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FB1 Past Exams > extra anatomy Q's (endterm) > Flashcards

extra anatomy Q's (endterm) Flashcards

1
Q

Perichondrium is made of

a. Dense regular connective tissue
b. Dense irregular connective tissue

A

b. Dense irregular connective tissue

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2
Q

Growth from within the cartiladge is

a. interstitial growth
a. appositional growth

A

a. interstitial growth

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3
Q

The meniscus is an example of

a. Fibrocartilage
b. Elastic Cartilage
c. Hyaline Cartilage

A

a. Fibrocartilage

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4
Q

The larynx is an example of

a. Fibrocartilage
b. Elastic Cartilage
c. Hyaline Cartilage

A

c. Hyaline Cartilage

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5
Q 
Which of the following does the epiphyseal
plate have?
a. Fibrocartilage
b. Elastic Cartilage
c. Hyaline Cartilage
A

c. Hyaline Cartilage

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6
Q

Which of the following acts as a temporary skeleton?

a. Fibrocartilage
b. Elastic Cartilage
c. Hyaline Cartilage

A

c. Hyaline Cartilage

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7
Q

What provides nutrients to the avascular cartilage?

A

Perichondrium

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8
Q

What provides nutrients to the articular cartilage?

A

Diffusion, because it doesn’t have a perichondrium

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9
Q

Which of the following has a poorly defined perichondrium?

a. Fibrocartilage
b. Elastic Cartilage
c. Hyaline Cartilage

A

a. Fibrocartilage

it also says that it has no perichondrium at all

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10
Q

Which of the following is the most acidophilic?

a. Fibrocartilage
b. Elastic Cartilage
c. Hyaline Cartilage

A

a. Fibrocartilage

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11
Q

Which of the following are arranged into trabeculae columns?

a. compact bone
b. spongy bone

A

b. spongy bone

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12
Q

Which are described as giant multinucleate cells?

a. Osteogenic cells
b. Osteoblasts
c. Osteoclasts
d. Osteocytes

A

c. Osteoclasts

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13
Q

Which TWO of the following participate in bone remodeling?

a. Osteogenic cells
b. Osteoblasts
c. Osteoclasts
d. Osteocytes

A

b. Osteoblasts
&
c. Osteoclasts

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14
Q

Skull & clavicle formed via

a. Intramembranous Ossification
b. Endochondral Ossification

A

a. Intramembranous Ossification

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15
Q

During Endochondral Ossification, replacement of cartilage into bone begins in the

a. diaphysis
b. epiphyses

A

a. diaphysis

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16
Q

When the Cartilage model grows in width, it’s considered

a. interstitial growth
b. appositional growth

A

b. appositional growth

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17
Q

The space between the diaphysis and the epiphyses in adults is called

a. epiphyseal plate
b. epiphyseal line

A

b. epiphyseal line

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18
Q

Which of the following runs horizontally?

a. Central canals
b. Volkmann canals

A

b. Volkmann canals

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19
Q

The medullary cavity is surrounded by

a. hyaline cartilage
b. compact bone
c. spongy bone

A

c. spongy bone

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20
Q

Which of the following is non-striated?

a. Skeletal muscle
b. Cardiac muscle
c. Smooth muscle

A

c. Smooth muscle

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21
Q

Which of the following is multinucleated?

a. Skeletal muscle
b. Cardiac muscle
c. Smooth muscle

A

a. Skeletal muscle

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22
Q

Satellite cells are

a. Skeletal muscle stem cells
b. Cardiac muscle stem cells
c. Smooth muscle stem cells

A

a. Skeletal muscle stem cells

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23
Q

Invaginations of the sarcolemma that are important for calcium ion release and storage

a. sarcomere
b. T tubules

A

b. T tubules

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24
Q

Which cells connected by intercalated discs?

a. Skeletal muscle stem cells
b. Cardiac muscle stem cells
c. Smooth muscle stem cells

A

b. Cardiac muscle stem cells

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25
Q

Which of the following can divide and regenerate?

a. Skeletal muscle
b. Cardiac muscle
c. Smooth muscle

A

c. Smooth muscle

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26
Q

What Stores Ca+2 in a relaxed muscle & releases Ca+2 to trigger muscle contraction?

