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FB1 Past Exams > extra physiology Q's (endterm) > Flashcards

extra physiology Q's (endterm) Flashcards

1
Q

What’s the main component of tight junctions?

a. claudin
b. occludin

A

a. claudin

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2
Q

How does glucose enter the intestinal cells?

a. primary transport
b. secondary transport
c. tertiary transport
d. facilitated diffusion

A

b. secondary transport

Na driven glucose symports

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3
Q

How does glucose leave intestinal cells and go into the blood?

a. primary transport
b. secondary transport
c. tertiary transport
d. facilitated diffusion

A

d. facilitated diffusion

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4
Q

Which is found in the basolateral surface?

a. heregulin
b. heregulin receptors

A

b. heregulin receptors

a= apical surface

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5
Q

What do desmosomes use to anchor cells?

a. actin filaments
b. cytoskeletal filaments

A

b. cytoskeletal filaments

hemidesmosomes use actin filaments AKA microfilaments

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6
Q

Which connects cells to ECM?

a. anchoring proteins
b. Integrin proteins

A

b. Integrin proteins

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7
Q

What helps convert integrins from an inactive bent form to an extended primed state?

a. IPP
b. Src
c. Talin

A

c. talin

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8
Q

Which is a monomer?

a. F-actin
b. G-actin

A

b. G-actin

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9
Q

Which is added to bound protein to produce microfilaments?

a. F-actin
b. G-actin

A

a. F-actin

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10
Q

Which is located on cell edges?

a. actin
b. tubulin
c. nucleus
d. myosin I

A

a. actin

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11
Q

Which is responsible for cell shape and locomotion?

a. actin
b. tubulin
c. nucleus

A

a. actin

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12
Q

Which is responsible for mitosis?

a. actin
b. tubulin
c. nucleus

A

b. tubulin

tubulin forms microtubules which are responsible for mitosis

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13
Q

Which of the following is responsible for major cell movement?

a. membrane shuttle movement
b. Integrin shuttle movement

A

b. Integrin shuttle movement

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14
Q

What stops actin polymerization?

a. cytochalasins
b. phalloidin

A

a. cytochalasins

phalloidin inhibits depolymerization

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15
Q

Which is NOT a function of myosin I?

a. regulate tension
b. maintain cell shape
c. aid in cell movement
d. bind actin filaments and cellular membranes
e. aid in endo- and exocytosis

A

c. aid in cell movement

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16
Q

Where do lipids bind myosin I?

a. TH1 domain
b. Motor domain
c. Neck region

A

a. TH1 domain

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17
Q

Where does ATP bind myosin I?

a. TH1 domain
b. Motor domain
c. Neck region
d. THA domain

A

b. Motor domain

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18
Q

Which cannot work alone?

a. myosin I
b. myosin II
c. myosin V

A

c. myosin V

it’s a dimeric motor protein

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19
Q

When does myosin V dissociate from actin?

a. when ATP binds
b. when ADP is released
c. when the phosphate is released

A

a. when ATP binds

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20
Q

Which initiates the waiting stage of myosin V?

a. when ATP binds
b. when ADP is released
c. when the phosphate is released

A

c. when the phosphate is released

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21
Q

What protein makes a thick filament?

a. actin
b. myosin

A

b. myosin

actin = thin filament

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22
Q

Where are the microtubules located?

a. in the nucleus
b. edges of cell
c. in the middle of the cell

A

c. in the middle of the cell

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23
Q

Which side of microtubules does polymerization take place (which side is the positive side)?

a. α-tubulin
b. β-tubulin

A

b. β-tubulin

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24
Q

Which of the following microtubules will rapidly dissociate?

a. one with mostly GTP bound tubulin
b. one with mostly GDP bound tubulin
c. one with completely GDP bound tubulin

A

c. one with completely GDP bound tubulin

it always needs to be active

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25
Q

In mitosis, which microtubule end is facing the microtubule organizing center?

a. α-tubulin
b. β-tubulin

A

a. α-tubulin

the negative side

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26
Q

In mitosis, which microtubule end is facing the cell edge?

a. α-tubulin
b. β-tubulin

A

b. β-tubulin

the positive side

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27
Q

Which is responsible for retrograde transport?

