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FB1 Past Exams > extra anatomy Q's (midterm) > Flashcards

extra anatomy Q's (midterm) Flashcards

1
Q

In the anatomical position, where are the palms facing?

a. facing backward
b. facing the body
c. facing frontward

A

c. facing frontward

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2
Q

Which of the following positions does the patient lie on his stomach?

a. prone
b. supine
c. lithotomy position

A

a. prone

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3
Q

Which of the following is more distal?

a. shoulder
b. toes

A

b. toes

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4
Q

Which of the following is more proximal?

a. shoulder
b. toes

A

a. shoulder

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5
Q

Which of the following is defined as nearer to the trunk or the point of origin?

a. lateral
b. medial
c. distal
d. proximal

A

d. proximal

medial= nearer to the median line

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6
Q

the villi of the small intestine are considered as

a. evagination
b. invagination

A

a. evagination

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7
Q

Eversion of the foot involves raising which foot border?

a. medial border
b. lateral border

A

b. lateral border

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8
Q

Which end of the muscle shows more movement?

a. origin
b. belly
c. insertion

A

c. insertion

a= less movement

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9
Q

Which end of the muscle is known as the proximal attachment?

a. origin
b. belly
c. insertion

A

a. origin

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10
Q

Which phase of gametogenesis is the same in males and females?

a. first phase
b. second phase
c. meosis phase
d. maturation phase

A

a. first phase

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11
Q

What happens when primordial germ cells lose their way or don’t migrate properly?

A

forms into teratomas

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12
Q

What is atresia?

a. when spermatogonia degenerate
b. when spermatogonia stop being able to divide
c. when oogonia degenerate
d. when oogonia stop being able to divide

A

c. when oogonia degenerate

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13
Q

What kind of epithelial cells surround primordial follicle?

a. squamous
b. cuboidal

A

a. squamous

b=primary follicle

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14
Q

At which stage are primary follicles paused?

a. prophase of meiosis I
b. metaphase of meiosis I
c. prophase II of meiosis II
d. metaphase II of meiosis II

A

a. prophase of meiosis I

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15
Q

Which of the following is most exterior of a follicle

a. granulosa cells
b. zona pellucida
c. theca

A

c. theca

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16
Q

How long does it take to make haploid spermatids?

a. 35 days
b. 44 days
c. 55 days
d. 64 days

A

d. 64 days

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17
Q

Which of the following is characterized by cleft lip, mental retardation, deafness, and eye defects?

a. trisomy 13
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 21

A

a. trisomy 13

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18
Q

Which of the following is characterized by premature aging, thyroid dysfunction, and intellectual disabilities?

a. trisomy 13
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 21

A

c. trisomy 21

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19
Q

Which of the following is characterized by congenital heart problems and flexion of fingers and hands?

a. trisomy 13
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 21

A

b. trisomy 18

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20
Q

At which stage are ovulated oocytes paused?

a. prophase of meiosis I
b. metaphase of meiosis I
c. prophase II of meiosis II
d. metaphase II of meiosis II

A

d. metaphase II of meiosis II

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21
Q

In which of the following does the zona pellucida and granulosa cells first appear?

a. early primary follicle
b. late primary follicle
c. secondary follicle

A

b. late primary follicle

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22
Q

Which characterizes week 9 of pregnancy?

a. part of the embryonic period
b. part of the fetal stage

A

b. part of the fetal stage

fetal stage= 8 weeks to birth

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23
Q

Which of the following does LH do?

a. decrease collagenase activity
b. corpus luteum degradation
c. increase prostaglandin

A

c. increase prostaglandin

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24
Q

Which of the following causes muscular contractions of the ovarian wall?

a. progesterone
b. prostaglandin

A

b. prostaglandin

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25
Q

Which TWO develop the Corpus Luteum?

a. FSH
b. LH
c. progesterone
d. prostaglandin

A

b. LH
&
c. progesterone

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26
Q

Where does capacitation occur?

a. ovaries
b. uterine tube
c. uterus

A

b. uterine tube

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27
Q

When does the acrosomal reaction occur?

