Key Information for BCSE Test: Heart and Blood Vessel Disorders in Dogs
Cardiovascular System:
• Heart Function: Pumps blood; right side to lungs, left side to body.
• Heart Anatomy: Four chambers (left/right atria, left/right ventricles), myocardium muscle.
• Valves: Atrioventricular (mitral, tricuspid), semilunar (aortic, pulmonary).
Heart Rate:
• Sinoatrial Node: Heart’s pacemaker, generates rhythmic electrical impulses.
• Normal Rates: Varies by species size (e.g., 60-120 bpm in dogs).
Heart Sounds and Murmurs:
• Heart Sounds: Produced by blood flow vibrations; two sounds heard in dogs.
• Murmurs: Turbulent blood flow, vary in timing, intensity, and location.
Arrhythmias:
• Types: Bradycardia (slow rate), tachycardia (fast rate), irregular rhythms.
• Diagnosis: ECG for abnormal rhythms.
Pulse:
• Examination: Femoral artery pulse; jugular pulse can be normal.
Disorders and Symptoms:
• Common Issues: Arrhythmias, heart murmurs, varying pulse strength, respiratory sinus arrhythmia.
• Clinical Signs: Exercise intolerance, coughing, difficulty breathing, fainting.
Diagnostics:
• Stethoscope: Heart sounds and murmurs.
• Electrocardiogram (ECG): Abnormal rhythms.
• Blood Pressure Monitoring: Assesses heart function.
Medications:
• Antiarrhythmics: E.g., atenolol, sotalol; regulate heart rate.
• Diuretics: E.g., furosemide; reduce fluid accumulation.
• Vasodilators: E.g., enalapril; improve blood flow.
• Cardiac Glycosides: E.g., digoxin; improve heart contractility.
581
A 75-pound dog is presented with muzzle swelling caused by a bee sting. The dog is having trouble breathing. Besides administering oxygen, treatment is IM diphenhydramine HCl [ Benadryl®] at 2 mg/lb. If the diphenhydramine is in a concentration of 100 mg/ml, how many milliliters will be needed for one dose?
Answer: One dose for this dog is 1.50 milliliters.
To determine this answer you'll need to find the milligrams [mg] in one dose, then divide that by the concentration.
To find how many mg in the dose, multiply animal's weight by mg/ Ib.
75 pounds[lb] x 2 mg/lb = 150. That gives you the mgs in the dose (150), then divide that by 100 mg/ml to find the milliliters in one dose.
150 mg • 100/mg/milliliters [ml] = 1.5. Or, Ibs x dosage = milligrams milligrams Õ concentration = milliliters
75 × 2 = 150 150Õ 100 mg/ml = 1.5
582
What is the definitive treatment for equine Cushing's disease?
Answer: Pergolide
Definitive treatment is daily oral pergolide, a dopamine agonist.
Cushing’s disease in horses is caused by pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction secondary to loss of dopaminergic inhibition. Excess ACTH produced by the hyperplastic pituitary causes the adrenal glands to produce excess steroids. The hyperplastic pituitary produces other hormones in addition to ACTH that lead to the clinical syndrome.
Mitotane is used to treat hyperadrenocorticism in dogs.
Methimazole is a treatment for hyperthyroidism in cats.
Fludrocortisone and prednisone are steroids used to treat hypoadrenocorticism in dogs.
Link: Hypertrichosis Associated with Adenomas of the Pars Intermedia
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/endocrine-system/the-pituitary-gland/hypertrichosis-associated-with-adenomas-of-the-pars-intermedia?autoredirectid=11890
Hypertrichosis Associated with Adenomas of the Pars Intermedia (PPID) in Horses: Key Information
Definitions and Causative Agent:
• Hypertrichosis: Excessive hair growth, particularly in older horses (≥18 years).
• Causative Agent: Adenomas of the pars intermedia of the pituitary gland.
Pathophysiology:
• Pituitary Adenomas: May compress the hypothalamus, disrupting homeostasis, and secrete increased alpha melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH), causing long hair coats.
Clinical Findings:
• Signs of PPID:
• Polyuria and polydipsia (PU/PD)
• Poor muscle tone, weakness, somnolence
• Abnormal adipose tissue distribution
• Swelling of periorbital fossa, increased infections
• Intermittent hyperpyrexia, generalized hyperhidrosis
• Risk for laminitis with insulin resistance
• Hypertrichosis: Failure of seasonal shedding, long thick, wavy hair on trunk/extremities.
Diagnosis:
• ACTH Concentration Measurement: Baseline and TRH stimulation test.
• Blood Tests: Hyperglycemia, insulin resistance, neutrophilia, eosinopenia, lymphopenia, lipemia, hypercholesterolemia.
• Evocative Testing: Dexamethasone suppression and TRH stimulation tests, especially outside of autumn.
Differential Diagnosis:
• Other Conditions: Chronic debilitation, poor management, parasitism, chronic systemic diseases, primary diabetes mellitus, equine metabolic syndrome, pheochromocytomas.
Treatment:
• Pergolide: Dopaminergic agonist (2–4 mcg/kg PO daily).
• Cyproheptadine: (0.25 mg/kg PO every 12–24 hours) as adjunct.
• Husbandry: Excellent care, frequent body clipping, management of teeth, hooves, parasite burden.
Medications:
• Pergolide: Dopamine agonist, decreases ACTH.
• Cyproheptadine: Serotonin antagonist, used with pergolide.
• Trilostane: 3-β hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase inhibitor, not well-studied in horses.
583
What is the best resource to determine the meat or milk withdrawal time of a medication for administration to a food animal?
Answer: The Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank (FARAD) is the best resource.
A food animal vet must know the meat or milk withdrawal time for any medication being administered to a food animal. Also important to know the label indication for each drug.
The US Food and Drug Administration is an invaluable additional resource.
The farmer, colleagues, and textbooks may not have the most current information.
Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank
http://www.farad.org
584
What is the best resource to determine the meat or milk withdrawal time of a medication for administration to a food animal?
Answer: The Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank (FARAD) is the best resource.
A food animal vet must know the meat or milk withdrawal time for any medication being administered to a food animal. Also important to know the label indication for each drug.
The US Food and Drug Administration is an invaluable additional resource.
The farmer, colleagues, and textbooks may not have the most current information.
Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank
http://www.farad.org
585
What organ function is creatinine used as an indirect measure of on a blood chemistry panel?
