Farm Final :) Flashcards
______: Derived from microorganisms ex: penicillin
Antibiotics
_______: Ability to kill bacteria (irreversible)
Bactericidal
_______: Synthetic (made in a laboratory) (ex: Sulfonamides)
Antibacterial agents
______: Range of anti-infective properties
Spectrum
______: Ability of organism to be unaffected by an anti-infective agent. (May be natural or acquired)
Resistance
_______: Ability to inhibit the growth of bacteria. (reversible)
Bacteriostatic
A ____ may be narrow or wide.
spectrum
________: Appearance of a new infection with other than the original organism while the patient is taking an antimicrobial agent. An example of this would be candidiasis as a result of taking tetracycline.
Suprainfection (super infection)
The word stat on a prescription means
a. before meals.
b. at bedtime.
c. immediately.
d. every.
c. immediately.
The word stat on a prescription means immediately (now). The abbreviation ac means before meals, hs means at bedtime, and q means every.
On a prescription, the directions to the patient are preceded by
a. Rx.
b. Sig.
c. #.
d. Disp.
b. Sig.
* Sig. is the abbreviation for the Latin word signa, or write. This word precedes the instructions to the patient. Rx means take thou and precedes the prescription instructions, # denotes the number of tablets, capsules, and so forth to be dispensed. Disp. is short for dispense and precedes the amount to be dispensed, analogous to #.*
______(Cleocin) is an antibacterial agent used in patients who are penicillin-allergic. Its mechanism of action is ______ or ____ depending on the dose. It _____ bacterial protein synthesis and retards bacterial growth and reproduction.
Clindamycin; bactericidal or bacteriostatic; inhibits
_____ occurs when the effect of two agents used together is lesser.
Antagonism
The mechanism of action for ______ inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis so it is _______.
penicillin; bacteriocidal
_____ have a 10% cross-sensitivity with penicillin.
Cephalosporins
______(Cleocin) is an antibacterial agent used in patients who are penicillin-allergic. Its mechanism of action is ______ or ____ depending on the dose. It _____ bacterial protein synthesis and retards bacterial growth and reproduction.
Clindamycin; bacteriacidal or bacteriistatic; inhibits
What antibacterial agents are the first line of treatment?
Penicillin and Amoxicillin
What antibacterial agent is the first line of treatment when a ‘cilin cannot be used?
Clindamycin
What is the adjunctive agent used with ‘cilin antibacterial agents?
metronidazole
True or False Bacteriostatic and bactericidal antibiotics should not be used together because its effectiveness will be reduced.
True
Penicillin is a _____ -spectrum antibiotic, whereas, amoxicillin is a ________ -spectrum antibiotic
narrow; broad
______ is bactericidal and causes bacterial DNA to lose its structure. It is important that alcohol is not consumed with this antibiotic.
Metronidazole (Flagyl)
A patient care consideration for ________ is pseudomembranous colitis. This is associated with C. dif.
clindamycin
Nutritional or herbal supplements
a. carry the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval for disease states.
b. are not drugs.
c. can cause adverse effects.
d. will not interact with other drugs the patient may be taking.
c. can cause adverse effects.
* Nutritional or herbal supplements are quite capable of causing adverse effects. The majority of nutritional or herbal supplements do not carry FDA approval for treating disease states. These supplements are drugs and can cause adverse effects and interact with different drugs.*
Which type of drug name usually begins with a lowercase letter?
a. Brand name
b. Code name
c. Generic name
d. Trade name
c. Generic name
* Before any drug is marketed, it is given a generic name that becomes the “official” name of the drug. Each drug is assigned only one generic name selected by the U.S. Adopted Name Council, and the name is not capitalized. The brand name is equivalent to the trade name and is capitalized. Although the brand name is technically the name of the company marketing the product, this term is often used interchangeably with the trade name. The code name is the initial term used within a pharmaceutical company to refer to a drug while it is undergoing investigation and is often a combination of capital letters and numbers, the letters representing an abbreviation of the company name.*
Which of the following is true concerning generic and trade names of drugs?
a. A drug may only have one generic name and one trade name.
b. A drug may only have one generic name, but it may have several trade names.
c. A drug may have several generic names, but it may only have one trade name.
d. A drug may have several generic names and several trade names.
b. A drug may only have one generic name, but it may have several trade names.