a. Kinesin
b. Dynein

A

b. Dynein

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28
Q

Kinesin & Dynein proteins travel on

a. Microfilaments
b. Microtubules

A

b. Microtubules

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29
Q

myosin proteins travel on

a. Microfilaments
b. Microtubules

A

a. Microfilaments

actin microfilaments

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30
Q

Keratin is classifies as a

a. Microfilament
b. Intermediate Filament
c. Microtubule

A

b. Intermediate Filaments

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31
Q

Flagella and cilia are both made of

a. Microfilaments
b. Microtubules

A

b. Microtubules

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32
Q

How many polypeptides does it take to produce one Intermediate Filament?

a. 8
b. 10
c. 13
d. 4

A

a. 8

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33
Q

Desmosomes use what to anchor cells together?

a. Microfilaments
b. Intermediate Filaments
c. Microtubules

A

b. Intermediate Filaments

aka cytoskeletal filaments

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34
Q

Which of the following is anisotropic to light?

a. A band
b. I band
c. H zone
d. Z disc

A

a. A band

it’s dark

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35
Q

Which of the following only has myosin?

a. A band
b. I band
c. H zone
d. Z disc

A

c. H zone

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36
Q

Sarcomere is the area between two ____

a. A bands
b. I bands
c. H zones
d. Z discs

A

d. Z discs

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37
Q

What attaches actin filaments together?

a. A band
b. I band
c. H zone
d. Z disc

A

d. Z disc

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38
Q

What causes conformational changes in myosin causing it to bind to actin?

a. ATP hydrolyzed
b. new ATP binds
c. ADP is released
d. Pi is released

A

d. Pi is released

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39
Q

What allows myosin to release from actin?

a. ATP hydrolyzed
b. new ATP binds
c. ADP is released
d. Pi is released

A

b. new ATP binds

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40
Q

Which of the following blocks actin from attaching to myosin?

a. Tropomyosin
b. Troponin

A

a. Tropomyosin

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41
Q

What doesn’t get smaller during a muscle contraction?

a. A band
b. I band
c. H zone

A

a. A band

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42
Q

the staircase mechanism of muscle contraction is also called

a. Summation
b. Twitch
c. Graded contraction
d. Tetanus

A

c. Graded contraction

or treppe

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43
Q

What occurs when the load is greater than the tension?

a. Concentric contraction
b. Eccentric contraction
c. Isometric contraction

A

c. Isometric contraction

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44
Q

What causes Phospholamban Protein (PLB) to open the ER and let the calcium go in?

a. Phosphorylation
b. Dephosphorylation

A

a. Phosphorylation

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45
Q

Which of the following have vertically arranged myosin filaments?

a. cardiac muscle
b. skeletal muscle
c. smooth muscle

A

c. smooth muscle

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46
Q

Which of the following causes more smooth muscle contraction?

a. more calmodulin-calcium complex
b. low MLCK to MLCP ratio
c. myosin phosphatase activation

A

a. more calmodulin-calcium complex

this complex activates MLCK, which activates MLC causing contractions

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47
Q

Which is a source of intracellular calcium?

a. L-type calcium channels
b. Receptor-operated channels
c. Mechanosensitive channels
d. Inositol trisphosphate receptor channels

A

d. Inositol trisphosphate receptor channels

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48
Q

Which of the following causes depolarization?

a. opening Ca-regulated chloride channels
b. opening potassium channels
c. Na/K-ATPase channels

A

a. opening Ca-regulated chloride channels

b & c cause repolarization

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49
Q

Which of the following opens by depolarization?

a. receptor operated channels
b. store operates channels
c. L type calcium channels
d. ryanodine receptor channels

A

c. L type calcium channels

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50
Q

How does Rho-kinase activation lead to muscle contraction?

a. Rho-kinase activates MLCK
b. Rho-kinase activates MLCP
c. Rho-kinase inactivates MLCP

A

c. Rho-kinase inactivates MLCP (by phosphorylating it)

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51
Q

in VSMC, cAMP & cGMP promote

a. contraction
b. relaxation

A

b. relaxation

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52
Q

What hydrolysis cAMP & cGMP, thus causing VSMC contraction?

a. Acetylcholine
b. Epinephrine
c. Phosphodiesterases

A

c. Phosphodiesterases (PDE)

inhibit PDE to relax VSMC

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53
Q

What do cAMP & cGMP do?

