BCSE Timed Test Flashcards
Phenylpropanolamine is typically used to treat which condition?
Phenylpropanolamine is used to treat urinary incontinence associated with urethral sphincter mechanism incompetence (USMI) in dogs and cats.
Phenylpropanolamine is a sympathomimetic drug. Potential side effects include anxiety, restlessness, hypertension, tachycardia, urinary retention and vomiting.
This drug has been removed from the U.S. market for human use due to an increase risk of strokes. It is still available for veterinary use.
Phenazopyridine is a urinary tract analgesic agent.
Which piece of monitoring equipment is the best choice to confirm whether an endotracheal tube is accidentally placed in the esophagus or not?
Capnometer.
A capnometer measures CO, levels and can confirm proper placement of an endotracheal tube.
This image shows a CO, monitor – the endotracheal tube would be connected to the open end of the monitor; this information is sent to a screen for review.
An end tidal CO2 (ETCO2) reading is obtained when a capnometer is attached between the endotracheal tube and the anesthetic system. If there is NO readout from the capnometer, then the endotracheal tube is probably in the esophagus. You should not find measurable CO, in the esophagus. You attach a capnometer to the endotracheal tube to get the capnograph.
Which is a common clinical use of diagnostic nuclear medicine in veterinary patients?
Detection of bone metastasis.
In veterinary medicine, diagnostic nuclear medicine is commonly used to detect tumor metastasis to bone.
Also called a “bone scan, it can be used to locate bone lesions not identifiable radiographically. Other uses of nuclear medicine include assessment of kidney and lung function, detection of pulmonary emboli, and thyroid evaluation. In diagnostic nuclear medicine, a radionuclide (e.g., technetium 99m) is administered, usually intravenously.
The electromagnetic radiation that is emitted is detected with a gamma scintillation camera.
This information provides functional, physiologic, pharmacologic, and kinetic data from the patient.
Which dog breed has only one estrous cycle per year?
Basenji.
Most dogs have two estrous cycles per year (range one to three), except for Basenjis, which have one estrus per year, in the spring. Dogs are UNseasonally monstrous.
The inter-estrus interval in dogs is generally seven months (range 3 1/2 to 13 months).
A flock of sheep is evaluated for weight loss and several have swollen areas under their jaws and in their flanks. A couple ewes have cough and purulent nasal discharge. The farmer began to shear one sheep and noted abnormalities on the neck. What best describes the organism responsible for the condition?
Gram positive, intracellular bacteria.
This sheep has caseous lymphadenitis (CL) - a chronic, contagious disease caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis, which is a gram-positive, intracellular, facultative bacteria.
When endemic, it causes huge economic losses for small ruminant producers in the United States due to death, carcass condemnation, loss of hide or wool, and premature culling.
CL is characterized by abscesses in or near external lymph nodes (external form) or within organs or internal lymph nodes (internal form).
Definitive Dx requires bacterial culture of external abscesses or serology for internal abscesses (variably helpful).
It is hard to eliminate CL from endemic flocks due to its highly contagious nature, its ability to live in the soil, and silent carriers. Recommendations include culling affected animals, strict biosecurity, and vaccination protocols.
Treatment of affected animals with antibiotics and abscess care can be done in certain circumstances.
Which object will create an artifact on a radiograph?
Debris on hair coat.
Debris on the hair coat will create an imaging artifact.
There are many types of imaging artifacts related to what is physically on the patient.
It is important to remove collars, harnesses, splints and bandages (if possible) and any debris on the patient’s hair coat.
These objects can obstruct anatomic structures and can cause misinterpretation of radiographs.
What adverse effect limits chronic administration of Doxorubicin HCl in dogs?
Cardiotoxicity.
Cardiac toxicity is a life-threatening adverse effect associated with doxorubicin administration, and is seen in any dog with a total cumulative dose of
>180mg/m?.
Acutely toxicity is seen as an arrhythmia and decreased systolic function and with chronic dosing dilated cardiomyopathy and congestive heart failure can occur.
Monitor an ECG during administration and calculate cumulative dose each time. Some susceptible dogs may show toxicity at a cumulative dose of 120mg/m2
A four-year-old Thoroughbred gelding is presented with muscle fasciculations, sweating, and stiffness a strenuous running workout on Monday morning. The horse had not been excercised for the previous 4 days, but was on full rations. What finding might be expected, based on your presumptive diagnosis?
Myoglobinuria.
Myoglobinuria (brown urine).
This is a clinical picture of sporadic exertional rhabdomyolysis (also called “tying up” or
“Monday morning sickness”).
Look for dark urine in some cases (myoglobinuria) with possible renal damage.
HYPERkalemia and HYPERphosphatemia also occur.
Increased serum creatine kinase (CK) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) are indicative of rhabdomyolysis. These enzymes are released from damaged muscle undergoing myonecrosis.
In horses may also see increased creatine kinase with ionophore toxicity (e.g., Monensin®, Lasalocid®). Look for a history of a horse eating cattle feed.
Which part of the camelid GI tract secretes hydrocloric acid and is most similar to a monogastric animal’s stomach?
Caudal 20% of third compartment.
Hydrochloric acid and proteases are secreted by gastric glands in the caudal 20% of the third compartment (C3) of camelids, which most closely resembles a monogastric animal’s stomach.
