Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FB1 Past Exams > extra biochem Q's (midterm) > Flashcards

extra biochem Q's (midterm) Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following histone proteins doesn’t participate in forming an octamer protein complex?

a. H1
b. H2A
c. H2B
d. H3
e. H4

A

a. H1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is the function of H1 histone protein?

a. 10-bp linker nucleotide stabilization
b. 30-bp linker nucleotide stabilization
c. 50-bp linker nucleotide stabilization

A

b. 30-bp linker nucleotide stabilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following required cooling?

a. denaturation
b. melting temperature
c. renaturation

A

c. renaturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In which of the following is half of the DNA denatured?

a. denaturation
b. melting temperature
c. renaturation

A

b. melting temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following has a higher melting temperature?

a. G-C rich DNA
b. A-T rich DNA

A

a. G-C rich DNA

because the G-C bond has 3 hydrogen bonds unlike the A-T which have two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What’s true about prokaryotic gene?

a. they don’t have a promoter region
b. they don’t have introns

A

b. they don’t have introns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What percent of the human genome is repetitive sequences?

a. 33%
b. 47%
c. 53%

A

b. 47%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which best describes Alu elements?

a. promote gene inactivation
b. promote gene activation

A

a. promote gene inactivation

they do this by inserting themselves in or near genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where do Alu elements belong?

a. LINEs
b. SINEs
c. LTR
d. Satelight DNA

A

b. SINEs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following does the DnaA protein bind to so it can separate the DNA?

a. replication fork
b. satellite region
c. origin of replication

A

c. origin of replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What best describes the origin of replication?

a. recognized by helicase
b. has A-T rich sequences
c. needs cool temperature to open

A

b. has A-T rich sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is the function of single stranded binding proteins?

a. protects DNA from nuclease degradation
b. helps keep the two DNA strands separate
c. both
d. neither

A

c. both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is FALSE about helicase?

a. binds to origin of replication
b. breaks hydrogen bonds
c. uses ATP for energy

A

a. binds to origin of replication

it binds to the replication fork created by DNA A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following relaxes the supercoiled DNA?

a. helicase
b. topoisomerase
c. DNA polymerase III
d. primase

A

b. topoisomerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is a holoenzyme?

a. helicase
b. topoisomerase
c. DNA polymerase III
d. primase

A

c. DNA polymerase III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is the acceptor site of RNA primer?

a. 5-OH
b. 3-OH
c. 3’-OH
d. 5’-OH

A

c. 3’-OH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which characterizes the lagging strand?

a. goes in the 3->5 direction
b. needs one RNA primer
c. synthesized in the direction towards the replication fork
d. synthesized in the direction opposite to the replication fork

A

d. synthesized in the direction opposite to the replication fork

(its made in the 5’->3’ direction by using many RNA primers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following DNA polymerase III subunit proofreads?

a. α subunit
b. θ subunit
c. ε subunit

A

c. ε subunit

proofreads in the 3’->5’ direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following fills in the DNA gap made by the RNA primer in the prokaryotic cell?

a. DNA polymerase I
b. DNA ligase
c. polymerase ε
d. exonuclease

A

a. DNA polymerase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following fills in the DNA gap made by the RNA primer in the eukaryotic cell?

a. DNA polymerase I
b. DNA ligase
c. polymerase ε
d. exonuclease

A

c. polymerase ε

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What’s true about telomerase?

a. acts as RNA primer
b. acts as a reverse transcriptase
c. active in all cells

A

b. acts as a reverse transcriptase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What exonuclease activity does the prokaryotic DNA Polymerase I have?

a. 5’->3’
b. 3’->5’
c. both

A

c. both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What exonuclease activity does the prokaryotic DNA Polymerase III have?

a. 5’->3’
b. 3’->5’
c. both

A

b. 3’->5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Didanosine is an analog of

a. Guanosine
b. Adenosine
c. Thymidine
d. Adenine

A

b. Adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Zidovudine is an analog of

a. Guanosine
b. Adenosine
c. Thymidine
d. Adenine

A

c. Thymidine

Zidovudine= Azidothymidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Camptothecin (CPT) inhibits which of the following?

a. ligase
b. topoisomerase I
c. topoisomerase II
d. DNA polymerase

A

b. topoisomerase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Etoposide inhibits which of the following?

a. ligase
b. topoisomerase I
c. topoisomerase II
d. DNA polymerase

A

c. topoisomerase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Depurination and deamination both occur because of what reaction?

a. oxidation reaction
b. hydrolysis reaction
c. transversion mutation

A

b. hydrolysis reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of mutation does depurination cause?

a. deletion mutation
b. transition mutation
c. transversion mutation

A

a. deletion mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of mutation does deamination cause?

a. deletion mutation
b. transition mutation
c. transversion mutation

A

b. transition mutation

cytosine to thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What type of mutation does ROS mediated damage cause?

a. deletion mutation
b. transition mutation
c. transversion mutation

A

c. transversion mutation

= a (two ring) purine is changed for a (one ring) pyrimidine, or vice versa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of mutation does a tautomeric shift cause?