Answer: Kidney function
Creatinine is an indirect measure of kidney function. Creatinine is a by-product of muscle metabolism, produced at a constant rate and filtered out of the bloodstream by the glomeruli in the kidneys.
Azotemia is an increase in creatinine and urea nitrogen (BUN) in the blood. Azotemia is divided into pre-renal, renal, and post-renal.
Pre-renal is typically caused by decreased blood flow to the kidneys (e.g., associated with dehydration, renal vasoconstriction, hypovolemia). Renal is due to intrinstic renal disease. Post-renal can occur with a ruptured urinary bladder or a urethral blockage (as seen in male cats with feline urolithiasis).
Check out this great Overview of azotemia, courtesy of Cornell's eclinpath website.
Link: Chemical Biochemistry
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/clinical-pathology-and-procedures/diagnostic-procedures-for-the-private-practice-laboratory/clinical-biochemistry
Link: Feline Urolithiasis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/urinary-system/noninfectious-diseases-of-the-urinary-system-in-small-animals/urolithiasis-in-small-animals#Silica-Stones:_v3296166
Link: Azotemia
https://eclinpath.com/chemistry/kidney/azotemia/
586
What syndrome is characterized by concurrent thrombosis and spontaneous bleeding?
Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is characterized by concurrent thrombosis and spontaneous bleeding. It is a serious— often fatal-complication of septic shock.
Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is characterized by organ damage secondary to microvascular clotting and DIC.
Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) is a complicated phenomenon of widespread inflammation secondary to sepsis.
Link: Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/hemostatic-disorders/coagulation-protein-disorders-in-animals#Disseminated-Intravascular-Coagulation-(DIC)-in-Animals_v3258600
Coagulation Protein Disorders in Animals: Key Information
Definitions and Types:
• Congenital Coagulation Disorders: Early-age symptoms, often fatal with severe deficiencies.
• Factor I (Fibrinogen) Deficiency: Severe bleeding; treated with fresh-frozen plasma.
• Factor II (Prothrombin) Disorders: Rare; treated with plasma or whole blood.
• Factor VII Deficiency: Prolonged PT; minimal clinical bleeding.
• Factor VIII (Hemophilia A): Common in dogs, X-linked; treated with cryoprecipitate.
• Factor IX (Hemophilia B): Similar to Hemophilia A; treated with plasma.
Acquired Coagulation Disorders:
• Liver Disease: Reduced production of coagulation proteins, potential DIC.
• Vitamin K Deficiency: Impaired production of Factors II, VII, IX, X.
• Anticoagulant Rodenticide Toxicity: Inhibits vitamin K recycling; treated with vitamin K1.
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC):
• Causes: Secondary to infections, heat stroke, neoplasia.
• Stages: Hypercoagulable (initial), hypocoagulable (advanced).
• Diagnosis: Thromboelastography, hemostasis tests (APTT, PT, fibrinogen).
• Treatment: Address underlying disease, heparin for hypercoagulable stage, plasma for hypocoagulable stage.
587
Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) is the minimum concentration of anesthetic in the alveolar gas that prevents a physical response in 50% of animals exposed to a surgical stimulus. High MAC means low anesthetic potency. Which of the following inhalant anesthetics has the highest MAC?
Answer: Desflurane has the highest minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) at 7.2 in dogs, 9.8 in cats, and 7.6 in horses.
Sevoflurane has an intermediate MAC of 2.1 in dogs, 2.58 in cats, and 2.31 in horses.
Isoflurane has low MAC of 1.2 in dogs, 1.63 in cats, and 1.31 in horses.
Methoxyflurane has a MAC of 0.23 in dogs, but is expensive and not currently being produced. Halothane is rarely used in clinical practice any more (MAC = 0.88).
Inhalants with high potency have a lower MAC (need less drug to achieve anesthetic plane). These are also more soluble in blood and tissues; e.g., isoflurane is more soluble, desflurane is less soluble. The requirement (%) for less soluble drugs is greater, but induction is much faster.
Anesthesia occurs only when the concentration of inhalant in the blood and alveoli are equal. Less soluble drugs achieve this equilibrium faster.
Since there is also less drug in the tissues, recovery is also faster compared to more soluble drugs. When the vaporizer is turned off, alveolar levels drop rapidly, followed by blood and tissue levels.
588
Which finding suggests traumatic hip luxation in a dog?
Answer: Leg length discrepancy.
Dogs with hip (coxofemoral) luxation have a discrepancy in hind leg length. A craniodorsal displacement causes shortening of the affected limb while a cranioventral displacement causes lengthening.
An acute triangle between the greater trochanter, ischial tuberosity, and ilial wing indicates normal coxofemoral joint positioning. Think craniodorsal hip luxation if there is loss of this triangle (i.e.,. if a straight line is palpable). Also can look for symmetry in the position of the greater trochanter between the affected and normal side.
A positive cranial drawer is diagnostic for cranial cruciate ligament rupture. The Ortolani maneuver diagnoses subluxation in dogs with hip dysplasia. The spavin test is for tarsal arthritis in horses.
Hip luxation typically presents as a non-weight-bearing lameness, usually after blunt force trauma, (e.g., being hit by a car). Craniodorsal luxation of the femoral head is most common.
Tx: Closed or open reduction. Use closed reduction and Ehmer sling if injury is < 48h old, patient is stable to undergo anesthesia, and hip structure is normal. 50% success rate.
Use open reduction if closed reduction is unstable or has failed.
Carefully monitor patient post-reduction for irritation/wounds and ischemia caused by Ehmer sling.
Here is some useful information from the University of Illinois about closed reduction of hip luxations. And here is some more helpful information from the American College of Veterinary Surgeons.
Link: Coxofemoral Luxation: Tips for Closed Reductions
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/2021/04/13/coxofemoral-luxation-tips-for-closed-reductions/
Link: Hip Luxation.
https://www.acvs.org/small-animal/hip-luxation/
589
What positioning criteria are important to remember when taking lateral chest radiographs meant to specifically evaluate heart problems in dogs and cats?
Answer. Extend forelegs forward, away from chest wall
Because the foreleg elbows can be superimposed over the lateral views of the heart, extend the forelegs forward to allow better chest visualization.
These chest films taken at the University of Illinois College of Veterinary Medicine show a right lateral film with the elbows fully out of the film view, allowing full visualization of the chest.
https://vetmed.illinois.edu/imaging_anatomy/canine/thorax/ex01/thorax01.html
590
Hypotension and sedation are characteristic effects of which one of the drugs listed below?
