BCSE (Zuku Review + Merk Veterinary Manual) Flashcards
A Thoroughbred colt is presented with warm, firm, painful swellings over bilateral distal medial forelimbs. The colt has a stiff gait. No history of trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Physitis.
A common developmental orthopaedic disease. Is an inflammation and swelling around the growth plates (physes) of the long bones. It is It is especially common in large, rapidly growing young horses, especially when the ground is hard. Additional risk factors include abnormal calcium-to-phosphorous ratio, too much exercise, obesity, conformational defects, and toxicosis. Most common bones affected (in order): distal radius, distal tibia, distal third metatarsal or metacarpal bones, and proximal first phalanx.
Most appropriate site for placement an intraosseous catheter in birds?
The distal ULNA is the site most frequently utilized for placement of an intraosseous catheter in birds. The proximal tibiotarsal bone is another site often used.
The humerus and femur are pneumatic bones and would deliver fluids into the respiratory tract.
Which female has ovaries that look like grape clusters because of the large number of follicles?
Sow. Sows have 10-20 follicles ready for fertilization every estrus cycle.
What is initially recommended for horses who suffer from uncomplicated intermittent delayed release of the patella from its position over the medial trochlear ridge of the femur?
Controlled exercise program first recommendation, it helps strengthen the quadriceps (and biceps femoris) muscles of the thigh and therefore removal of the patella from its “locked” position over the medial trochlear ridge.
Structure of skeletal myocyte
Skeletal muscle is made up of bundles of myocytes that appear circular (viewed in cross section). The myocytes can be distinguished by their circular cross sections, well-delineated cell junctions, and peripheral nuclei.
Which condition of cattle involves thickening of the skin between the claws of the feet?
Interdigital hyperplasia or fibroma is a thickening of the skin between the claws of the cow’s foot. More common in the rear feet. Usually secondary to chronic irritation (trauma or infection)
In racing horses which condition occurs in the dorsoproximal fetlock joint? This problem presents with lameness, fetlock joint effusion, firm swelling over the does-proximal fetlock joint, and a positive response to firm flexión of the fetlock.
Villonodular synovitis. Common condition in Thoroughbred race horses that presents with lameness, fetlock joint effusion, firm swelling over the dorsoproximal fetlock joint, and positive response to firm flexión of the fetlock. Proliferative synovitis characterized by enlargement of the fibrocartilaginous pad on the dorsoproximal aspect of the joint where the joint capsule attaches. It’s likely due to repetitive trauma form expertise.
Traumatic poll injury (rearing over backward) often results in rupture of which muscle in the horse?
Longus Capties Muscle. One of the ventral straight muscles of the head, inserts on the basisphenoid bone at the base of the skull. With traumatic poll injury, rupture occurs at the insertion of the muscle dorsal to the guttural pouch and results in severe hemorrhage. Bleeding from the guttural pouch neurologic deficits, and death can occur.
What is the treatment for angular limb deformity in foals?
Mild cases of angular limb deformity will improve without treatment. Mild cases may correct on their own.
What is the ossa cordis and in which animals do you see it / them?
Heart bones. Presented in cattle and older horses. Skeleton of the heart, made up f the connective tissue that separates the atria from the ventricles (like a floor). It provides attachment points for the heart valves and contains two bones, the ossa cordis. Seen in cattle, older horses.
Functional unit of kidney?
The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney and is composed of the glomerulus, renal tubule, and capillaries. Bowman’s capsule surrounds the nephron
A stray cat is presented that is acting strangely and lashing out aggressively at any movement. The animal appears hungry and thirsty, yet is unable to swallow properly and rabies is suspected. Which two cranial nerves are needed to coordinate swallowing?
Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9), Vagus nerve (CN 10).
Think of the glossopharyngeal nerve (and vagus) in association with motor damage to pharynx and swallowing. The classic disease associated with pharyngeal paralysis is rabies.
