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American Flyers Flight School Training > Chapter 4 - Weather, Crosswind and Performance Takeoff and Landing, and Radio Aids to Navigation > Flashcards

Chapter 4 - Weather, Crosswind and Performance Takeoff and Landing, and Radio Aids to Navigation Flashcards

1
Q

Roughly how many miles from the earth’s surface does the atmosphere extend?

A

350 miles

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2
Q

What layer of the atmosphere is the lowest, and most relevant to flying?

A

Troposphere

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3
Q

What elevations does the troposphere extend to?

A

20,000 ft above the north and south poles, 48,000 ft above the equator

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4
Q

How much does temperature decrease, typically, every 1,000 ft in the troposphere?

A

2 Degrees Celcius

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5
Q

Roughly how much does air pressure decrease for every 1,000 ft in atmosphere?

A

1 inch

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6
Q

What is the temperature lapse rate?

A

The rate that temperature and pressure changes as you move through the atmosphere

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7
Q

What causes wind?

A

Differences in pressure gradients in the atmosphere

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8
Q

What are lines of equal pressure called?

A

Isobars

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9
Q

How are pressure gradients exerted across isobars?

A

At right angles from high pressure to low pressur

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10
Q

The closer the isobars are space, the ____ the pressure differential

A

greater

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11
Q

What does a bigger pressure differential mean?

A

Stronger winds

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12
Q

Through what process is the majority of atmospheric circulation achieved?

A

Convection

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13
Q

Describe convection

A

As air heats up, it expands and becomes less dense and rises (and vice versa for cool air).

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14
Q

What is the corilois force?

A

A deflective force caused by the rotation of the earth. At scales that affect humans, it is imperceptible, but to large air masses and bodies of water it has a great affect

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15
Q

What does the amount of coriolis deflection depend on?

A

The latitude (greatest at the poles and diminishes to zero at the equator)

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16
Q

What directions are air in the northern and southern hemisphere deflected due to the coriolis effect?

A

To the right in the northern hemisphere, to the left in the southern hemisphere

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17
Q

What causes all of earth’s weather?

A

Uneven heating of the earth’s surface

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18
Q

What is the friction level?

A

The level below which air moves more slowly over the surface due to drag from the surface. Approx 2000 ft AGL

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19
Q

How does the friction level affect wind direction?

A

Wind below the friction level experiences surface drag, and thus is less affected by the coriolis force and so may take a slightly different direction than higher altitude winds

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20
Q

Which directions do resultant surface circulation tend to flow below the friction level?

A

Clockwise and outward around areas of high pressure, counterclockwise and inward around low pressure

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21
Q

Above the friction level, how do winds aloft tend to travel?

A

Parallel to the isobars, and clockwise around high pressure centers and counterclockwise around low pressure

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22
Q

Why do winds aloft tend to travel parallel to isobars?

A

Because coriolis and pressure gradient balance each other out

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23
Q

How does snow or frost form?

A

When water vapor sublimates into a solid

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24
Q

What is atmospheric stability?

A

The ability of an air mass to resist vertical motion

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25
Q

What characteristics do unstable air masses tend to have?

A

1) Cumuliform clouds
2) Showery precipitation
3) Rough air/turbulence
4) Good surface visibility

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26
Q

What characteristics do a stable air mass tend to have?

A

1) Stratiform clouds and fog
2) Continuous precipitation
3) Smooth air
4) Fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke

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27
Q

What are cumulus clouds?

A

Clouds formed when unstable air is forced aloft. Characterized by lumpy or billowy appearance

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28
Q

What are stratus clouds?

A

Clouds formed by the cooling of a stable layer of air, they have a uniform sheet-like appearance

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29
Q

What are the four families of stratus and cumulus clouds?

A

High clouds (16k to 45k ft), middle clouds (6.5k to 23k), low clouds (surface to 6.5k, including fog), and towering

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30
Q

What prefix and suffix describe a rain cloud?

A

nimbo or nimbus

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31
Q

Where is the greatest turbulence found?

