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American Flyers Flight School Training > Chapter 2 - Basic Operations, Slow Flight, Imminent Stalls, and Airplane Systems > Flashcards

Chapter 2 - Basic Operations, Slow Flight, Imminent Stalls, and Airplane Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What is important to do during climbs and descents?

A

Make shallow turns to clear the area visually of traffic along the flight path

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2
Q

What are clearing turns?

A

Turns of at least 90 degrees that you perform before maneuvers that will distract you from your normal traffic scan

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3
Q

What does “right of way” mean?

A

That a pilot must give way to that aircraft and may not pass over, under or ahead of it unless well clear

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4
Q

In what situation does an aircraft have absolute right of way?

A

When they are in distress

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5
Q

When aircraft of the same category are converging, who has the right of way?

A

The aircraft to the other’s right

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6
Q

What type of aircraft has the right of way over any other category?

A

A balloon

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7
Q

What is the order of right of way

A

Balloon, Glider, Airship, Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft, aircraft

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8
Q

If approaching each other head-on, which direction should both aircraft alter course?

A

To the right

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9
Q

When an aircraft is being overtaken, who has the right of way?

A

The aircraft being overtaken; the overtaking aircraft should alter course and pass to the right

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10
Q

Who has the right of way between aircraft that are landing and aircraft in flight or on the surface?

A

Aircraft that are landing

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11
Q

If two aircraft are both approaching to land, who has the right of way?

A

The lower aircraft but they may not cut in front of, or under, another aircraft to gain this advantage

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12
Q

What is wake turbulence?

A

Disturbances to the air created by wingtip vortices of airplanes

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13
Q

When does the greatest wing vortex strength occur?

A

When the aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow

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14
Q

When does an aircraft create wing vortices?

A

Only when an aircraft is developing lift

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15
Q

What direction do wingtip vortices tend to travel?

A

They tend to sink below the aircraft creating them

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16
Q

Where would you usually expect to find wake turbulence?

A

Below and behind an aircraft’s flight path.

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17
Q

How do you avoid wake turbulence when departing behind a heavy aircraft?

A

Fly flying above and upwind (to the side) of the heavy aircraft’s flight path

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18
Q

How do you avoid wake turbulence when landing behind a heavy aircraft?

A

Stay above the heavy aircraft’s final approach path and land beyond the large aircraft’s touchdown point

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19
Q

What type of wind condition requires the most caution when avoiding wake turbulence during a landing?

A

A light, quartering tailwind

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20
Q

If you must taxi behind a jet, what direction should you keep the plane pointed?

A

Directly at the rear of the jet

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21
Q

How can you use the controls to counteract jet blast?

A

Use them as you would when operating in any crosswind condition

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22
Q

What information MUST be included (but is not limited to) in preparation before beginning a flight?

A

Weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, runway lengths, and the takeoff and landing distances info for the existing conditions using the POH

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23
Q

What certificates and documents must be on board prior to a flight?

A

Airworthiness Certificate, Aircraft Registration, Operating Limitations, Weight and Balance data, Equipment List, Checklists

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24
Q

What is usually found in the pilot’s left kick panel on the C172?

A

Airworthiness Certificate, Aircraft Registration, Checklists

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25
Q

What is usually found in a three ring binder kept in the pilot’s back seat back pocket?

A

POH w/ operating limits, equipment list, and weight and balance data

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26
Q

Why is it important to determine the plane’s center of gravity/balance?

A

It is important in determining the stability, and therefore flight characteristics, of the plane

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27
Q

What is the issue with an overweight airplane?

A

It cannot achieve the level of performance published in the POH

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28
Q

What can you not be sure of if your airplane isn’t loaded within approved limits?

A

You cannot be sure that it will perform as expected

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29
Q

Where is current weight and balance info available?

A

Section 6 of the POH

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30
Q

What does “R” designate on the equipment list?

A

Required items for FAA certification

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31
Q

What does “S” designate on the equipment list?

A

Standard equipment items

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32
Q

What does “O” designate on the equipment list?

A

Optional equipment items replacing required or standard items

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33
Q

What does “A” designate on the equipment list?

A

Optional equipment items which are in addition to required or standard items

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34
Q

Pilot’s Operating Handbook (POH)

A

Specific to an airplane and is required to be on board for flight, contains important information

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35
Q

What federal regulation requires PICs of civil aircraft to determine airworthiness?