The federal body that determines whether a drug is considered a controlled substance and to
which schedule it belongs is the
a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
b. Federal Trade Commission (FTC).
c. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA).
d. U.S. Pharmacopeia (USP).
c. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA).
Which federal regulatory agency decides which drugs require a prescription and which drugs may be sold over-the-counter (OTC)?
a. FDA
b. OSHA
c. FTC
d. DEA
a. FDA
Which of the following is a schedule II controlled substance?
a. Heroin
b. Propranolol
c. Amphetamine
d. Dextropropoxyphene (Darvon)
c. Amphetamine
* Amphetamine, oxycodone, morphine, and secobarbital are all schedule II controlled substances. Heroin is a schedule I substance. Propranolol is a nonscheduled prescription drug. Dextropropoxyphene is a schedule IV substance.*
A drug is defined as a biologically active substance that can modify
a. the environment.
b. the pH of tissue.
c. cellular function.
d. immune response.
c. cellular function.
Administering a drug of greater potency is better because drugs of greater potency do not
require as high a dose.
a. Both parts of the statement are true.
b. Both parts of the statement are false.
c. The first part of the statement is true; the second part is false.
d. The first part of the statement is false; the second part is true.
d. The first part of the statement is false; the second part is true.
Cannabis is falls under what level of scheduled controlled substances?
A) schedule V
B) schedule II
C) schedule III
D) schedule I
D) schedule I
Which of the following statements is true regarding the therapeutic index (TI) of a drug?
a. A drug with a large TI is more dangerous than a drug with a small TI.
b. The formula for TI is ED50/LD50.
c. ED50 is 50% of the effective clinical dose.
d. TI is the ratio of the median lethal dose to the median effective dose.
d. TI is the ratio of the median lethal dose to the median effective dose.
Which of the following statements is true concerning the mechanism of action of drugs?
a. Drugs are capable of imparting a new function to the organism.
b. Drugs either produce the same action as an exogenous agent or block the action of an exogenous agent.
c. Drugs either produce the same action as an exogenous agent or block the action of an endogenous agent.
d. Drugs either produce the same action as an endogenous agent or block the action of an endogenous agent.
d. Drugs either produce the same action as an endogenous agent or block the action of an endogenous agent.
When a drug has affinity for a receptor and produces no effect, it is called a(n)
a. agonist.
b. competitive antagonist.
c. competitive agonist.
d. physiologic agonist.
b. competitive antagonist.
Which of the following is not a subject of pharmacokinetics?
a. Physiologic action of drugs
b. Metabolism of drugs
c. Elimination of drugs
d. Absorption of drugs
a. Physiologic action of drugs
In comparing two drugs, the dose-response curve for the drug that is more efficacious would
a. be closer to the y-axis.
b. be farther from the y-axis.
c. have a greater curve height.
d. have a higher median effective dose (ED50)
c. have a greater curve height.
Increasing the pH of a solution will cause
a. a greater percentage of a weak base in the solution to be in the ionized form.
b. a greater percentage of a weak acid in the solution to be in the un-ionized form.
c. the hydrogen ion concentration to increase.
d. a greater percentage of a weak base in the solution to be in the un-ionized form.
e. no change in the relative ionization of weak acids or weak bases.
d. a greater percentage of a weak base in the solution to be in the un-ionized form.
The movement of a drug from one site in the body to other sites is called
a. distribution.
b. disruption.
c. dispersion.
d. active transport.
a. distribution.
______ can be bactericidal or bacteriostatic depenting on the dose. The mechanism of action for this antibacterial agent is the inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis.
It is used in the treatment of upper respiratoy infections.
Its patient care consideration is that it can cause ventricular _______.
An example of this agent is ___________ (Zithromax).
Macrolide; arrhythmias; azithromycin
If a drug displays zero-order elimination kinetics
a. elimination increases as the dose of the drug is increased.
b. a constant amount is eliminated per unit time.
c. the drug is not eliminated and is retained in the body.
d. the elimination of the drug cannot be predicted mathematically.
b. a constant amount is eliminated per unit time.
