FAMS Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What drives the bus for the history of a dairy cow (i.e. what’s the most important information to get for a dairy cow’s history)?
A
(Days in milk)
2
Q
What does LUMMAR stand for (i.e. the main 6 things to evaluate for a dairy cow)?
A
(Lungs, uterus, mammary, metabolic, abomasum, rumen)
3
Q
What is the worst-built portion of the bovine?
A
(The lungs)
4
Q
Where should you default if you find nothing else wrong with a cow with a fever of unknown origin?
A
(Lungs)
5
Q
The uterus is a common cause of problems/pathology in a cow for the first how many weeks postpartum?
A
(2 weeks)
6
Q
(T/F) Milk production can be used to distinguish between local and systemic mastitis.
A
(F, milk production is not a good indicator of whether the problem is local or systemic)
7
Q
What presentation defines subclinical mastitis (what does the cow look like, what does the milk look like)?
A
(Normal cow, milk with elevated somatic cells)
8
Q
What presentation defines systemic mastitis (what does the cow look like, what does the milk look like)?
A
(8-10% dehydrated, depressed, feverish cow down in milk (>50%) and watery to brown/orange milk)
9
Q
What two organisms are typically the cause of systemic/toxic mastitis?
A
(Coliforms - E. coli and Klebsiella)
10
Q
How are systemic/toxic mastitis-causing organisms obtained?
A
(From the environment)
11
Q
Cows with severe systemic illness may have sub/normal/elevated temperatures (choose one).
A
(All of the above)
12
Q
Describe a normal rumen contraction (how many in how many minutes and what it should feel like).
A
(3 contractions every 2 minutes, your hand and stethoscope should be pushed outward during the contraction)
13
Q
(T/F) There are no normal pings on the left side of a cow.
A
(T)
14
Q
(T/F) Lung fields are much wider in cattle than other species.
A
(F, much narrower)
15
Q
If a cow’s eyes are sunken, you can assume they are at least what percent dehydrated?
A
(7%)
16
Q
Subclinical ketosis usually occurs secondarily to another pathology causing what clinical sign in cows?
A
(Anorexia)
17
Q
What are the two ways to distinguish between a normal and abnormal ping on the right side of a cow?
A
(The size, a normal ping is typically no larger than a flat hand and an abnormal ping can span 3-4 ribs/rib spaces; consistency, a normal ping is typically inconsistent while an RDA/RTA ping is prominent and consistent)
18
Q
You tent the skin on a cow and the skin stays tented for 4 seconds, what percent dehydrated is this cow?
A
(4%)
19
Q
How do you distinguish between an RDA/RTA versus a cecal torsion via pinging?
A
(The pings for a cecal torsion should extend into the paralumbar fossa whereas RDA/RTA pings do not)
20
Q
Scars have decreased strength/vascularity/cellularity (choose).
A
(All three)
21
Q
What is the difference between a contaminated and dirty wound?
A
(A dirty wound has an active infection present, contaminated just has debris or spillage but not an infection (yet))
22
Q
What is the benefit to choosing vertical mattress sutures over horizontal?
A
(Horizontal can impinge on peripheral healing capillaries)
23
Q
What are three ways to manage dead space?
A
(Suturing all tissue planes separately and accurately, use of drains, and pressure dressing)
24
Q
How do hematomas increase risk of infection in wounds?
A
(Blood is a great growth media for bacteria)
25
What is the advantage to ruminants having increased vascular density in their bones and enhanced osteogenic layer in their periosteum with lots of osteoblasts?
(They have a great potential for bone healing)
26
Should you start or end your farm visit/day with a necropsy?
(End, and if live sick animals test healthy then sick then dead)
27
Formalin fixed tissue should be no more than how many centimeters thick?
(3-6 cm)
28
How should solid organs be cut for submitting after a necropsy?
(Bread loaf style)
29
(T/F) All veterinary diagnostic specimens are considered a category B infectious substance for shipping purposes and need a special label.
(T)
30
Optimally, samples submitted for microbiology and/or toxicology should be fixed/fresh (choose).
(Fresh)
31
What are the five locations that you will most likely encounter lymphosarcoma in a cow?