a. deletion mutation
b. transition mutation

A

b. transition mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following is an example of structural DNA damage?

a. deamination
b. depurination
c. thymine dimers
d. tautomeric shift

A

c. thymine dimers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following mutations cause an amino acid change?

a. missense
b. nonsense
c. makesense
d. silent mutation

A

a. missense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following mutations causes the synthesis of a completely different protein?

a. missense
b. nonsense
c. frameshift mutation
d. silent mutation

A

c. frameshift mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following corrects deamination mutation?

a. mismatch repair
b. base excision repair
c. nucleotide excision repair

A

b. base excision repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following corrects pyrimidine dimes?

a. mismatch repair
b. base excision repair
c. nucleotide excision repair

A

c. nucleotide excision repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following repair system failures is responsible for Ataxia-telangiectasia mutation (ATM)?

a. mismatch repair
b. base excision repair
c. nucleotide excision repair

A

b. base excision repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following repair system failures is responsible for hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer?

a. mismatch repair
b. base excision repair
c. nucleotide excision repair

A

a. mismatch repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following repair system failures is responsible for xeroderma pigmentosum (XP)?

a. mismatch repair
b. base excision repair
c. nucleotide excision repair

A

c. nucleotide excision repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the function fo Taq DNA Polymerase?

a. create cDNA
b. make the DNA more stable so it doesn’t denature
c. hold the DNA open for the replicating enzymes to work

A

b. make the DNA more stable so it doesn’t denature

Taq= Thermus aquaticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

how many PCR cycles does it take to get the target sequence to appear?

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 8

A

a. 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

If you have one initial substrate, how many PCR cycles does it take to make 16 products?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

A

b. 4

product= (2)^number of cycles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The annealing temperature (Tm) depends on primer size. What temperature is necessary for annealing this sequence “ACA ATG”?

a. 14
b. 16
c. 18
d. 20

A

b. 16

Tm=2x(# of AT) + 4x(# of CG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which of the following terminates DNA synthesis?

a. dNTP
b. ddNTP
c. dCTP
d. dTTP

A

b. ddNTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

which of the following has a red dye?

a. ddATP
b. ddGTP
c. ddCTP
d. ddTTP

A

d. ddTTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

which of the following has a black dye?

a. ddATP
b. ddGTP
c. ddCTP
d. ddTTP

A

b. ddGTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

T/F: amplification of sanger’s method geometrically progressive

A

False, the method only uses one primer, so it cannot grow exponentially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

which of the following has a green dye?

a. ddATP
b. ddGTP
c. ddCTP
d. ddTTP

A

a. ddATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what defines the target sequence of PCR?

a. the dye
b. the primer
c. dNTP

A

b. the primer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

which of the following has a blue dye?

a. ddATP
b. ddGTP
c. ddCTP
d. ddTTP

A

c. ddCTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the following is the smallest?

a. tRNA
b. rRNA
c. mRNA

A

a. tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following is the most heterogeneous type (can have varying lengths)?

a. tRNA
b. rRNA
c. mRNA

A

c. mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which of the following is the most common?

a. tRNA
b. rRNA
c. mRNA

A

b. rRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which of the following is more active?

a. euchromatin
b. heterochromatin

A

a. euchromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which of the following is more positive?

a. euchromatin
b. heterochromatin

A

b. heterochromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which of the following is a pre-requisite for mRNA?

a. RNA polymerase I
b. RNA polymerase II
c. RNA polymerase III

A

b. RNA polymerase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which of the following is a pre-requisite for rRNA?

a. RNA polymerase I
b. RNA polymerase II
c. RNA polymerase III

A

a. RNA polymerase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which of the following is a pre-requisite for tRNA?

a. RNA polymerase I
b. RNA polymerase II
c. RNA polymerase III

A

c. RNA polymerase III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which of the following promoters is farthest away from the start of transcription?

a. Hogness box
b. CAAT box
c. TATA box

A

b. CAAT box

Hogness box= TATA box

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which of the following unwinds the local DNA?

a. RNA polymerase I
b. RNA polymerase II
c. RNA polymerase III

A

b. RNA polymerase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does the death cap mushroom do?

a. inhibits mRNA synthesis by binding to RNA poly II
b. causes ROS build up by inhibiting mitochondrial activity
c. adds acetyl group to chromatin to unwind and tangle all DNA

A

a. inhibits mRNA synthesis by binding to RNA poly II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

mRNA does through co- and post-transcriptional modifications. Which of the following is a post-transcriptional modification?

a. 5’ capping
b. 3’ poly-A tail

A

b. 3’ poly-A tail

a= co-transcription because the mRNA needs to be protected and stabilized right away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which of the following needed an ATP substrate to install?

a. 5’ capping
b. 3’ poly-A tail

A

b. 3’ poly-A tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

In what direction os the 5’ cap added?

a. 3’->5’
b. 5’->3’
c. 5’->5’

A

c. 5’->5’

triphosphate linkage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which of the following aid in intron splicing?