Application of a transdermal patch is an example of parenteral administration because the
drug is delivered in a manner that bypasses the gastrointestinal tract.
a. Both parts of the statements are true.
b. Both parts of the statements are false.
c. The first part of the statement is true; the second part is false.
d. The first part of the statement is false; the second part is true.
a. Both parts of the statements are true.
The route of administration of a drug affects
a. both the onset and duration of response.
b. the onset, but not the duration of response.
c. the duration, but not the onset of response.
d. neither the onset nor the duration of response.
a. both the onset and duration of response.
_____ are bacteriostatic agents that inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. It is used to treate dermatologic conditions and periodontitis.
Doxycycline and minocycline are examples of this agent.
(Not really used in dentistry anymore)
Tetracyclines
An adverse side effect of tetracycline and sulfanoamides is ________.
Photosensitivity
Calcium, iron, aluminum, magnesium and cations can ______the drug availability of ________.
reduce; tetracyclines
Drugs that are weak electrolytes will cross body membranes best when they are (1) nonionized, (2) ionized, (3) polar, (4) nonpolar, (5) lipid soluble, (6) water soluble.
a. 1, 3, 5
b. 1, 3, 6
c. 1, 4, 5
d. 1, 4, 6
e. 2, 4, 5
c. 1, 4, 5
Tetracyclines used in dentistry are _____ and _____.
Artidox (doxycycline hyclate gel) and Arestin (minicycline microspheres)
_____ are antibacterial agents that are very similar to penicllin. It inhibits bacteria cell wall synthesis, therefore, it is _____.
It is organized into “generations” based on its width of spectrum.
Cephalosporins; bactericidal
_____ have a 10% cross-sensitivity with penicillin.
Cephalosporins
______ are bacteriacidal agents that antagonize bacterial DNA and promotes breakage of the DNA molecule.
Examples of this agent are Ciproflaxacin (Cipro) and Levoflaxacin.
Notable advese effect associated with this drug is spontaneous rupture of the ______,and insomnia
Fluroquinolones; achilles tendon
If one dose of a drug is administered and the drug’s half-life in the body is 3 hours, what percentage of the drug would be left after four half-lives?
a. 50%
b. 6.25%
c. 2%
d. Insufficient information to determine
b. 6.25%
* The half-life is the time required for a drug level to fall to one half of its concentration. The drug concentration would go to 50% → 25% → 12.5% → 6.25% in four half-lives. The information given is more than sufficient to answer the question. One needs merely to count the number of half-lives and divide the percentage drug in half for every half-life passed since the drug was administered.*
____ are a _____antibacterial agent that inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis.
It is not as effective when compared to other antibacterial agents.
Sulfonamides; bacteriostatic
One dose of a drug is administered that has a half-life of 8 hours. Assuming first-order
kinetics, how much time is needed for this drug to be over 96% eliminated from the body?
a. 8 hours
b. 40 hours
c. 60 hours
d. 120 hours
ANS: B
Assuming first-order kinetics, 40 hours would be required for this drug to be over 96% eliminated from the body. Five half-lives are needed to reduce the levels of a drug to 3.125% of the original levels, or eliminate over 96%. For a drug with an 8-hour half-life, this amounts to five half-lives x 8 hours per half-life, or 40 hours.
_____ is when 2 antibodies are used together to increase_____.
An example of this is Bactrim/Septra.
Synergism
The half-life of a drug is most related to its
a. onset.
b. duration.
c. safety.
d. time to peak concentration.
b. duration
What of the following choices is considered the safest, least expensive, and most convenient
route for administering drugs?
a. Inhalation
b. Rectal
c. Oral
d. Subcutaneous
c. Oral
Advantages of oral administration of a drug include all the following except
a. large surface area for drug absorption.
b. many different dose forms that may be administered orally.
c. more predictable response than intravenous administration.
d. the simplest way to introduce a drug into the body.
c. more predictable response than intravenous administration.
“RIPE”, an acronym used to help recall drugs associated with ____ stands for _____, ______, _______, _______?