A

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

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27
Q

thin filaments are held in place by

a. I band
b. A band
c. M line
d. Z disc
e. H zone

A

d. Z disc

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28
Q

Thick filaments are held in place by

a. I band
b. A band
c. M line
d. Z disc
e. H zone

A

c. M line

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29
Q

What is in the middle of the I band?

a. H zone
b. A band
c. M line
d. Z disc

A

d. Z disc

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30
Q

Which of the following appears light?

a. I band
b. A band

A

a. I band

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31
Q

Thick filament is made of

a. actin
b. myosin
c. troponin
d. tropomyosin

A

b. myosin

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32
Q

Where are the nerve fibers & capillaries of muscles found?

a. Epimysium
b. Perimysium
c. Endomysium

A

c. Endomysium

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33
Q

Which of the following is spindle cell shaped?

a. Skeletal muscle
b. Cardiac muscle
c. Smooth muscle

A

c. Smooth muscle

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34
Q

Which of the following is the plasma membrane of skeletal muscle?

a. sarcoplasm
b. sarcolemma

A

b. sarcolemma

plasma membrane= sarcolemma
cytoplasm= sarcoplasm

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35
Q

Which of the following are most powerful?

a. Parallel
b. Convergent
c. Circular
d. Pennate

A

d. Pennate

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36
Q

Which of the following stabilizes a joint as the muscles act on one another?

a. Prime Movers
b. Antagonist
c. Synergist
d. Fixator

A

c. Synergist

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37
Q

Which of the following stabilizes a bone?

a. Prime Movers
b. Antagonist
c. Synergist
d. Fixator

A

d. Fixator

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38
Q

Which of the following supplies intrafusal fibers?

a. myelinated alpha efferents
b. myelinated gamma efferents
c. non-myelinated autonomic efferents

A

b. myelinated gamma efferents

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39
Q

Which of the following supplies smooth muscle fibers of the blood vessels?

a. myelinated alpha efferents
b. myelinated gamma efferents
c. non-myelinated autonomic efferents

A

c. non-myelinated autonomic efferents

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40
Q

Which of the following supplies extrafusal muscle fibers?

a. myelinated alpha efferents
b. myelinated gamma efferents
c. non-myelinated autonomic efferents

A

a. myelinated alpha efferents

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41
Q

What’s the difference between motor end plates (neuromuscular junction) and neuronal synapses (synaptic cleft)?

A

The synaptic cleft of the motor end plates contains a basal lamina, but neuronal synapses don’t.

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42
Q

Which of the following have flower spray endings?

a. primary sensory endings
b. secondary sensory endings

A

b. secondary sensory endings

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43
Q

Which of the following have anulospiral endings?

a. primary sensory endings
b. secondary sensory endings

A

a. primary sensory endings

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44
Q

Which of the following is called the protein factory?

a. Cell body
b. Dendrites
c. Axon

A

a. Cell body

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45
Q

Which of the following is myelinated?

a. Cell body
b. Dendrites
c. Axon

A

c. Axon

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46
Q

Which of the following is can you see by using Nissel stain?

a. Cell body
b. Dendrites
c. Axon

A

a. Cell body

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47
Q

Kinesin protein of the axon mediates which transport?

a. Retrograde transport
b. Anterograde transport

A

b. Anterograde transport

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48
Q

Gap junctions are found in which TWO of the following?

a. Skeletal muscle
b. Cardiac muscle
c. Smooth muscle

A

b. Cardiac muscle
&
c. Smooth muscle

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49
Q

What’s the function of astrocytes?

a. uptake the NT
b. degrade the NT

A

a. uptake the NT

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50
Q

Which of these neuroreceptors do NOT activate sodium channels?

a. acetylcholine
b. glutamate
c. glycine
d. aspartate

A

c. glycine

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51
Q

Which TWO of these neuroreceptors cause hyperpolarization?