Think of damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve (a branch of the vagus) in association with motor damage to larynx and vocalization. The classic disease associated with laryngeal paralysis is laryngeal hemiplegia (“roaring” in horses).
Abortions due to brucellosis tend to occur at what stage of pregnancy?
Last half of pregnancy.
Typically, brucellosis causes abortion in the last half of pregnancy, from the 5th month onwards.
Expect stillborn calves. Cows only abort once, then they are immune.
Brucellosis is a reportable disease.
The vaccines used are the Brucella abortus strain 19 vaccine or the RB51 vaccine, given to heifer calves 4-12 months old, along with a USDA tattoo in the right ear.
Trichomoniasis typically causes early abortion in cows and neosporosis typically causes mid-term abortion, but most diseases cause abortion late (3rd trimester) or have variable timing.
The common abortion timelines are guidelines only - they help with boards questions but it’s not always so cut and dry in practice.
Which pair of neonatal calf diarrheas both have public health/zoonotic significance?
Cryptosporidiosis, salmonella.
Cryptosporidiosis is caused by a protozoa implicated in drinking water-associated outbreaks of diarrhea in humans. Salmonellae can infect humans from a number of different sources (turtles, chickens, eggs).
E. coli can cause human disease, but Ostertagia and bovine rotavirus do not. (There IS a human version of rotavirus, however)
C. perfringens can be found in soil and in the normal gut flora and is not contagious.
Eimeria spp. (the causative agent of coccidiosis) are host-specific. Therefore, cattle Eimeria spp. cannot infect humans, sheep, etc.
What is true regarding bovine leukosis virus?
Most infected animals have no outward clinical signs.
The most common outcome of infection with Bovine leukosis virus (BLV) is persistent infection with no outward clinical signs or lymphocytosis.
About a 1/3 of infected cattle develop a persistent benign lymphocytosis and <5% develop lymphosarcoma.
BLV infection is more common in dairy cattle than in beef cattle.
BLV is not a zoonosis. There is no treatment.
Risk is minimized by preventing the transfer of blood (and therefore infected lymphocytes) between cattle. Vertical transmission can also occur.
A four-year-old Saanen goat is presented that is off feed and feverish, with a swollen and draining abscess associated with her left prescapular lymph node. Caseous lymphadenitis (CLE) is suspected. What is the causative organism?
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis.
Remember your “C’s” - caseous lymphadenitis (CL) is caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis. Potentially ZOONOTIC, so wear gloves if you clean/debride an open abscess in a sheep or goat. REPORTABLE in some states (e.g., Georgia, Michigan).
Pretty common, and like contagious ecthyma (orf), CL is one of those diseases you watch out for when doing health exams for animals going to a fair.
The owner of a recently acquired small goat dairy plans to castrate the one-week-old goat kids. The vaccination history of the herd is unknown. What vaccinations/treatments should be given at the time of castration?
Clostridium perfringens C,D; tetanus toxoid; tetanus antitoxin
Since the vaccination history is unknown, the kids should be vaccinated with Clostridium perfringens C and D and tetanus toxoid and provide immediate protection with tetanus antitoxin.
If the does were definitely vaccinated, then no vaccines would be needed at the time of castration. C. perfringens C and D and tetanus toxoid are instead given to kids at one to two months of age and again one month later.
Orf and footrot vaccines are not core vaccines in goats. The orf vaccine is a live vaccine and should only be used if the disease has been diagnosed in the herd. The footrot vaccine is approved for sheep but only serves to reduce the number and severity of cases.
Continue with other management procedures such as quarantine, hoof trimming, and
footbaths.
Caseous lymphadenitis (Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis) does have a vaccine, but there is no vaccine available for caprine arthritis and encephalitis (CAE).
Burkholderia mallei, a highly contagious disease of equids is characterized by ulcerative nodules of the skin and upper respiratory tract. What is the common name of this reportable disease?