a. snRNA
b. snRNPs
c. snoRNA
d. miRNA

A

b. snRNPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which RNA splicing mutation type originated because of a homozygous mutation?

a. β0 thalassemia
b. β+ thalassemia

A

a. β0 thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which RNA splicing mutation type originated because of a point mutation?

a. β0 thalassemia
b. β+ thalassemia

A

b. β+ thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which of the following mice is more likely to get diseases?

a. their mom is given a normal diet and supplements
b. the agouti gene is hypomethylated
c. the agouti gene is hypermethylated

A

b. the agouti gene is hypomethylated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which of the following bee is more likely to become a worker bee?

a. DNA methyltransferase gene is hypomethylated
b. DNA methyltransferase gene is hypermethylated
c. one given royal honey

A

a. DNA methyltransferase gene is hypomethylated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Where does methylation most commonly occur?

a. third carbon of CpG’s Guanine
b. fifth carbon of CpG’s Cytosine
c. third carbon of ApT’s Adenine
d. fifth carbon of ApT’s Thymine

A

b. fifth carbon of CpG’s Cytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which of the following induces gene expression?

a. acetylation of histones
b. deacetylation of histones

A

a. acetylation of histones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. housekeeping genes are expressed under certain conditions
b. cis-acting DNA elements attach to trans-acting molecules to activate or suppress genes
c. trans-acting molecules bind to cis-acting DNA elements to activate or suppress genes
d. trans-acting molecules are synthesized from the targeted gene

A

c. trans-acting molecules bind to cis-acting DNA elements to activate or suppress genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is FALSE about glucocorticoid receptor?

a. inactivated form found in the cytosol
b. responds to hormones
c. the steroid receptor complex needs a coactivator to regulate genes
d. they’re all true

A

d. they’re all true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which of the following is where the peptide bonds of proteins are formed?

a. A-site
b. P-site
c. E-site

A

a. A-site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which of the following is where free tRNA exits?

a. A-site
b. P-site
c. E-site

A

c. E-site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which of the following is where protein initiation begins?

a. A-site
b. P-site
c. E-site

A

b. P-site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the function of the anticodon arm of tRNA?

a. accepts new amino acids
b. read genetic codes

A

b. read genetic codes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which of the following delivered the third amino acid in a protein?

a. elongator tRNA
b. initiator tRNA

A

a. elongator tRNA

only the first AA is delivered by initiator tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the function of aa tRNA synthetase?

a. activate tRNAs into aa tRNA
b. helps free tRNA exit the ribosome
c. proof-read
d. A&B
e. B&C
e. A&C

A

e. A&C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the double-sieve proofreading mechanism?

a. proofreading site receives correct AA then it participates in translation
b. the hydrolytic site receives correct AA then it participates in translation
c. the hydrophobic site receives correct AA then it participates in translation
d. the hydrophilic site receives correct AA then it participates in translation

A

c. the hydrophobic site receives correct AA then it participates in translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which of the following amino acids is the first on in prokaryotes?

a. Methioine
b. fMethionine

A

b. fMeth

a= initiator aa of eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which of the following is the initiator codon?

a. AUG
b. UGA
c. UAG
d. UAA

A

a. AUG

the rest are stop codons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which of these factors inhibits 50s binding (in the 30S complex)?

a. IF1
b. IF2
c. IF3

A

c. IF3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Which of these factors blocks the A-site of the 30S complex?

a. IF1
b. IF2
c. IF3

A

a. IF1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which of these factors place initiator tRNA at the P-site (in the 30S complex)?

a. IF1
b. IF2
c. IF3

A

b. IF2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Which of these factors does NOT participate in joining the 50s subunit to the 30s complex?

a. IF1
b. IF2
c. IF3

A

c. IF3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

In which of the following does the first codon (AUG) lie in the Kozak sequence?

a. prokaryotic cells
b. eukaryotic cells

A

b. eukaryotic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Which elongation factor of prokaryotes stabilizes the aa tRNA and helps it get to the A-site?

a. Ts
b. Tu

A

b. Tu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Which of the following proteins start synthesis in the ribosome?

a. catagory 1
b. catagory 2
c. category 3
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Which of the following proteins end the synthesis in the ribosome?

a. catagory 1
b. catagory 2
c. category 3
d. A&B
e. A&C
f. all of the above

A

e. A&C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Which of the following proteins has a targeting sequence at the N-terminus that gets cleaved after it reaches its destination?

a. nuclear proteins
b. mitochondrial proteins
c. cytosol proteins
d. peroxisomal proteins

A

b. mitochondrial proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Which of the following proteins have a targeting sequence at the N-terminus that does NOT get cleaved after it reaches its destination?

a. nuclear proteins
b. mitochondrial proteins
c. cytosol proteins
d. peroxisomal proteins

A

a. nuclear proteins

94
Q

What is signal peptide?