Dobutamine
Maropitant
Phenylephrine
Acepromazine
Phenazopyridine
Answer: Acepromazine.
Acepromazine causes vasodilation by blocking alpha-1 receptors in peripheral vasculature, producing hypotension.
A phenothiazine tranquilizer, acepromazine is both a dopamine and alpha-1 receptor antagonist. It works very well as a sedative in small animals, takes 20-30 minutes to take effect, and lasts 3-4 hours at clinical doses.
The behavioral and sedative effects are produced by a decrease in dopamine secretion in the basal ganglia and the limbic system in the brain. It blocks dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla to produce its antiemetic effect.
Maropitant is an antiemetic used in dogs, not associated with hypotension.
Dobutamine and phenylephrine both act to increase blood pressure.
Phenazopyridine is a urinary tract analgesic.
Refs: Tranquilli, Thurmon, and Grimm's Lumb & Jones Veterinary Anesthesia, 4th ed. pp. 207-9 and Muir, Hubbell, Bednarski, and Skarda's Handbook of Veterinary Anesthesia, 4th ed. pp. 29-34.
Link: Tranquilizers, Sedatives, and Analgesics
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-nervous-system/tranquilizers,-sedatives,-and-analgesics?redirectid=24820
591
Which anesthetic induction agent is also a decongestant and antitussive? (Prevent coughing)
Ketamine
Diazepam of Midazolam
Propofol
Guaifenisin
Etomidate
Guaifenesin is an antitussive (anti-cough) and decongestant medication that also works as a muscle relaxant. Guaifenesin is often used to support excitement-free anesthesia induction and recovery in horses.
Ketamine is often combined with guaifenesin in what is commonly called “double-drip" and, when xylazine is also added, it is called "triple-drip."
Refs: Papich, Saunders Handbook of Vet. Drugs: Sm and Lg An., 4th ed. p. 370 and Tighe and Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians, 4th ed. p. 583.
592
When using a stylet to stiffen an endotracheal tube, how far past the tip should it extended?
It should not extend past the end at all
At least 2 inches to allow it to enter the laryngeal folds first
A stylet should never be used
3-5 centimeters
1-2 mm
Answer: it should not extend past the end at all.
If a stylet is needed to stiffen an endotracheal tube, it should never extend past the end
of the tube.
Numerous styles of stylets exist, and the size and length will vary depending on the size and length of the endotracheal tube. There is an increased chance of trauma to the laryngeal folds, oropharynx, and trachea if the stylet extends past the end of the endotracheal tube.
Ref: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, gth ed. p. 1030.
593
What change in a patient’s condition indicates that the endotracheal tube may be blocked with mucus during anesthesia?
SpO2 over 95%
ETCO2 below 35 mmHg
Hypoventilation
Waking up
HCO3- above 26 mEq
Answer: Waking up
If an endotracheal tube is blocked with mucus the patient will start to wake up because the anesthetic gas cannot flow. Secondary hypoxia can also develop if the endotracheal tube is blocked.
Commonly-used pre-meds like atropine and glycopyrrolate can thicken the respiratory secretions and contribute to endotracheal tube blockage with mucus.
Remove a blocked tube and replace it with a new, clean tube. If the patient is too awake to re-intubate, you may need to administer injectable induction agents to deepen the animal's level of anesthesia.
Ref: Tighe and Brown, Mosby's Comprehensive Review for Veterinary Technicians, 4th ed. p. 469.
594
A 2 year-old Irish Wolfhound presents for acute pelvic limb paralysis while outside playing frisbee. In the exam room, the dog is dragging the right pelvic limb and barely able to walk on the left pelvic limb. Exam reveals decreased conscious proprioception in the left pelvic limb and absent conscious proprioception in the right pelvic limb. Patellar reflexes are absent on the right and reduced on the left. No back pain can be elicited. The rest of the neurologic exam is normal. Where is the location of the lesion?
C4-C5, mostly left
L1-L3
T12-T13, mostly left
L4-L5, mostly right
T13-L1, mostly right
Answer: L4-L5, mostly right.
The patellar reflex is absent on the right side so the lesion localizes to the right femoral nerve cell bodies which are present at L4-L5.
Lesions at the other locations would either have no effect on the patellar reflex or increase it.
Refs: Curtis Dewey, A Practical Guide to Canine and Feline Neurology, 2nd ed. pp. 389- 390.
Link: Trauma of the Spinal Column and Cord in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/diseases-of-the-spinal-column-and-cord/trauma-of-the-spinal-column-and-cord-in-animals?autoredirectid=16749
595
Which of the following is the correct location for placement of a proximal paravertebral block used to perform a standing laparotomy in a cow?
Answer: Caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1 and L2.
Perform a proximal paravertebral block by placing local anesthetic just off the midline and caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1, and L2 vertebrae.
With a distal paravertebral block, inject the local above and below the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, and L4 vertebrae.
Target the spinal nerves (T13, L1, and L2) using a paravertebral block to completely desensitize the flank of a cow.
Note the difference: proximal at T13, L1, and L2 vs. distal at L1, L2, and L4. However, the same nerves are desensitized because they gradually course caudally after exiting their spinal foramen.
Proper placement results in warming of the skin from vasodilation, anesthesia of the skin and body wall, and a curvature of the spine in some cows. The latter is caused by relaxation of the epaxial musculature on the affected side; the spine curves towards the opposite side.
Click here to see a good summary on Local Anesthesia and Analgesia by Lyon Lee DVM, PhD, pp. 12-14.
https://www.westernu.edu/mediafiles/veterinary/vet-anesthesia-analgesia/local-anesthesia-analgesia.pdf
Link: Local and regional Analgesic Techniques in Animal
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/pain-assessment-and-management/local-and-regional-analgesic-techniques-in-animals?autoredirectid=20983
596
Which of the following is the correct location for placement of a proximal paravertebral block used to perform a standing laparotomy in a cow?
Answer: Caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1 and L2.
Perform a proximal paravertebral block by placing local anesthetic just off the midline and caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1, and L2 vertebrae.
With a distal paravertebral block, inject the local above and below the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, and L4 vertebrae.
Target the spinal nerves (T13, L1, and L2) using a paravertebral block to completely desensitize the flank of a cow.
Note the difference: proximal at T13, L1, and L2 vs. distal at L1, L2, and L4. However, the same nerves are desensitized because they gradually course caudally after exiting their spinal foramen.
Proper placement results in warming of the skin from vasodilation, anesthesia of the skin and body wall, and a curvature of the spine in some cows. The latter is caused by relaxation of the epaxial musculature on the affected side; the spine curves towards the opposite side.