a. GABA
b. glutamate
c. glycine
d. aspartate

A

a. GABA
&
c. glycine

(they inhibit impulses)

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52
Q

Which is true?

a. unipolar (pseudounipolar) neurons develop into bipolar neurons
b. bipolar neurons develop into unipolar (pseudounipolar) neurons
c. unipolar (pseudounipolar) neurons are rare

A

b. bipolar neurons develop into unipolar (pseudounipolar) neurons

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53
Q

Most interneurons are

a. unipolar
b. bipolar
c. multipolar

A

c. multipolar

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54
Q

Most sensory neurons are

a. unipolar
b. bipolar
c. multipolar

A

a. unipolar

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55
Q

Most efferent neurons are

a. unipolar
b. bipolar
c. multipolar

A

c. multipolar

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56
Q

Where are Pyramidal cells found?

a. cerebral cortex
b. cerebellum

A

a. cerebral cortex

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57
Q

Which of the following forms part of blood-brain barrier?

a. Astrocytes
b. Microglia
c. Ependymal Cells
d. Oligodendrocytes

A

a. Astrocytes

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58
Q

Which of the following produces myelin sheaths of the CNS?

a. Astrocytes
b. Microglia
c. Ependymal Cells
d. Oligodendrocytes

A

d. Oligodendrocytes

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59
Q

Which of the following help circulate the cerebrospinal fluid?

a. Astrocytes
b. Microglia
c. Ependymal Cells
d. Satellite cells

A

c. Ependymal Cells

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60
Q

Which of the following is found in the PNS?

a. Astrocytes
b. Microglia
c. Ependymal Cells
d. Satellite cells

A

d. Satellite cells

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61
Q

Which of the following produces myelin sheaths of the PNS?

a. Schwann cells
b. Oligodendrocytes

A

a. Schwann cells

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62
Q

Which of the following is monocyte-derived?

a. Astrocytes
b. Microglia
c. Ependymal Cells
d. Satellite cells

A

b. Microglia

they’re also the smallest and least abundant

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63
Q

Which of the following have eccentrically placed nuclei?

a. Spinal Ganglia
b. Sympathetic Ganglia

A

b. Sympathetic Ganglia

(Sympathetic Ganglia= multipolar neurons
Spinal Ganglia= psuedounipolar)

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64
Q

T/F: unmyelinated PNS axons are not surrounded by Schwann cells

A

False, they’re still covered by them, but not enough to insulate

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65
Q

Which is located dorsally?

a. Interneurons
b. Motor neurons
c. Sensory neurons

A

c. Sensory neurons

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66
Q

Which is located ventrally?

a. Interneurons
b. Motor neurons
c. Sensory neurons

A

b. Motor neurons

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67
Q

Which has more satellite cells?

a. Spinal Ganglia
b. Sympathetic Ganglia

A

a. Spinal Ganglia

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68
Q

Which cells help recover from nerve damage?

A

Schwann cells wrap the damage and make a path for regeneration and macrophages clean up the debris

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69
Q

nerve damage in which is more likely to heal?

a. CNS
b. PNS

A

b. PNS

the CNS is more restricted because of the BBB, so less healing occurs

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70
Q

What passes through Foramen magnum?

a. Emissary vein
b. Greater palatine artery
c. Medulla oblongata

A

c. Medulla oblongata

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71
Q

9th, 10th, and 11th cranial nerves pass through

a. Jugular foramen
b. Foramen ovale
c. Stylomastoid foramen

A

a. Jugular foramen

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72
Q

The facial nerve passes through

a. Jugular foramen
b. Foramen ovale
c. Stylomastoid foramen

A

c. Stylomastoid foramen

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73
Q

Which of the following is made from temporal & sphenoid bone?

a. Anterior Cranial fossa
b. Middle Cranial fossa
c. Posterior Cranial fossa

A

b. Middle Cranial fossa

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74
Q

Which of the following is made from the occipital bone?

a. Anterior Cranial fossa
b. Middle Cranial fossa
c. Posterior Cranial fossa

A

c. Posterior Cranial fossa

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75
Q

Which of the following is made from the frontal bone?

a. Anterior Cranial fossa
b. Middle Cranial fossa
c. Posterior Cranial fossa

A

a. Anterior Cranial fossa

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76
Q

What seperates the right and left side of the brain?

a. Falx Cerebri
b. Falx cerebelli
c. Tentorium Cerebelli

A

a. Falx Cerebri

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77
Q

Which one is more medial?

a. supra-orbital artery
b. supratrochlear artery

A

b. supratrochlear artery

78
Q

Light touch is detected by

a. Meissner’s corpuscles
b. Pacinian corpuscles
c. Ruffini corpuscles

A

a. Meissner’s corpuscles

79
Q

Tensile forces is detected by

a. Meissner’s corpuscles
b. Pacinian corpuscles
c. Ruffini corpuscles

A

c. Ruffini corpuscles

80
Q

Which has more sensory receptors?

a. thin skin
b. thick skin

A

b. thick skin

81
Q

Pressure & vibrations are detected by

a. Meissner’s corpuscles
b. Pacinian corpuscles
c. Ruffini corpuscles

A

b. Pacinian corpuscles

82
Q

Which has fewer sweat glands?

a. thin skin
b. thick skin

A

a. thin skin

83
Q

Which of the following is only found in thick skin?

a. Stratum Corneum
b. Stratum Lucidum
c. Stratum Granulosum
d. Stratum Spinosum
e. Stratum Basale

A

b. Stratum Lucidum

84
Q

Which of the following contain Langerhans cells & melanin granules?

a. Stratum Corneum
b. Stratum Lucidum
c. Stratum Granulosum
d. Stratum Spinosum
e. Stratum Basale

A

d. Stratum Spinosum

85
Q

Which of the following contains melanocytes and merkel cells?

a. Stratum Corneum
b. Stratum Lucidum
c. Stratum Granulosum
d. Stratum Spinosum
e. Stratum Basale

A

e. Stratum Basale

86
Q

Patients with Albinism

a. lack melanocyte production
b. lack melanin production
c. both

A

b. lack melanin production

87
Q

Arrector pili are found in the

a. Epidermis
b. Dermis
c. Hypodermis

A

b. Dermis

88
Q

Papillary region of the dermis contains

a. fine elastic fibers
b. course elastic fibers

A

a. fine elastic fibers

89
Q

Which part of the dermis is responsible for fingerprints?

A

Epidermal ridges & dermal papillae

90
Q

Which is called the “scent gland”?

a. Apocrine
b. Merocrine
c. Holocrine

A

a. Apocrine

91
Q

Which of the following secretes sebum, which causes acne?

a. Apocrine
b. Merocrine
c. Holocrine

A

c. Holocrine

92
Q

Which of the following secretes cerumen, aka ear wax?

a. Apocrine
b. Merocrine
c. Holocrine

A

a. Apocrine

** modified apocrine

93
Q

Which of the following helps dissipate excess heat?

a. Apocrine
b. Merocrine
c. Holocrine

A

b. Merocrine

94
Q

What kind of gland is the mammary gland?

a. Apocrine
b. Merocrine
c. Holocrine

A

a. Apocrine

** modified apocrine

95
Q

Which part of the hair follicles contains a rich supply of capillaries?

a. Hair shaft
b. Glassy membrane
c. Dermal papilla

A

c. Dermal papilla

96
Q

Which of the following is located at the proximal nail fold?

a. eponychium
b. hyponychium

A

a. eponychium

distal end= hyponychium

97
Q

Which of the following stimulates sebum production?

a. anaerobic bacteria
b. comedones
c. androgens

A

c. androgens

98
Q

Which of the following planes divides the two hemispheres of the brain?

a. frontal plane
b. sagittal plane
c. horizontal plane

A

b. sagittal plane

99
Q

Which is the largest part of the brain?

a. Cerebrum
b. Diencephalon
c. Cerebellum
d. Brain stem

A

a. Cerebrum

100
Q

The cerebral cortex is made of

a. white matter
b. grey matter
c. fibrous tissue

A

b. grey matter

101
Q

Which Divides the Frontal Lobe from the Parietal Lobe

a. lateral sulcus
b. cerebral sulcus
c. central sulcus

A

c. central sulcus

102
Q

Which Separates the Cerebrum from the Cerebellum?

a. Longitudinal Fissure
b. Transverse Fissure
c. Sylvian/Lateral Fissure

A

b. Transverse Fissure

103
Q

Which Divides the Temporal Lobe from the Frontal and Parietal Lobes?

a. Longitudinal Fissure
b. Transverse Fissure
c. Sylvian/Lateral Fissure

A

c. Sylvian/Lateral Fissure

104
Q

Thalamus bulges into

a. lateral ventricle
b. third ventricle
c. fourth ventricle

A

b. third ventricle

105
Q

vermis separates which two structures?

a. Midbrain & Pons
b. the two hemispheres of the Cerebrum
c. the two hemispheres of the Cerebellum

A

c. the two hemispheres of the Cerebellum

106
Q

The spinal cord ends at

a. T10-11
b. T11-T12
c. T12-L1
d. L1-L2

A

d. L1-L2

107
Q

Where is the cervical enlargement?

A

C4-T1

108
Q

Where is the lumbar enlargement?

A

T11-L1

109
Q

The spinal cord ends at

a. cauda equina
b. conus medullaris
c. filum terminale

A

a. cauda equina

110
Q

What anchors the cord to the sacrum

a. cauda equina
b. conus medullaris
c. filum terminale

A

c. filum terminale

111
Q

Which of the following has CSF in it?

a. subdural space
b. subarachnoid space
c. epidural space

A

b. subarachnoid space

separates arachnoid and pia matter

112
Q

The dura matter and the arachnoid are separated by

a. subdural space
b. subarachnoid space
c. epidural space

A

a. subdural space

113
Q

What connects the third & fourth ventricle

a. cerebral aqueduct
b. interventricular foramen

A

a. cerebral aqueduct

114
Q

Which of the following is filled with fat?

a. subdural space
b. subarachnoid space
c. epidural space

A

c. epidural space

115
Q

Which two are connected by interventricular foramen (of Monro)?

a. lateral ventricle
b. third ventricle
c. fourth ventricle

A

a. lateral ventricle
&
b. third ventricle

116
Q

Which of the following lies in diencephalon?

a. lateral ventricle
b. third ventricle
c. fourth ventricle

A

b. third ventricle

117
Q

Which of the following lies in hindbrain?

a. lateral ventricle
b. third ventricle
c. fourth ventricle

A

c. fourth ventricle

118
Q

Which TWO of the followinf are responsible from moving CSF from th fourth ventricle to the subarachnoid spaces?

a. foramen of Luschka
b. foramen of Magendie
c. foramen of Monro

A

a. foramen of Luschka (lateral aperture)
&
b. foramen of Magendie (median aperture)

119
Q

How does the CSF go into the venous circulation to get recycled?

A

Diffuses across the arachnoid granulations or villi

120
Q

Which encloses a fascicle of nerve fibers?

a. Endoneurium
b. Perineurium
c. Epineurium

A

b. Perineurium

121
Q

Which encloses the vasa nervorum?

a. Endoneurium
b. Perineurium
c. Epineurium

A

c. Epineurium

122
Q

Which of the following only contains sensory input?

a. spinal nerve
b. ventral ramus
c. dorsal ramus
d. none of the above
e. B&C

A

d. none of the above

they all contain both sensory & motor

123
Q

Which of the following is larger?

a. ventral ramus
b. dorsal ramus

A

a. ventral ramus

anterior (ventral) rami is larger than the posterior (dorsal) rami

124
Q

Which is true about the 10th cranial nerve?

a. arises from the brain
b. arises from the superior part of the spinal cord

A

a. arises from the brain

125
Q

Which is true about the 11th cranial nerve?

a. arises from the brain
b. arises from the superior part of the spinal cord

A

b. arises from the superior part of the spinal cord

all cranial nerve arises from the brain except number 11

126
Q

Which only carries motor fibers?

a. ventral root
b. dorsal root
c. ventral ramus
d. dorsal ramus

A

a. ventral root

127
Q

Which only carries sensory fibers?

a. ventral root
b. dorsal root
c. ventral ramus
d. dorsal ramus

A

b. dorsal root

128
Q

Which spinal cord segment does the patellar reflex test?