A

Helps ribosomes couple to the ER

95
Q

Which is FALSE about signal peptide?

a. hydrophobic middle
b. function differs based on protein
c. present on the N-terminus
d. contains 15-36 amino acids

A

b. function differs based on protein

function is consensus, always the same

96
Q

Where does N-linked glycosylation occur?

a. cytoplasm
b. mitochondria
c. ER
d. golgi

A

c. ER

the enzymes are only present in the ER

97
Q

What best describes protein trafficking?

a. the move from the Golgi to the ER
b. the move from the ER to the Golgi
c. degrades proteins that are misfolded

A

b. the move from the ER to the Golgi

98
Q

Describe the exposed region of chaperones?

a. hydrophobic
b. hydrophilic

A

a. hydrophobic

99
Q

Which soluble proteins have an M6P marker?

a. nuclear proteins
b. mitochondrial proteins
c. cytosol proteins
d. lysosomal proteins

A

d. lysosomal proteins

100
Q

Which enzyme recognizes incorrectly folded proteins?

a. glucosyltransferase
b. glucosidase I
c. glucosidase II

A

a. glucosyltransferase

101
Q

Where does O-linked glycosylation occur?

a. cytoplasm
b. mitochondria
c. ER
d. golgi

A

d. golgi

102
Q

Which enzyme recognizes correctly folded proteins?

a. glucosyltransferase
b. glucosidase I
c. glucosidase II

A

c. glucosidase II

103
Q

Which of the following is involved in making the primary and secondary protein structure?

a. side chain
b. N-terminus
c. C-terminus
d. B&C

A

d. B&C

104
Q

Which of the following is involved in making the tertiary and quaternary protein structure?

a. side chain
b. N-terminus
c. C-terminus

A

a. side chain

105
Q

In which direction does the primary protein structure get synthesized?

a. C terminus to N terminus
b. N terminus to C terminus

A

b. N terminus to C terminus

106
Q

How do you identify the labeled amino acids during protein sequencing?

A

column chromatography

107
Q

Which of the following are formed by proline and glycine?

a. α helix
b. β sheet
c. β turn

A

c. β turn

a disruption in the secondary protein structure makes a β turn

108
Q

Describe the most commonly found α helix?

a. needs a minimum of 3 amino acids to make
b. needs a minimum of 4 amino acids to make
c. needs a minimum of 5 amino acids to make
d. heat stable

A

b. needs a minimum of 4 amino acids to make

109
Q

Which of the following structure has the highest concentration of α helix?

a. Myoglobin
b. Keratin
c. Chymotrypsin

A

b. Keratin

110
Q

Which describes the most commonly found β-Sheet?

a. parallel
b. antiparallel

A

b. antiparallel

111
Q

What are the functional parts of a secondary protein structure called?

a. motif
b. domain

A

a. motif

cannot function alone

112
Q

Describe the β sheets that make up β Barrels?

a. parallel
b. antiparallel

A

b. antiparallel

113
Q

What are the functional parts of a tertiary protein structure called?

a. motif
b. domain

A

b. domain

can function alone

114
Q

Quaternary structure subunits are held together by

a. S-S bond
b. Covalent bond
c. Non-covalent bond

A

c. Non-covalent bond

via side chain

115
Q

NAD+ is an example of which of the following?

a. isoenzyme
b. coenzyme
c. cofactor

A

b. coenzyme

116
Q

Which of the following is an isoenzyme indicating damage of heart muscle?

a. creatine kinase 1
b. creatine kinase 2
c. creatine kinase 3

A

b. creatine kinase 2

117
Q

Mg & Fe are examples of which of the following?

a. isoenzyme
b. coenzyme
c. cofactor

A

c. cofactor

118
Q

Which of the following is an isoenzyme indicating damage of skeletal muscle?

a. creatine kinase 1
b. creatine kinase 2
c. creatine kinase 3

A

c. creatine kinase 3

119
Q

Which of the following is true about Vmax?

a. can be measured directly by adding lots of substrate
b. unchanged by competitive inhibitors
c. unchanged by noncompetitive inhibitors

A

b. unchanged by competitive inhibitors

120
Q

Which of the following is true about Km?

a. low Km indicated high substrate enzyme affinity
b. high Km indicates high substrate enzyme affinity
c. unchanged by competitive inhibitors

A

a. low Km indicated high substrate enzyme affinity

121
Q

Which is true about lovastatin?

a. competitive inhibitor that treats hypercholesterolemia
b. competitive inhibitor that treats hypocholesterolemia
c. non-competitive inhibitor that treats hypercholesterolemia
d. non-competitive inhibitor that treats hypocholesterolemia

A

a. competitive inhibitor that treats hypercholesterolemia

122
Q

Which is true about non-competitive inhibitors?

a. change Km
b. change Vmax
c. both changed
d. both unchanged

A

b. change Vmax

123
Q

Give an example of a commonly used suicide inhibitor (suicide inactivation)?

A

penicillin, aspirin, & allopurinol

124
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about trypsinogen?

a. made in the small intestine
b. activated by proteolysis
c. trypsin is the active form which can activate more trypsinogen

A

a. made in the small intestine

it’s actually made in the exocrine pancreas

125
Q

Why does cooperativity or enzymes not follow the Michaelis-Menten Equation?

A

because it causes the rate & substrate concentration graph to make a sigmoid curve (‘S-shaped’) which does not obey the equation

126
Q

Which of the following is most useful to control the activity of an enzyme that works with a high substrate concentration?

a. V effector
b. X effector
c. K effector
d. Y effector

A

a. V effector

127
Q

Which of the following is most useful to control the activity of an enzyme that works with a low substrate concentration?

a. V effector
b. X effector
c. K effector
d. Y effector

A

c. K effector

128
Q

Which of the following enzymes decrease in activity once phosphorylated?

a. glycogen synthase
b. glycogen phosphorylase

A

a. glycogen synthase

B’s activity increases

129
Q

What is true about allosteric effectors?

a. always increase enzymatic activity
b. always decrease enzymatic activity
c. controls enzymatic activity via active site
d. changes protein configuration

A

d. changes protein configuration

130
Q

Which enzymatic amino acids do phosphate groups get added or taken away from for regulation?

A

serine, threonine or tyrosine

131
Q

Where is the highest amount of glycogen stored?

a. intestine
b. kidney
c. muscle
d. liver

A

c. muscle

132
Q

Where is the highest amount of glycogen per mass unit stored?

a. intestine
b. kidney
c. muscle
d. liver

A

d. liver

133
Q

Why does the glycogen in muscle not released to other tissues?

a. lacks G-1-P enzyme
b. lacks G-6-P enzyme
c. lacks phosphoglucomutase
d. hexokinase enzyme

A

b. lacks G-6-P enzyme

134
Q

Which of the following makes a branched glycogen link?

a. α-1,4
b. α-1,6

A

b. α-1,6

135
Q

How many glucose units can Glycogenin catalyze on its own?

a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8

A

d. 8

136
Q

Which amino acid does Glycogenin need to start Glycogen synthesis?

a. proline
b. tyrosine
c. serine

A

b. tyrosine

137
Q

Which of the following enzymes make the α-1,6 branches?

a. phosphoglucomutase
b. amylo-(1,4 -1,6)- transglycosylase

A

b. amylo-(1,4 -1,6)- transglycosylase

138
Q

how are glycogen’s α (1-4) bonds cut?

a. by using an inorganic iron
b. by using an inorganic phosphate
c. by using an inorganic calcium ion

A

b. by using an inorganic phosphate

139
Q

Describe the effect of insulin on the liver?

a. increases glycogen breakdown
b. increases glycogen synthetase
c. increases glycogen phosphorylase

A

b. increases glycogen synthetase

140
Q

Which of the following is the glycogen substrate?

a. G-1-P
b. G-6-P
c. glucose
d. UDP-glucose

A

d. UDP-glucose

141
Q

Which of the following enzymes increase in activity once phosphorylated?

a. glycogen synthase
b. glycogen phosphorylase

A

b. glycogen phosphorylase

142
Q

Which of the following indicates a spontaneous reaction?

a. positive free energy (G)
b. negative free energy (G)

A

b. negative free energ y (G)

143
Q

Which of the following is used to store phosphate bonds in muscle?

a. Phosphocreatine
b. Phosphoenolpyruvate

A

a. Phosphocreatine

Phosphocreatine gives phosphates to ADP, making ATP that the muscle can use

144
Q

Which of the following indicates an enzyme that gives phosphates?

a. phosphatase
b. kinase

A

b. kinase

145
Q

Which of the following is associated with catabolic reactions?

a. NADPH
b. NADH

A

b. NADH

146
Q

NADPH is associated with

a. biosynthetic reactions
b. catabolic reactions

A

a. biosynthetic reactions

anabolic

147
Q

phenylalalnine hydroxylase enzyme (PAH) converts phenylalanine to

a. serine
b. threonine
c. tyrosine
d. proline

A

c. tyrosine

convert it by adding an -OH

148
Q

Which of the following about Phenylketonuria is FALSE?

a. causes accumulation of PHE in blood
b. treated with PHE-free diet
c. physical and mental retardation is reversible if PHE levels become normal

A

c. physical and mental retardation is reversible if PHE levels become normal

(they’re irreversible)

149
Q

How is Phenylketonuria inherited?

a. autosomal recessive trait
b. x-linked recessive trait

A

a. autosomal recessive trait

25% chance a child gets it if both parents are carriers

150
Q

How is Hemophilia inherited?

a. autosomal recessive trait
b. x-linked recessive trait

A

b. x-linked recessive trait

50% of boys and 25% of girls get it if mother is carrier

151
Q

What characterizes hemophilia type B?

a. deficiency in coagulation factor VII (F7)
b. deficiency in coagulation factor VIII (F8)
c. deficiency in coagulation factor IX (F9)
d. deficiency in coagulation factor X (F10)

A

c. deficiency in coagulation factor IX (F9)

B= hemophilia type A

152
Q

Which type of mutation causes a more severe form of hemophilia?

