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American Flyers Flight School Training > FAA Written Exam > Flashcards

FAA Written Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What conditions cause frost?

A

Temperature and Dewpoint of the collecting surface below freezing

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2
Q

What makes an airplane turn?

A

The horizontal component of lift

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3
Q

How is P-Factor impacted by Angle of Attack?

A

P-Factor increases as AOA increases

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4
Q

Compass Error: Accel/Decel East and West

A

ANDS

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5
Q

Compass Turning Error: From E/W to N/S

A

UNOS (Undershoot North, Overshoot South) - WHAT YOU WANT TO DO WITH THE PLANE

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6
Q

Compass Error: Accel/Decel North and South

A

No Error

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7
Q

Compass Turning Error: From North / From South

A

North: Lags
South: Leads

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8
Q

What is Density Altitude?

A

Pressure Altitude Correcting for nonstandard temperature

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9
Q

Phrase for changes in pressure or temp and effect on altimeter

A

High –> Low, look out below

Low –> High, you’re in the sky

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10
Q

What are AHRS

A

Altitude Heading Reference Systems. Replaced gyroscopic instruments in digital flight computers

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11
Q

What is a TAA?

A

Technically advanced airplane. This means the plane has electronic AFD, MFD w/ GPS, and 2-axis autopilot

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12
Q

What manifold setting should not be used with low rpm on constant speed propellers?

A

High Manifold Pressure

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13
Q

What does increase carburetor heat do to fuel/air mixture?

A

Increases

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14
Q

What does carburetor heat do to engine performance?

A

Decrease

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15
Q

What may happen when crankcase vapor cools?

A

It may condense the lines and freeze

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16
Q

PAPI Low/Med/High angles

A

1.5, 3.0, 3.5

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17
Q

When should you have your landing lights on?

A

Below 10k ft

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18
Q

For ATIS, what ceilings are generally not broadcast above?

A

5k

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19
Q

For ATIS, what visibilities are generally not broadcast above?

A

5 sm

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20
Q

Military Interceptor Squawk Code

A

7777

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21
Q

What is basicMed?

A

Can use your US license instead of medical if used to have one after July 2006, don’t go over 250 kts, 6,000 lbs, carry more than 6 ppl, no flight in class A, and no commercial flying

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22
Q

What is considered a complex airplane?

A

Retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable pitch propeller

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23
Q

What do you need in order to operate a complex airplane?

A

Ground and flight training and endorsement

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24
Q

How often do you need to do a flight review?

A

Every 24 months

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25
Q

Under what conditions do you need to have a parachute in the airplane?

A

Doing more than 60 degree banks or 30 degree up/down pitch

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26
Q

How often do you need to pack a parachute for a flight?

A

Within 180 days for non-natural, or 60 days for natural

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27
Q

Inspections Acronym

A 
Annual
VOR
I00 hour
Altimeter pito-static
Transponder
ELT (System and battery)
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28
Q

What equipment must be checked every 24 months?

A

Altimeter Pitot-Static, Transponder

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29
Q

How often does the VOR need to be inspected?

A

Every 30 days

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30
Q

How often does the battery on the ELT need to be changed?

A

Half life or 1 hr cumulative use

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31
Q

What inspections need to be done every 12 months?

A

Annual and ELT System

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32
Q

Safety Briefing Acronym

A 
Seatbelts
Air vents
Fire Extinguisher
Exits
Talking
You got questions?
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33
Q

What always accompanies a thunderstorm?

A

Lightning

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34
Q

Lapse rate for C and F

A

2 C/1000 ft, 4.4 F per 1000 ft

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35
Q

AIRMETS: Sierra

A

IFR/Mountain Obscurations

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36
Q

AIRMETS: Tango

A

Turbluence

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37
Q

AIRMETS: Zulu

A

Icing

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38
Q

What side of the chart lines does class E start at 700 ft?

A

Soft side

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39
Q

What are the equipment requirements of Class A?

A

2-way radio, Mode C transponder, DME (over FL240), ADSB Out

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40
Q

What are the equipment requirements of Class B?

A

2-way radio, Mode C transponder, ADSB Out, VOR (IFR)

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41
Q

What are the equipment requirements of Class C?

A

2-way radio, Mode C transponder, ADSB Out

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42
Q

What are the equipment requirements of Class D?

A

2-Way Radio

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43
Q

Visibility requirements: Class A

A

NA

44
Q

Visibility requirements: Class B

A

3SM and COC

45
Q

Visibility requirements: Class C

A

3SM and 1,5,2

46
Q

Visibility requirements: Class D

A

3 SM and 1,5,2

47
Q

Visibility requirements: Class E, under 10k MSL

A

3 SM and 1,5,2

48
Q

Visibility requirements: Class E, over 10k MSL

A

5 SM and 1,1, 1SM

49
Q

Visibility requirements: Class G, Day, <1200

A

1, COC

50
Q

Visibility requirements: Class G, Night, <1200

A

3 SM and 1,5,2

51
Q

Visibility requirements: Class G, Day, >1200 Ft

A

1 SM and 1,5,2

52
Q

Visibility requirements: Class G, Night, >1200 ft

A

3 SM and 1,5,2

53
Q

Describe structure of class B airspace

A

30 SM mode C, 20 SM upper, 10 SM inner

54
Q

Describe structure of class C airspace

A

5 SM to 1200 ft, 10 SM to 4,000 ft

55
Q

Describe structure of class D

A

4 SM to 2500 ft

56
Q

Visibility requirements: Class G, >1200 ft AGL AND >10,000 ft MSL

A

5 SM, 1, 1, 1SM

57
Q

(D) NOTAM

A

Most NOTAMs are this type

58
Q

FDC NOTAM

A

Regulations/Charts

59
Q

Pointer NOTAM

A

To another NOTAM

60
Q

SAA NOTAM

A

Special Airspace NOTAM

61
Q

Military NOTAM

A

Military

62
Q

What should your VOR read during a test?

A

180 + TO

63
Q

What is Absolute Altitude?

A

AGL

64
Q

What is True Altitude?

A

MSL

65
Q

What is Pressure Altitude?

A

Height above standard datum plane of 29.92 in (the indicated altitude when altimeter is set to29.92)

66
Q

What is an ADC?

A

Air Data Computer; receives Pitot-Static inputs and computes the difference between the total pressure and the static pressure. Supplies the PFD with readings

67
Q

What is the operating principle of float-type carburetors?

A

The difference in air pressure between the venture throat and the air inlet

68
Q

What is the first indication of carburetor ice on airplanes with fixed-pitch props and float-type carburetors?

A

Decrease in RPM

69
Q

What is important to make sure when starting an engine by hand?

A

A competent pilot is at the controls on the flight deck

70
Q

When can you not operate airplane beneath ceiling under VFR within boundaries of Class B, C, D, or E airport during SVFR?

A

When ceiling is less than 1,000 ft

71
Q

How much ground vis do you need under SVFR to take off, land, or enter the traffic pattern?

A

3 SM

72
Q

Under what conditions may SVFR be permitted at night?

A

Only if the pilot has an instrument rating and airplane is IFR equipped

73
Q

How does 14CFR define “Night”

A

Time between the end of evening civil twilight and beginning of morning civil twilight

74
Q

For currency, what does “night” mean?

A

One hour after sunset, 1 hr before sunrise

75
Q

What are the aircraft categories for AIRMEN?

A

Airplane, Rotorcraft, Glider, Lighter-than-air

76
Q

What are aircraft classes for AIRMEN?

A

Single-Engine Land, Multi-engine land, single-engine sea, multi-engine sea

77
Q

What are the categories for certification of aircraft?

A

Transport, normal, utility, limited, restricted, acrobatic, provisional

78
Q

What are the classes for certification of aircraft?

A

Very similar to categories for airmen

79
Q

How long do airworthiness certificates remain in force?

A

As long as maintenance and alteration of the aircraft are performed per the FAA regulations

80
Q

What is a high performance airplane?`

A

An airplane with >200 HP

81
Q

At what altitude must all airplane occupants be offered Oxygen?

A

Above 15k ft

82
Q

At what altitude must pilot and crew use oxygen if operating for more than 30 min?

A

12,500-14,000

83
Q

At what altitude above which pilot and crew must use supplemental oxygen?

A

14,000 ft

84
Q

When must an accident be reported to the NTSB?

A

Immediately if it results in substantial damage

85
Q

What is Aeronautical Decision-Making?

A

A systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances

86
Q

What is Risk Management?

A

The par of the decision-making process that relies on situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement to reduce risks associated with each flight

87
Q

What are the four fundamental risk elements in the ADM process?

A

Pilot, Aircraft, Environment, Mission

88
Q

What do you always get when you fly across a front?

A

A change in wind direction

89
Q

What is the most easily recognizable change when crossing a front?

A

A change in temperature

90
Q

What weather condition generally causes the greatest accumulation of structural ice?

A

Freezing rain

91
Q

What causes ice pellets?

A

When rain droplets freeze at a higher altitude; freezing rain exists above

92
Q

What conditions produce mountain wave turbulence?

A

Air is stable and winds of 40k or greater blow across a mountain or ridge

93
Q

When should you expect wind shear?

A

In a temperature inversion whenever wind speed at 2k to 4k ft AGL is 25kt or more

94
Q

What conditions produce expected wind shear?

A

Low-level temperature inversions, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence

95
Q

What is dew point?

A

The temperature at which air will have 100% humidity (be saturated)

96
Q

What determines how much water can be held in the air?

A

Air temperature

97
Q

What causes advection fog?

A

Moist air condensing as it moves over a cooler surface

98
Q

METAR vs. SPECI

A

Routine vs. Nonroutine

99
Q

UA vs. UUA for PIREPs

A

UA: Routine
UUA: Urgent

100
Q

What do convective SIGMETs include?

A

Tornadoes, Squall lines, embedded thunderstorms, thunderstorm areas > or = intensity level 4 w/ 40% coverage, hail >3/4 in

101
Q

What are the three types of hypoxia?

A

Hypoxic (insufficient oxygen available), Hypemic (Blood can’t take up enough oxygen IE CO poisoning), Stagnant (No circulation IE G-forces), Histotoxic (Inability of cells to use oxygen IE Drugs/alcohol)

102
Q

How to determine overall flight for the day

A

PAVE (Pilot, Aircraft, Environment, External Pressures)

103
Q

Clear Ice vs. Rime Ice

A

Clear Ice caused by freezing rain, rime ice via supercooled drops

104
Q

What is always experienced flying across a front?

A

A change in wind direction

105
Q

AVIATES

A

Annual (12 mo), VOR (30 days), Inspection (100 hr), Altimeter/Pitot Static (24 Mo), Transponder (24 Mo), ELT (12 Mo)

106
Q

ARROW

A

Airworthiness Certification, Registration, Radio (intl), Operators Manual (POH), Weight and Balance

American Flyers Flight School Training (10 decks)

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