a. when the sperm contacts thecal cells
b. when the sperm contacts granulosa cells
c. when the sperm contacts the zona pellucida

A

c. when the sperm contacts the zona pellucida

the actin fibers of the sperm elongate and trigger it

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28
Q

Which protein of the oocyte membrane does the sperm bind to first?

a. alpha protein
b. beta protein

A

b. beta protein

beta protein binds the sperm to the membrane and then alpha protein inserts it into the membrane

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29
Q

When Na+ diffuses into the oocyte, what occurs?

a. cortical reaction
b. slow block
c. membrane depolarization
d. ZIPs destroy sperm receptors

A

c. membrane depolarization

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30
Q

When Ca+ is released from the ER into the oocyte, what occurs?

a. cortical reaction
b. sperm binding receptors turn off
c. membrane depolarization
d. fast block

A

a. cortical reaction

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31
Q

The cortical reaction is a part of

a. fast block to polyspermy
b. slow block to polyspermy

A

b. slow block to polyspermy

depolarization is the fast block

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32
Q

Which of the following adheres into the endometrium?

a. blastomere
b. morula
c. blastocyst
d. embryoblast

A

c. blastocyst

the trophoblast cells of the blastocyst integrate

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33
Q

Which of the following secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?

a. Cytotrophoblast
b. Syncytiotrophoblast

A

b. Syncytiotrophoblast

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34
Q

What does hCG do?

a. stimulates the corpus luteum
b. produce progesterone and estrogen

A

a. stimulates the corpus luteum

the corpus luteum makes progesterone and estrogen

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35
Q

When is hCG is at its peak?

a. 4 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 10 weeks

A

b. 8 weeks

2nd to 3rd month the placenta starts making progesterone and estrogen making it useless

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36
Q

What’s FALSE about the basement membrane?

a. it’s polysaccharide-rich
b. it has no vascularity
c. it acts as a filter
d. it regenerates slowly

A

d. it regenerates slowly

it’s highly regenerative

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37
Q

The glomerulus of kidney is made up of

a. Simple columnar epithelium ciliated
b. Simple columnar microvilli epithelium with goblet cells
c. Simple squamous epithelium
d. Simple cuboidal epithelium

A

c. Simple squamous epithelium

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38
Q

Which of the following synthesizes hormones?

a. Simple columnar epithelium ciliated
b. Simple columnar microvilli epithelium with goblet cells
c. Simple squamous epithelium
d. Simple cuboidal epithelium

A

d. Simple cuboidal epithelium

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39
Q

Which of the following characterizes the ovary ducts, or fallopian tubes?

a. Simple columnar epithelium ciliated
b. Simple columnar microvilli epithelium with goblet cells
c. Simple squamous epithelium
d. Simple cuboidal epithelium

A

a. Simple columnar epithelium ciliated

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40
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be found in the respiratory tract?

a. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium with goblet cells
b. Transitional ciliated epithelium with goblet cells
c. Stratified columnar ciliated epithelium with goblet cells

A

a. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium with goblet cells

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41
Q

Which of the following characterizes the intestinal lining?

a. Simple columnar epithelium ciliated with goblet cells
b. Simple columnar microvilli epithelium with goblet cells
c. Simple squamous epithelium
d. Simple cuboidal epithelium

A

b. Simple columnar microvilli epithelium with goblet cells

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42
Q

Which of the following release hormones?

a. Exocrine glands
b. Endocrine glands
c. Paracrine glands

A

b. Endocrine glands

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43
Q

Which of the following describes Simple glands?

a. only secrete hormones
b. only have a tubular secretory parts
c. only have unbranched ducts

A

c. only have unbranched ducts

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44
Q

Which of the following gland type release their product via exocytosis?

a. Apocrine
b. Merocrine
c. Holocrine

A

b. Merocrine

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45
Q

Sebaceous glands of hair follicles are classified as

a. Apocrine gland
b. Merocrine gland
c. Holocrine gland

A

c. Holocrine gland

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46
Q

Mammary glands are

a. Apocrine
b. Merocrine
c. Holocrine

A

a. Apocrine

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47
Q

Which of the following have serous demilunes?