Tuberculosis
Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol
What type of administration involves the injection of solutions into the spinal subarachnoid
space?
a. Intrathecal route
b. Intraperitoneal route
c. Intravenous route
d. Intradermal route
a. Intrathecal route
Drug preparations may be administered for local or systemic effects. Which is an example of a
dose form used for a local effect?
a. Sublingual tablet
b. Transdermal patch
c. Ophthalmic ointment
d. Subcutaneous injection
c. Ophthalmic ointment
Which organ is involved in the first-pass effect after oral administration of a drug?
a. Kidney
b. Lungs
c. Liver
d. Spleen
c. Liver
____ is an antifungal agent whose mechanism of action is to bind to ergosterol in membranes. It is topical and is not absorbed into general circulation.
It is used to treat skin, oral, and vaginal _____.
Nystatin; candidiasis
Azoles are antifungal agents that inhibit ergosterol via fungal P450 enzymes. An example of an Azole is _____ (fluconazole).
Adverse reactions are headache and potential for serious _____ damage.
Diflucan; liver
Which drug is eliminated with zero-order kinetics?
a. Probenecid
b. Aspirin
c. Allopurinol
d. Penicillin
e. Naproxyn sodium
b. Aspirin
With zero-order kinetics, the
a. same amount of drug is metabolized and eliminated from the body per unit of time regardless of dose.
b. same percentage of drug is metabolized and eliminated from the body per unit of time.
c. drug is irreversibly bound to receptor sites.
d. drug is not bound to receptor sites.
a. same amount of drug is metabolized and eliminated from the body per unit of time regardless of dose.
With high doses, the metabolism of the drug cannot increase and the duration of action of the drug can be greatly prolonged. Zero-order kinetics occurs because the enzymes that metabolize these drugs can become saturated at usual therapeutic doses. If the dose of the drug is increased, the metabolism cannot increase above its maximum rate.
______ are used in the treatment of herpes simplex infections and varicella zoster infections. Its mechanism of action incorporates into and terminates viral DNA.
Examples of this type of agent are acyclovir are Valtrex.
Antiviral agents
Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors and Non-Neucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors are antiviral agents used to treat _____.
HIV
____ are used for the treatment of HIV viral infections. The mechanism of action inhbits the enzyme converting viral RNA to DNA. (May cause oral ulcers.)
_____ inhibitors decrease the production of viral proteins in an HIV postive host. (May buccal mucosa ulcerations.)
RT inhibitors; Protease inhibitors
Neuraminidase Inhibitors are used to treat ______. This antiviral agent is moderately effective.
An example of this is Tamiflu.
infuenza
Gastric Pathologies are treated by either blocking ________ receptors in the stomach wall, inhibiting _______ at the parietal cell in the stomach wall, or by simply taking an ______.
histamine-2; proton-pump; antacid
The mechanism of action of the Proton-Pump inhibitor is to inhibit the action of the “proton pump” at the ______ in the stomach wall.
parietal cell
Gastric pathologies are realated to the presence of ________
Helicobacter pylori (H. Pylori)
(this bacereia causes stomach ulcers)
The ___ is used for short-term treatment of active duodenal ulcers, GERD, and erosice esophagitis.
PPI
Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD) caused when contents of the stomach “______” into the esophagus leading to _______ tissue damge.
reflux (spill); esophageal
Histamine-2 receptors are responsible for which bodily function?
Stimulating gastric acid secretion
The mechanism of action for the histamine-2 receptor antagonist is to block _______ receptors in stomach wall and decrease acid production.
histamine-2
______ end with ‘ine.
Histamine-2 receptors
cimetidine (Tagament)
famotidine (Pepcid)
nizatidine (Axid)
ranitidine (Zantac)
______end with ‘prazole and may cause flatulence and halitosis.
Proton-Pump Inhibitors
omeprazole (Prilosec)
lansoprazole (Prevacid)
rabeprazole (Aciphex)
esomeprazole (Nexium)
pantoprazole (Protonix)
Tums is an example of an ____ that neutralizes stomach acid preventing the absorption of Ca. In excess, this can cause kidney stones.
antacid
Antacids provide temporary symptomatic relief of hyperacidity, but their use can cause constipation, diarrhea and _________.
rebound hyperacidity
H+/K+ ATPase is in reference to what system?
PPI
_____ is defined as a reversible airway obstruction due to inflammation which causes a reduction in the ability to exhale air from the lungs.