(Hearts, abomasum, uterus, lymph nodes, and spine)
32
You are presented with a cow with a mandibular mass. You palpate it, it is hard and bony, what is likely the diagnosis and what is the causative agent?
(Lumpy jaw, actinomyces bovis)
33
What is the treatment for bovine papilloma virus?
(Leave it alone)
34
(T/F) Melanomas in cows are usually ulcerated, fairly movable, painful, and about as firm as a testicle.
(F, melanomas in cows can be ulcerated or not, are fairly moveable, are non-painful, and about as firm as a testicle)
35
What are two ways to distinguish between a penile hematoma and water belly in cows?
(Penile hematoma → firm and penile prolapse, water belly → soft and no penile prolapse usually)
36
A lump or bump on the jaw area of a small ruminant is what until proven otherwise?
(Caseous lymphadenitis)
37
What is the most common location where squamous cell carcinoma pops up in small ruminants?
(Vulva)
38
You are presented with a vulvar mass in a small ruminant, what are you most likely to suspect it is?
(SCC)
39
Treatment success results from the joint action of what two things (one is applied by you the vet and the other has to do with the animal you are treating)?
(Animal defenses and appropriate drug treatments → no antibiotic is good enough without help from the animal)
40
You are treating calves on a farm which have previously been treated as apart of a large group in an attempt to prevent disease (metaphylaxis) with draxxin, which of the following drugs could/should you now be treating the calves with? There may or may not be multiple answers that are correct.
Zactran
Micotil
Excede
Nuflor
(Excede (ceftiofur/cephalosporin) or nuflor (florfenicol), the other two are in the same class as draxxin (macrolide))
41
If you expect ____ (a percentage) of calves or greater to be at risk for respiratory disease upon arrival to a farm, you should use metaphylaxis.
(35%)
42
You are currently dealing with an outbreak of respiratory disease in a herd of calves. At this time, you are still just treating individually identified sick calves but in what two situations would you pursue metaphylaxis?
(If you were to treat 25% or greater of the calves in the herd in one day OR if for three consecutive days, you have to treat 10% of the calves in the herd)
43
What three areas of the body are targeted by mycoplasma?
(Lungs (pneumonia), joints (lameness), and ears (ear infections, head tilt))
44
Why might calves with Mycoplasma infections be harder to identify for respiratory disease when compared to calves with Mannheimia infections?
(Mycoplasma does not produce the leukotoxin that Mannheimia does so calves with myco are usually not as ADR or off-feed like those with Mannheimia infections)
45
(T/F) Once a calf has joint issues related to a Mycoplasma infection, they will not be able to recover and should be euthanized.
(F, most calves will recover if given enough time and the appropriate husbandry (small lot with easy access to feed/water); myco attacks the joint capsules, not the cartilage itself)
46
What is the treatment for Histophilus somni?
(Prevention with CTC, 1 gm per 100 lbs body weight for 5 days)
47
Optimally how long would you wait and get the producer to wait after administering a long acting antibiotic prior to switching and treating with another antibiotic?
(48 hours, look for an improvement in attitude and appetite and a reduction in fever if there is one)
48
Of the following options, which is most important in preventing BRDC?
A - Vaccination programs
B - Metaphylaxis upon calf arrival
C - Appropriate calf purchasing, nutrition, and preventing other stressors
(C)
49
What are preconditioned calves?
(Calves that have been vaccinated at least 2 weeks prior to shipping, weaned for at least 45 days, and trained to eat and drink from a trough)
50
What vaccines should a preconditioned calf have received?
(IBR/BVD 1+2/PI3/BRSV combo, Mannheimia hemolytica, and 7-way clostridial/black leg)
51
What is appropriate processing for category 1 calves upon arrival to a new facility?
(Deworm them, delice them, and give them a coccidiostat)
52
What is appropriate processing for category 2 calves upon arrival to a new facility?
(Vaccinate with 5-way and 7-way within 24 hours of arrival, same parasite control as category 1)
53
Should metaphylaxis be considered for appropriate processing for category 3 calves upon arrival at a new facility?
(Yes, in addition to removing them from the market asap, providing fresh, clean water and free choice excellent quality hay, vaccinating them, administering parasite control and selenium, and +/- administering Pasteurella toxoid vax)
54
What is the most common sample taken for BVD testing?