a. inversion mutation
b. point mutation

A

a. inversion mutation

153
Q

Which of the following is found in neurons?

a. GLUT-1
b. GLUT-2
c. GLUT-3
d. GLUT-4

A

c. GLUT-3

154
Q

Which of the following is found in RBC’s?

a. GLUT-1
b. GLUT-2
c. GLUT-3
d. GLUT-4

A

a. GLUT-1

155
Q

Which of the following is found in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue?

a. GLUT-1
b. GLUT-2
c. GLUT-3
d. GLUT-4

A

d. GLUT-4

the number increases by insulin

156
Q

glucokinase is

a. hexokinase I
b. hexokinase II
c. hexokinase III
d. hexokinase IV

A

d. hexokinase IV

located in the liver

157
Q

Which of the following has a higher Km?

a. glucokinase
b. hexokinase

A

a. glucokinase

higher Km and thus a lower affinity

158
Q

Which of the following has a higher Vmax?

a. glucokinase
b. hexokinase

A

a. glucokinase

159
Q

Which of the following is the glycolysis rate-limiting enzyme?

a. aldolase B
b. hexokinase
c. PFK-1
d. enolase

A

Phosphofructokinase-1

160
Q

What are the three irreversible glycolysis reactions?

A

Hexokinase
Phosphofructokinase-1
Pyruvate kinase

161
Q

Which of the following can be stimulated by insulin?

a. hexokinase I
b. hexokinase II
c. hexokinase III
d. hexokinase IV

A

d. hexokinase IV

aka glucokinase

162
Q

Which of the following cleaves the F-1,6-biphosphate?

a. aldolase B
b. hexokinase
c. PFK-1
d. enolase

A

a. aldolase B

163
Q

Which of the following increases the amount of glucokinase?

a. glucose
b. insulin
b. F-6-P

A

b. insulin

glucose allosterically activates it, but it doesn’t make more of the actual enzyme

164
Q

Which of the following activates PFK-1 enzyme?

a. citrate
b. H+
c. ATP
d. ADP

A

d. ADP

fructose-2,6-bisphosphate also activates it

165
Q

Which of the following bifunctional enzyme components does insulin activate?

a. phosphofructokinase-2 (PFK-2)
b. Fructose 2,6- bisphosphatase (F-2,6-BP)

A

a. phosphofructokinase-2

when it’s activated, it makes fructose-2,6-bisphosphate which stimulates glycolysis

166
Q

Which of the following bifunctional enzyme components does glucagon activate?

a. phosphofructokinase-2 (PFK-2)
b. Fructose 2,6- bisphosphatase (F-2,6-BP)

A

b. Fructose 2,6- bisphosphatase

when it’s activated, it breaks down fructose-2,6-bisphosphate which stimulates glycolysis

167
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about fructose-2,6-bisphosphate function?

a. increase glycolysis
b. decrease fructose-6-phosphate
c. stimulates PFK-1

A

b. decrease fructose-6-phosphate

168
Q

Which of the following is stimulated when phosphorylated?

a. phosphofructokinase-2 (PFK-2)
b. Fructose 2,6- bisphosphatase (F-2,6-BP)
c. Pyruvate kinase

A

b. Fructose 2,6- bisphosphatase

phosphofructokinase-2 of the heart is also active when phosphorylated

169
Q

Which of the following phosphorylates the bifunctional enzyme?

a. insulin
b. glucagon

A

b. glucagon

phosphorylating it stimulates the fructose 2,6- bisphosphatase part, which will inhibit glycolysis

170
Q

What’s the second most common cause of enzyme deficiency- related nonspherocytic hemolytic anemia?

a. Hexokinase deficiency
b. Phosphofructokinase-1 deficiency
c. Pyruvate kinase deficiency

A

c. Pyruvate kinase deficiency

171
Q

Which of the following requires the patient to stop lactose intake?

a. Aldolase B deficiency
b. Fructokinase deficiency
c. Galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT) deficiency

A

c. Galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT) deficiency

172
Q

Which of the following causes cataracts and mental retardation?

a. Aldolase B deficiency
b. Fructokinase deficiency
c. Galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT) deficiency

A

c. Galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT) deficiency

173
Q

Which of the following causes F-1-P build up intracellularly?

a. Aldolase B deficiency
b. Fructokinase deficiency
c. Galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT) deficiency

A

a. Aldolase B deficiency

174
Q

Which of the following enzymes makes pyruvate into acetyl-CoA?

a. pyruvate dehydrogenase
b. dihydrolipoyl transacetylase
c. dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase

A

a. pyruvate dehydrogenase

PDH, aka E1 of the PDH complex

175
Q

What’s a characteristic of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?

a. caused by vitamin D deficiency
b. caused by thiamine deficiency
c. caused by vitamin C deficiency

A

b. caused by thiamine deficiency

vitamin B1 deficiency

176
Q

Which of the following activates pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?

a. pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
b. pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase

A

b. pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase

takes away phosphate

177
Q

Which of the following inactivates pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?

a. pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
b. pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase
c. Acetyl-CoA