a. activate protein-kinases PKA and PKG
b. inactivate protein-kinases PKA and PKG

A

a. activate protein-kinases PKA and PKG

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54
Q

Which of the following does pars nervosa secrete?

a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
c. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
d. Luteinizing hormone (LH)

A

c. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

ADH and oxytocin = produced in Posterior Pituitary aka pars nervosa

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55
Q

Which of the following is inhibited by dopamine?

a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
d. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
e. Prolactin (PRL)
f. Growth hormone (GH)

A

e. Prolactin (PRL)

dopamine is also known as prolactin inhibiting hormone

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56
Q

Which of the following works to decrease calcium levels?

a. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
b. Calcitriol (D3)
c. Calcitonin

A

c. Calcitonin

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57
Q

What type of cell in islets of Langerhan makes glucagon?

a. α-cells
b. β-cells

A

a. α-cells

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58
Q

What type of cell in islets of Langerhan makes insulin?

a. α-cells
b. β-cells

A

b. β-cells

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59
Q

An access of which of the following causes high calcium levels?

a. Calcitriol
b. Calcitonin

A

a. Calcitriol

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60
Q

What is the relationship between Arterial blood volume & pressure?

a. directly proportional
b. indirectly proportional

A

a. directly proportional

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61
Q

How does the cross-sectional area of a vessel effect velocity?

a. directly proportional
b. indirectly proportional

A

b. indirectly proportional

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62
Q

In which of the following is blood velocity higher?

a. capillaries
b. aorta

A

b. aorta

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63
Q

What reduces the risk of turbulent flow?

a. narrowed vessels
b. higher velocity
c. higher viscosity
d. anemia

A

c. higher viscosity

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64
Q

What has the highest volume of blood?

a. arteries
b. veins

A

b. veins

more compliant

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65
Q

Which of the following occurs when the blood is relaxed?

a. diastole
b. systole

A

a. diastole

66
Q

Which of the following does NOT have transporting epithelium?

a. endocrine glands
b. exocrine glands
c. intestine
d. kidney

A

b. exocrine glands

67
Q

Which connects the endothelial cells to the underlying
basement membrane?
a. Desmosomes
b. Hemidesmosomes

A

b. Hemidesmosomes

68
Q

What determines the permeability of the tight junctions to Na+ in the kidney?

a. claudin-4
b. claudin-16
c. claudin-22

A

a. claudin-4

69
Q

What determines the permeability of the tight junctions to divalent cations in the thick ascending limb of Henle’s loop (TALH)?

a. claudin-4
b. claudin-16
c. claudin-22

A

b. claudin-16

70
Q

An axoneme is a structure that encapules

a. cilia
b. microvili

A

a. cilia

71
Q

What’s resposnsible for cilia movemnent?

a. Kinesin
b. Dynein

A

b. Dynein

72
Q

Which part of the kidney has a brush border?

a. distal tubule
b. thick ascending limb
c. proximal tubule

A

c. proximal tubule

73
Q

Which is responsible for reabsorption of Na+ and secretion of K+?

a. Principal cells
b. Intercalated cells

A

a. Principal cells

74
Q

Which is responsible for regulating acid-base balance?

a. Principal cells
b. Intercalated cells

A

b. Intercalated cells

75
Q

Which of the following occurs via simple diffusion?

a. transcellular transport
b. paracellular transport

A

b. paracellular transport

76
Q

Which of the following crosses tight junctions?

a. transcellular transport
b. paracellular transport

A

b. paracellular transport

77
Q

What has a gated water channel?

a. humans
b. birds
c. plants
d. fish

A

c. plants

78
Q

How do you control water movement into and out of the cell?

a. phsophorylate aquaporins
b. dephsophorylate aquaporins
c. changing the number of aquaporins

A

c. changing the number of aquaporins

79
Q

Which of the following is an antiporter?

a. Na+ K+ 2Cl- transporter (NKCC2)
b. GLUT2 transporter
c. Na+-H transporter (NHE-1)

A

c. Na+-H transporter (NHE-1)

80
Q

Which of the following is a symporter?

a. Na+ K+ 2Cl- transporter (NKCC2)
b. GLUT2 transporter
c. Na+-H transporter (NHE-1)

A

a. Na+ K+ 2Cl- transporter (NKCC2)

81
Q

Which TWO of the following have claudin-2?

a. proximal tubule
b. thin descending limb
c. collecting duct claudin-3, 4 and 8
d. distal tubule

A

a. proximal tubule
&
b. thin descending limb

82
Q

Which TWO of the following have claudin 3, 4 and 8?

a. proximal tubule
b. thin descending limb
c. collecting duct
d. distal tubule

A

c. collecting duct
&
d. distal tubule

83
Q

What describes the function of Aldosterone?

a. K+ reabsorption
b. Na+ reabsorption
c. Na|+ secretion

A

b. Na+ reabsorption

and K+ secretion

84
Q

What occurs when the BP is too high?

a. Sympathetic Nervous System is inhibited
b. Parasympathetic Nervous System is inhibited

A

a. Sympathetic Nervous System is inhibited

85
Q

What occurs when the BP is too low?

a. Sympathetic Nervous System is activated
b. Parasympathetic Nervous System is activated

A

a. Sympathetic Nervous System is activated

86
Q

Which is most likely released when BP gets too high?

a. Acetylcholine
b. Noradrenaline

A

a. Acetylcholine

87
Q

Which of the folloiwing sites for body temperature monitoring has a higher temperature?

a. axillary
b. rectal
c. oral

A

b. rectal

88
Q

What controls body temperature?

A

Thermoregulatory Neurons in the Preoptic Area of Hypothalamus (POA)

89
Q

When is the body temperature the lowest?

a. after a shower
b. late at night
c. early in the morning
d. six hours after you wake up

A

c. early in the morning

90
Q

when does the body temperature of a female increase by 0.5 celcius?

a. during menstruation
b. after menstruation
c. before ovulation
d. after ovulation

A

d. after ovulation

91
Q

during rest, which method does the body lose more heat out of?

a. convection
b. evaporation
c. radiation
d. conduction

A

c. radiation

92
Q

during exercise, which method does the body lose more heat out of?

a. convection
b. evaporation
c. radiation
d. conduction

A

b. evaporation

93
Q

Where are cold receptors more abundant than warm receptors?

a. Central thermoreceptors
b. Peripheral thermoreceptors

A

b. Peripheral thermoreceptors

94
Q

Which have more warm than cold thermoreceptors?

a. Central thermoreceptors
b. Peripheral thermoreceptors

A

a. Central thermoreceptors

95
Q

Which response is more appropriate during cold weather?

a. vasodilation
b. vasoconstriction

A

b. vasoconstriction

96
Q

Which response is more appropriate for Kuwait’s weather?

a. vasodilation
b. vasoconstriction

A

a. vasodilation

increase heat loss

97
Q

describe the thermoregulatory mechanism of a neonate

a. high heat loss after birth due to evaporation, which causes shivering to maintain the heat
b. high heat loss after birth due to evaporation, which causes non-shivering thermogenesis to maintain the heat
c. cannot maintain heat and need direct body contact to survive

A

b. high heat loss after birth due to evaporation, which causes non-shivering thermogenesis to maintain the heat

98
Q

Which of the following occurs due to higher body set point?

a. hypothermia
b. hyperthermia
c. fever

A

c. fever

99
Q

During an episode of fever, Amani experiences a crisis/flush. Which of the following is more accurate?

a. her body set point decreased
b. her body set point increased
c. she may have a heart attack

A

a. her body set point decreased

100
Q

To block fever development, we must stop the production of…

a. Prostaglandin E2
b. Progesterone E2
c. Salicylate
d. IL-2

A

a. Prostaglandin E2

101
Q

Describe the thermogenic regulation of people living in the artic

a. lower resting BMR
b. lower levels of T3
c. hyperthyroidism
d. more vasoconstriction of fingers

A

c. hyperthyroidism

102
Q

Describe the thermogenic regulation of people that are acclimatized to the heat.

a. higher salt secretion in sweat
b. sweat secretion starts at lower set point
c. sweat secretion starts at higher set point

A

b. sweat secretion starts at lower set point

103
Q

What is the function of incretins?

a. the stimulate an increase in blood glucose levels
b. they activate leptin
c. released after eating to help insulin release

A

c. released after eating to help insulin release

104
Q

Which of the following is the hunger center?

a. ventromedial nucleus
b. lateral hypothalamus
c. paraventricular nucleus

A

b. lateral hypothalamus

105
Q

Which of the following has an anorexigenic function?