Click here to see a good summary on Local Anesthesia and Analgesia by Lyon Lee DVM, PhD, pp. 12-14.
https://www.westernu.edu/mediafiles/veterinary/vet-anesthesia-analgesia/local-anesthesia-analgesia.pdf
Link: Local and regional Analgesic Techniques in Animal
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/pain-assessment-and-management/local-and-regional-analgesic-techniques-in-animals?autoredirectid=20983
597
Which of the following is the correct location for placement of a proximal paravertebral block used to perform a standing laparotomy in a cow?
Answer: Caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1 and L2.
Perform a proximal paravertebral block by placing local anesthetic just off the midline and caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1, and L2 vertebrae.
With a distal paravertebral block, inject the local above and below the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, and L4 vertebrae.
Target the spinal nerves (T13, L1, and L2) using a paravertebral block to completely desensitize the flank of a cow.
Note the difference: proximal at T13, L1, and L2 vs. distal at L1, L2, and L4. However, the same nerves are desensitized because they gradually course caudally after exiting their spinal foramen.
Proper placement results in warming of the skin from vasodilation, anesthesia of the skin and body wall, and a curvature of the spine in some cows. The latter is caused by relaxation of the epaxial musculature on the affected side; the spine curves towards the opposite side.
Click here to see a good summary on Local Anesthesia and Analgesia by Lyon Lee DVM, PhD, pp. 12-14.
https://www.westernu.edu/mediafiles/veterinary/vet-anesthesia-analgesia/local-anesthesia-analgesia.pdf
Link: Local and regional Analgesic Techniques in Animal
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/pain-assessment-and-management/local-and-regional-analgesic-techniques-in-animals?autoredirectid=20983
598
Why is coxofemoral luxation a rare occurrence in horses compared to dogs, cats, and cattle?
Sacrotuberous ligament of cow, dogs, and cats is small or vestigial
Dogs and cats are hit by cats, cattle fall more often
Cattle, dogs and cats have under developed illiopsoas muscles
Trochanteric bursa of horses stabilizes hip
Only horses have an accessory ligament
Answer: Only horses have an accessory ligament.
Coxofemoral luxation is rare in horses due to a deep acetabulaum and the presence of the accessory ligament of the hip and femoral head, unique to horses.
The accessory ligament connects the prepubic ligament (base of pelvis) to the fovea capiitis on the head of the femur, essentially stabilizing the hip.
This same stabilizing influence of the accessory ligament is what prevents horses from kicking out to the side (like how cows kick).
Coxofemoral luxation in cattle may occur when bulls mount cows or cows mount each other on slippery flooring.
Hip luxation in dogs and cats is usually secondary to trauma, like being hit by a car
Click here to see a radiograph of hip dislocation.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v50504534
Link: Disorders of the Hip in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-horses/disorders-of-the-hip-in-horses
Link: Upper Limb Lameness in Cattle
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/lameness-in-cattle/upper-limb-lameness-in-cattle?redirectid=4985?ruleredirectid=30
Link: Hip luxation
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/musculoskeletal-system/arthropathies-and-related-disorders-in-small-animals/joint-trauma-in-dogs-and-cats#v3286371
599
What correctly describes hyaline casts?
Answer: Clear and colorless.
Hyaline casts are clear and coloriess and made of mucoprotein. Hyaline casts can be found in normal animals, those with increased protein leakage or with tubular protein secretion.
Increased numbers can be found in first morning urine and they can dissolve in dilute or alkaline urine.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/clinical-pathology-and-procedures/diagnostic-procedures-for-the-private-practice-laboratory/urinalysis#Cylindruria-(Casts):_v4702125
600
An eleven-year-old female spayed Dachshund is presented with a history of urinary accidents and excessive drinking, appetite, and panting. She is less active and has been seeking out cool places to lie. On exam, she is overweight with a BCS of 8/9 (ideal 5/9). She has a pot-bellied appearance with palpable cranial abdominal organomegaly. She is developing bilaterally symmetrical flank alopecia. What is the key advantage of the low-dose dexamethasone suppression test (LDDST) compared to the ACTH stimulation test for diagnosis of the most likely differential?
Answer: LDDST is more sensitive.
The top differential is hyperadrenocorticism (HAC, Cushing Dz) and the low-dose dexamethasone suppression test (LDDST) is more sensitive than the ACTH stimulation test.
In epidemiologic terms, the LDDST is more sensitive, meaning there are few false negatives, so a negative test is more reliable. The ACTH stim is more specific, meaning there are few false positives, so a positive test is more reliable.
The ACTH stim, not the LDDST, can diagnose and differentiate iatrogenic and naturally occurring HAC. Both tests require blood samples.
Click here to see Zuku's canine adrenal testing chart.
https://zukureview.com/node/100586
Link: Cushing Syndrome (Hyperadrenocorticism)
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/endocrine-system/the-adrenal-glands/cushing-syndrome-hyperadrenocorticism
Key Information on Cushing Syndrome (Hyperadrenocorticism) in Dogs
Etiology and Pathogenesis
• Types:
• Pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism (PDH): 80-85% of cases, due to adenoma in the pituitary gland.
• Adrenal-dependent hyperadrenocorticism (ADH): 10-15% of cases, due to adrenal tumors.
Clinical Signs
• Symptoms: Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, weight gain, muscle atrophy, abdominal distension, skin changes (alopecia, thinning), lethargy.
• Laboratory Abnormalities: Increased serum alkaline phosphatase, hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, decreased urine concentrating ability.
Diagnosis
• Tests: ACTH stimulation test, low-dose dexamethasone suppression test, ultrasonography, MRI/CT for tumor localization.
Treatment
• Medications: Trilostane, mitotane.
• Surgical: Adrenalectomy for adrenal tumors.
601
Basophilic stippling of erythrocytes is found in which one of the following conditions?
Answer: Lead poisoning.
Animals suffering from lead poisoning have basophilic stippling of their red blood cells. The "stippling" is caused by aggregation of ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
602
Basophilic stippling of erythrocytes is found in which one of the following conditions?
Answer: Lead poisoning.
Animals suffering from lead poisoning have basophilic stippling of their red blood cells. The "stippling" is caused by aggregation of ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
603
What kind of problem does a dog with mandibular brachygnathism have?
Undershot jaw with exaggerated incisor wear
Maxilla is longer than mandible
Dangling participles
Mandible is torsed
Polydontia
Answer: Maxilla is longer than mandible.