Glanders.
Glanders, caused by Burkholderia mallei, is a highly contagious, often fatal disease of equids characterized by high fever, thick mucopurulent nasal discharge, ulcerative nodules of the skin and upper respiratory tract.
Humans, felids, and other animals are also susceptible. This disease is now exotic to the USA.
Trypanosoma equiperdium is the cause of dourine, a chronic venereal disease of horses recognized in Africa, the Middle East, and South America.
Theileria parva is an important tickborne hemoparasitic cause of disease in cattle in central and eastern Africa known as East Coast Fever.
Clinical signs of the disease include high fever, lymphadenopathy, dyspnea, and death.
Prior to administration, what is the best way to determine the milk/meat withdrawal time of a medication for a food animal?
Consult the Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank
The most up-to-date guidelines on withdrawal times in food-producing animals are available from the Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank (FARAD).
There are strict withdrawal regulations because drug residues in the food chain could b harmful to humans.
After the first rabies vaccination, when is a dog (or cat or ferret) considered to be fully immunized and protected against rabies?
After 28 days.
According to the 2016 Compendium for Rabies Control, a peak rabies virus antibody titer is reached 28 days after initial vaccination and immediately after booster vaccination.
Here are some things to remember about rabies:
When in doubt, it is never wrong to check with your local health department.
Basicallv all potential rabies exposures boil down to 2 questions:
1. Who is involved?
Animal-animal exposure (less alarm bells)
Animal bites/exposed human (more alarm bells)
2. Was dog/cat/ferret vaccinated?
Documented up to date on rabies vaccination (booster + 45 days owner observation)
Documented vaccinated, but overdue (booster + 45 days owner observation)
UN-documented vaccinated, and overdue (handle on case-by-case basis)
Ferrets that are OVERDUE for booster (handle on case-by-case basis)
UN-vaccinated pet (euthanize or vaccinate + 4-6 month strict isolation)
Wild animal, esp. bats, raccoon, skunk (euthanize, send head to state lab)
When dealing with rabies questions, ask yourself if this seems like a HIGH-risk exposure (e.g., wild raccoon bites a child) or a LOWER risk exposure (e.g., up-to-date vaccinated dog messes with woodchuck but no bite wounds on dog).
For high-risk lean towards euthanasia/testing or immediate vaccination + long, strict isolation (4 months, dogs/cats, 6 months, ferrets).
For low-risk lean towards immediate vaccination + shorter, easier observation period (45 days).
In general, both Canadian and U.S. guidance on rabies post exposure management conforms with Compendium guidelines.
What is the most effective treatment for feline aggression?
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or tricyclic antidepressants combined with desensitization and counter conditioning exercises are the most effective way to manage feline aggression.
Aversive stimuli like reprimands and punishment are ineffective and counterproductive.
Offering reassurance or reward for an aggressive act may enhance aggressive learned behavior.
Anxiolytics such as buspirone or benzodiazepines may decrease patient inhibition and therefore INCREASE aggression. Oral diazepam carries the risk of fatal hepatotoxicity.
What part of an anesthetic circuit absorbs carbon dioxide?
Soda lime canister.
A canister of soda lime granules in the anesthetic circuit absorbs carbon dioxide (COz)
from exhaled anesthetic gasses.
Fresh absorbent crystals are white and can be crushed. But exhausted, saturated crystals become a distinct off-white color and are hard.
Most granules contain a pH-sensitive dye that becomes visible as the absorbent granules become saturated. A color change from white to purple or violet typically indicates that the COz absorbent granules are saturated with CO2, but this color change does not always happen and it may dissipate after a few hours.
The veterinary anesthesia and analgesia support group is a good resource for anesthesia information.
These bones (blue arrows) are fused in ruminants and horses but not in carnivores (like this dog). What does this difference allow carnivores to do?
Rotate the forearm.