A

Part 91

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36
Q

Who is responsible for determining the airworthiness of an aircraft before a flight?

A

The Pilot in Command

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37
Q

What is “Arm” with reference to weight and balance?

A

The horizontal distance from the reference datum to the center of gravity of an item.

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38
Q

What is the “Arm” also referred to with reference to weight and balance?

A

The station

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39
Q

What is “Datum/Reference Datum” with reference to weight and balance?

A

An arbitrary vertical plane or line, established by the manufacturer, from which all measurements of arm and Center of Gravity (CG) are taken

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40
Q

What is “Empty Weight” with reference to weight and balance for the C172?

A

The total weight of the airframe, engine, and all items of operating equipment that have fixed locations and are permanently installed in the airplane. This also includes hydraulic fluid, unusable fuel, and full oil

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41
Q

What is “Center of Gravity” with reference to weight and balance?

A

The point about which an airplane would balance if it were suspended at that point. It is expressed in inches from the reference datum.

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42
Q

What is “Center of Gravity Limits” with reference to weight and balance?

A

The specified forward and aft points within which the Center of Gravity must be located during airplane operations

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43
Q

What is “Moment” with reference to weight and balance?

A

The product of the weight of an item multiplied by its arm, expressed in inch-lbs. Think of this as a force, and the arm as a lever.

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44
Q

What is “Moment Index” with reference to weight and balance?

A

A moment divided by a constant (1,000, 100, etc). It simplifies weight and balance computations where heavy items and long arms cause large, unmanageable numbers.

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45
Q

What is “Standard weights” with reference to weight and balance?

A

Constants that exist for many items involved in weight and balance computations

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46
Q

What are some examples of standard weights?

A

Aviation Gas - 6 lb/US Gallon, Oil - 7.5 Lb/US Gallon

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47
Q

For student pilot training, what is considered a “local flight?”

A

Within 50 NM of the departure airport

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48
Q

What type of weather briefing should be obtained prior to departure of any flight?

A

Standard Briefing

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49
Q

What are considered “adverse conditions” in a standard briefing?

A

Significant information that might influence you to alter or cancel the flight (ex. hazardous conditions, airport closures, etc).

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50
Q

What is the phrased used by a weather briefer to describe the conditions when VFR flight would be doubtful?

A

VFR Not Recommended

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51
Q

Who ultimately decides weather or not weather conditions are safe for flight?

A

The pilot in command

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52
Q

What is the “synopsis” of a standard weather briefing?

A

A brief statement describing the type, location, and movement of weather system and/or air masses which might affect the propose flight

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53
Q

What is included in the “current conditions” part of a standard weather briefing?

A

A summary from all available sources (METARs/SPECIs, PIREPS, RAREPs) for flights departing within 2 hours

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54
Q

What is included in the “en route forecast” part of a standard weather briefing?

A

A summary, in logical order (departure/climbout, en route, and descent)

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55
Q

What is included in the “Destination Forecast” part of a standard weather briefing?

A

Destination forecast for the planned ETA

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56
Q

What is included in the “winds aloft” part of a standard weather briefing?

A

Provided using degrees of the compass, provides expected wind conditions at planned altitudes (height in MSL). Temperature information will be provided upon request.

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57
Q

What is included in the “Notices to Airmen (NOTAM)” part of a standard briefing?

A

Information pertinent to the proposed flight about Special Use Airspace (SUA), NOTAMs for restricted areas, aerial refueling, etc

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58
Q

What is included in the “ATC Delays” part of a standard weather briefing?

A

Any known ATC delays and flow control advisories which may affect the proposed flight

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59
Q

Briefly describe an Abbreviated Weather Briefing

A

A Shortened version of the standard briefing that should be requested when a departure has been delayed or when weather info is needed to update the previous briefing.

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60
Q

Briefly describe an Outlook weather briefing

A

Should be requested when a planned departure is six hours or more away. Limited in scope, but a good source of flight planning info

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61
Q

Briefly describe ATIS

A

A repeating, recorded message that contains weather info, wind direction and velocity, altimeter setting, runway in use, etc. It has a phonetic alphabet code word that should be repeated back to ATC.

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62
Q

Where can you find ATIS frequencies?

A

It’s published on aeronautical charts and in the Chart Supplement

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63
Q

How should you position your controls during taxi if you have a wind coming from the front?

