Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

American Flyers Flight School Training > Chapter 3 - Performance Maneuvers and Safety of Flight > Flashcards

Chapter 3 - Performance Maneuvers and Safety of Flight Flashcards

1
Q

What is Navigation?

A

The process of moving from one point of another. This involves knowledge of position, direction, distance, and time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are lines of latitude?

A

Circles parallel to the equator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are meridians of longitude?

A

Circles perpendicular to the equator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the angular distance from the equator to one of the poles?

A

90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where does the prime meridian pass through?

A

Greenwich, England

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many minutes does each degree of latitude and longitude contain?

A

60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many minutes do charts show lines of latitude and longitude spaced at?

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a course measured from the true North Pole referred to?

A

True course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many time zones are there in the continental US?

A

Four

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the name of the standard time used in aviation?

A

Coordinated Standard Time or Zulu Time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is shorter, a statute mile or a nautical mile?

A

A statute mile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does one nautical mile distance refer to in terms of location?

A

One minute of latitude at the equator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the scale for Sectional Charts?

A

1:500,000. 1 in = 6.86 nm or 8 sm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How often are sectional charts revised?

A

Every 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What do VFR Terminal Area Charts (TAC) show?

A

The areas surrounding the busiest airports in the biggest cities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the scale for TACs?

A

1:250,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the main difference in detail between Sectional Charts and TACs?

A

TACs are much more detailed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the typical elevation intervals for the contour lines on Sectional Charts and TACs?

A

500 ft for sectional, 250 ft for TACs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What colors represent what altitude levels for Charts with regards to terrain?

A

Green for lowest, brown for highest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is pilotage?

A

Navigation by reference to what you see on the Earth’s surface and matching it to a chart you have in the airplane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is dead reckoning?

A

When you are flying through a featureless area, you plot a heading/direction and fly through the area until you are past it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do yellow tinted areas on charts represent?

A

Populated areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where can detailed information on airports be found?

A

Chart supplement, US…Aeronautical Charts…Notices to Airmen for updates to publications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does flashing white and green rotating beacon lights mean?

A

Civilian land airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does flashing white and yellow rotating beacon lights mean?

A

Water airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does flashing white, yellow and green rotating beacon lights mean?

A

Heliport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does flashing with two quick white flashes alternating with a green flash rotating beacon lights mean?

A

Military airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What color lights mark the runway edge?

A

White

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the three classification of runway edge lights?

A

High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL), MIRL, LIRL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What color lights mark the end of the runway?

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What do amber lights on an instrument runway indicate?

A

2000 ft remaining or half the runway, whichever is less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What color lights mark the edge of the taxiway?

A

Blue omnidirectional lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What kind of lights indicate the edge of a runway threshold in the direction of landing?

A

Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are Runway End Identifier Lights?

A

Provide rapid and positive identification of the approach end of a particular runway. It consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights located laterally on each side of the runway threshold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are three methods uncontrolled airports may use to convey wind direction?

A

Tetrahedrons, wind tees, wind cones/socks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does 14 CFR Part 91 require landing aircraft to do?

A

Circle the airport to the left (standard direction) unless approved markings indicate right turns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What color are class B and D airspace on Sectionals and TACs?

A

Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What color are class C and E boundaries on Sectionals and TACs?

A

Magenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What color/pattern marks TRSA (Terminal Radar Service Area) on sectional charts and TACs?

A

Solid black lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How are Special Use areas indicated on Sectional charts and TACs?

A

Blue or magenta coloration based on the use classification?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Describe class A Airspace

A

Not depicted on Sectional/TACs, Begins at 18,000 ft MSL and goes to 60,000 ft MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Describe class G airspace

A

Not depicted on sectional/TACs, is uncontrolled from the surface up to the overlaying controlled class E airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Describe class E airspace

A

Depicted on charts with magenta coloring. Starts at surface, 700 ft AGL, 1200 ft AGL, or higher. All airspace above 14,500 ft MSL is class E except areas within 1500 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Describe class D airspace

A

Depicted on charts with blue coloring, generally starts at the surface to 2500 ft above airport elevation surrounding airports that have an operational control tower.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What class airspace are the primary airports of TRSA?

A

Class D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is TRSA?

A

Terminal Radar Surface Area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How are TRSA’s depicted on VFR sectional and TACs?

A

A screened black line with altitudes published for each segment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How is Class C airspace depicted on charts?

A

Magenta coloring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Describe Class C airspace

A

Generally starts at the surface to 4000 ft above the airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Describe the typical, but not required, shape of class C airspace

A

5nm radius circle with an outer circle of 10 nm radius that extends from 1200 ft to 4000 ft above airport elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How is Class B airspace depicted on charts?

A

Blue coloring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Briefly describe class B airspace

A

Airspace that goes from the surface to 10,000 ft MSL surroudning the nation’s busiest airports

53
Q

What is a Special use Airspace (SUA)?