When the maxilla (upper jaw) is longer than mandible, you have mandibular brachygnathism. Another name would be overbite, or overshot jaw.
Mandibular prognathism is an elongated lower jaw (think of a bulldog, for example).
Polydontia is more teeth than normal.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th ed., p. 1258.
Link: Developmental Abnormalities of the Mouth and Dentition in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/dentistry/developmental-abnormalities-of-the-mouth-and-dentition-in-small-animals
Comprehensive Information on Developmental Abnormalities of the Mouth and Dentition in Small Animals for BCSE Test
1. Definitions and Causes:
• Persistent Deciduous Teeth: Deciduous teeth that do not exfoliate properly due to misaligned permanent teeth or absence of permanent successors.
• Unerupted Teeth: Teeth that fail to erupt due to genetic predisposition, trauma, or physical barriers.
• Malformed Teeth: Result from interruptions in tooth formation due to trauma, metabolic issues, or infections.
• Malocclusion and Malformed Jaws: Abnormal alignment of the teeth and jaws often due to genetic factors or developmental trauma.
2. Clinical Signs and Diagnosis:
• Persistent Deciduous Teeth: Presence of both deciduous and permanent teeth in the same location, commonly causing crowding and predisposing to periodontitis.
• Unerupted Teeth: Missing teeth with radiographic evidence of unerupted teeth; can lead to dentigerous cysts.
• Malformed Teeth: Enamel hypoplasia or hypomineralization, irregular crown shapes.
• Malocclusion: Misaligned jaws and teeth, resulting in traumatic occlusion or abnormal bite patterns.
3. Treatment:
• Persistent Deciduous Teeth: Extraction of persistent deciduous teeth to allow proper eruption of permanent teeth.
• Unerupted Teeth: Surgical extraction or radiographic monitoring to prevent cyst formation.
• Malformed Teeth: Use of dentin sealants, composite resin veneers, or extraction depending on severity.
• Malocclusion: Orthodontic interventions, vital pulp therapy, or extraction of malpositioned teeth to prevent trauma.
4. Medications and Procedures:
• Operculectomy: Surgical removal of gingival tissue over unerupted teeth.
• Orthodontic Appliances: Used to correct malocclusions.
• Vital Pulp Therapy: Treatment to maintain tooth vitality after crown reduction.
Summary of Relevant Information:
• Causative Agents: Genetic predisposition, trauma, metabolic or infectious insults.
• Symptoms: Crowded teeth, missing teeth, malformed teeth, abnormal bites.
• Clinical Changes: Periodontitis, dentigerous cysts, enamel hypoplasia.
• Assessment: Physical exam, radiography.
• Treatment: Extraction, surgical interventions, orthodontic therapy.
• Medications: Sealants, composite resins.
604
Which is the youngest age at which a horse will have all its permanent incisors?
Answer: 5 years
Typically a horse is 5 years old before it has all the permanent incisors grown in.
Deciduous incisors erupt in foals at approximately 1 week, 6 weeks, and 6 months (_01, _02, and _03, respectively, numbered by modified Triadan system).
Permanent incisors erupt at approximately 2.5, 3.5, and 4.5 years (for the _01, _02, and _03, respectively).
In practice we age horses by their teeth all the time; and dental eruption ages are something that will show up on the exams so commit these to memory.
Link: Dental development in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/dental-development-and-anatomy/dental-development-in-animals?autoredirectid=14174
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/dental-development-and-anatomy/estimation-of-age-by-examination-of-the-teeth-in-animals
Dental Development in Animals
Concepts
Odontogenesis, or tooth development, starts in early embryonic stages and involves the formation of teeth from ectodermal and mesenchymal tissues.
Etiology
• Genetics: Determines size, shape, and location of teeth.
• Environmental Factors: Trauma, metabolic, chemical, or infectious agents can affect dental development.
Stages of Development
1. Initiation: Formation of dental lamina at 25 days of gestation in dogs.
2. Bud Stage: Initial development of tooth buds.
3. Cap Stage: Formation of enamel organ, dental papilla, and follicle.
4. Bell Stage: Differentiation of cells forming enamel, dentin, pulp, cementum, alveolar bone, and periodontal ligament.
Tooth Types and Development
• Deciduous Teeth: Develop first, calcification begins at day 55 of gestation.
• Permanent Teeth: Develop from successional lamina, except for first premolars and molars which develop directly from dental lamina.
• Root Formation: Starts after crown development, influenced by the dental papilla.
Diagnostic Methods
• Imaging: Radiographs to evaluate developmental stages and detect anomalies.
• Histopathology: Examination of dental tissues for genetic anomalies like dentinogenesis imperfecta and amelogenesis imperfecta.
Pathological Findings and Diseases
1. Enamel Hypoplasia: Incomplete or defective enamel formation.
2. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta: Genetic disorder affecting dentin.
3. Amelogenesis Imperfecta: Genetic disorder affecting enamel.
Treatments
• Preventive Care: Regular dental check-ups to monitor development.
• Surgical Intervention: Corrective surgeries for severe malformations.
• Restorative Procedures: Addressing defects in enamel or dentin.
Species Differences
• Dogs and Cats: Have similar developmental stages but differ in timing and sequence of tooth eruption.
• Horses and Cattle: Exhibit continuous tooth growth and wear patterns unique to herbivores.
605
In what situation should a grid be used when x-raying a patient?
Answer: When body part is more than 10 cm thick.
The thicker the tissue, the more the x-ray scatters. Thick body parts like thorax, abdomen, skull and joints greater than 10 cm require a grid. A grid is like the focusing lens in a camera. A high-ratio grid permits FEWER x-rays to pass through it from the animal, but you get a better, more high-resolution radiograph. The grid prevents scattered radiation from reaching an x-ray film, so that only the primary, directly aimed x-rays penetrate straight into the animal for the best image.
An X-ray grid is basically a plate made of alternating strips of lead, which block scattered x-rays, interspersed between strips of plastic or aluminum, which allow the straight x-rays through.
606
In what situation should a grid be used when x-raying a patient?
Answer: When body part is more than 10 cm thick.
The thicker the tissue, the more the x-ray scatters. Thick body parts like thorax, abdomen, skull and joints greater than 10 cm require a grid. A grid is like the focusing lens in a camera. A high-ratio grid permits FEWER x-rays to pass through it from the animal, but you get a better, more high-resolution radiograph. The grid prevents scattered radiation from reaching an x-ray film, so that only the primary, directly aimed x-rays penetrate straight into the animal for the best image.