Asthma
_______ and ______ are two types of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) which are considered irreversible airway obstructions.
Emphysema; Chronic Bronchitis
______ is a type of COPD where alveolar destruction occurs.
Emphysema
______ another type of COPD, results in chronic inflammation of the airways and excessive sputnum production.
Chronic Bronchitis
Which of the following agents is the drug of choice for an early dental infection unless the patient is allergic to it?
a. Erythromycin
b. Clindamycin
c. Penicillin
d. Metronidazole
c. Penicillin
* Penicillin is the drug of choice unless the patient is allergic to it. Amoxicillin is most often used because it is less irritating to the stomach than other drugs and can be taken with food or milk. In patients allergic to penicillin, alternatives might include erythromycin or clindamycin. When the infection is at the mixed stage, agents effective against either gram-positive or anaerobic organisms may be successful. Metronidazole is effective for anaerobic organisms.*
DIF: Comprehension REF: Dental Infection “Evolution” | p. 68 OBJ: 1 TOP: NBDHE, 6.0. Pharmacology
Which of the following choices is the dental hygienist’s biggest dental problem in the adult patient?
A) Caries
B) Periodontal disease
C) Localized dental infection
D) Systemic dental infection
B) Periodontal disease
Periodontal disease is the dental hygienist’s biggest dental problem in the adult patient. Current research suggests that periodontal disease may be associated with coronary heart disease. With an increase in knowledge about antiinfective agents, the dental hygienist and dentist will be better able to understand and properly administer the appropriate drug therapy. Use of fluoridated water, local physical removal of bacterial plaque biofilm from teeth on a regular basis, and sealants have reduced the rate of caries. While it certainly is true that local and systemic dental infections are of great concern, they are not the biggest problem in an adult patient for a dental hygienist to manage.
DIF: Recall REF: Introduction | p. 68 OBJ: 1 TOP: NBDHE, 6.0. Pharmacology
Which of the following statements is true of the cephalosporins?
A) They are active against gram-positive but not gram-negative organisms.
B) Those available for oral use are susceptible to penicillinase.
C) They are bacteriostatic.
D) Their mechanism of action is inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
D) Their mechanism of action is inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
The mechanism of action of the cephalosporins is like that of the penicillins: inhibition of cell wall synthesis. Cephalosporins are active against a wide variety of both gram-positive and gram-negative organisms. Those available for oral use are relatively acid stable and highly resistant to penicillinase. The cephalosporins, which are bactericidal, are active against most gram-positive cocci, penicillinase-producing staphylococci, and some gram-negative bacteria.
DIF: Comprehension REF: Cephalosporins (Mechanism of Action) | p. 75 OBJ: 4 TOP: NBDHE, 6.0. Pharmacology
A cephalosporin would be most closely related to which of the following agents?
A) Penicillin VK
B) Clarithromycin
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Doxycycline
E) Clindamycin
A) Penicillin VK
Cephalosporins and penicillins have similarities in structure; they are both -lactam antibiotics. They also have the same mechanism of action. Clarithromycin is a macrolide, ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone, doxycycline is a tetracycline, and clindamycin is an analogue of lincomycin, not structurally related to any others. Its mechanism of action is similar to that of macrolides.
DIF: Comprehension REF: Cephalosporins | p. 75
Unlike other antiinfective agents, an additive action may result when _____ is combined with other antimicrobial agents.
a. vancomycin
b. chloramphenicol
c. nitrofurantoin
d. ciprofloxacin
d. ciprofloxacin
An additive action may result when ciprofloxacin is combined with other antimicrobial agents. The emergence of organisms resistant to the fluoroquinolones and the cross-resistance among the fluoroquinolones is increasing. Use of fluoroquinolones in chickens may be partially responsible for increasing resistance. The other choices do not have an additive action when combined with other antimicrobial agents.
DIF: Recall
REF: Antimicrobial Agents for Nondental Use (Quinolones (Fluoroquinolones) [Spectrum]) | p. 83 OBJ: 7 TOP: NBDHE, 6.0. Pharmacology
Which of the following are true about sulfamethoxazole (SMX) and trimethoprim (TMP)? (Select all that apply.)
A) They are bactericidal.
B) They act by sequential inhibition of folic acid synthesis.
C) They are used to treat urinary tract infections (UTIs).
D) They are often used to treat refractory periodontitis.
A) They are bactericidal.
B) They act by sequential inhibition of folic acid synthesis.
Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim are folate synthesis inhibitors. They are commonly used in combination as co-trimoxazole, SMX-TMP, Bactrim, or Septra. This drug is indicated for the treatment of selected urinary tract infections and selected respiratory and gastrointestinal infections. It is used to treat acute otitis media in children. SMX-TMP is bacteriostatic against a wide variety of gram-positive bacteria and some gram-negative bacteria. SMX-TMP has no documented use in dentistry. Pediatric patients coming to the dental office may be taking it to prevent chronic ear infections.
DIF: Recall
REF: Antimicrobial Agents for Nondental Use (Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim) | p. 83 OBJ: 7 TOP: NBDHE, 6.0. Pharmacology
Which of the following combinations of three drugs are administered concurrently in active cases of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB)?
A) Pyrazinamide (PZA), rifapentine, and Rifater
B) Isoniazid (INH), rifampin, and pyrazinamide
C) Ethambutol, isoniazid (INH), and Rifater
D) Rifampin, PZA, and streptomycin
B) Isoniazid (INH), rifampin, and pyrazinamide
- INH, rifampin, and PZA are combined for the treatment of pulmonary TB. INH and rifampin are continued every day for 9 to 12 months. PZA is continued for 2 months. With susceptible organisms, a patient, if compliant, usually becomes noninfective within 2 to 3 weeks. These choices do not represent the combination of three drugs that are administered in active cases of tuberculosis.*
- DIF: Recall REF: Antituberculosis Agents | p. 84 OBJ: 8 TOP: NBDHE, 6.0. Pharmacology*
Which of the following agents has poor oral absorption?
a. Nystatin
b. Itraconazole
c. Terbinafine
d. Griseofulvin
a. Nystatin
* Nystatin is not absorbed from the mucous membranes or through intact skin; taken orally, it is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract. Itraconazole, terbinafine, and griseofulvin all have good oral bioavailability.*
DIF: Comprehension REF: Antifungal Agents (Nystatin) | p. 90 OBJ: 1 TOP: NBDHE, 6.0. Pharmacology
Which antifungal agent for oral candidiasis is available as an aqueous suspension?
a. Clotrimazole
b. Ketoconazole
c. Fluconazole
d. Nystatin
d. Nystatin
* Nystatin is available as an aqueous suspension, and also as vaginal tablets, cream, ointment, or pastilles. Clotrimazole is available as a troche, ketoconazole, and fluconazole are available as oral tablets.*
DIF: Recall
REF: Antifungal Agents (Nystatin) | p. 90 | Antifungal Agents (Imidazoles [Clotrimazole]) | p. 91 OBJ: 1 TOP: NBDHE, 6.0. Pharmacology
Why would a patient ever take a vaginal tablet of nystatin orally?
A)The vaginal tablet is dosed once per day, which is less frequently than the oral pastille.
B) The vaginal tablet does not contain sugar
C) The vaginal tablet does not require a prescription
D) Vaginal tablet has better flavor than the oral tablet.
E) Only if they did not read the directions and did not know any better.
B) The vaginal tablet does not contain sugar.
- The vaginal tablet does not contain sugar. The aqueous suspension contains 50% sucrose. This can be important for a diabetic patient. The vaginal tablet for oral use is dosed 4 times per day. Nystatin requires a prescription regardless of the delivery form. The vaginal tablet is not flavored for oral use.*
- DIF: Application REF: Antifungal Agents (Nystatin) | p. 90 OBJ: 1 TOP: NBDHE, 6.0. Pharmacology*
All of the following are antifungal agents that are useful in dentistry except
a. miconazole.
b. docosanol.
c. clotrimazole.
d. ketoconazole.
b. docosanol.
* Docosanol is an antiviral used to treat recurrent orolabial herpes. The other choices listed are used in dentistry.*
DIF: Recall REF: Antifungal Agents (Imidazoles) | p. 90 OBJ: 1 TOP: NBDHE, 6.0. Pharmacology
Which of the following statements is true concerning antibiotic resistance?