A

Airspace wherein activities must be confined because of their nature, or wherein limitations are imposed upon aircraft operations that are not part of those activities, or both.

54
Q

Which SUAs are considered regulatory?

A

Prohibited and restricted areas

55
Q

Which SUAs are considered non-regulatory?

A

Warning areas, military operations areas, alert areas, and controlled firing areas

56
Q

What information do the chart margins contain about SUAs?

A

Hours of operation, vertical dimensions, and the name of the controlling agency

57
Q

How are Alert Areas depicted on charts?

A

With magenta coloring

58
Q

What do Alert Areas mean?

A

There may be a high volume of pilot training or unusual type of aerial activity. Pilot’s must remain alert while flying in these areas and all activity within an alert area shall be conducted in accordance with CFRs, without waiver, and pilots of participating aircraft as well as pilots transiting the area shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance

59
Q

How are prohibited areas depicted on charts?

A

Blue coloration

60
Q

What is a Prohibited Area?

A

An area of defined dimensions within which the flight of all aircraft is prohibited

61
Q

How are Restricted Areas depicted on charts?

A

Identified with blue coloration

62
Q

What is a Restricted Area?

A

An area within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. They denote the existence of unusual hazards such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles

63
Q

What is a Warning Area?

A

Airspace of defined dimensions extending from 3 nm outward from the coast of the US that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.

64
Q

What is a Military Operations Area?

A

Airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic.

65
Q

Can VFR pilots operate within military operations areas?

A

Yes, but they must exercise extreme caution

66
Q

How can a pilot check the activity status (active/inactive) of an MOA?

A

Contact any FSS within 100 mils of the area to obtain accurate real-time information concerning the MOA hours of operation

67
Q

How are Military Training Routes depicted on charts?

A

Solid gray lines with the route designation printed on the line

68
Q

What are IR and VR Military Training Routes?

A

IR: Accommodate training flights regardless of weather
VR: Only flown in good weather of 5 miles of visibility or more and nothing below a ceiling less than 3,000 ft AGL

69
Q

How are MTRs with no segments above 1500 ft AGl identified?

A

Four number characters (IR1206, VR1207)

70
Q

How are MTRs that include one or more segments above 1500 feet AGL identified?

A

Three number characters (IR206, VR207)

71
Q

What are federal airways?

A

The “highways in the sky” flown by aircraft operating under IFR. They depict radio courses between one or more NAVAIDs

72
Q

What are Federal Airways also known as?

A

Victor Airways

73
Q

How are Federal Airways/Victor Airways depicted on charts?

A

Crisscrossing blue lines

74
Q

What type of airspace are Federal Airways considered?

A

Class E

75
Q

How wide are Federal Airways?

A

4 nm from their centerlines

76
Q

What are the altitude dimensions of Federal Airways?

A

Generally 1200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL

77
Q

What are Controlled Firing Areas?

A

Areas that contain activities that, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft

78
Q

What is the main difference between CFAs and other SUAs?

A

All activities must be suspended when a spotter aircraft, radar, or ground lookout position indicates an aircraft might be approaching the area that is not part of the activity

79
Q

How are CFAs depicted on charts?

A

They aren’t, since they do not cause nonparticipating aircraft to change their flightpaths

80
Q

What are Special Conservation Areas?

A

National parks, wilderness areas, and wildlife refuges indicated by a blue box with dots along the inside border. The US fish and wildlife service requests pilots maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet AGL over these areas

81
Q

What are Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFRs)?

A

Regulatory actions issued via the US NOTAM system to restrict certain aircraft from operating within a defined area, on a temporary basis, to protect persons or property in the air or on the ground.

82
Q

What are examples of TFRs?

A

A disaster or hazard area, an area being visited by the President or other public figure, space flight operations, etc

83
Q

What are the three main guidelines for minimum altitudes

A

1) Not below an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing to be made without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface
2) Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement at under 1,000 ft of the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 ft of the aircraft
3) Over other congested areas, under 500 feet AGL or within 500 ft of any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure

84
Q

What is VASI?

A

Vertical Approach Slope Indicator, a system consisting of two or three bars to indicate glide slope

85
Q

What are Tri-Color Approach Visual Approach Slope Inidicators (tri-color VASIs)?

A

A single light source projecting a three color beam to indicate relationship to the path

86
Q

What are the color indicators for tri-color VASIs?

A 
Red = Below glide slope
Amber = Above glide slope
Green = On glide slope
87
Q

What is PAPI?

A

Precision Approach Path Indicator; similar to VASI but uses only a single row of lights

88
Q

What is a Pulsating Visual Approach System?

A

Provides a single, two-color light source to indicate glide slope

89
Q

What are the color indicators for a PVAS?

A

Steady white = On Path
Steady red = slightly below glide path
Pulsating white = Too high
Pulsating red = Too low

90
Q

When are LAHSO operations put in use?