A

L2, L3, & L4

129
Q

Which is true about the sympathetic system?

a. Preganglionic fibers are myelinated whereas postganglionic fibers are nonmyelinated
b. postganglionic fibers are myelinated whereas preganglionic fibers are nonmyelinated

A

a. Preganglionic fibers are myelinated whereas postganglionic fibers are nonmyelinated

130
Q

The lumbar ganglion is a part of

a. Prevertebral ganglia
b. Paravertebral ganglia

A

b. Paravertebral ganglia

131
Q

The celiac ganglion is a part of

a. Prevertebral ganglia
b. Paravertebral ganglia

A

a. Prevertebral ganglia

Prevertebral= preaortic ganglia

132
Q

Which of the following innervates the suprarenal gland?

a. presynaptic fibers
b. postsynaptic fibers

A

a. presynaptic fibers

133
Q

The celiac ganglion provides innervation to which of the following?

a. small & large intestine
b. bladder
c. stomach
d. adrenal gland

A

c. stomach

and the pancreas & spleen

134
Q

The superior mesenteric ganglion provides innervation to which of the following?

a. small & large intestine
b. bladder
c. stomach
d. adrenal gland

A

a. small & large intestine

135
Q

The inferior mesenteric ganglion provides innervation to which of the following?

a. small & large intestine
b. bladder
c. stomach
d. adrenal gland

A

b. bladder

136
Q

Which of the following innervates the parotid gland?

a. ciliary ganglion
b. pterygopalatine ganglion
c. otic ganglion
d. submandibular ganglion

A

c. otic ganglion

supplied by cranial nerve 9

137
Q

Which of the following ganglions are innervated by the 7th cranial nerve?

a. ciliary ganglion
b. pterygopalatine ganglion
c. otic ganglion
d. submandibular ganglion

A

b. pterygopalatine ganglion
&
c. otic ganglion

138
Q

Which of the following innervates the salivary gland?

a. ciliary ganglion
b. pterygopalatine ganglion
c. otic ganglion
d. submandibular ganglion

A

d. submandibular ganglion

139
Q

Which of the following plays a part in pupillary constriction?

a. ciliary ganglion
b. pterygopalatine ganglion
c. otic ganglion
d. submandibular ganglion

A

a. ciliary ganglion

140
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves have a role in regulating the thoracic & abdominal viscera?

a. III
b. VII
c. IX
d. X

A

d. X

141
Q

Which of the following only regulates the body internally?

a. sympathetic nervous system
b. parasympathetic nervous system

A

b. parasympathetic nervous system

142
Q

Which has a high level of elastin fibers & sensory receptors?

a. Superficial fascia
b. Visceral fascia
c. Deep Fascia

A

c. Deep Fascia

143
Q

What stores fat and water?

a. Superficial fascia
b. Visceral fascia
c. Deep Fascia

A

a. Superficial fascia

144
Q

Which suspends the organs?

a. Superficial fascia
b. Visceral fascia
c. Deep Fascia

A

b. Visceral fascia

145
Q

What blends firmly with periosteum?

a. Superficial fascia
b. Visceral fascia
c. Deep Fascia

A

c. Deep Fascia

146
Q

What blends with fibrous pericardium of the heart?

a. Superficial cervical fascia
b. Investing layer of deep fascia
c. Pretracheal layer of deep cervical fascia
d. Prevertebral layer of deep cervical fascia
e. Carotid sheath

A

c. Pretracheal layer of deep cervical fascia

147
Q

What contains the platysma?

a. Superficial cervical fascia
b. Investing layer of deep fascia
c. Pretracheal layer of deep cervical fascia
d. Prevertebral layer of deep cervical fascia
e. Carotid sheath

A

a. Superficial cervical fascia

148
Q

What encloses the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles?