a. POMC neurons
b. NYP neurons
c. AgRP neurons

A

a. POMC neurons

106
Q

Which has a slow response to food intake?

a. GABA
b. Neuropeptides
c. Glutamate

A

b. Neuropeptides

107
Q

Which of the following does leptin & insulin stimulate?

a. POMC neurons
b. NYP neurons
c. AgRP neurons

A

a. POMC neurons

108
Q

How are AgRP neurons affected by Ghrelin?

a. activated
b. inhibited

A

a. activated

ghrelin= hunger
AgRP neuron= stimulates appetite

109
Q

Whats describes the relationship between Ghrelin and Growth Hormone?

a. directly proportional
b. inversely proportional

A

a. directly proportional

110
Q

How does the BMI scale evaluate a mesomorph body type?

a. underestimate
b. overestimate

A

b. overestimate

111
Q

How does the BMI scale evaluate a endomorph body type?

a. underestimate
b. overestimate

A

a. underestimate

112
Q

mutations in the MC4 gene+ cause

a. leptin deficiency
b. leptin resistance
c. leptin

A

b. leptin resistance

113
Q

describe the diet of a person that has a rate of oxygen utilization of 4.8 cal per L of oxygen

a. mostly fat diet
b. mostly carbs diet
c. mostly protein diet
d. mixed diet

A

d. mixed diet

114
Q

describe the diet of a person that has a rate of oxygen utilization of 5.01 cal per L of oxygen

a. mostly fat diet
b. mostly carbs diet
c. mostly protein diet
d. mixed diet

A

b. mostly carbs diet

115
Q

Which has a higher buffering power?

a. plasma proteins
b. hemoglobin

A

b. hemoglobin

116
Q

How does histidine buffer?

A

imidazole group does buffering

117
Q

Which compartment has the highest amount of the bicarbonate buffer?

a. intracellular
b. extracellular

A

b. extracellular

118
Q

Which compartment has the highest amount of the phosphate buffer?

a. intracellular
b. extracellular

A

a. intracellular

119
Q

If the base excess of a patient is 4, what can you conclude?

A

metabolic acidosis. It takes more bicarbonate to get the blood to the normal PH, meaning it is more acidic.

120
Q

if the base excess is 1, what can you conclude?

A

metabolic alkalosis because it takes less bicarbonate to get the blood to a normal PH, which means it’s alkaline

121
Q

What can you conclude about a patient with a healthy kidney that has a high anion gap?

a. has lots of basic components
b. has lots of acidic components

A

b. has lots of acidic components

more acid in the blood leads to less bicarbonate-because it buffers the acid- and thus a higher anion gap

122
Q

Which makes the anion gap smaller?

a. lactate
b. H
c. Cl
d. Na

A

c. Cl

123
Q

What causes an increased strong ion difference (SID)?

a. high Na+
b. low Na+
c. high lactate

A

a. high Na+

124
Q

A decreased strong ion difference (SID) is caused by

A

low Na+
aggressive administration of Normal Saline
severe diarrhea
high lactate

125
Q

What causes an increased strong ion difference (SID)?

a. severe diarrhea
b. aggressive administration of Normal Saline
c. low Cl-
d. low Na+

A

c. low Cl-

126
Q

Long term potentiation occurs mostly in

a. cholinergic synapses
b. glutamatergic synapses

A

b. glutamatergic synapses

127
Q

Which of the following are increased in effectiveness via phosphorylation during LTP?

a. NMDA receptor
b. AMPA receptor

A

a. NMDA receptor

128
Q

Which of the following has lower postsynaptic calcium levels?

a. LTP
b. LTD
c. Rest

A

c. Rest

129
Q

What occurs after prolonged low-frequency stimulation?

a. LTP
b. LTD

A

b. LTD

130
Q

Which is a correct compensatory mechanism for metabolic alkalosis?

a. increase H+ secretion via kidneys
b. decrease HCO3 secretion via kidneys
c. hyperventilate
d. hypoventilate

A

d. hypoventilate

131
Q

Which is a correct compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis?

a. increase H+ secretion via kidneys
b. increase HCO3 secretion via kidneys
c. hypoventilate