a. Serous cells
b. Mucous cells
c. Seromucous cells
d. Myoepithelial cells

A

c. Seromucous cells

ex/ sublingual gland

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48
Q

Which of the following are described as pyramid-shaped, with its apex at the lumen

a. Serous cells
b. Mucous cells
c. Seromucous cells

A

a. Serous cells

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49
Q

Which of the following is star-shaped?

a. Serous cells
b. Mucous cells
c. Seromucous cells
d. Myoepithelial cells

A

d. Myoepithelial cells

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50
Q

Which of the following is most likely found respiratory and genital tract?

a. Serous cells
b. Mucous cells
c. Seromucous cells
d. Myoepithelial cells

A

b. Mucous cells

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51
Q

What is on the tip of actin filaments?

a. villin
b. spectrin

A

a. villin

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52
Q

Actin filaments are stabilized by

a. villin
b. spectrin

A

b. spectrin

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53
Q

Which of the following look like finger-like projections?

a. cilia
b. microvilli

A

b. microvilli

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54
Q

Which of the following look like hair-like projections?

a. cilia
b. microvilli

A

a. cilia

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55
Q

A pair of arms that extends off the “A” microtubule to form cross-bridges with the “B” microtubule in the adjacent doublet is called

a. nexin
b. dynein
c. myosin

A

b. dynein

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56
Q

Which of the following links doublets together?

a. nexin
b. dynein
c. myosin

A

a. nexin

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57
Q

Stereocilia are long…

a. cilia
b. microvilli

A

b. microvilli

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58
Q

Flaggellum are long…

a. cilia
b. microvilli

A

a. cilia

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59
Q

What does the Erzin of Stereocilia do?

a. at the tip of stereocilium
b. anchors actin bundles together
c. anchors the actin bundles to plasma membrane

A

c. anchors the actin bundles to plasma membrane

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60
Q

Where are Flagella found?

a. receptor hair cells in the ear
b. sperm
c. male reproductive tract

A

b. sperm

the rest are Stereocilia

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61
Q

Which of the following interacts with actin filaments?

a. desmosomes
b. belt desmosome
c. hemi-desmosomes

A

b. belt desmosome

the rest interact with intermediate filaments

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62
Q

Which of the following interacts with intermediate filaments?

a. zonula adherens
b. maculae adherenes

A

b. maculae adherenes

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63
Q

Which of the following interacts with actin filaments?

a. zonula adherens
b. maculae adherenes

A

a. zonula adherens

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64
Q

Gap junctions are made of which protein?

a. nexus
b. connexons

A

b. connexons

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65
Q

Which of the following make up Lamina Densa?

a. Type III collagen
b. Type IV collagen
c. Type VII collagen
d. none

A

b. Type IV collagen

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66
Q

Which of the following makes up the anchoring plaque?

a. Type III collagen
b. Type IV collagen
c. Type VII collagen
d. none

A

b. Type IV collagen

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67
Q

Which of the following makes up the anchoring fibrils?

a. Type III collagen
b. Type IV collagen
c. Type VII collagen
d. none

A

c. Type VII collagen

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68
Q

Lamina Reticularis is made up of?

a. Type III collagen
b. Type IV collagen
c. Type VII collagen
d. none

A

a. Type III collagen

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69
Q

Where is Erzin found?

a. flagella
b. cilia
c. stereocilia
d. microvilli

A

c. stereocilia

70
Q

Where is Spectrin found?

a. flagella
b. cilia
c. stereocilia
d. microvilli

A

d. microvilli

71
Q

When does implantation occur?

a. day 4
b. day 7
c. day 14

A

b. day 7

72
Q

Which part of the germ disc does primitive streak from?

a. cranial region
b. caudal region

A

b. caudal region

73
Q

The primitive node occurs at which end of the primitive streak?

a. cephalic end
b. caudal end

A

a. cephalic end

74
Q

What’s the function of the Anterior Visceral Endoderm (AVE) cells?

a. express genes essential for head formation
b. express genes essential for limb formation