a. Superficial cervical fascia
b. Investing layer of deep fascia
c. Pretracheal layer of deep cervical fascia
d. Prevertebral layer of deep cervical fascia
e. Carotid sheath

A

b. Investing layer of deep fascia

149
Q

What encloses the esophagus and thyroid gland?

a. Superficial cervical fascia
b. Investing layer of deep fascia
c. Pretracheal layer of deep cervical fascia
d. Prevertebral layer of deep cervical fascia
e. Carotid sheath

A

c. Pretracheal layer of deep cervical fascia

150
Q

Which forms stylomandibular ligament?

a. Superficial cervical fascia
b. Investing layer of deep fascia
c. Pretracheal layer of deep cervical fascia
d. Prevertebral layer of deep cervical fascia
e. Carotid sheath

A

b. Investing layer of deep fascia

151
Q

What kind of space is Retropharyngeal space?

a. actual space
b. potential space

A

b. potential space

152
Q

A retropharyngeal abscess causes

A

difficulty in swallowing (dysphagia), difficulty in speaking (dysarthria)

153
Q

Which of the following can spread to the thoracic cavity, anterior to the pericardium?

a. an abscess between investing layer and muscular part of pretracheal fascia
b. an abscess between investing layer and visceral part of pretracheal fascia

A

b. an abscess between investing layer and visceral part of pretracheal fascia

154
Q

Retropharyngeal space opens inferiorly into

a. the anterior mediastinum
b. the posterior mediastinum
c. the middle mediastinum
d. the superior mediastinum

A

d. the superior mediastinum

155
Q

What separates retropharyngeal space?

A

Alar fascia

156
Q

What Posterior triangle of the neck into the Occipital triangle & the Subclavian triangle?

a. Superior belly of omohyoid muscle
b. Inferior belly of omohyoid muscle
c. Trapezius muscle

A

b. Inferior belly of omohyoid muscle

157
Q

Which nerve crosses the Levator scapulae muscle?

a. vestibulocochlear nerve
b. glossopharyngeal nerve
c. hypoglossal nerve
d. accessory nerve

A

d. accessory nerve

11th cranial nerve

158
Q

The posterior of the sternocleidomastoid muscle has

a. Common Carotid Artery
b. Internal jugular vein
c. External jugular vein
d. Right axillary vein

A

b. External jugular vein

159
Q

The hyoid bone is the base of which triangle?

a. Subclavian triangle
b. Muscular triangle
c. Occipital triangle
d. Submental triangle

A

d. Submental triangle

160
Q

Which cranial nerves are extensions of the forebrain?

a. 1&2
b. 2&3
c. 3&4
d. 9&10

A

a. 1&2

161
Q

Which cranial nerves have their cell body inside the CNS?

a. sensory neuron
b. motor neuron

A

b. motor neuron

162
Q

Where does the olfactory tract transmit information?

a. frontal lobe
b. temporal lobe
c. occipital lobe

A

b. temporal lobe

163
Q

Which of the following controls the motor action of the tongue muscles?

a. Olfactory
b. Trochlear
c. Vestibulocochlear
d. Accessory
e. Hypoglossal

A

e. Hypoglossal

164
Q

Which of the following controls hearing and balance?

a. Olfactory
b. Trochlear
c. Vestibulocochlear
d. Accessory
e. Hypoglossal

A

c. Vestibulocochlear

vestibular nerve= balance
cochlear nerve= hearing

165
Q

Which of the following controls the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles?

a. Olfactory
b. Trochlear
c. Vestibulocochlear
d. Accessory
e. Hypoglossal

A

d. Accessory

166
Q

Which TWO of the following control taste?

a. Facial
b. Trochlear
c. Vestibulocochlear
d. Accessory
e. Hypoglossal

A

a. Facial (anterior 2/3)
&
e. Hypoglossal (posterior 1/3)

167
Q

What three nerves go through the jugular foramen?