Camelids rely on their forestomach for microbial digestion, much like ruminants. They have three compartments - the first 2 (C1 and C2) make up 10-15% of an adults camelid’s body weight and occupy over 50% of the space in the abdomen. Fermentative digestion occurs both here and in the cranial 80% of the smaller third compartment.
C1 is divided into cranial and caudal sacs by a large transverse pillar. C1 and C2 are lined by stratified squamous mucosa and C1 contains glandular saccules while C2 contains glandular cells. These specialized structures facilitate rapid absorption of water, electrolytes, and VFAs similar to the function of papillae of the ruminant rumen. It is not well understood how these saccules facilitate absorption so efficiently.
The remainder of the camelid GI tract is similar to ruminants - small intestine, relatively small cecum, ascending colon with spiral loops (centripetal and centrifugal portions), transverse colon with smaller spiral loops, and descending colon to the rectum.
What is the study that would help to rule out ectopic ureters?
Vaginourethrogram.
Vaginourethrogram. This is a normal vaginourethrogram in a dog. Vaginourethrograms are used to evaluate for structural problems with the genitourinary tract, such as ectopic ureters, strictures, or masses.
The vestibule is between the vulva and the urethral papilla, cranial to that it becomes the vagina.
The vagina ends at the cervix which is usually at the level of the cranial thigh (depending on where the spay occurred).
If the dog is intact, the contrast can also fill the uterine horns. The bladder is partially contrast-filled in this study.
The urethra is uniform in size.
Clindamicyn (Antirobe) is in which family of antibiotics?
Lincosamides.
Clindamycin is a lincosamide. Lincosamides should NOT be used in neonates because of their limited ability to metabolize drugs.
DO NOT to use clindamycin in rabbits, guinea pigs, chinchillas, hamsters, horses, and ruminants. May be associated with Gl upset.
CONTRAINDICATED IN HORSES because a severe, even fatal, colitis can occur.
Possible parasite in cats presented for vaccination?
Cestode proglottid.
Tapeworm proglottids could be Tania taeniaformis or Dipylidium caninum.
Cats acquire T. taeniaformis from eating wild rodents (common).
D. caninum is the most common cestode infection in both cats and dogs.
Fleas carry the parasite, and dogs and cats are infected when they bite at fleas and ingest them. Adult cestodes in the intestine of cats do not usually cause clinical signs.
Diagnosis is straightforward - identify proglottids or eggs in feces.
Rx: You can treat with epsiprantel or praziquantel. Fenbendazole works for T. taeniaformis.
Which animals has a preputial diverticulum?
Boar.
The boar has a preputial diverticulum (PD).
The PD is a pouch located within dorsolateral aspect of the prepuce. It contains a discharge (desquamated epithelial cells, pheromones, urine) responsible for the strong smell of the boar.
The odor is attractive to sows, encouraging them to stand to be mounted during estrus;
the discharge also acts as a lubricant during coitus.
In boars used for artificial insemination and in pet pigs, the PD may be surgically removed to reduce odor, semen contamination, and urine dribbling.
Jabalí
What are the most common sites of osteochondrosis in dogs?
The most common sites of osteochondrosis in dogs include the shoulder, elbow, stifle, and tarsus (hock).
Osteochondrosis is a developmental orthopedic disease that begins with a disturbance or failure of endochondral ossification at the physes and epiphyses (growth plates). The resultant abnormal, thickened cartilage can become fissured, detached, or form a flap.
There is subsequent inflammation in the joint (synovitis) and abnormal wear on the opposing cartilage surface.
The clinical syndrome is termed “osteochondritis dissecans” (OCD) and presents with lameness, reduced range of motion, and effusion in the affected joint (s).
Typically a disease of young (4-10 month), male (3x more likely than female), fast-growing, large breed dogs; and often bilateral (so always take radiographs of the contralateral limb!).
Remember other developmental orthopedic disorders include: panosteitis (think shifting
leg lameness), hypertrophic osteodystrophy (HOD), and ununited anconeal process (UAP).
In horses, we see osteochondrosis most commonly at the distal intermediate ridge of the tibia (“DIRT” lesion) and at the lateral trochlear ridge of femur (stifle/knee).
In cattle, osteochondrosis is a developmental disorder characterized by asymmetrical endochondral ossification of epiphyseal cartilage in the shoulder, elbow, stifle, and hock joints.
Disorder of coagulation with following pattern could be related with?
Thrombocytes=82,533 per microliter [N=200,000-900,000]
Buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT), increased
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), increased
Prothrombin time (PT), increased
Fibrin degradation products (FDPs), increased
A pattern of low platelets, increased bleeding time and across the board increases in aPTT, PT, and FDP tests suggests disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
DIC is not a disease in its own right. It is a complex hemostatic defect characterized by inappropriate activation of coagulation and deposition of fibrin within the microvasculature. The depletion of clotting factors and platelets due to this clot formation can result in widespread hemorrhage.
If DIC is suspected it is essential to identify the underlying cause. Many disease can result in DIC, but the more common conditions include: sepsis, advanced heartworm disease, immune-mediated hemolytic anemia, anaphylaxis, envenomation, heat stroke, and severe fulminant pancreatitis. DIC is seen more commonly in dogs than in cats. Chronic DIC may be seen in dogs with hemangiosarcoma.