A

a. express genes essential for head formation

75
Q

Which of the following aim to ventralize the mesoderm?

a. Brachyury (T) gene
b. Goosecoid
c. BMP4
d. noggin and follistatin

A

c. BMP4 (and FGF ventralize)

the rest antagonize it to dorsalize the mesoderm

76
Q

Where does the nodal protein accumulate?

a. on the right side of the node
b. on the left side of the node

A

b. on the left side of the node

77
Q

Why does serotonin (5HT) increase in concentration on the left side?

a. its metabolized by MAO on the right
b. MAO is expressed on the left & is attracting it
c. LEFTY-1 is expressed on the left & is attracting it

A

a. its metabolized by MAO on the right

78
Q

Which of the following is the midline barrier of the notochord?

a. serotonin (5HT)
b. MAO
c. Brachyury (T)
d. SHH
e. PITX 2

A

d. SHH

79
Q

Which of the following causes Malformation of the head region?

a. maternal diabetes
b. Over- or underexpression of Goosecoid
c. remnants of the primitive streak
d. Laterality defects

A

b. Over- or underexpression of Goosecoid

80
Q

Which of the following causes Situs inversus?

a. maternal diabetes
b. Over- or underexpression of Goosecoid
c. remnants of the primitive streak
d. Laterality defects

A

d. Laterality defects

81
Q

Which of the following causes sirenomelia (caudal dysgenesis)?

a. maternal diabetes
b. Over- or underexpression of Goosecoid
c. remnants of the primitive streak
d. Laterality defects

A

a. maternal diabetes

82
Q

Which of the following causes Sacrococcygeal teratomas?

a. maternal diabetes
b. Over- or underexpression of Goosecoid
c. remnants of the primitive streak
d. Laterality defects

A

c. remnants of the primitive streak

83
Q

Which is the most abundant cell type in all connective tissue proper?

a. Lymphocytes
b. Mesenchymal Cells
c. Fibroblasts

A

c. Fibroblasts

84
Q

Which of the following is found in tendons & ligaments?

a. Collagenous fibers
b. Elastic fibers
c. Reticular fibers

A

a. Collagenous fibers

85
Q

Which of the following is found around the liver & bone marrow?

a. Collagenous fibers
b. Elastic fibers
c. Reticular fibers

A

c. Reticular fibers

86
Q

Which of the following is found in the aortic wall and the vocal cords?

a. Collagenous fibers
b. Elastic fibers
c. Reticular fibers

A

b. Elastic fibers

87
Q

Which of the following is the origin of all CT?

a. mesenchyme
b. hematopoietic stem cell

A

a. mesenchyme

88
Q

Which is most likely to be found in infants?

a. uniocular adipocyte
b. multiocular adipocyte

A

b. multiocular adipocyte

89
Q

Describe mesenchymal cells (in embryonic CT)

a. large cytoplasm, small nucleus
b. large nucleus, small cytoplasm
c. round shaped nucleus

A

b. large nucleus, small cytoplasm

big, oval shaped nucleus in small cytoplasm

90
Q

Which of the following is rich in rER & Golgi?

a. fibroblast
b. fibrocyte

A

a. fibroblast

91
Q

branched cytoplasm is a characteristic of

a. fibroblast
b. fibrocyte

A

a. fibroblast

92
Q

describe fat cells under osmotic acid stain

a. white
b. blue
c. black
d. silver

A

c. black

93
Q

T/F: Reticular Tissue holds blood vessels and

capillary beds

A

false, that the job of areolar tissue

94
Q

Which of the following is also known as white fibrous CT?

a. Dense regular connective tissue
b. Dense irregular connective tissue
c. Dense elastic connective tissue

A

a. Dense regular connective tissue

95
Q

Which of the following is the white of the eyeball made of?

a. Dense regular connective tissue
b. Dense irregular connective tissue
c. Dense elastic connective tissue

A

b. Dense irregular connective tissue

96
Q

Which of the following is most abundant and widely distributed?

a. Collagen Type I
b. Collagen Type II
c. Collagen Type III
d. Collagen Type IV
e. Collagen Type VII