An X-ray grid is basically a plate made of alternating strips of lead, which block scattered x-rays, interspersed between strips of plastic or aluminum, which allow the straight x-rays through.
607
Which of the following are routinely used to help improve image quality when performing an ultrasound?
Alcohol, gel
Administration of analgesics prior to procedure
IV injection of contrast agent
Regional tourniquet applications (for limb) or placing patient in dorsal recumbency (for body)
General anesthesia
Answer: Alcohol and gel.
Alcohol, ultrasound gel, and clipping of hair all minimize the amount of air trapped in hair between the ultrasound transducer and the skin and improve ultrasound image quality.
Trapped air interferes with the ability of the ultrasound waves to pass from the transducer head into the tissue and be reflected back to generate an image.
If the animal is especially dirty, shaving and cleaning can help to remove this debris that further interferes with obtaining a diagnostic ultrasound.
In horses, it is not always practical to clip the entire abdomen or chest, so you can use copious alcohol to wet the hair and obtain a diagnostic image.
Sedation can help to keep an animal still during the procedure, but general anesthesia is almost never indicated.
608
Which type of ultrasound probe is most useful for deeper tissue, far-field visualization?
Sector.
Sector transducers give good depth penetration/resolution, but have poor near-field resolution. They are ideal for imaging through small windows like between the ribs for small animal cardiac examinations. Sector transducers produce a fan-like image that is narrow as it leaves the transducer and increases with depth.
Linear array transducers tend to be high frequency, and have a small footprint. Because the footprint is linear, the distance between the ultrasound waves is constant, and near field resolution is good. In veterinary medicine, we use linear array transducers for things like transrectal reproductive exams in cattle and horses and tendon exams in horses.
Click the link to see a nice overview by Dr. Scott Secrest covering the different transducer heads and images produced.
Link:
https://www.vetfolio.com/learn/article/basic-principles-of-ultrasonography
609
Which agent causes equine coital exanthema (ECE)?
Answer: Equine herpesvirus type 3
Equine coital exanthema (EHV-3) is caused by equine herpesvirus type 3 and does not affect fertility. See papules, ulcers, and depigmented scars on vulva, perineum, penis, prepuce. Follow this link to see typical depigmented scars, ulcers from equine coital exanthema.
Taylorella equigenitalis causes contagious equine metritis (CEM) but is not typically found in North America. REPORT CEM if you suspect it (see infertility, endometritis with profuse mucopurulent vulvar discharge in a mare recently imported from Europe, Japan).
Trypanosoma equiperdum causes dourine, another chronic venereal disease NOT found in North America and like CEM, REPORTABLE! 50-75% mortality.
Streptococcus equi spp. zooepidemicus is the #1 infectious cause of equine infertility and Streptococcus equi spp. equi causes strangles.
Link: Equine Coital Exanthema
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/equine-coital-exanthema/equine-coital-exanthema?redirectid=30655
Link: Metritis in Production Animal
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/uterine-diseases-in-production-animals/metritis-in-production-animals?mredirectid=1751
Link: a Trypanosomiasis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/blood-parasites/trypanosomiasis-in-animals?autoredirectid=17926
Link: Endometritis in Production Animal
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/uterine-diseases-in-production-animals/endometritis-in-production-animals?mredirectid=1749
Link: Strangles in Horses.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/respiratory-system/respiratory-diseases-of-horses/strangles-in-horses
610
Necropsy of a dog with a history of kyphosis, spinal pain, collapse and pyuria shows the following lesion in a T3-L3 vertebral section. What disease is this?
Focal meningomyelitis
Canine degenerative myelopathy
Diskospondylitis
Leukoencephalomyelopathy
Ischemic myelopathy
Answer: Diskospondylitis.
This is diskospondylitis, a vertebral infection from hematogenous spread of bacteria (or fungi) from another site. Typically seen middle-aged big breeds, especially German Shepherds, Great Danes.
Usually caused by hematogenous spread of STAPH AUREUS from primary infection elsewhere. See bacteremia, pyuria in 50%. Blood cultures positive in 75%.
Rx is very long term ABX (Ave. treatment is 4 to 6 mos). Relapses are not uncommon.
Px good for most with mild to moderate clinical signs.
Can be caused by Brucella canis. Recurrence is common with B. canis.
Ref: Blackwell's 5-Minute Vet Consult Canine Feline, 4th ed. pp. 392-93.
Link: Inflammatory and Infectious Diseases of the Spinal Column and Cord Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/nervous-system/diseases-of-the-spinal-column-and-cord/inflammatory-and-infectious-diseases-of-the-spinal-column-and-cord-in-animals?autoredirectid=16746
Link: Overview of Brucellosis in Dogs
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/brucellosis-in-dogs/overview-of-brucellosis-in-dogs
611
What is the clinical presentation of Neospora caninum infection in puppies and young dogs under six months of age?
Answer: Acute ascending paralysis
Look for an acute ascending paralysis in puppies and young dogs under six months of age with Neospora caninum. The paralysis usually progressive and leads to rigid contracture of the muscles of affected limbs. Dysphagia, incontinence and muscle atrophy can be seen as well.
In cattle, neosporosis is emerging as an important cause of bovine protozoal abortion.
Link: Neosporosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/neosporosis/neosporosis-in-animals?redirectid=29631
612
What is the clinical presentation of Neospora caninum infection in puppies and young dogs under six months of age?
Answer: Acute ascending paralysis
Look for an acute ascending paralysis in puppies and young dogs under six months of age with Neospora caninum. The paralysis usually progressive and leads to rigid contracture of the muscles of affected limbs. Dysphagia, incontinence and muscle atrophy can be seen as well.
In cattle, neosporosis is emerging as an important cause of bovine protozoal abortion.
Link: Neosporosis in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/neosporosis/neosporosis-in-animals?redirectid=29631
613
Which one of the following problems is most likely in a cat with the parasite Ollulanus tricupis?
Intussusception
Small bowel diarrhea
Protein-losing enteropathy
Vomiting soon after eating
Constipation
Answer: Vomiting soon after eating.
Ollulanus tricuspis infects several species, but is mostly seen in cats.
A common sign is vomiting a few minutes to hours after eating, due to a mild erosive gastritis.
The worms are usually digested before being passed in feces.
Check vomitus or stomach contents for larvae (~500 um) or adult worms.
A Baermann apparatus can help to separate worms and larvae from stomach contents sc that they are easier to see.