A

Elevator neutral, ailerons in up position on windward wing (turn into the wind)

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64
Q

How should you position your controls during taxi if you have a tailwind?

A

Elevator down, ailerons in the down position on the windward side (turn away from the wind)

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65
Q

What is the maximum wind speed for American Flyers flight operations?

A

30 Knots

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66
Q

What is the Critical Angle of Attack?

A

The point at which a wing will no longer produce lift equal to weight

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67
Q

What is the typical approximate critical angle of attack?

A

18-20 degrees

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68
Q

What is the certified stall speed in the C172R with flaps up?

A

Vs1, 44 KIAS

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69
Q

What is the certified stall speed in the C172R with flaps down?

A

Vs0, 33 KIAS

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70
Q

Vs1

A

Stall speed with flaps up

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71
Q

Vs0

A

Stall speed with flaps extended

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72
Q

Does air density have any affect on indicated stall speed?

A

No

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73
Q

How is a full stall identified typically?

A

A sudden dropping of the nose of the airplane

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74
Q

When do you initiate stall recovery procedures during normal flight?

A

When the stall warning activates or a stall is encountered

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75
Q

How will the flight controls feel when approaching critical angle of attack, and why?

A

Mushy due to disrupted airflow over the upper surface of the wing

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76
Q

How is it possible that a stall can occur at any indicated airspeed or any attitude?

A

During a turn, the increased load factor or “wing load” can cause the plane to reach the critical AOA

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77
Q

What is torque reaction?

A

The tendency of the aircraft to rotate counterclockwise in reaction the clockwise rotation of the engine and propeller. This must be counteracted with aileron pressure during takeoff

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78
Q

What is the Corkscrew effect?

A

Created by the rotating air being pushed aft by the propeller. The rotating air catches on the elevator and causes a left yaw.

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79
Q

What is the Corkscrew effect also known as?

A

Spiraling Slipstream

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80
Q

What is the P-factor?

A

Due to asymmetric propeller loading due to the clockwise rotation of the propeller; also produces left yaw

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81
Q

What is typically the pattern altitude?

A

1,000 ft AGL

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82
Q

At uncontrolled airports, what is the procedure for exiting the normal traffic pattern after takeoff?

A

Climb to 1,000 ft AGL then turn 45 degrees away from pattern

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83
Q

What are clearing turns an important part of?

A

Effective collision avoidance before performing maneuvers which distract from your normal traffic scans.

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84
Q

L/DMAX

A

Lift to Drag Max speed

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85
Q

L/DMAX in C172

A

65 KIAS

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86
Q

What happens to drag below L/DMAX?

A

It increases, resulting in needing increased power to overcome drag, meaning you need to increase power to go slower

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87
Q

What is it called when you’re flying below L/DMax?

A

Flying in the area of Reversed Command

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88
Q

What does load refer to?

A

The weight that must be supported by the airplane’s wings

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89
Q

At what angle bank does the centrifugal force equal the weight of the entire airplane?

A

60 degrees

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90
Q

What is the multiplier that increases the weight on the wings during turns?

A

The load factor

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91
Q

What are load factors also referred to as?

A

G-Forces

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92
Q

What is the maximum allowed load factor and bank angle for a typical small airplane?

A

3.8 and 75 degrees

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93
Q

What happens to the stall speed as load factor increases?

A

Stall speed increases

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94
Q

What is the general procedure for recovering from a stall?

A

1) Relieve some backpressure on elevator
2) Allow the nose to lower slightly
3) To minimize altitude loss, bring the pitch attitude up to the horizon and slowly add full power

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95
Q

Va

A

Design Maneuvering Speed; the maximum speed that the airplane can be safely stalled. It is also the max speed at which full or abrupt control movements can be used without over stressing the airframe

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96
Q

What is the calculation for finding Va?

A

1.7 x Normal stalling speed

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97
Q

Does Va depend on gross weight?

A

Yes; as gross weight increases so does Va and vice-versa

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98
Q

What is the range for Va (depending on gross weight) in the C172R?

A

~85-100 KIAS

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99
Q

What is it wise to do in extremely rough turbulence due to Va?

A

Reduce speed to below Va to prevent excessive loads on the air-frame

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100
Q

What factors determine the amount of load that can be imposed on the wings during flight?

A

The gross weight and how fast the plane is flying

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101
Q

What is the general layout of a “steep turn” procedure?