A

a. pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase

gives it phosphate
(PDH complex hate phosphate)

178
Q

What’s the rate limitiing step of the Kreb’s cycle?

a. malate dehydrogenase
b. Succinate dehydrogenase
c. Succinyl Thiokinase
d. isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

d. isocitrate dehydrogenase

179
Q

Which of the following make a GTP?

a. malate dehydrogenase
b. Succinate dehydrogenase
c. Succinyl Thiokinase
d. isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

c. Succinyl Thiokinase

180
Q

Which of the following make a NADH?

a. malate dehydrogenase
b. Succinate dehydrogenase
c. Succinyl Thiokinase
d. isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

a. malate dehydrogenase

181
Q

Which of the following make a FADH(2)?

a. malate dehydrogenase
b. Succinate dehydrogenase
c. Succinyl Thiokinase
d. isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

b. Succinate dehydrogenase

182
Q

Which of the following can accept two electrons?

a. flavoproteins
b. Iron-sulfur centers

A

a. flavoproteins

B= can only bind one

183
Q

Which of the following causes progressive encephalopathies?

a. complex I deficiency
b. complex II deficiency
c. complex III deficiency

A

a. complex I deficiency

184
Q

Which of the following is hydrophobic?

a. flavoproteins
b. Iron-sulfur centers
c. ubiquinone

A

c. ubiquinone

185
Q

Which of the following inhibits coenzyme Q10 (aka ubiquinone)?

a. flavoproteins
b. statins
c. Iron-sulfur centers
d. ubiquinol

A

b. statins

186
Q

What does the cytosine of the Iron-sulfur centers provide the iron?

a. D ligand
b. H ligand
c. M ligand
d. S ligand

A

d. S ligand

187
Q

Which of the following enzymes plays an important role in Complex II?

a. malate dehydrogenase
b. Succinate dehydrogenase
c. Succinyl Thiokinase
d. isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

b. Succinate dehydrogenase

188
Q

How many of the following reduce ubiquinone into ubiquinol?

a. complex I
b. complex II
c. complex III
d. complex IV

A 
a. complex I
&
b. complex II
&
c. complex III
189
Q

Which of the following is an electron donor to complex III?

a. cytochrome C
b. cytochrome C1
c. ubiquinol

A

c. ubiquinol

190
Q

Which of the following is an electron donor to complex IV?

a. cytochrome C
b. cytochrome C1
c. ubiquinol

A

a. cytochrome C

191
Q

Which of the following can accept two electrons?

a. cytochrome C
b. ubiquinol

A

b. ubiquinol

A= can only bind one

192
Q

Which part of cytochrome C aids in donating or receiving electrons?

a. proline
b. lysine
c. serine

A

b. lysine

193
Q

Cyanide blocks electron transfer in which complex?

a. complex I
b. complex II
c. complex III
d. complex IV

A

d. complex IV

194
Q

Cytochrome oxidase makes water in which complex?

a. complex I
b. complex II
c. complex III
d. complex IV

A

d. complex IV

195
Q

COX deficiency causes heart abnormalities and affects tissues of the skeletal muscles, it is also known as

a. cytochrome C deficiency
b. ubiquinol deficiency
c. complex III deficiency

A

a. cytochrome C deficiency

196
Q

Which portion of ATP synthase (aka complex V) rotates?

a. F0
b. F1

A

a. F0

the stalk also rotates

197
Q

How many hydrogens does complex V need to transport to make one ATP?

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 9

A

a. 3

198
Q

In what direction does the gamma subunit of ATP synthase rotate?

a. clockwise
b. counterclockwise

A

a. clockwise

199
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about uncouplers?

a. prevent oxidative phosphorylation
b. stimulate respiration
c. enhance the H+ gradient
d. produced in brown adipose tissue

A

c. enhance the H+ gradient

it reduces the gradient

200
Q

What are the chances of inheriting a mitochondrial disease if your father and grandfather both have it?

a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 75%
d. 100%

A

a. 0%

it has maternal transmission!

201
Q

What is the function of each of these enzymes?
A. pyruvate kinase
B. pyruvate carboxylase

A 
A= makes pyruvate from PEP
B= breaks down pyruvate into OAA
202
Q

Which of the following needs biotin?

a. phosphoenolpyruvate
b. phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
c. pyruvate carboxylase
d. pyruvate kinase

A

c. pyruvate carboxylase

203
Q

Where is pyruvate carboxylase found?

a. mitochondrial matrix
b. cytosol
b. ER

A

a. mitochondrial matrix

204
Q

how many ATP’s and GTP’s does gluconeogenesis use?

A

4 ATP & 2 GTP

205
Q

How many ATP’s does glycolysis make per cycle?