A

a. Collagen Type I

97
Q

Which of the following anchors the basal lamina to lamina reticularis?

a. Collagen Type I
b. Collagen Type II
c. Collagen Type III
d. Collagen Type IV
e. Collagen Type VII

A

e. Collagen Type VII

98
Q

Which of the following is made by Schawnn cell?

a. Collagen Type I
b. Collagen Type II
c. Collagen Type III
d. Collagen Type IV
e. Collagen Type VII

A

d. Collagen Type IV

found in basal lamina

99
Q

Which of the following is made by chondroblasts?

a. Collagen Type I
b. Collagen Type II
c. Collagen Type III
d. Collagen Type IV
e. Collagen Type VII

A

b. Collagen Type II

makes cartilage; car-TWO-lage

100
Q

In tropocollagen, every third amino acid is

a. serine
b. proline
c. glycine

A

c. glycine

101
Q

A collagen fiber is made out of

a. tendon
b. bundle
c. fibril
d. three alpha chains
e. tropocollagen

A

d. fibrils

102
Q

A collagen fibril is made out of

a. tendon
b. bundle
c. fiber
d. three alpha chains
e. tropocollagen

A

e. tropocollagen

103
Q

A collagen bundle is made out of

a. tendon
b. fibril
c. fiber
d. three alpha chains
e. tropocollagen

A

c. fibers

104
Q

Tropocollagen is made out of

a. tendon
b. fibril
c. fiber
d. three alpha chains
e. bundle

A

d. three alpha chains

105
Q

Which of the following is argyrophilic, which means easily stained black by silver salts

a. Reticular Fibers
b. Elastic Fibers
c. Collagen Fibers

A

a. Reticular Fibers

106
Q

Smooth muscle cells produce which of the following?

a. Reticular Fibers
b. Elastic Fibers
c. Collagen Fibers

A

b. Elastic Fibers

107
Q

Which stain makes Elastic Fibers appear purple?

a. Orcein
b. Resorcin-fuchsin
c. Weigert’s

A

b. Resorcin-fuchsin

108
Q

glomerulonephritis and hematuria may be indicators of a genetic disorder affecting which collagen type?

a. Collagen Type VII
b. Collagen type I
c. Collagen Type IV
d. Collagen type III

A

c. Collagen Type IV

Alport syndrome (AS)

109
Q

Kindler’s Syndrome is a disorder of which collagen type?

a. Collagen Type VII
b. Collagen type I
c. Collagen Type IV
d. Collagen type III

A

a. Collagen Type VII

110
Q

Blue sclera, discolored or fragile teeth, and nose bleeds are indicators of a deficiency of which collagen type?

a. Collagen Type VII
b. Collagen type I
c. Collagen Type IV
d. Collagen type III

A

b. Collagen type I

111
Q

Haversian system is

a. functional unit of spongy bone
b. functional unit of compact bone

A

b. functional unit of compact bone

112
Q

coccyx & sacrum are examples of

a. long bones
b. short bones
c. flat bones
d. Irregular bones

A

d. Irregular bones

113
Q

sesamoid bone is a type of

a. long bones
b. short bones
c. flat bones
d. Irregular bones

A

b. short bones

114
Q

phalanges are type of

a. long bones
b. short bones
c. flat bones
d. Irregular bones

A

a. long bones

115
Q

the bones of the skull undergo

a. intramembranous ossification
b. endochondral ossification

A

a. intramembranous ossification

116
Q

long bones undergo

a. intramembranous ossification
b. endochondral ossification

A

b. endochondral ossification

117
Q

The nutrient artery nourishes the inner 2/3 of the cortex, Which of the following enter Volkmann’s canals to nourish the rest of the cortex?

a. Metaphyseal arteries
b. Epiphyseal arteries
c. Periosteal arteries

A

c. Periosteal arteries

118
Q

Which is the most common classification of joint within the human body?