(An ear notch, can then perform ELISA or IHC)
55
What is the toxic agent associated with wild cherries?
(Cyanide)
56
How does the toxin associated with wild cherries cause damage in the body?
(It irreversible binds oxygen to hemoglobin → venous blood will be bright ‘cherry’ red)
57
The onset of wild cherry toxicosis is within minutes/hours/days (choose).
(Minutes → 15-20 to be specific)
58
(T/F) Wild cherries are toxic in any stage and any part of the plant.
(F, only the wilted leaves are toxic)
59
What is the treatment for wild cherry toxicosis?
(Sodium thiosulfate and sodium nitrate combo, 100-250ml IV)
60
The onset of Japanese yew toxicosis is within minutes/hours/days (choose).
(Hours → 1-3 to be specific)
61
What is the toxic agent associated with Japanese yew plants?
(Taxine)
62
What are the clinical signs associated with buckeye toxicosis? Two answers.
(Stilted gait/goose stepping and down with hyperesthesia)
63
What are the two principle toxins associated with buckeye toxicosis?
(Aesculin and fraxin, both are glycosides)
64
What organ is affected by Japanese yew toxicosis?
(The heart)
65
What organ is affected by buckeye toxicosis?
(The brain)
66
The onset of buckeye toxicosis is within minutes/hours/days (choose).
(Hours → 12-24)
67
What is the treatment for buckeye toxicosis?
(Sedation (xylazine/acepromazine) and monitoring to prevent injury until the toxins leave their system)
68
What organ is affected by acorn toxicosis?
(Kidney, causes renal tubular necrosis; also GI but that’s not what kills them, causes watery black diarrhea)
69
The onset of acorn toxicosis is within minutes/hours/days (choose).
(Days until clinical signs are apparent)
70
What is the treatment for acorn toxicosis?
(Supportive (IV and oral fluids), usually unrewarding)
71
What is the typical presentation of a cow with acorn toxicity?
(ADR with dark diarrhea +/- ruminal distension d/t fluid)
72
What is the toxic agent associated with acorns?
(Tannins)
73
(T/F) If pregnant cows ingest a non-lethal amount of acorns, it can result in birth defects in the calf.
(T)
74
Why does fescue cause early embryonic death in cows that are bred during the summer?
(Because fescue raises body temp by 1-2 degrees and in addition to the heat of the summer, makes the cows body temp incompatible for an embryo)
75
You are presented with a goat that has generalized weakness. While you are examining it, the goat projectile vomits all over you. What is wrong with this goat?
(It has rhododendron toxicosis, tx is supportive care)
76
What is the pathogenesis of nitrate toxicity?
(Hemoglobin gets converted into methemoglobin, can no longer bind oxygen and patient will be anoxic → exercise intolerant, down, ‘seizures’, and belligerent)
77
What is the treatment for nitrate toxicity?
(Methylene blue IV (1% solution at 10mg/kg; or 1cc vitamin C per 5 pounds if methylene blue unavailable)
78
If you are presented with a cow that has an ulcer that reaches the edge of the sclera, what differential diagnosis will be higher on your list?
(Foreign body)
79
If you are presented with a cow with unilateral, central ulcers of the eye, what are two possible infectious etiologies?
(IBK and listeriosis)
80
What is the main worry associated with infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis?
(Weight loss associated with the pain of the eye lesion)
81
(T/F) Pinkeye can be associated with decreased milk production in cows and therefore less growth in calves.
(T)
82
What are the main ocular signs of pinkeye? Seven answers :).
(Epiphora, scleral injection, corneal edema, central corneal ulcer, and neovascularization; will also see photophobia and blepharospasm)
83
What results from a cow being down for too long?
(Compartment syndrome)
84
If a cow is down, what is a simple diagnostic test you can perform to rule in or out certain general categories of disease?
(Offer them grain, if they eat it leans towards a certain group of dzs and a different group if they don’t eat)
85
If you offer a down cow grain and they eat, what are the three general diseases that may be affecting this cow?