The Companion Animal Parasite Council has a good review of this parasite here.
https://capcvet.org/guidelines/ollulanus-tricuspis/
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor: Dogs and Cats, 4th ed., p. 380.
Link: Ollulanus sp in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/gastrointestinal-parasites-of-small-animals/ollulanus-sp-in-small-animals
614
Which one of the following problems is most likely in a cat with the parasite Ollulanus tricupis?
Intussusception
Small bowel diarrhea
Protein-losing enteropathy
Vomiting soon after eating
Constipation
Answer: Vomiting soon after eating.
Ollulanus tricuspis infects several species, but is mostly seen in cats.
A common sign is vomiting a few minutes to hours after eating, due to a mild erosive gastritis.
The worms are usually digested before being passed in feces.
Check vomitus or stomach contents for larvae (~500 um) or adult worms.
A Baermann apparatus can help to separate worms and larvae from stomach contents sc that they are easier to see.
The Companion Animal Parasite Council has a good review of this parasite here.
https://capcvet.org/guidelines/ollulanus-tricuspis/
Refs: Cote, Clinical Veterinary Advisor: Dogs and Cats, 4th ed., p. 380.
Link: Ollulanus sp in Small Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/gastrointestinal-parasites-of-small-animals/ollulanus-sp-in-small-animals
615
Outbreaks of equine respiratory disease, abortion, and neurologic disease can all be caused by infection with which one of the following choices?
Potomac horse fever
Equine coital exanthema
Equine viral arteritis
Equine herpesvirus - 1
Equine influenza virus
Answer: Equine herpesvirus-1.
Infection with equine herpesvirus-1 can cause respiratory disease, abortion, and neurologic disease. The respiratory disease caused by equine herpesvirus-1 and herpesvirus-4 is clinically indistinguishable.
Equine herpesvirus-2 is typically associated with respiratory disease/fever in young animals but not with abortion or neurologic disease.
Equine influenza virus causes outbreaks of high fever, hacking cough, and occasionally myopathy in susceptible horses.
Equine arteritis virus causes outbreaks of respiratory disease/fever and abortion but not neurologic disease.
Refs: Smith, Large Animal Internal Medicine, 3rd ed. pp. 511-2.
Link: Equine Herpesvirus Infection
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/respiratory-system/respiratory-diseases-of-horses/equine-herpesvirus-infection
Link: Equine Influenza
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/respiratory-system/respiratory-diseases-of-horses/equine-influenza
Link: Equine Viral Arteritis
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/equine-viral-arteritis/equine-viral-arteritis?redirectid=3175?ruleredirectid=30
616
What category of drug is diltiazem?
Answer: Calcium channel blocker
Diltiazem is a calcium-channel blocker. The effects of calcium-channel blockers depend on the specific drug and include negative chronotropy, negative inotropy, and vasodilation.
Diltiazem is used to treat atrial fibrillation, supraventricular tachycardias, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. (HCM).
Amlodipine is also a calcium-channel blocker that has primary vasodilator effects and is used to treat hypertension.
ACE inhibitors (e.g., enalapril) are vasodilators that help increase cardiac output.
Beta blockers (e.g., propranolol, atenolol) are used to treat arrhythmias.
Positive inotropes increase the cardiac muscular contraction strength by making more intracellular calcium available for muscle proteins.
Examples of positive inotropes include:
Phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitors (pimobendan)
Beta-adrenergic agonists (dopamine, dobutamine, isoproterenol and epinephrine)
Cardiac glycosides (digoxin)
Link: Antiarrhythmics for Use in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-cardiovascular-system/antiarrhythmics-for-use-in-animals?autoredirectid=21720
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/circulatory-system/various-cardiovascular-diseases-in-dogs-and-cats?mredirectid=1109
Link: Vasoactive Drugs for Use in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-cardiovascular-system/vasoactive-drugs-for-use-in-animals?autoredirectid=21730
Link: Angiotensin-converting Enzyme Inhibitors for Use in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-cardiovascular-system/angiotensin-converting-enzyme-inhibitors-for-use-in-animals?autoredirectid=21722
Link: Positive Inotropes for Use in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-cardiovascular-system/positive-inotropes-for-use-in-animals?autoredirectid=21729
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-cardiovascular-system/positive-inotropes-for-use-in-animals?autoredirectid=21729
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-cardiovascular-system/positive-inotropes-for-use-in-animals?autoredirectid=21729&qt=&sc=&alt=
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-cardiovascular-system/positive-inotropes-for-use-in-animals?autoredirectid=21729
617
Which of the following is a kappa receptor agonist and a mu receptor antagonist?
Diamorphine
Naltrexone
Diprenoprhine
Naloxone
Butorphanol
Answer: Butorphanol.
Butorphanol is a synthetic opioid and a kappa receptor agonist and a mu receptor antagonist. Its analgesic effects are produced by stimulation of the kappa receptor.
Nalbuphine and pentazocine are other opioid agonist-antagonists. These are kappa receptor agonists, but are considered antagonists or partial agonists at the mu receptor.
Diamorphine (also called diacetylmorphine) is not an opioid antagonist. It is a derivative of morphine.
Naloxone, naltrexone, and nalmefene, and diprenorphine are opioid antagonists. All work to antagonize the mu, kappa, and delta receptors; naloxone and nalmefene have greater activity at mu receptors.
Naltrexone and diprenorphine are used to reverse carfentanil and etorphine, respectively. Carfentanil and etorphine are very potent opioids used in wildlife.
Refs: Gaynor & Muir Handbook of Vet Pain Mgt 2nd ed. pp. 180-1, Greene's Vet Anes &
Link: Analgesics Used in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/pain-assessment-and-management/analgesics-used-in-animals?autoredirectid=20977
618
What is the best method to terminate a potential pregnancy in a cow that has just been mis-bred with semen from the wrong bull?
Answer: Prostaglandin F2alpha 7 to 9 days post-insemination
The easiest way to stop the pregnancy is to regress the corpus luteum using prostaglandin F2-alpha. The subsequent resumption of the estrous cycle prevents tetal implantation.
Diethylstilbesterol (DES) is banned for use in food-producing animals and should never be used.
Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is luteotrophic (not luteolytic). It possesses LH activities, and thus would not terminate the pregnancy.
Dexamethasone will initiate abortion in late-term cows, but is not indicated in very early pregnancies. Typically, use dexamethasone in cattle to induce parturition (20-30 mg, IM, given within 2 wk of normal term). A combination of dexamethasone and prostaglandins increases efficacy of induction and shortens the time to calving.