The ulna is fused with the radius in ruminants and horses, which prevents them from supinating or pronating the forearm.
They are not fused in carnivores and pigs, so these animals can pronate and supinate the forearm (rotate it).
Image courtesy of Kirill Tsukanov.
Which of the following structures is marked with the yellow circle?
Seminiferous tubule.
The entire structure outlined in yellow is a seminiferous tubule of a tesus, where spermatogensis occurs. #1 is the lumen of the tubule.
Leydig cells (#7, also called interstitial cells) are located in the intersitium between the seminiferous tubules.
The Leydig cells produce most of the body’s testosterone in response to luteinizing hormone secreted from the pituitary.
Sertoli cells are indicated by #5. These are also called ‘nurse” cells because they produce hormones and proteins to facilitate spermatogenesis.
Images courtesy of original Testiclular histology, boar image (Uwe Gille).
The Gonads and Tubular Genital Tract in Animals.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/reproductive-system/reproductive-system-introduction/the-gonads-and-tubular-genital-tract-in-animals?redirectid=30659
What condition commonly occurs in the demarcated area that can be treated with trephination and la age?
Maxillary Sinusitis.
These markings denote the maxillary sinus, which is common affected by sinusitis.
Horses have six pairs of paranasal sinuses.
In horses, sinusitis is most often due to tooth root infections, since the roots of the four caudal-most cheek teeth extend into the maxillary sinus cavity. However, it can be primary or secondary to a sinus mass (cyst, ethmoid hematoma, neoplasia). Ethmoid hematomas are less commonly found in the paranasal sinuses than in the nasal passages but can be located in the conchofrontal sinus.
Clinical signs of sinusitis include unilateral mucopurulent or bloody nasal discharge (often malodorous if associated with a tooth root infection) and facial deformity.
Dx: Skull radiographs, sinoscopy, additional imaging modalities (e.g., CT or MRI).
Tx: Trephination and lavage of the sinus cavity with systemic antimicrobial therapy.
If sinusitis is secondary to a confirmed tooth root infection or mass (e.g., cyst or
hematoma) within the sinus, must create a sinus flap to repulse the tooth or remove the abnormal material before proceeding with Tx as described above.
Nasofrontal suture periostitis (or exostosis) is characterized by bony, nonpainful swelling over the nasofrontal suture, thought to be secondary to trauma. Tx: topical and systemic antiinflammatories, time.
Check out this good overview of sinus disease (with images) from the American College of Veterinary Surgeons.
https://www.acvs.org/large-animal/sinusitis-in-horses
Image courtesy of Vassil.
Link: Diseases of the Paranasal Sinuses in Horses
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/respiratory-system/respiratory-diseases-of-horses/diseases-of-the-paranasal-sinuses-in-horses
Link: A review of swellings of the frontal region of the equine head
https://beva.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/abs/10.1111/eve.12187
This Cow has the shape of a pear on the right and an apple on the left (“pápale”). What is the anatomical abnormality?
Ruminal distension.
This is the so-called “papple shape of a cow with ruminal distention due to vagal indigestion (essentially an outflow failure at the reticulo-omasal orifice or pyloric sphincter of the abomasum).
Look for ruminal distention with ingesta (which causes the papple shape) and scant stool.
Rectally, you may note the characteristic “L-shaped” rumen, with the ventral sac of the rumen enlarged and palpable to the right of the midline.
The left kidney may be pushed to the right of the midline by ruminal distention.
Bradycardia is present in 25-40% of cows with vagal indigestion and is NOT commonly associated with other conditions in cattle.
Image courtesy of Dr. Lisle George, copyright 2012.
Link: Chronic Indigestion Syndrome inRuminants
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/digestive-system/diseases-of-the-ruminant-forestomach/chronic-indigestion-syndrome-in-ruminants?autoredirectid=18723
A herd from a swine operation is presented because of an outbreak of fever and lameness in finishing pigs (100 - 200 lb [45-90 kg]). Some animals also have skin lesions that look like the image below. What is the treatment of choice for affected animals?