(Musculoskeletal injury, peripheral/spinal nerve injury, or starvation)
86
If you offer a down cow grain and they do not eat, what are the three general diseases that may be affecting this cow?
(Septicemia, mineral deficiency, or toxicity)
87
One of the important questions you should ask when presented with a down cow is where are they in their production cycle; if the cow is in the last two months of gestation, what diseases are more likely? Three answers.
(Starvation, musculoskeletal injury, or winter tetany)
88
One of the important questions you should ask when presented with a down cow is where are they in their production cycle; if the cow is down immediately post calving what diseases are more likely? Three answers.
(Musculoskeletal injury, mineral deficiency, and toxic mastitis)
89
One of the important questions you should ask when presented with a down cow is where are they in their production cycle; if the cow is 2-30 days post partum what diseases are more likely? Four answers.
(Musculoskeletal injury, mineral deficiency, toxic mastitis, or toxic metritis)
90
What is the typical presentation of a calf that results in calving paralysis in its dam?
(Dead, if the calf is alive it will have a swollen head and bruised gums)
91
If a cow with calving paralysis is able to stand after calving (which is rare), where do they tend to knuckle their rear legs due to their injury?
(At the fetlock)
92
What is the treatment for calving paralysis?
(Prevent compartment syndrome and anti-inflammatories; start with dex in the beginning and follow up with NSAIDs)
93
T/F) Spinal nerve damage, often due to lymphosarcoma, disc disease, or abscesses, treatment is unrewarding.
(T)
94
How does the treatment for milk fever and grass tetany differ?
(They don’t, both get 1-2 500ml bottles of CMPK (if you said to tell the farmer to follow up with oral magnesium for grass tetany cases, here’s a star, collect 5 and I’ll bake you cookies))
95
What three minerals are deficient in winter tetany cases?
(Calcium, magnesium, and potassium → all will be low but not low enough to cause the cow to be down, it's the combo that gets ya)
96
What are the parameters of beef cow BCS for idiots?
(Fat in the tail head six or greater, no fat in the tail head, five or less!; make sure you make a song out of it and you won't forget)
97
Where do you see prominent fat in beef cows with a BCS of 8 or greater?
(The brisket)
98
Is it easier or harder to have a fall calving cow at a good BCS during calving?
(Easier, lots of good grass mid to late gestation in fall calving cows; it is hard for them to gain weight during the breeding season which can decrease fertility)
99
Is it easier or harder to have a spring calving cow gaining weight during breeding season?
(Easier, lots of good grass around breeding time for spring calving cows; it is hard for them to have a good BCS at calving which can increase their time to cycling post calving)
100
How can you tell the difference between an abscess or lumpy jaw causing a unilateral swelling of a cow’s jaw?
(Abscess will be freely movable, cannot move lumpy jaw lesions because they are associated with the bone)
101
How can you tell the difference between lumpy jaw and bottle jaw?
(Bottle jaw will be in the center of the mandible, lumpy jaw will usually be unilateral)
102
What are the main clinical signs seen in early infections with Mycobacterium paratuberculosis in cows?
(Diarrhea, and weight loss with a normal diet)
103
Fecal culture for Johne’s disease has been replaced with what test which is more expensive but much faster for testing individual animals?
(Fecal PCR)
104
What are the two fundamental principles to controlling Mycobacterium paratuberculosis on a farm?
(Prevent newborns/young calves from ingesting feces and getting rid of sick cattle asap to reduce total farm environmental contamination)
105
What clinical sign is associated with spiny pigweed toxicosis?
(ADR)
106
What organ system is affected by spiny pigweed toxicosis?
(Kidneys)
107
What clinical signs are associated with jimson weed toxicosis?
(Increased resp rate, increased heart rate, and frequent urination and defecation)
108
What clinical sign is associated with perilla mint toxicosis?
(Causes acute resp distress → panting)
109
What are the two types of pili that Moraxella bovis can have and what do those pili do?
(Q pili → enhance attachment of bacteria to corneal cells; I pili → local persistence and establishment of infection)
110
What is the ocular treatment for pinkeye in cattle?
(Bulbar scleral injection with penicillin procaine g +/- dexamethasone)
111
Finding SCC lesions on which two locations associated with the eye are often more aggressive?
(Nictitating membrane and lower eyelid)
112
If you’re looking at a herd of beef cattle and notice the majority are 3 or 4 BCS, where must the issue lie?
(Nutrition)
113
What are the two pathophysiologic causes of bottle jaw?
(Hypoproteinemia (Johne’s) and right sided heart failure)
114
What are the three clinical signs of traumatic reticulopericarditis?
(Bottle jaw, murmur, and distended jugular veins)
115
After M. paratuberculosis is ingested, the bacteria are taken up by cells in what organ where they multiply and cause thickening and chronic inflammation?
(The ileum)
116
Why does hypoproteinemia result from an infection of Mycobacterium paratuberculosis?
(The ileum cannot absorb amino acids d/t inflammation and there is also a loss of protein into the intestinal tract at the ileum)
117
What are four cardiovascular reasons for sudden death in cattle?
(Selenium deficiency (usually associated with young animals and exertion followed by sudden death), ruptured great vessel (aorta, cranial mesenteric, or uterine), cardiac tamponade (hardware, heart tumor), or arrythmias)
118
What are two respiratory reasons for sudden death in cattle?
(Pneumonia (lack of observation) and bloat (diet, position, or choke))
119
(T/F) In cattle that you necropsy, finding a bloat line indicates they died from bloat.
(F, could just be a post-mortem artifact because most dead ruminants will eventually bloat, takes hours in the summer and days in the winter)
120
What is a gastrointestinal reason for sudden death in cattle?
(Ruptured abomasal or cecal ulcer, usually due to copper deficiency or Clostridium perfringens infection)
121
Mastitis involving gram negative bacteria, Salmonella infections, and grain overload result in what pathology that causes sudden death in cattle?
(Endotoxemia)
122
(T/F) Clostridium perfringens infections are associated with endotoxemia.
(F, enterotoxemia)
123
What are three metabolic reasons for sudden death in cattle?
(Hypocalcemia → can either bloat or have heart failure; hypomagnesemia → will usually note a hx of new pasture and no mg supplementation, and there will be disturbed ground around the head and feet of dead cows; salt intoxication)
124
In an older horned animal with bigger horns, how much of the skin around the horn should be removed/devitalized to ensure you are getting all of the germinal epithelium?
(¼-½ inch around the entire horn)
125
What are the two sites that can be used for local anesthesia for castration?
(Spermatic cord or intratesticular)
126
Elastrator bands can be used on calves up to what weight?
(150 lbs)
127
What tool is used for a bloodless castration in which the scrotum stays and instead testicular circulation is disrupted and the testes atrophy?
(Burdizzo)
128
Where should fly spray be applied after castration?
(Fly spray should be applied around the scrotum and on the hocks)
129
The cornual branch of what nerve needs to be blocked for dehorning purposes in cattle?
(Zygomaticotemporal nerve, runs under the temporal ridge so place 1-3 ml of lidocaine in that area)
130
Why should dehorning not be performed on adult goats?
(High risk of sinusitis)
131
(T/F) Calf castration cannot occur at birth because the testicles need a few days to descend.
(F, testes should be descended at birth)
132
What is a good general rule for when dehorning should occur?
(Before the base of the horn is greater than 1 inch in diameter)
133
What two nerves have cornual branches in goats that both need to be anesthetized for dehorning purposes?
(Infratrochlear and lacrimal nerves)
134
How long will it take for the scrotum and testes to necrose and fall off when using elastrator bands?
(1-3 weeks)
135
Of rams and bucks, which tend to bleed more when being castrated?
(Bucks)
136
If you choose to use intratesticular pentobarbital as your anesthesia for a pig castration, which testicle should be removed first?
(The one you injected, this will prevent them from getting too sleepy)
137
Why should angora goats not be dehorned?
(They use their horns to regulate their heat)
138
If there is symmetrical swelling above the coronary band in cattle, it is what until proven otherwise?
(Foot rot)
139
In cattle, what area of the upper leg is associated with the most problems?
(The stifle)
140
Which of the claws (medial or lateral) is typically the culprit for corkscrew claw in the fore and hindlimbs?
(Forelimb → medial, hindlimb → lateral)