A

In and around towering cumulonimbus clouds

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32
Q

What are the three conditions necessary to produce a thunderstorm?

A

Lifting force, high humidity, and unstable air

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33
Q

What are some examples of lifting forces that might contribute to a thunderstorm?

A

Lift from mountain ranges, convective heating from the earth’s surface, lifting from frontal activity, or convergence

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34
Q

What are the three stages of a thunderstorm?

A

Cumulus, Mature, Dissipating

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35
Q

Describe the Cumulus stage of thunderstorm formation

A

Not all cumulus clouds become thunderstorms, but all thunderstorms begin with a cumulus stage. Consists primarily of updrafts of air that may exceed 3000 ft per min, lifting water droplets which form into raindrops, eventually sinking in a downdraft when they fall

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36
Q

What signals the start of the “mature” stage of a thunderstorm?

A

The start of rain at the surface, where downdrafts may exceed 2,500 fpm

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37
Q

What causes strong gusty surface winds, a sharp temperature drop, and rapid rise in pressure around thunderstorms?

A

Downdrafting air hitting the surface and spreading out

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38
Q

What is a “gust front?”

A

Strong gusty winds caused by downdrafts during the mature stage of a thunderstorm. These can occur up to 15 miles away from any precipitation and cause extreme turbulence

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39
Q

During what stage do updrafts reach their maximum speed, and what speed is that up to?

A

During the mature stage, and speeds can exceed 6000 fpm

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40
Q

What shaped cloud identifies a thunderstorm in a mature stage?

A

Anvil shaped

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41
Q

During what stage is a thunderstorm producing its most dangerous flying conditions?

A

Mature stage

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42
Q

What characterizes the Dissipating Stage of a thunderstorm?

A

Strong downdrafts created by the falling rain, and the storm dying quickly unless it finds another sourfce of warm rising air (such as if it moves over a large, warm body of water)

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43
Q

What are the main types of thunderstorms?

A

Air mass, severe, supercell, embedded, squall

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44
Q

What is an “Air Mass” thunderstorm?

A

A non-severe storm that is not associated with frontal activity. Most late afternoon summer thunderstorms are Air Mass thunderstorms

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45
Q

What is a “Severe” thunderstorm?

A

Any storm that produces tornadoes, usually part of a larger weather system

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46
Q

What is a “Supercell” thunderstorm?

A

Storms that cover an area of 30 square km or more

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47
Q

What is an “Embedded” thunderstorm?

A

A storm hidden in an area of general cloud cover and light precipitation. These storms cannot be observed from the ground or air, they can only be detected with radar

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48
Q

What is a “Squall” thunderstorm?

A

A squall line is a narrow band of thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front and represent the most intense hazards to aircraft in the form of heavy turbulence and icing

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49
Q

What are the main hazards that thunderstorms present?

A

Turbulence, icing, hail, lightning, low ceilings and visibility, and an adverse affect on altimiters

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50
Q

Where does the strongest turbulence in a thunderstorm occur?

A

Within the storm due to the shear between updrafts and downdrafts, but can also occur above or horizontally from a storm

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51
Q

What is the first rule for flying in turbulence?

A

Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed

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52
Q

What is the second rule for flying in turbluence?

A

Maintain a level attitude and ride it out

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53
Q

How does icing occur?

A

Super-cooled water droplets that freeze when they make contact with the airplane, forming clear ice

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54
Q

How does hail form?

A

Super-cooled water droplets in a thunderstorm begin to freeze and additional water droplets freeze to it

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55
Q

Where can one encounter hail?

A

Within several miles of thunderstorm clouds

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56
Q

Does absence of hail at the surface mean absence of hail aloft?

A

No, because hail can melt before it hits the ground as rain

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57
Q

Are lightning strikes considered very dangerous?

A

Not necessarily, they can cause equipment issues or temporary pilot dissorientation but cause very few accidents. That said, they can cause permanent damage to the magnetic compass

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58
Q

What causes inaccurate altimeter readings around thunderstorms?

A

Rapid pressure changes

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59
Q

Should you ever try to fly under a thunderstorm?

A

No

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60
Q

Should you try to circumnavigate thunderstorms?

A

Not if more than half the area is reported involved with thunderstorms

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61
Q

How far should you stay away from thunderstorms reported as severe?

A

At least 20 miles

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62
Q

Why should you try to avoid flying under the anvil of a thunderstorm?

A

You might encounter hail

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63
Q

What type of lightning indicates a severe thunderstor?

A

Vivid and frequent

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64
Q

Should you ever fly near squall lines?

A

No, never. Squall lines produce the most severe conditions.

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65
Q

When in doubt with concerns to thunderstorms, what should you do?

A

Land and wait until it passes

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66
Q

What is essential for fog formation?

A

A low differential between the temperature and the dewpoint

67
Q

How quickly can fog form?

A

Fog can cause conditions to go from VFR to <1 mile of visibility within minutes

68
Q

What conditions are most conducive to the formation of radiation (and ground) fog?

A

Warm, moist air moving over low, flat land areas during clear, calm nights

69
Q

What is advection fog?

A

Fog that forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water, and is most common along the coast

70
Q

Where do you often find advection fog?

A

On the coasts, especially the US West Coast

71
Q

How does Upslope Fog form?

A

When moist, stable air is cooled as it moves up sloping terrain

72
Q

Where does upslope fog form in the US?

A

East of the rocky mountains, and less frequently east of the appalachian mountains

73
Q

What types of fog are dependent upon the wind to exist?

A

Advenction fog and upslope fog

74
Q

How does steam fog form?

A

In the winter when cold, dry air passes from land areas over comparatively warm ocean waters

75
Q

What is steam fog also called?

A

Sea Smoke

76
Q

What hazards are associated with steam fog?

A

Low-level turbulence and icing

77
Q

What are some of the negative consequences of icing?

A

Increased weight, decreased thrust, decreased lift, increased drag, bad engine performance, and malfunctioning of flight instruments and flight surfaces

78
Q

What conditions are necessary for structural icing?

A

Visible moisture and freezing temperatures

79
Q

Why can structural icing sometimes occur as high as 2 degrees Celcius?

A

Because of aerodynamic cooling

80
Q

What types of clouds do clear ice form in?

A

Cumulus Clouds

81
Q

What type of clouds do rime ice form in?

A

Stratus clouds

82
Q

What types of surfaces does ice tend to accumulate faster on?

A

Smaller surfaces like antennas, temperature probes, pitot tubes, etc

83
Q

What is the danger of frost?

A

Uneven airflow over the airfoils resulting in reduced lift

84
Q

What conditions cause frost?

A

When dewpoint and temperature of the collecting surface are below freezing

85
Q

What is wind shear?

A

An abrupt, drastic change in wind direction or speed over a very short distance in the atmosphere

86
Q

What conditions are low-level wind shear associated with?

A

Passing frontal systems, thunderstorms, and temperature inversions with strong upper level winds (greater than 25 kts)

87
Q

What is a microburst?

A

A rapid change in wind speed and direction of up to 6000 fpm or 45 degrees associated with convective precipitation or from from thunderstorms

88
Q

What is LLWAS?

A

Low-Leven Wind shear Alert System, for detecting microbursts

89
Q

What are the minimum visibility requirements for VFR?

A

3 SM during the day, 5 SM at night

90
Q

What is the minimum ceiling for VFR?

A

1,000 ft in controlled airspace

91
Q

What might be in your logbook that would prevent you from flying VFR?

A

Conditions contrary to any limitations placed in the pilot’s logbook by an authorized instructor

92
Q

What are winds aloft?

A

Winds above 2,000 ft AGL

93
Q

What are surface winds?

A

Winds below 2,000 ft AGL

94
Q

What is a crosswind condition?

A

Any time the wind is not aligned with the runway

95
Q

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind velocity in the C172?

A

15 Knots

96
Q

Is the maximum demonstrated crosswind velocity in the C172 a structural limitation?

A

No; it’s the result of testing with an average pilot

97
Q

What should you do if you notice a tailwind component when examining crosswind landing conditions?

A

Request another runway for landing

98
Q

What are sideslips used for?

A

To keep the longitudinal axis and ground track the same during takeoffs and landings

99
Q

What is a forward slip used for?

A

The steepen the glide path by increasing drag when flaps are inoperative

100
Q

What will happen as you establish a slip?

A

The nose will tend to pitch down; you must apply back pressure on the elevator

101
Q

What direction should slips be compared to the wind?

A

Into the wind

102
Q

What happens to instruments during a slip?

A

The static vent and pitot tube will become unreliable, so airspeed will not be reliable

103
Q

What is a sideslip?

A

An uncoordinated bank where ailerons and rudder are opposite in order to compensate for a crosswind at landing or after rotation

104
Q

What is the difference between a forward slip and a sideslip with concerns to the flight path and longitudinal axis?

A

During a sideslip, the longitudinal axis is aligned with the flight path. During a forward slip, the longitudinal axis is not aligned with the flightpath

105
Q

If flaps become inoperative, what can you do to increase your descent angle but maintain approach speed?

A

Perform a forward slip

106
Q

During a power-off approach to landing, what can you not do?

A

Shallow the descent of the flight path

107
Q

What is the most important variable affecting performance during a power-off approach

A

Wind

108
Q

How do crosswind rotation and liftoff speeds compare to normal takeoffs?

A

They are the same

109
Q

Which wheel do you try to touchdown first during a crosswind landing?

A

The upwind wheel so that the longitudinal axis remains aligned with the runway centerline

110
Q

What are the primary factors most affected by the airplane’s performance?

A

Takeoff and landing distance, rate of climb, service ceiling, payload, speed, and fuel economy

111
Q

Where can you find the data regarding airplane performance?

A

The POH

112
Q

What are the primary factors affecting performance?

A

Airplane loading, atmospheric conditions, and runway environment

113
Q

What does a CG located behind aft limits cause?

A

Decreased stability to a point that the airplane is dangerous to fly

114
Q

What becomes more difficult as CF moves aft?

A

Stall recovery, sometimes to the point of not being able to recover

115
Q

What does a CG ahead of the forward limit cause?

A

Increased stability, but may make it impossible to rotate for takeoff or flare to a proper landing attitude

116
Q

What can being over the gross weight cause?

A

Structural problems

117
Q

What is ISA and what is it used for?

A

International Standard Atmosphere; used for all aircraft to be compared and evaluated on

118
Q

What is humidity?

A

The amount of water vapor contained in the atmosphere vs. the maximum amount of water vapor the air can support

119
Q

What do high humidity conditions generally cause?

A

A decrease in performance

120
Q

What atmospheric conditions would decrease an aircraft’s performance most?

A

High temperature, high relative humidity, and low pressure

121
Q

What is density altitude an index to?

A

Aircraft performance

122
Q

What does low density altitude do to aircraft performance?

A

Increases performance

123
Q

What does high density altitude do to aircraft performance?

A

Decrease performance

124
Q

How does high density altitude affect cruise performance?

A

Generally increased due to decreased friction and higher true airspeeds

125
Q

How can you find the pressure altitude of the airplane?

A

Set altimeter to 2992 and check the altitude displayed on the instrument

126
Q

How much should you increase takeoff and obstacle clearing distances when using a grass runway?

A

Increase by 15%

127
Q

How should you adjust for wind when figuring out takeoff and obstacle clearing distances?

A

Reduce by 10% for every 9 knots of headwind

128
Q

How much should you increase landing and obstacle clearing distances when using a grass runway?

A

Increase by 45%

129
Q

How should you adjust for wind when figuring out landing and obstacle clearing distances?

A

Decrease by 10% for every 9 knots of headwind

130
Q

What are the atmospheric conditions that affect density altitude?

A

Temperature and pressure

131
Q

Generally speaking, what runway conditions do performance charts assume?

A

Paved, level, smooth, and dry

132
Q

How is runway gradient expressed?

A

As a percentage; 2% = 2 ft down/up per 100 ft forward

133
Q

How is a short field takeoff defined?

A

As a takeoff made when the takeoff surface is hard, of sufficient length for the airplane performance expected, and obstacles are present at the departure end of the runway

134
Q

What is the goal of a short field takeoff?

A

To accelerate as quickly as possible on the hard surface and then climb at a steep angle to clear any obstructions

135
Q

What is the recommended rotation speed for a short field takeoff at max weight in the C172R?

A

51 KIAS

136
Q

What is the best angle of climb airspeed in the C172R with 10 degrees flaps and max weight?

A

56 KIAS

137
Q

What is a short field landing?

A

A landing made when the runway surface is hard, of sufficient length for the airplane performance expected, and obstacles are present at the arrival end of the runway

138
Q

What is LDMAX?

A

The speed beyond which it is impossible to make a short field landing

139
Q

What is LDMAX of a C172R with full flaps at max weight?

A

61 KIAS

140
Q

What is the typical power setting for a short field landing?

A

1300 rpm

141
Q

What is ground effect?

A

When the aircraft is within a wingspan of the ground, wingtip vortices are reduced, which reduce the drag on the aircraft

142
Q

What is the most important element of a short field landing?

A

To maintain a stabilized final approach at the correct airspeed

143
Q

How can brake effectiveness be increased during a short field landing?

A

By retracting the flaps

144
Q

What is the main objective when taking off from a soft field runway?

A

To transfer the weight from the wheels to the wings as quickly as possible and liftoff at the slowest possible speed

145
Q

How can you reduce stress on the nosewheel when taxiing on a soft taxiway?

A

Keep elevator backpressure

146
Q

What will happen during a soft field takeoff if you try to climb before the plane leaves ground effect?

A

There will be a rapid increase in drag and you’ll settle back onto the runway

147
Q

How is a soft field landing defined?

A

A landing made on a runway with tall grass, soft sod surfaces, snow covered, or rough dirt runways without obstacles at the approach end of the runway and the runway length is greater than the POH lists for total landing distance under current conditions

148
Q

What is a VOR Radial?

A

A course FROM a VOR station

149
Q

What must you set in order to track a course TO a VOR station?

A

The reciprocal of the VOR Radial

150
Q

What must the OBS always be

A

Set to match your desired direction of flight!

151
Q

What does VOR stand for?

A

Very high frequency Omnidirectional Range

152
Q

What are the three basic types of VOR systems?

A

VOR, VOR/DME, and VORTAC

153
Q

What is VOR DME?

A

VOR with Distance Measuring Equipment

154
Q

What is a VORTAC?

A

A VOR where military tactical air navigation (TACAN) is equipped, and they always have DME

155
Q

What frequency ranges do VORs operate in?

A

108 to 117.95 Hz

156
Q

What type of limitations do VHF signals hold?

A

Line of sight limitations

157
Q

For most VORs, what is the useable range?

A

40 to 50 nm at an altitude of 1000 feet AGL, which increases with altitude

158
Q

What is always the first step when using any navaid?

A

Identify the station via its morse code identifier

159
Q

What does the VOR Indicator consist of?

A

An OBS (omni bearing selector), CDI (course deviation indicator), and a to/from indicator or flag

160
Q

What is a VOR Signal Test?

A

A test available at certain airports to ensure your VOR is working properly. If you tune the VOT signal and turn the OBS to 360, the CDI needle should center with a FROM flag. If you tune to 180, the CDI needle should center with a TO flag

161
Q

What would a needle indication moving left on your VOR indicate?

A

A wind from the left

162
Q

What is the minimum number of GPS receivers needed to yield a three dimensional position?

A

4

163
Q

What is Dihedral with regards to stability?

A

The canting of the wings that provides lateral stability

164
Q

What helps counteract the forward CG of aircraft?

A

The stabilizer of the plane is attached at a negative angle of incidence, resulting in a negative angle of attack during flight and forcing the tail down/nose up.

American Flyers Flight School Training (10 decks)

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