Penicillin IM - acute cases: Cull chronic cases.
Fever, lameness/arthritis and patchy skin lesions in finishing pigs suggest erysipelas. Penicillin is the treatment of choice for ACUTE cases of erysipelas; CULL Chronic cases.
Lincomycin is more frequently used to treat respiratory disease and the polyarthritis associated with Mycoplasma hyosynoviae.
Which one of the following plants can cause the problem seen in the following image?
Soybeans.
Goitrogenic plants include soybeans, cabbage, rape, kale, and turnips. Foals can be born with hyperplastic goiter and hypothyroidism to dams who eat the plants (especially soybeans), or who are being fed either excessive or inadequate ic Senecio spp, Crotalaria spp., and Amsinckia spp. all contain pyrrolizidine alkaloids (liver damage).
What thoracic radiographic pattern is most prominent?
Bronchial
Alveolar
Mixed alveolar-vascular
Hilar
Vacular
Alveolar.
The air bronchograms are hallmarks of the alveolar pattern. When tiny alveolar airspaces are infiltrated with inflammatory fluid, hemorrhage or neoplasia, the soft- tissue opacity highlights the larger airways.
The other 3 basic lung patterns are:
1. Bronchial pattern, characterized by irregularly thickened walls of bronchioles that look like “donuts” end-on or “tram tracks” side-on. For an excellent visual bronchial pattern summary, see Dr. Allison Zwingenberger’s Vet Radiology site.
2. Interstitial pattern, characterized by decreased visualization of pulmonary vessels, cardiac and diaphragm silhouettes. This particular radiograph is also an example of an interstitial pattern in the caudal lung fields.
3. Vascular pattern can suggest either hypervascularity or hypovascularity.
Click here to see enlarged and tortuous pulmonary arteries in lung the fields of a dog with severe heartworm.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/v49774429
A herd from a swine operation is presented because of an outbreak of fever and lameness in finishing pigs (100 - 200 lb [45-90 kg]). Some animals also have skin lesions that look like the image below. What is the treatment of choice for affected animals?
Lincomycin in feed - whole herd.
Penicillin IM - acute and chronic cases.
No ecumenically viable treatment - Cull acute cases.
Lincomycin IM - acute cases: Cull chronic cases.
Penicillin IM - acute cases: Cull chronic cases.
Penicillin IM - acute cases: Cull chronic cases.
Fever, lameness/arthritis and patchy skin lesions in finishing pigs suggest erysipelas. Penicillin is the treatment of choice for ACUTE cases of erysipelas; CULL Chronic cases.
Lincomycin is more frequently used to treat respiratory disease and the polyarthritis associated with Mycoplasma hyosynoviae.
A seven-year-old neutered male Rottweiler-mix dog from the Southern US in poor body condition presents with a one-month history of exercise intolerance, non-productive cough and heavy breathing.
The dog lives outside the house, last received routine vaccinations four years ago, and does not receive any other medications. Physical exam reveals mild cyanosis, ascites, temperature of 102.1oF, (38.9oC).
What is the most appropriate test to do to support the presumptive diagnosis?
Contrast angiography for patent ductus arteriosus.
Electrocardiogram for left heart failure.
Heartworm antigen test.
Complete blood count and blood chemistry panel.
Echocardiogram for dilated cardiomyopathy.
Heartworm antigen test.
The preferred answer is to test for heartworm disease. The history of outdoor living, in the South where Dirofilaria immitis-infected mosquitoes bite year-round, and the LACK of a history of preventative medication puts heartworm at the top of the DDX.
Patent ductus atreriosus (PDA) is more typically a young dog congenital abnormality that presents with exercise intolerance, coughing, stunted growth and a continuous machinery-type murmur, loudest on auscultation over the left craniodorsal cardiac base.