A) Natural resistance occurs when an organism that was previously sensitive to an antimicrobial agent develops resistance.
B) An increase in the use of an antibiotic in a given population decreases the proportion of resistant organisms in that population.
C) Bacterial resistance can occur by the transfer of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) genetic material from one organism to another.
D) The transfer of genetic material from one organism to another may only occur among organism of the same species.
C) Bacterial resistance can occur by the transfer of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) genetic material from one organism to another.
Bacterial resistance can occur by the transfer of DNA genetic material from one organism toanother via transduction, transformation, or bacterial conjugation. Natural resistance occurswhen an organism has always been resistant to an antimicrobial agent because of thebacteria’s normal properties, such as lipid structure in the cell wall. Acquired resistance occurs when an organism that was previously sensitive to an antimicrobial agent develops resistance. An increase in the use of an antibiotic in a given population increases the proportion of resistant organisms in that population. The transfer of genetic material from one organism to another may occur among very different microorganisms, including transfer from nonpathogenic bacteria to pathogenic bacteria.
Which of the following agents is a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor used to treat HIV infection?
a. Saquinavir
b. Nevirapine
c. Zidovudine
d. Raltegravir
b. Nevirapine
* Nevirapine is a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor specific for HIV-1. It inhibits the same enzymes as the nucleoside analogues but does not require bioactivation. Saquinavir is an HIV protease inhibitor. Zidovudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. Raltegravir is an integrase inhibitor.*
DIF: Recall
REF: Antiviral Agents (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome [Nonnucleoside Reverse
Transcriptase Inhibitors]) | p. 94 OBJ: 3 TOP: NBDHE, 6.0. Pharmacology
Which of the following groups of drugs used to treat HIV can interfere with the action of the HIV-infected cells?
A) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
C) Protease inhibitors
D) Both A and B
E) Both B and C
C) Protease inhibitors
The difference between the protease inhibitors and the nucleoside analogs or nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors is that the protease inhibitors can interfere with the action of the HIV-infected cells. Its adverse reactions include rash, hyperglycemia, and paresthesias. The remaining groups of drugs used to treat HIV do not interfere with the action of HIV-infected cells.
DIF: Application
REF: Antiviral Agents (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome [Protease Inhibitors]) | p. 95 OBJ: 3 TOP: NBDHE, 6.0. Pharmacology
Which of the following types of HIV drugs are also used to treat hepatitis B? (Select all that apply.)
A) Nucleoside analog or nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) Nonnucleoside analogs or nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C) Protease inhibitor
D) Fusion/entry inhibitor
E) ntegrase inhibitor
A) Nucleoside analog or nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Several oral nucleoside/nucleotide analogs are available for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B. The protease inhibitors boceprevir and telaprevir were approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for use in combination with peginterferon and ribavirin for the treatment of chronic hepatitis C genotype1 infection. The remaining types of HIV drugs are not currently used to treat hepatitis B.
DIF: Application
REF: Antiviral Agents (Chronic Hepatitis [Nucleoside/Nucleotide Analogs]) | p. 97 OBJ: 4 TOP: NBDHE, 6.0. Pharmacology
Most ulcers are due to excess stomach acid from worrying.
True
False
False
Most ulcers are related to the presence of Helicobacter pylori. Many ulcers can now be cured by using a combination of one or more antibiotics and an H2-blocker or a proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) to reduce stomach acid
Low doses of Sedative/Hypnotic Agents will _____, while high does can lead to ____.
sedate; sleep
Patients with asthma should bring their fast-acting _____ inhaler to be used prophylactically or in the management of an acute asthmatic attack in the dental office.
A) 𝑢-agonist
B) 𝐵1-agonist
C) 𝐵1-antagonist
D) 𝐵2-agonist
E) 𝐵2-antagonist
D) 𝐵2-agonist
The stimulation of 2-receptors results in smooth-muscle relaxation. Because the blood vessels of the skeletal muscle are innervated with 2-receptors, stimulation causes vasodilation. Relaxation of the smooth muscles of the bronchioles, also containing 2-receptors, results in bronchodilation. A fast-acting 2-agonist should be available to manage an acute asthmatic attack in the dental office. Signs of asthma include shortness of breath and wheezing.