A

Maintain level flight path and do 360 degree turn at 45 degree bank to produce a 1.5 load factor/g-force

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102
Q

What happens to the roll stability past 30 degrees bank approx?

A

Negative stability; it wants to keep rolling

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103
Q

What is the POH recommended steep turn speed?

A

95 KIAS

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104
Q

What is the general procedure for entering a steep turn?

A

1) Clear the area
2) Altitude at least 2,000 ft AGL
3) Pick a prominent landmark for entry heading
4) Pick a point about 30 degrees before entry heading landmark for rollout
5) Adjust speed using slow-down procedure to 95 KIAs level trimmed flight
6) Roll into 45 degree turn, use rudder and back pressure as needed
7) Begin roll-out about 30 degrees before entry heading

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105
Q

In the C172R engine, how many cylinders are there?

A

Four; two on each side facing away from each other

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106
Q

What type of engine opposition does the C172R have?

A

Horizontally opposed

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107
Q

What is the goal of a steep turn?

A

To maintain a level flight path at 45 degrees of bank for 360 degrees of turn

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108
Q

What main functions do the engine oil provide?

A

Cooling and lubrication

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109
Q

Where is air for the engine’s cylinders taken in?

A

The air induction system on the lower front portion of the engine cowling (rectangle with filter).

110
Q

What do excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, cause?

A

Loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage

111
Q

What is the main body of the engine called?

A

The crankcase

112
Q

What is found in the center of the crankcase and is powered by the pistons?

A

The crankshaft

113
Q

Is the propeller usually attached to the crankshaft or the flywheel?

A

The crankshaft

114
Q

Where does the combustion of fuel take place int he engine?

A

Inside the cylinders

115
Q

What are the three main items found inside the cylinders?

A

The pistons, valves, and spark plugs

116
Q

What are the four strokes of an internal combustion engine?

A

Intake, Compression, Power, and Exhaust

117
Q

What two things happen during the intake stroke?

A

The intake valves open and lets in air, and the pressurized fuel is forced through the fuel injector to create a combustible mixture of air and fuel

118
Q

What happens during the compression stroke of the engine?

A

The intake valve closes and the piston compresses the air/fuel mixture as it returns to the top of the cylinder

119
Q

What happens during the power stroke in the engine?

A

A spark from the spark plug ignites the compressed air/fuel mixture, causing the burning gas to expand and forcing the piston downward

120
Q

What happens during the exhaust stroke in the engine?

A

The exhaust valve opens and the piston forces the burned gases out as it returns to the top of the cylinder

121
Q

For every two revolutions of the crankshaft, how many times does the cylinder deliver power?

A

Once, momentum carries the piston through the other three strokes

122
Q

What unit is a measure of the power the engine transfers to the propeller?

A

Brake Horsepower (bhp)

123
Q

What does the red line on the tachometer indicate?

A

The maximum rpm permitted by the engine

124
Q

What does a fuel injection system consist of?

A

An electrically driven fuel pump (AUX or Boost), a mechanically driven fuel pump, a fuel/air controller, fuel manifold valve, connecting lines, fuel nozzles (fuel injector), and fuel flow/fuel pressure gauge.

125
Q

Trace the path of fuel through the fuel injection system

A

Fuel tank –> Aux/Boost Fuel Pump –> Engine/Mechanical Fuel Pump –> Fuel/Air Controller –> Fuel Manifold Valve –> Connecting lines –> Fuel nozzles/fuel injector

126
Q

What fuel pump is used to pressurize fuel for starting (or priming) the engine, and as an emergency fuel pump?

A

The electric fuel pump

127
Q

What do you need to do to fuel mixture as density altitude increases?

A

Lean

128
Q

What can happen if you have an excessively lean fuel/air mixture?

A

Oil temperature and engine temperature may exceed normal operating limits

129
Q

What is the throttle / mixture combination used for engine start and ground operations?

A

1200 rpm and lean for max rpm

130
Q

What is the throttle / mixture combination for climbs above 3000 ft?

A

Full throttle and lean the mixture for max rpm

131
Q

When using 80% power or less, at any altitude, what should you do to the mixture?

A

Lean for max rpm

132
Q

What type of system do airplane engines use for ignition?

A

A dual magneto ignition system

133
Q

What does the ignition do?