A

a. increase H+ secretion via kidneys

132
Q

describe the acid-base properties of chloride

a. strong acid
b. weak acid
c. strong base
d. weak base

A

d. weak base

133
Q

A morbidly obese person who is hypoventilating most likely has

a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis

A

a. respiratory acidosis

134
Q

What buffers CO2?

a. kidney
b. lungs
c. hemoglobin

A

c. hemoglobin

(CO2 buffered entirely by hemoglobin

135
Q

What is a requirement of CO2 buffering?

a. Mg
b. H
c. Cl
d. PO4

A

c. Cl

136
Q

Generally speaking, which of the following innervates organs?

a. Preganglionic neuron
b. Postganglionic neuron

A

b. Postganglionic neuron

137
Q

Cells in the adrenal medulla receive innervation from

a. Preganglionic neuron
b. Postganglionic neuron

A

a. Preganglionic neuron

138
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the otic ganglion?

a. Oculomotor nerve
b. Facial nerve
c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
d. Vagus nerve

A

b. Facial nerve

139
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the ciliary ganglion?

a. Oculomotor nerve
b. Facial nerve
c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
d. Vagus nerve

A

a. Oculomotor nerve

140
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the stomach?

a. Oculomotor nerve
b. Facial nerve
c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
d. Vagus nerve

A

d. Vagus nerve

141
Q

Which of the following is unmyelinated?

a. Preganglionic neuron
b. Postganglionic neuron

A

b. Postganglionic neuron

142
Q

Which is degraded by monoamine oxidase and catecholamine-O-methyl transferase?

a. Adrenaline
b. Acetylcholine

A

a. Adrenaline

143
Q

Preganglionic neurons always secrete

a. Adrenaline
b. Acetylcholine

A

b. Acetylcholine

144
Q

Postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system secrete

a. Adrenaline
b. Acetylcholine

A

a. Adrenaline

145
Q

Postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system secrete

a. Adrenaline
b. Acetylcholine

A

b. Acetylcholine

146
Q

Which of the following cholinergic receptor is always stimulatory?

a. Nicotinic Receptors
b. Muscarinic Receptors

A

a. Nicotinic Receptors

147
Q

Which of the following is a potassium channel?

a. Nicotinic Receptors
b. Muscarinic Receptors

A

b. Muscarinic Receptors

148
Q

which of the following increases heart rate?

a. α1 receptors
b. α2 receptors
c. β1 receptors
d. β2 receptors
e. β3 receptors

A

c. β1 receptors

149
Q

which of the following relaxes the muscles in the airway?

a. α1 receptors
b. α2 receptors
c. β1 receptors
d. β2 receptors
e. β3 receptors

A

d. β2 receptors

150
Q

What causes pupil constriction?

a. Sympathetic stimulation
b. Parasympathetic stimulation

A

b. Parasympathetic stimulation

151
Q

What causes high glucose release?

a. Sympathetic stimulation
b. Parasympathetic stimulation

A

a. Sympathetic stimulation

152
Q

Which hemoglobin has a higher affinity to oxygen?

a. fetal hemoglobin
b. adult hemoglobin

A

a. fetal hemoglobin

153
Q

What’s the driving force of oxygen transport?

a. partial pressure
b. affinity

A

b. affinity

154
Q

What’s the most effective way of increasing the oxygen content of water?

a. increasing the partial pressure
b. adding hemoglobin

A

b. adding hemoglobin

155
Q

What’s the relationship between affinity and the partial pressure of oxygen?

a. directly proportional
b. inversely proportional

A

b. inversely proportional

156
Q

Which of the following increase the partial pressure of oxygen?

a. lower temperature
b. lower pH
c. low partial pressure of carbon dioxide

A

b. lower pH

157
Q

Which of the following increases oxygen affinity?

a. higher temperature
b. higher pH
c. lower pH

A

b. higher pH

more basic pH

158
Q

Which of the following decreases oxygen affinity?

a. lower temperature
b. higher temperature
c. lower pH

A

b. higher temperature

159
Q

Which of the following is a weaker acid?

a. oxygenated Hb
b. deoxygenated Hb

A

b. deoxygenated Hb

160
Q

Which of the following best describes the Bohr effect?

a. the higher the CO2 concentration, the higher the oxygen affinity
b. the higher the CO2 concentration, the lower the oxygen affinity

A

b. the higher the CO2 concentration, the lower the oxygen affinity

FB1 Past Exams (42 decks)

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