A

At tower-controlled airports when multiple runways are in use

91
Q

Does the PIC have the final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short clearances?

A

Yes

92
Q

Should student pilots or pilots not familiar with LAHSO participate in the program?

A

No

93
Q

What is the most common cause of engine malfunction or failure?

A

Fuel contamination or mismanagement

94
Q

What two radio and transponder settings should you use if you need to perform an emergency landing without engine power?

A

Transmit mayday on 121.5 and Squawk 7700

95
Q

What are two main reasons or indicators to abort the takeoff during takeoff roll?

A

Abnormal engine sounds or instrument indications

96
Q

What is the first and foremost immediate action step in response to an emergency?

A

Maintain control of the aircraft

97
Q

What is the chief cause of engine fires?

A

Over-priming during starting

98
Q

What can eliminate fire hazards during starting?

A

Proper use of the primer and the use of pre-heat in cold weather

99
Q

What do you do if you suspect a possible engine fire?

A

Continue cranking the engine with the starter, then once the engine starts, shut it down and inspect for damage

100
Q

How many inches of mercury does air pressure decrease for each 1000 ft gain in altitude?

A

One inch

101
Q

How should you set the altimeter if current setting is unavailable?

A

Set it to the ground elevation of the airport

102
Q

What are the two types of information that the VSI displays?

A 
Trend = General direction (climbing or descending)
Rate = Rate of change in FPM
103
Q

What are IAS, CAS, and TAS and what is the difference between them?

A

Indicated Airspeed = The uncorrected instrument reading read of the ASI
Calibrated Airspeed = Indicated airspeed corrected for installation and instrument error
True Airspeed = Calibrated airspeed corrected for density error; it’s used in flight planning and can be determined from performance charts or calculated with a computer

104
Q

What gyroscopic instruments does the vacuum system power?

A

Heading and attitude

105
Q

What gyroscopic instruments does the electric system power?

A

The turn coordinator

106
Q

What is precession with respect to gyroscopes?

A

The tilting or turning of a gyro in response to a deflective force

107
Q

Why will the heading indicator tend to drive after a while?

A

Due to precession caused by bearing friction

108
Q

What does the turn coorindator indicated?

A

Rate and direction of turn, NOT bank angle

109
Q

What is the indicator line on the magnetic compass called?

A

The Lubber Line

110
Q

What causes the most errors of the magnetic compass?

A

Magnetic dip, caused by lines of magnetic force differing around the earth

111
Q

Under what conditions are magnetic compasses ONLY accurate?

A

Straight and level, un-accelerated flight

112
Q

What is acceleration error for magnetic compasses?

A

A type of magnetic dip error caused by the acceleration or deceleration of the aircraft

113
Q

What are the acceleration errors for directions North and South?

A

ANDS: Accelerate = North, Decelerate = South

114
Q

What are the directions of error for banking errors of magnetic compasses?

A

When turning from North, compass briefly shows a turn in opposite direction. When turning from South, it will show the correct direction of turn but the rate will be faster than the actual rate of the airplane

115
Q

What is oscillation error of the magnetic compass?

A

Errors caused by turbulence causing the magnetic compass to move around

116
Q

What is Magnetic Deviation of the magnetic compass?

A

Magnetic compass errors causing by magnetic fields from the plane’s electrical equipment.

117
Q

What is the Compass Correction Card and what is it used for?

A

The card will show you the amount of Magnetic Deviation at different headings and combinations of electrical equipment in use

118
Q

What does accurate control of airplane attitude require?

A

1) Can maintain a constant attitude
2) Known when and by how much to change the attitude
3) Can smoothly change the attitude by a definite predetermined amount

119
Q

When is the plane correctly trimmed?

A

When it is maintaining a constant attitude with all control pressures relieved

120
Q

Generally, when should you adjust trim to relieve control pressure?

A

Once the airspeed has stabilized

121
Q

What is the only sense that is reliable during flight by instrument reference?

A

Sight

122
Q

What should you do with reference to the attitude indicator while on the ramp?

A

Set it for level flight

123
Q

How should instrument scanning generally be structured?

A

From the attitude indicator out, and then back to the attitude indicator

124
Q

What is the standard rate of turn?

A

Three degrees per second; 360 degrees in two minutes

125
Q

At cruise airspeed of 110 knots, what is the required bank angle to achieve a standard rate of turn?

A

18 degrees

126
Q

What is the rule of thumb for determining the lead to roll out on a desired heading?

A

Half the degree of bank

127
Q

What is the rule of thumb for rate of ascent/descent for correcting for altitude error?

A

The rate should be about twice the altitude error

128
Q

What is the rule of thumb for what bank angle to use to correct for a heading error?

A

Same bank angle as number of degrees off; bank to that angle, and return to level

129
Q

In most small airplanes, what is the resulting airspeed change while maintaining level flight when reducing power 150 to 200 rpm?

A

~10 knots

American Flyers Flight School Training (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions