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pcol > f2f review > Flashcards

f2f review Flashcards

1
Q

First line of drug produce red-orange body fluids

A

Rifampin / Rifampicin

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2
Q

Antimycobacterials that are hepatotoxic

A

All first-line drugs

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3
Q

Antimycobacterial may cause peripheral neuritis

A

Isoniazid

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4
Q

Drug to give if patient is experiencing a gout attack, hyperuricemia, and increased uric acid

A

Pyrazinamide

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5
Q

2nd line drug that is given if TB strain is already resistant to Amikacin

A

Streptomycin

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6
Q

Technical definition of your MDR TB

A

Resistant to both Isoniazid and Rifampin

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7
Q

Duration of TB treatment intensive phase

A

2 months

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8
Q

Duration of continuation/maintenance of TB treatment

A

4 or more months

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9
Q

Duration of TB of the spine or TB meningitis treatment

A

1 year (2 months intensive, 10 months maintenance)

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10
Q

Main drug used for leprosy

A

Dapsone

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11
Q

Drug for multibacillary leprosy

A

Clofazimine

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12
Q

Rifampicin analog that can be used or can be given orally but is not absorbed systemically

A

Rifaximin

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13
Q

Rifampicin analog given to HIV/AIDS patients

A

Rifabutin

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14
Q

May cause tendon rupture or tendonitis

A

Fluoroquinolones

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15
Q

Causes myalgia-arthralgia

A

Streptogramins: Quinupristin-Dalfopristin

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16
Q

Causes gray baby syndrome

A

Chloramphenicol

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17
Q

Causes red man syndrome

A

Vancomycin

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18
Q

Has the propensity to cause pseudomembranous colitis

A

Ampicillin
Co-Amoxiclav
Carbapenems/Meropenems
Clindamycin

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19
Q

All drugs with MRSA activity

A

Vancomycin, Clindamycin
Streptogramins
Ceftaroline (5th gen beta-lactam)
Tigecycline, Eravacycline, Omadacycline
Rifampicin
Tedizolid
Cotrimoxazole
Levofloxacin, Gatifloxacin, Sparfloxacin

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20
Q

Pseudomonal activity

A

Carbapenems (except ertapenem)
Cefoperazone
Ceftazidime

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21
Q

What age can tetracyclines be given

A

8 and above

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22
Q

Causes ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

A

Aminoglycosides

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23
Q

Most notable adverse effect of Tetracyclines

A

Tooth enamel discoloration
Enamel dysplasia

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24
Q

Drugs that are contraindicated for pregnants

A

Tetracyclines:
Doxycycline
Demeclocycline
Minocycline
Tigecycline

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25
Q

Prophylaxis for leptospirosis

A

Doxycycline

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26
Q

Drugs that are allowed for Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)

A

Demeclocycline

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27
Q

Used for increased gastric motility

A

Erythromycin

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28
Q

Cause QT prolongation

A

Macrolides (Torsades de Pointes Arrhythmia)

29
Q

Used for malaria

A

Doxycycline
Clindamycin
Sulfadoxine + Pyrimethamine

30
Q

Used for chlamydia

A

Doxycycline 100mg 2x a day for 1 week

31
Q

Given to pregnant patient with chlamydia

A

Azithromycin

32
Q

Drugs that inhibit the growth of microorganisms

A

Bacteriostatic

33
Q

Drugs that kill the bacteria itself

A

Bactericidal

34
Q

In cell wall inhibitors, what chemical structure is responsible for determining drug susceptibility to enzymatic hydrolysis?

A

R group

35
Q

Used for gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone single IM dose

36
Q

Used for syphilis

A

Penicillin G single IM injection

37
Q

Which cephalosporin is active against MRSA

A

Ceftaroline (5th gen)

38
Q

Which cephalosporin is active against P. aeruginosa

A

Ceftazidime
Cefoperazone

39
Q

Which cephalosporin is used as prophylaxis before surgery

A

Cefazolin

40
Q

Which carbapenem needs renal dehydropeptidase when administered

A

Imipenem

41
Q

Which among tetracyclines is derived from fluorocyclines

A

Eravacycline

42
Q

Which among tetracyclines is useful in the treatment for inappropriate secretion of ADH

A

Demeclocycline

43
Q

What is the ratio of Streptogramins

A

70% Dalfopristin (Strep A)
30% Quinupristin (Strep B)

44
Q

What is the target molecule of Streptogramins (MOA)

A

Inhibition of Protein synthesis by binding 50S Ribosomal RNA

45
Q

What is the target molecule of Linezolid

A

23S of the 50S RIbosomal Unit

46
Q

What part of the combination regimen in the treatment of H. pylori

A

Tetracycline

47
Q

What is the clinical application of streptomycin

A

Tuberculosis
Plague
Tularemia
MDR strains of MTB

48
Q

What agent is reserved for serious infections resistant to aminoglycoside

A

Netilmicin

49
Q

Which is not recommended in the treatment of pharyngeal gonococcal infections

A

Spectinomycin

50
Q

What is the MOA of Trimethoprim

A

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

51
Q

What is the MOA of Sulfonamide

A

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthase

52
Q

Drug of choice for P. jirovecii infection

A

Co-Trimoxazole/Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole

53
Q

Drug of choice for the prophylaxis in treatment anthrax

A

Fluoroquinolones: Ciprofloxacin

54
Q

3rd Gen Fluoroquinolones

A

Levofloxacin, Gatifloxacin, Sparfloxacin

55
Q

What is a respiratory fluoroquinolone used to treat pneumonia; second line TB

A

Levofloxacin (Single Dosing)

56
Q

Dose-dependent visual disturbances

A

Ethambutol

57
Q

What treatment is used for tuberculosis patients with HIV

A

Rifabutin

58
Q

What is the Drug of Choice for the treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex

A

Clarithromycin / Azithromycin

59
Q

What is the MOA of dapsone

A

Inhibition of Folic Acid

60
Q

Inhibits Mycolic Acid Synthesis

A

Isoniazid

61
Q

What inhibits your DNA-dependent-RNA polymerase

A

Rifampicin

62
Q

What vaccines are given at birth?

A

BCG
Hepatitis B

63
Q

What Vaccines are Live-Attenuated

A

Measles, Mumps, Rubella
Varicella
Rotavirus
(MMRV-BOY)

64
Q

When is 5 in 1 Vaccine given

A

6, 10, 14 weeks of age,
4, 6 years old,
then every 10 years

for Tetanus & Pertussis

65
Q

What vaccines can be given orally?

A

Oral polio: Salk: Live Vaccine

66
Q

Antigen that is able to induce an immune response

A

Immunogen

67
Q

Can elicit an immune response;
Some are combined with antibodies

A

Vaccines

68
Q

They could develop faster immunity but could become a full-blown disease if you have a weak immune system

A

Live Vaccines

pcol (6 decks)

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