A

Provides electrical energy to ignite the fuel/air mixture in the cylinder

134
Q

What are the advantages of a dual magneto ignition system?

A

Safety and improved performance

135
Q

In what situations should the fuel quantity indicators not be relied upon for accurate readings?

A

During skids, slips, or unusual attitudes

136
Q

When the fuel indicators who an empty tank, what is still left in each tank?

A

1.5 gallons of unusable fuel

137
Q

What would cause the LOW FUEL message on the Annunciation panel to flash for 10 seconds and then remain steady amber?

A

When fuel drops below approximately 5 gallons for more than 60 seconds

138
Q

What two situations produce LOW FUEL messages on the annunciator?

A

Either low fuel, or failure with one or both of the fuel quantity transmitters

139
Q

What does the rating of aviation fuel indicate?

A

Its ability to withstand high temperature without detonating

140
Q

What is “detonation?”

A

The instantaneous explosive burning of the fuel within the combustion chamber, causing a sharp rise in cylinder pressure and a “hammer blow” to the piston and other engine components.

141
Q

What can detonation cause?

A

Structural failure of engine components in a very short time

142
Q

What does detonation cause in terms of temp and power?

A

Increase in engine temperature and reduction in power

143
Q

What should you do to try to cool an overheating engine or engine that is detonating?

A

Reduce pitch to increase airflow and increase mixture

144
Q

With regards to fuel rating, what type should you use?

A

ALWAYS use fuel that is at or above that specified by the manufacturer, or you may get detonation and high engine temperatures/damage

145
Q

What is pre-ignition?

A

When carbon deposits in the combustion chamber become hot enough to ignite the fuel/air mixture before the spark plugs fire. This causes decreased performance and higher cylinder temps that could result in detonation

146
Q

How can you visually tell the rating of the fuel you’re using?

A

The color

147
Q

Can you use a higher grade of fuel if what the required octane level isn’t available?

A

Yes, but NEVER lower

148
Q

Can you use automotive gas in an airplane engine?

A

No, unless the flight manual indicates you can

149
Q

What is the best way to avoid contaminating the fuel with condensesation?

A

Topping off the fuel tanks at the end of the day

150
Q

How many volts is the C172 electrical system?

A

28 Volts

151
Q

What supplies operating voltage when the engine is running?

A

A 60-amp alternator

152
Q

How many volts is the plane’s battery?

A

24 volts

153
Q

How can you start the engine if the battery is low?

A

By connecting the plane to an external power connector

154
Q

What do the two Master Switches each refer to?

A

One the battery, the other the alternator

155
Q

What type of electric starter system to most small airplanes use?

A

A direct-cranking electrical starter system

156
Q

What does the direct-cranking electrical starter system consist of?

A

An electrical source, wiring, switches, and solenoids to operate the starter and starter motor

157
Q

What does turning the key to the “START” position on the starter switch do?

A

Provides power to the starter motor from the battery

158
Q

How is the starter motor protected from being driven by the engine?

A

Through a clutch in the starter drive that disengages the starter gear once the engine starts

159
Q

What is an electrical bus?

A

It’s like a power strip; everything plugged into it can be turned on and off at the same time and independent of other buses

160
Q

What type of propeller does the C172 have?

A

Two-bladed, fixed pitch, one piece forged aluminum anodized alloy

161
Q

What is the diameter of the C172 propeller?

A

75 Inches

162
Q

Which lights consist of the exterior lighting?

A

Navigation lights on the wing and top of the rudder, a dual landing/taxi light configuration on the left wing leading edge, a flashing beacon mounted on top of the vertical fin, and a strobe light on each wing tip

163
Q

How do you turn on the exterior courtesy lights and rear cabin dome light?

A

By pressing the rear cabin light switch

164
Q

What is glareshield lighting and how is it controlled?

A

A fluorescent light recessed into the glareshield that is controlled by rotating the GLARESHIELD LT dimmer

165
Q

What is pedestal lighting and how is it controlled?

A

A single, hooded light located above the fuel selector. Is controlled by rotating the PEDESTAL LT dimmer

166
Q

What is panel lighting and how is it controlled?

A

Individual lights mounted in each instrument and gauge. These are wired in parallel and are controlled by the PANEL LT dimmer, located below the NAV indicators

167
Q

What is pilot control wheel lighting and how is it controlled?