Estrogenic therapy may be teratogenic in pregnant animals and has been associated in dogs and cats with cystic endometrial hyperplasia, pyometra, bone marrow suppression and potentially fatal aplastic anemia. According to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) the use of ECP in animals is illegal.
ECP has been used as an estrogenic hormone for reproductive therapy in food animals, but even extra-label, this is not allowed.
Here is a statement from the FDA regarding estradiol cypionate (ECP) and food-producing animals.
Link: Overview of Systemic Pharmacotherapeutics of the Reproductive System in Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/pharmacology/systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-reproductive-system/overview-of-systemic-pharmacotherapeutics-of-the-reproductive-system-in-animals?autoredirectid=14415
https://www.fda.gov/animal-veterinary/guidance-regulations/animal-medicinal-drug-use-clarification-act-1994-amduca
619
What is the primary pathogenesis of diabetes mellitus in cats?
Immune-mediated pancreatic beta cell destruction
Peripheral insulin resistence with beta cell failure
Congenital pancreatic acing cell atrophy
Elevated counter-regulatory hormones such as cortisol
Pancreatic neoplasia effacing normal beta cells
Answer: Peripheral insulin resistance with beta cell destruction.
Diabetes mellitus (DM) in cats most often occurs due to peripheral insulin resistance (where cells no longer respond to insulin) and beta cell failure to produce insulin. This most resembles type 2 DM in humans.
In contrast, dogs usually develop type 1 DM due to immune-mediated destruction of pancreatic beta cells and a subsequent absolute lack of insulin.
Peripheral insulin resistance may occur due to obesity, exogenous steroid administration, and inactivity.
The exact pathogenesis of beta cell failure is unclear, but is often associated with amyloid deposition within islet cells and glucotoxicity. Hyperglycemia exacerbates beta cell dysfunction, causing further decreases in insulin secretion.
If you feed a low-carbohydrate, canned diet and tightly control blood glucose with long-acting insulin, some cats will revert to a non-diabetic state and no longer require insulin therapy. These cats should continue the diabetic-specific diet. Advise the owner that relapse is possible. They should monitor for signs of DM like increased drinking and urination.
Click here for Zuku's table on the types of insulin used in practice.
https://zukureview.com/types-insulin-used-small-animal-practice
Key:
IM: Intramuscular
N: Intravenous
SQ: Subcutaneous
Always dose insulin based on (ideal) body weight, taking concurrent disease into consideration
Combine insulin therapy with appropriate dietary management to optimize glycemic control
Typically do not increase insulin dosage more frequently than every 1-2 wks
Although manufacturer guidelines typically recommend discarding insulin after 4-6 wks, most insulin is efficacious if stored in the fridge for 3-6 mos; discard insulin that is discolored or has other changes in appearance
Definition of diabetic control: Clinical signs of diabetes resolve; i.e., polyuria/polydipsia, weight loss, polyphagia; plus absence of hypoglycemia
620
In birds, which one of the following hormones influences ovulation from the graafian follicle?
Answer: Luteinizing hormone
Luteinizing hormone stimulates the graffian follicle to undergo meiosis and extrude the first polar body during ovulation. In the infundibulum the second polar body is extruded, producing the ovum.
Here are good images of the reproductive anatomy and histology in female chickens
For pathology, the Cornell Atlas of Avian Diseases is excellent.
Link: Histology of the Ovary of the Laying Hen (Gallus domesticus)
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5753646/
https://partnersah.vet.cornell.edu/avian-atlas/#/disease/list/
621
How do sheep and goats differ in their extras cycles?
Sheep reach puberty sooner than goats
Behavioral estrus more obvious and prolonged in sheep
Higher incidence of double ovulation in goats
Longer estrous cycle in goats
No difference in their cycles
Answer: Longer estrous cycle in goats.
Sheep have a 17-d estrous cycle (range 14-20 d) and estrus lasts 1-2 d. Goats have a 21- destrous cycle (range 16-24 d) and estrus lasts 2-3 d.
Sheep and goats are seasonally polyestrous, and cycle in the fall and early winter in North America, so offspring are born in the spring, when the weather is mild.
Refs: Bassert, Beal, and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 10th ed., p. 336.
Link: Reproductive Physiology of Sheep
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/management-of-reproduction-sheep/reproductive-physiology-of-sheep
Link: Puberty and Estrus in Goats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/management-of-reproduction-goats/puberty-and-estrus-in-goats
Link: The Reproductive System in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/reproductive-system-introduction/the-reproductive-system-in-animals
622
This image of a cardiac waveform shown below is from an electrocardiogram of horse that was recorded using Lead I with a base-apex setup. Which of the following corresponds to atrial depolarization?
The P wave is a recording of atrial depolarization (#1). It is often biphasic in the horse. Since the heart rate is slower, a separate peak is seen as the depolarization wave travels through the each atrium. The 'A' wave, seen at #2, is atrial repolarization.
The shape and direction of each waveform is affected by placement of leads and the recording selected. In horses, the best ECG is obtained using Lead I with electrodes attached in the base-apex arrangement.
The P wave will be positive, the QRS is negative, and the T wave varies in direction. With Lead Ill, the direction of waveforms is opposite.
Refs: Bassert, Beal and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9thed, pp. 860, Thomas & Lerche Anes & Analgesia for Vet Techs, 4th ed. pp 145-7.
623
How do sheep and goats differ in their extras cycles?
Sheep reach puberty sooner than goats
Behavioral estrus more obvious and prolonged in sheep
Higher incidence of double ovulation in goats
Longer estrous cycle in goats
No difference in their cycles
Answer: Longer estrous cycle in goats.
Sheep have a 17-d estrous cycle (range 14-20 d) and estrus lasts 1-2 d. Goats have a 21- destrous cycle (range 16-24 d) and estrus lasts 2-3 d.
Sheep and goats are seasonally polyestrous, and cycle in the fall and early winter in North America, so offspring are born in the spring, when the weather is mild.
Refs: Bassert, Beal, and Samples, McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 10th ed., p. 336.
Link: Reproductive Physiology of Sheep
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/management-of-reproduction-sheep/reproductive-physiology-of-sheep
Link: Puberty and Estrus in Goats
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/management-and-nutrition/management-of-reproduction-goats/puberty-and-estrus-in-goats
Link: The Reproductive System in Animals
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/reproductive-system-introduction/the-reproductive-system-in-animals