a. Synarthrosis
b. Diarthrosis
c. Amphiarthrosis

A

b. Diarthrosis

AKA Synovial Joints

119
Q

When bones are joined by hyaline they’re classified as

a. synchondroses joint
b. symphyses joint

A

a. synchondroses joint

synchondroses= almost immovable joint
symphyses= immovable joint
120
Q

When two bones joined by fibrocartilage they’re classified as

a. Primary Cartilaginous joints
b. Secondary Cartilaginous joints

A

b. Secondary Cartilaginous joints

Primary Cartilaginous joint= synchondroses
Secondary Cartilaginous joints= symphyses

121
Q

Which of the following is found between the ulna and the radius?

a. gomphosis
b. syndesmoses

A

b. syndesmoses

122
Q

Which of the following jioint that binds the teeth to bony teeth sockets?

a. gomphosis
b. syndesmoses

A

a. gomphosis

123
Q

ribs 11 and 12 are

a. true ribs
b. floating ribs

A

b. floating ribs

124
Q

An extra rib which arises from the seventh cervical vertebra characterizes

a. Cervical rib syndrome
b. Thoracic outlet syndrome

A

a. Cervical rib syndrome

125
Q

The scalene muscle is attached to

a. clavicle
b. rib 1
c. rib 2

A

b. rib 1

126
Q

Which of the following attach to the bottom/top of the vertebrae?

a. tubercle
b. facet

A

b. facet

tubercle= attach to the transverse process of vertebrae

127
Q

Which of the following is the most anterior structure of hte thoracic aperture?

a. superior vena cava
b. subclavian vein

A

a. superior vena cava

128
Q

Which of ht following enter through the tendon of the diaphragm?

a. aorta
b. esophagus
c. inferior vena cava

A

c. inferior vena cava

129
Q

Where is the aortic arch located?

a. Superior mediastinum
b. Anterior mediastinum
c. Middle mediastinum
d. Posterior mediastinum

A

a. Superior mediastinum

130
Q

Where is the azygous vein arch located?

a. Superior mediastinum
b. Anterior mediastinum
c. Middle mediastinum
d. Posterior mediastinum

A

c. Middle mediastinum

131
Q

Where is the esophagus located?

a. Anterior mediastinum
b. Middle mediastinum
c. Posterior mediastinum

A

c. Posterior mediastinum

132
Q

Where is the descending aorta located?

a. Anterior mediastinum
b. Middle mediastinum
c. Posterior mediastinum

A

c. Posterior mediastinum

133
Q

Which of the following is at vertebral level L5?

a. Subcostal plane
b. Transtubercular plane
c. Midclavicular plane

A

b. Transtubercular plane

134
Q

Which of the following is at the inferior border of the 10th costal cartilage and vertebral level L3?

a. Subcostal plane
b. Transtubercular plane
c. Midclavicular plane

A

a. Subcostal plane

135
Q

Which of the following passes through the anterior superior iliac spine?

a. interspinous plane
b. transpyloric plane

A

a. interspinous plane

136
Q

Which of the following is more superficial?

a. scarpa fascia
b. tranversalis fascia
c. camper fascia

A

c. camper fascia

137
Q

Which of the following is more deep?

a. scarpa fascia
b. tranversalis fascia
c. camper fascia

A

b. tranversalis fascia

138
Q 
Which of the following is NOT retroperitoneal?
a. duodenum
b kidneys
c. pancreas
d. stomatch
A

d. stomatch

stomach and spleen are intraperitoneal

139
Q

What induces the ectoderm to form the neural plate?

A

Notochord

140
Q

neural folds fuse and form somites at the cervical region, which somite is the first to form?

a. 1st somite
b. 5th somite
c. 8th somite
d. 13th somite

A

b. 5th somite

141
Q

Which of the following closes first?

a. anterior neuropore
b. posterior neuropore

A

b. posterior neuropore

anterior neuropore= day 25
posterior neuropore= day 28

142
Q

Which of the following are odontoblasts derived from?

a. exoderm
b. mesoderm
c. endoderm
d. neural crest

A

d. neural crest

143
Q

Which of the following forms the dermis of the skin?

a. Intermediate mesoderm
b. Splanchnic mesoderm
c. Somatic mesoderm

A

c. Somatic mesoderm

epidermis= ectoderm derived

144
Q

Which of the following forms the urinary and reproductive systems?

a. Intermediate mesoderm
b. Splanchnic mesoderm
c. Somatic mesoderm

A

a. Intermediate mesoderm

urinary bladder= endoderm derived

145
Q

When will the mother feel the fetus kicking?

a. 2nd month
b. 3rd month
c. 4th month

A

c. 4th month

146
Q

Which is an ectodermal germ layer derivative?

a. Schwann cells
b. Glial cells
c. central nervous system
d. Odontoblasts

A

c. central nervous system

& enamel of the teeth

147
Q

Which is a paraxial mesoderm derivative?

a. vertebra
b. central nervous system
c. mammary glands
d. glial cells

A

a. vertebra

paraxial mesoderm become somites

148
Q

Femoral nerves (L2-L4) are located in

a. Lesser pelvis
b. Greater pelvis

A

b. Greater pelvis

149
Q

Pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2-S4) are located in

a. Lesser pelvis
b. Greater pelvis

A

a. Lesser pelvis

150
Q

Which of the following characterizes a male pelvis?

a. more circular shape
b. ischial spines less projected
c. smaller pubic arch angle

A

c. smaller pubic arch angle

151
Q

the femoral artery is derived from

a. internal iliac artery
b. external iliac artery

A

b. external iliac artery

152
Q

What separates the urogenital and anal triangle?

A

ischial tuberosity

153
Q

Which of the following is multinucleated?

a. cytotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast

A

b. syncytiotrophoblast

154
Q

Which of the following forms primary villi?

a. cytotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast

A

a. cytotrophoblast

155
Q

Which of the following forms trophoblastic lacunae?

a. cytotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast

A

b. syncytiotrophoblast

156
Q

Which two of the following fuse together?

a. decidua basalis
b. decidua capsularis
c. decidua parietali

A

b. decidua capsularis
&
c. decidua parietali

157
Q

What separates the placenta from the amniochorionic membrane?

A

chorionic plate

158
Q

Which two of the following forms the maternal part of the placenta?

a. decidua basalis
b. decidua capsularis
c. decidua parietali

A

a. decidua basalis

159
Q

Which of the following is formed in the second week?

a. primary vilius
b. secondary vilius
c. tertiary vilius

A

a. primary vilius

160
Q

Which of the following is formed in the fourth week?

a. primary vilius
b. secondary vilius
c. tertiary vilius

A

c. tertiary vilius

161
Q

Which of the following can pass from the mother to the fetus?

a. heparin
b. bacteria
c. IgS
d. IgG

A

d. IgG

162
Q

What’s true about monozygotic twins?

a. one chorionic sac
b. one amniotic sac

A

a. one chorionic sac

163
Q

Which of the following has low amniotic fluid?

a. Oligohydramnios
b. Polyhydramnios

A

a. Oligohydramnios

164
Q

Which of the following blocks the birth canal?

a. placenta accreta
b. placenta percreta
c. placenta previa

A

c. placenta previa

165
Q

Which of the following burrows deeper into uterus?

a. placenta accreta
b. placenta percreta

A

b. placenta percreta

166
Q

Which of the following is characterized by fused feet?

a. cystic hygroma colli
b. sirenomelia
c. fetal thyroid deficiency
d. club foot

A

b. sirenomelia

167
Q

Which of the following is caused by Radioiodine therapy?

a. cystic hygroma colli
b. sirenomelia
c. fetal thyroid deficiency
d. club foot

A

c. fetal thyroid deficiency

168
Q

Which of the following is caused by Oligohydramnios?

a. cystic hygroma colli
b. sirenomelia
c. fetal thyroid deficiency
d. club foot

A

d. club foot

169
Q

Which of the following is characterized by a collar looking malformation?

a. cystic hygroma colli
b. sirenomelia
c. fetal thyroid deficiency
d. club foot

A

a. cystic hygroma colli

170
Q

Which of the following has the longest average life span?

a. Trisomy 13
b. Trisomy 18
c. Trisomy 21

A

c. Trisomy 21

low serum alpha-fetoprotein indicates it

FB1 Past Exams (42 decks)

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