A

Accomplished by use of a rheostat and light assembly beneath the pilot control wheel. This lights up the pilot’s lap. To operate, turn on the NAV lights and then adjust it with the knurled rheostat knob under the wheel

168
Q

What is Back lighting and how is it controlled?

A

The lighting intensity for the radios and instrument lighting for the navigation indicators. It’s controlled by the TST (TEST) - BRT (DAY) - DIM (NIGHT) switch

169
Q

If an annunciator warning is activated, does that mean there is an emergency?

A

Not necessarily, but the highlighted system must be checked.

170
Q

What areas are control tower personnel responsible for?

A

Class D airspace, the surface of the airport, and possibly Class C airspace

171
Q

How would you pronounce “500” when speaking to ATC?

A

Five hundred

172
Q

How would you pronounce “4,500” when speaking to ATC?

A

Four thousand, five hundred

173
Q

How would you pronounce “10,500” when speaking to ATC?

A

One zero thousand, five hundred

174
Q

How would you pronounce “005” when speaking to ATC?

A

Zero zero five

175
Q

How would you pronounce “050” when speaking to ATC?

A

zero five zero

176
Q

How would you pronounce “Runway 36” when speaking to ATC?

A

Runway three six

177
Q

How would you pronounce “25 knots” when speaking to ATC?

A

two five knots

178
Q

How would you pronounce “121.9” when speaking to ATC?

A

One two one point niner

179
Q

How do you say “nine” in phonic?

A

Niner

180
Q

What, generally, is class D airspace?

A

Airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower

181
Q

How is Class D airspace indicated on charts?

A

With a blue dashed line

182
Q

How is the top of Class D airspace indicated?

A

A number inside a blue dashed box. If negative in front of the number, that means “up to but not including”

183
Q

When should one get in contact with the control tower when entering Class D airspace?

A

Far enough in advance that you don’t cross into the airspace before establishing two-way communications

184
Q

What information would you tell the tower when entering class D airspace?

A

Their position, altitude, destination, and any requests

185
Q

What speed may you not exceed when at or below 2,500 ft and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class D airspace?

A

200 knots

186
Q

What does operation of the rotating beacon during daylight hours indicate at an airport within class D airspace?

A

That the ceiling is below 1,000 ft and visibility is below 3 statute miles

187
Q

Is Special VFR (SVFR) operations permitted within class D airspace?

A

Yes, with ATC clearance

188
Q

How much visibility do SVFR flights require?

A

At least one mile of visibility and must remain clear of clouds

189
Q

What are VFR weather minimums in Class D airspace during the hours the control tower is in operation?

A

500 Ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2000 ft horizontal from clouds and visibility at least 3 nm

190
Q

What are VFR weather minimums in Class D airspace during the hours the control tower is NOT in operation?

A

Class E surface area rules or a combination of Class E rules to 700 ft AGL and class G rules to the surface will become applicable

191
Q

What is the required airplane equipment in Class D airspace?

A

An operable two-way radio

192
Q

Are there any specific pilot certification requirements to fly in Class D airspace?

A

No

193
Q

What is special about Class E and Class G airspace?

A

There are no operating rules or pilot/equipment requirements

194
Q

What are VFR weather minimums in Class E airspace below 10,000 ft AGL?

A

500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal from clouds and visibility at least 3 nm

195
Q

What are daytime VFR weather minimums in Class G airspace below 1,200 ft AGL or less?

A

1 sm visibility and remain clear of clouds

196
Q

What are nighttime VFR weather minimums in Class G airspace below 1,200 ft AGL or less?

A

500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal from clouds and visibility at least 3 nm

197
Q

How should you acknowledge all ATC clearances and instructions?

A

With your airplane registration number

198
Q

When operating in an area where ATC service is provided, who is responsible for safe aircraft operation?

A

The Pilot in Command

199
Q

If you are issued a clearance to cross a runway, are you allowed to also cross other runways after?

A

No, you must get additional clearance

200
Q

If you ever need to deviate from ATC instructions to avoid an emergency, what must you do?

A

Send a written report to the FAA

201
Q

What are light gun signals used for?

A

Communicating with an aircraft that has experienced a radio communications failure

202
Q

If your radio fails, what is the first course of action?

A

Land at an uncontrolled airport

203
Q

What do you do if you decide to land at a tower controlled airport after you have a radio failure?

A

Stay outside or above class D surface area until you determine the direction and flow of traffic, then join the traffic pattern and maintain visual contact with the tower to receive light signals

204
Q

What does a “solid green” light gun pattern indicate for aircraft on the ground?

A

Cleared for takeoff

205
Q

What does a “solid green” light gun pattern indicate for aircraft in flight?

A

cleared to land

206
Q

What does a “flashing green” light gun pattern indicate for aircraft on the ground?

A

Cleared for taxi

207
Q

What does a “flashing green” light gun pattern indicate for aircraft in flight?

A

Return for landing (to be followed by steady green at the proper time)

208
Q

What does a “Steady Red” light gun pattern indicate for aircraft on the ground?

A

Stop

209
Q

What does a “Steady Red” light gun pattern indicate for aircraft in flight?

A

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

210
Q

What does a “Flashing Red” light gun pattern indicate for aircraft on the ground?

A

Taxi clear of the runway in use

211
Q

What does a “Flashing Red” light gun pattern indicate for aircraft in flight?

A

Airport unsafe, do not land

212
Q

What does a “Flashing White” light gun pattern indicate for aircraft on the ground?

A

Return to starting point on airport

213
Q

What does a “Flashing White” light gun pattern indicate for aircraft in flight?

A

Not applicable

214
Q

What does a “alternating red and green” light gun pattern indicate for aircraft on the ground?

A

Exercise extreme caution!

215
Q

What does a “alternating red and green” light gun pattern indicate for aircraft in flight?

A

Exercise extreme caution!

216
Q

What is a transponder?

A

A radio receiver and transmitter aboard an aircraft that reinforces the reflected radar waves to provide a better return on the controller’s display

217
Q

What is a SQUAWK code?

A

A code assigned by a controller specific to an aircraft for use by that aircraft’s transponder to reply to radar interrogation (mode A)

218
Q

What is Transponder Mode A?

A

Set to reply to radar interrogation

219
Q

What is Transponder Mode C?

A

Altitude encoding equipment; sends a readout of the aircraft’s altitude which is displayed on the radar screen

220
Q

For what altitude is a transponder with altitude (Mode C) encoding required above?

A

10,000 feel MSL unless also below 2,500 ft AGL

221
Q

What is transponder code “1200” reserved for?

A

Visual flight rules operations

222
Q

What is transponder code “7500” reserved for?

A

Hijack

223
Q

What is transponder code “7600” reserved for?

A

Two-way radio communications failure

224
Q

What is transponder code “7700” reserved for?

A

Emergency

225
Q

What is the preferred method for correcting for wind drift in straight and level flight?

A

To establish a wind correction angle (WCA)

226
Q

What is a wind correction angle?

A

Using a slightly altered heading angle to offset wind drift

227
Q

What is “crabbing?”

A

Flying at a wind correction angle to offset wind drift, appears that the plane is flying slightly sideways, like a crab

228
Q

What altitudes are ground track reference maneuvers performed at?

A

between 600 ft AGL and 1,000 ft AGL, which approximate the height of a typical airport traffic pattern

229
Q

What does the amount of crab correction to maintain a desired ground track depend on?

A

Wind speed and direction

230
Q

If none of the typical weather sources (ATIS, AFIS, ASOS, AWOS, someone on UNICOM, etc) are available, how can you determine the wind and traffic indicators for landing at an airport?

A

Fly over the airport and observe the wind and traffic indicators

231
Q

What is the typical entry to a traffic pattern in terms of angle and location and altitude?

A

45 degrees on the downwind leg at pattern altitude (1000 feet AGl normally)

232
Q

If an overflight is needed to gather airport weather information, what altitude should you stay above?

A

At least 500 ft above the traffic pattern

233
Q

What are the five legs of a traffic pattern?

A

Downwind, base, final, upwind, and crosswind

234
Q

What is the normal pattern distance for your training airplane?

A

1/2 mile from the runway on the downwind and allow for a 1/2 mile final leg

235
Q

What is an “aim point?”

A

A point you pick on the runway to help you gauge vertical distance in relation to the runway. Normally this would be the runway numbers

236
Q

What is a “stabilized approach”

A

An approach in which the attitude, airspeed, and rate of descent are held constant or small corrections can be made to fix any deviation

237
Q

What is the typical max speed and altitude on the downwind leg of the traffic pattern?

A

90 KIAS and 1,000 ft AGL

238
Q

What do you do when abeam the aim point on the downwind leg of the traffic pattern?

A

1) Reduce power to 1500 rpm
2) Extend flaps to 10 degrees
3) Stabilize a descent around 500 fpm with airspeed slowing to 80 KIAS
4) Trim

239
Q

When should you start the turn onto the base leg from the downwind in the traffic pattern?

A

The “key position;” when the runway is about 45 degrees off your left rear

240
Q

What bank angle is used to turn onto the base leg from the downwind?

A

Medium bank

241
Q

What is the base leg procedure/sequence?

A

1) Extend flaps to 20 degrees
2) Maintain 500 fpm descent
3) Airspeed should slow to 70 KIAs
4) Make any adjustments necessary
5) Trim

242
Q

Where is the “proper position” for landing located?

A

10 to 20 ft above runway elevation, over the runway threshold

243
Q

What is the proper plane configuration for landing?

A

Power just above idle and flaps fully extended

244
Q

Should you stare at the runway centerline while landing?

A

No, switch your focus from one edge of the runway to the other

245
Q

If you’re overshooting the turn onto final, should you increase bank angle to compensate?

A

No, just finish the medium bank turn and roll out on a heading to re-intercept the final or make a go-around

246
Q

How should you keep your head during approach and landing and why?

A

Keep it in a natural position so that it provides a constant reference to the aim point

247
Q

What is happening if the aim point is moving up on final?

A

You are getting low

248
Q

What should the aim point appear to do on final approach?

A

Not move

249
Q

What is the procedure/sequence once you are established on final?

A

1) Extend flaps to full
2) Adjust pitch and power to maintain 65 KIAS
3) Trim

250
Q

When should you make a go-around?

A

Whenever something doesn’t feel right, or you determine that large corrections in power or attitude are required

251
Q

How does extending flaps affect the glide path?

A

Allows for a steeper descent

252
Q

How does extending flaps affect longitudinal stability?

A

Increases longitudinal stability

253
Q

How does wind direction and speed affect your base leg?

A

On a no-wind day, you’d choose a base 1/2 mile from the runway. With headwind, the distance should be less and then you fly as you would on a no wind day with a steeper glide path

254
Q

What are the factors affecting descent angle on final?

A

Airspeed, power, attitude, drag, and wind

255
Q

When following another aircraft in the traffic pattern, when should you turn base?

A

Not until the preceding aircraft is on final and abeam your position

256
Q

How do headwinds and tailwinds affect climb angle?

A

Headwinds increase climb angle, tailwinds decrease climb angle

257
Q

What should the power setting be as the flare is started?

A

Idle

258
Q

What will the “sight picture” look like during landing?

A

The pitch attitude will be high with the nose blocking your vision down the runway

259
Q

How far down the runway should you stare during the flare?

A

About as far in front of the plane as you would while driving on the interstate

260
Q

Just before the nose of the plane blocks your vision during the flare, where should you shift your attention?

A

The lower corners of the windshield where the runway edges are visible

261
Q

Should you apply brake pressure during landing?

A

Only if necessary, otherwise let the airplane slow on its own to normal taxi speed

262
Q

If you do need to use the brakes after landing, what else should you do?

A

Apply back pressure on the elevator to keep the weight on the main wheels

263
Q

What is the sequence/technique for a go-around from a landing approach?

A

Pitch, power, and trim

264
Q

What are the three situations where a go-around should be initiated during a landing?

A

1) Landing beyond the first third of the runway
2) More than minor change in power
3) Un-stabilized approach

265
Q

What do some flight manuals also refer to go-arounds as?

A

Balked landings

266
Q

What is the ultimate goal of a go-around

A

To stop the descent and return to pattern altitude

267
Q

What will you need to apply a lot of during a go-around due to the trim that was set for the stabilized approach?

A

Forward control pressure as the power is at full. Also, right rudder due to yaw

268
Q

If you have made a go-around due to traffic conditions,, what should you do?

A

Track to the upwind side of the runway on the upwind leg to keep traffic in sight and remain clear of any conflict

269
Q

If you’re in a turn when you decide to or are instructed to go around, what should you do?

A

Roll wings to level before beginning the go-around, then resume a climbing turn to the proper heading once you have established a positive climb

270
Q

What do bold-faced type in the POH refer to?

A

Emergency procedures checklists; these should be MEMORIZED and completed automatically

American Flyers Flight School Training (10 decks)

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