A

Cranial nerves 9 (glossopharyngeal), 10 (vagus), and 11 (accessory)

and the internal jugular vein

168
Q

Which cranial nerve controls the muscles of mastication?

a. facial nerve
b. trigeminal nerve
c. vegas nerve

A

a. facial nerve

169
Q

Which of the following controls the lateral movement of the eye?

a. trochlear
b. ocular
c. abducens

A

c. abducens

the lateral rectus muscle

170
Q

Which of the following controls superior oblique muscle of the eye?

a. trochlear
b. ocular
c. abducens

A

a. trochlear

171
Q

Which of the following forms the pharyngeal pouches?

a. Mesoderm
b. Ectoderm
c. Endoderm

A

c. Endoderm

172
Q

Which of the following forms the pharyngeal clefts?

a. Mesoderm
b. Ectoderm
c. Endoderm

A

b. Ectoderm

173
Q

Which of the following forms the pharyngeal arches?

a. Mesoderm
b. Ectoderm
c. Endoderm

A

a. Mesoderm

174
Q

Which of the following has the superior & external laryngeal nerves?

a. First arch
b. Second arch
c. Third arch
d. Fourth arch
e. Sixth arch

A

d. Fourth arch

175
Q

Reichert’s cartilage is a part of the…

a. First arch
b. Second arch
c. Third arch
d. Fourth arch
e. Sixth arch

A

b. Second arch

176
Q

Which of the following has the Recurrent laryngeal nerve?

a. First arch
b. Second arch
c. Third arch
d. Fourth arch
e. Sixth arch

A

e. Sixth arch

177
Q

Which arch froms an ectodermal depression known as the cervical sinus?

a. First arch
b. Second arch
c. Third arch
d. Fourth arch
e. Sixth arch

A

b. Second arch

178
Q

Cricothyroid muscle is supplied by the nerve in which arch?

a. First arch
b. Second arch
c. Third arch
d. Fourth arch
e. Sixth arch

A

d. Fourth arch

external laryngeal nerve

179
Q

Under development of zygomatic bone characterizes

a. Pierre Robin syndrome
b. Treacher Collins syndrome

A

b. Treacher Collins syndrome

chromosome 5

180
Q

Hypoplasia of the mandible, as well as the displacement of the tongue & cleft palate, characterizes

a. Pierre Robin syndrome
b. Treacher Collins syndrome

A

a. Pierre Robin syndrome

181
Q

Incomplete closure of the cervical sinus characterizes

a. internal fistula
b. external fistula
c. complete fistula

A

b. external fistula

182
Q

Incomplete closure of the pharyngeal pouches characterizes

a. internal fistula
b. external fistula
c. complete fistula

A

a. internal fistula

183
Q

Which of the following doesn’t move when the tongue moves?

a. Thyroglossal cyst
b. Branchial cyst

A

b. Branchial cyst

184
Q

Which develops from all 3 germ layers?

a. palatine tonsil
b. tubotympanic recess
c. tympanic membrane

A

c. tympanic membrane

185
Q

Which of the following develops into the superior parathyroid?

a. First pouch
b. Second pouch
c. Third pouch
d. Fourth pouch

A

d. Fourth pouch

186
Q

the auditory tube develops from

a. First pouch
b. Second pouch
c. Third pouch
d. Fourth pouch

A

a. First pouch

187
Q

Epithelio-reticulocytes are derived from the endoderm of

a. First pouch
b. Second pouch
c. Third pouch
d. Fourth pouch

A

c. Third pouch

epithelio-reticulocytes= aka thymic epithelial cell

188
Q

Epithelio-reticulocytes are derived from the endoderm of

a. First pouch
b. Second pouch
c. Third pouch
d. Fourth pouch

A

c. Third pouch

epithelio-reticulocytes= aka thymic epithelial cell

189
Q

thymic hypoplasia, T cell deficiency, & cardiac defects are characteristics of a defect in which TWO pharyngeal punches?

a. First pouch
b. Second pouch
c. Third pouch
d. Fourth pouch

A

c. Third pouch
&
d. Fourth pouch

190
Q

What characterizes Nezelof’s syndrome?

A

inferior parathyroids and thymus are absent but Superior parathyroid is present; patients are also highly susceptible to life-threatening infections

FB1 Past Exams (42 decks)

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