A

2 ATP’s

206
Q

Which of the following is inhibited by ATP?

a. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
b. glucose 6-phosphatase
c. phosphofructokinase

A

c. phosphofructokinase

glycolysis enzyme

207
Q

Which of. the following is a gluconeogenic enzyme?

a. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
b. glucokinase
c. PFK1
d. pyruvate kinase

A

a. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase

208
Q

Which occurs because of beta cell destruction?

a. type 1 diabetes
b. type 2 diabetes

A

a. type 1 diabetes

209
Q

Which occurs because of insulin resistance?

a. type 1 diabetes
b. type 2 diabetes

A

b. type 2 diabetes

210
Q

In which of the following does ketosis most likely occur?

a. type 1 diabetes
b. type 2 diabetes

A

a. type 1 diabetes

211
Q

where is the SRC gene normally found?

a. nucleus
b. mitochondria
c. cytosol
d. ER

A

c. cytosol

212
Q

What controls the RAS gene?

a. methylation
b. ATP or ADP binding
c. GTP or GDP binding
d. the src gene

A

c. GTP or GDP binding

213
Q

How is the RAS gene activated?

A

base mutations & amplification

214
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about the pentose phosphate pathway?

a. it’s anabolic
b. it makes ribose-5-phosphate
c. it makes NADH
d. it occurs in the mitochondria

A

d. it occurs in the mitochondria

it occurs in the cytoplasm

215
Q 
Which is an immediate product of the pentose phosphate pathway?
A. ATP
B. NADH
C. NAD+ 
D. 2,3 bis-P-glycerate
A

B. NADH

216
Q 
The non-oxidative stage of the pentose phosphate pathway is primarily designed to make
A. R-5-P
B. NADH
C. NAD+ 
D. 2,3 bis-P-glycerate
A

A. R-5-P

217
Q

Which is true about collagen synthesis?

a. procollagen is trimmed in the cytoplasm
b. collagen fibrils lie transversally to bind
c. the fibrils are overlying 75% or their length

A

c. the fibrils are overlying 75% or their length

procollagen is trimmed in the extracellular space and the collagen fibrils lie longitudinally

218
Q

how is procollagen modified in the rough ER?

a. hydroxylation of proline
b. hydroxylation of serine
c. hydroxylation of lysine

A

a. hydroxylation of proline

219
Q

Which of the following is required by lysyl oxidase to aid in collagen crosslinking?

a. Fe
b. Cu
c. C
d. Mg

A

b. Cu

needed for crosslinking between lysine residues

220
Q

Which of the following diseases occurs due to reduced glycine concentration?

a. Ehlers Danlos syndrome
b. Osteogenesis imperfacta

A

b. Osteogenesis imperfacta

A=mutation in collagen gene

221
Q

Why is collagen degradation induced by UV light?

a. due to DNA mutations
b. damages the glycine precursors
c. activates collagenases

A

c. activates collagenases

222
Q

How do restriction endonucleosomes differentiate between bacterial and viral DNA?

a. the bacterial DNA is methylated
b. the viral DNA is methylated
c. the viral DNA is tagged

A

a. the bacterial DNA is methylated

223
Q

What is a palindrome?

A

When a sequence of bases on either strand of the DNA is the same when read in a 5’ to 3’ direction

224
Q

Which of the following forms a blunt end?

a. enzymes that cleave in the middle
b. enzymes that form staggered cuts

A

a. enzymes that cleave in the middle

(b= sticky/cohesive ends

225
Q 
Which one of the following sequences is most likely to be a restriction enzyme recognition sequence?
a.  5’-CAGGAC-3’
     3’-GTCCTG-5’ 
b.  5’-ATGCTA-3’
     3’-TACGAT-5’ 
c.  5’-GAATTC-3’
     3’-CTTAAG-5’ 
d.  5’-ATCCTA-3’
     3’-TAGGAT-5’ 
e.  5’-AGATAC-3’
     3’-TCTATG-5’
A

c. 5’-GAATTC-3’

3’-CTTAAG-5’

226
Q

Which of the following forms a recombinant DNA molecule?

a. two sticky ends from the same restriction enzyme get ligated
b. two blunt ends get covalently bonded by ligase

A

b. two blunt ends get covalently bonded by ligase

227
Q

What is true about the amino acid shift that leads to sickle cell

a. the normal Hb is more positive that Hbs
b. Val is placed at position 6
c. deletion mutation

A

b. Val is placed at position 6

the Hb is more negative than the mutated Hbs, and the disease is caused by missense mutation

228
Q

Which of the following forms the amyloid plaque deposits of Alzheimer’s?

a. 40 aa AB fragment
b. 42 aa AB fragment
c. 47 aa AB fragment

A

b. 42 aa AB fragment

229
Q

What’s FLASE about CF?

a. absent or nonfunctional Cl- channels
b. autosomal recessive inheritance
c. pancreas obstructed which blocks digestive enzymes
d. CF gene on chromosome 6

A

d. CF gene on chromosome 6

it’s on chromosome 7

230
Q

What type of mutation leads to CF?

a. missense
b. nonsense
c. deletion
d. inversion

A

c. deletion

phe 508 of exon 10 is deleted

231
Q

The most common method of diagnosing CF is via sweat test. Which drug is used to induce the sweat?

A

pilocarpine

FB1 Past Exams (42 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions