Extra credit quiz Flashcards

1
Q

A patient is generally considered to have orthostatic vital signs when:
Choose one answer.
A. the respiratory rate becomes fast and the depth becomes shallow when he or she suddenly stands up.
B. the systolic BP increases and the diastolic BP decreases when going from a lying to a sitting position.
C. the heart rate increases by 20 beats/min or more when going from a supine to a standing position.
D. he or she experiences chest pain and a rapid, irregular heart rate when going from a seated to a standing position.

A

c

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2
Q

If a hostile family member suddenly leaves the room, especially in the middle of a conversation with him or her, you should:
Choose one answer.
A. ignore the family member’s departure and continue to assess your patient.
B. have your partner follow the person, while working to defuse the situation.
C. immediately depart the scene and notify law enforcement personnel.
D. ask the patient to follow the person in an attempt to reason with him or her.

A

B

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3
Q

The fourth heart sound (S4):
Choose one answer.
A. indicates increased pressure in the atria.
B. represents increased left ventricular stretching.
C. is normal in 25% of the population.
D. occurs immediately before the S2 sound.

A

A

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4
Q
Abdominal guarding is MOST commonly encountered in patients with:
Choose one answer.
	 A. acute renal failure.  	
	 B. chronic liver inflammation.  	
	 C. peritoneal irritation.  	
	 D. intra-abdominal bleeding.
A

C

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5
Q
A patient with dysarthria has:
Choose one answer.
	 A. slurred speech.  	
	 B. severe stuttering.  	
	 C. painful joints.  	
	 D. a flat affect.
A

A

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6
Q

Cognitive function can be MOST accurately defined as:
Choose one answer.
A. one’s state of awareness.
B. functional use of the extremities.
C. the ability to use reasoning.
D. general level of consciousness.

A

C

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7
Q
In general, +3 pitting edema is characterized by indentation of the skin to a depth of:
Choose one answer.
	 A. ¼ in to ½ in.  	
	 B. greater than 1 in.  	
	 C. ½ in to 1 in.  	
	 D. 0 in to ¼ in.
A

C

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8
Q

Any time you encounter jugular venous distention in a patient, you should determine:
Choose one answer.
A. what body cavity the patient is bleeding into that is causing lost volume.
B. where the venous obstruction is that is impeding blood return to the heart.
C. what is happening to the heart to cause such a large increase in preload.
D. what condition the patient has that is causing decreased venous pressure.

A

B

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9
Q
Bruising in the periumbilical area is indicative of:
Choose one answer.
	 A. ruptured ectopic pregnancy.  	
	 B. a ruptured urinary bladder.  	
	 C. intraperitoneal hemorrhage.  	
	 D. a leaking aortic aneurysm.
A

C

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10
Q
Percussion of the chest produces \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ if the pleural space is full of blood.
Choose one answer.
	 A. hyperresonance  	
	 B. a high-pitched note  	
	 C. a hollow sound  	
	 D. a dull sound
A

D

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11
Q
The skin becomes \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ when red blood cell perfusion to the capillary beds of the skin is poor.
Choose one answer.
	 A. pale  	
	 B. cyanotic  	
	 C. flushed  	
	 D. mottled
A

A

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12
Q

To appreciate the S1 sound:
Choose one answer.
A. ask the patient to breathe normally and hold his or her breath on inhalation.
B. ask the patient to breathe normally and hold his or her breath on expiration.
C. the patient should be sitting upright and leaning slightly backward.
D. the patient should be supine with his or her body tilted to the right

A

B

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13
Q
A patient who does not respond to verbal or tactile stimuli is:
Choose one answer.
	 A. disoriented.  	
	 B. unresponsive.  	
	 C. lethargic.  	
	 D. semiconscious.
A

B

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14
Q

The Babinski sign, grasping, and sucking are:
Choose one answer.
A. voluntary motor responses.
B. examples of primitive reflexes.
C. signs of nervous system dysfunction.
D. abnormal findings in infants.

A

B

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15
Q

Which of the following statements regarding ascites is correct?
Choose one answer.
A. The most common cause of ascites is an acute splenic injury.
B. The abdomen of a patient with ascites has a sunken appearance.
C. Ascites is a collection of fluid within the peritoneal cavity.
D. Percussion of the abdomen will often yield hyperresonance.

A

C

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16
Q
Flushed skin is commonly seen as a result of all the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
	 A. heat exposure.  	
	 B. fever.  	
	 C. vasoconstriction.  	
	 D. superficial burns.
A

C

17
Q

Intermittent claudication is defined as:
Choose one answer.
A. enlarged lower extremities due to reduced lymphatic drainage.
B. transient swelling of the microvasculature of the extremities.
C. cramplike pain in the lower extremities due to poor circulation.
D. bulging of the vessels in the legs while in a standing position.

A

C

18
Q
The brachioradialis tendon is located:
Choose one answer.
	 A. directly over the elbow.  	
	 B. on the distal humerus.  	
	 C. proximal to the wrist.  	
	 D. in the antecubital fossa.
A

C

19
Q
All of the following are adventitious breath sounds, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
	 A. rales.  	
	 B. vesicular sounds.  	
	 C. wheezes.  	
	 D. rhonchi.
A

B

20
Q

A patient who is overly talkative during your assessment:
Choose one answer.
A. will not give a reliable medical history.
B. may have abused methamphetamines.
C. should be interrupted immediately.
D. is usually an inherently antisocial person.

A

B

21
Q

The MOST effective way to obtain a medical history from a patient who is crying is to:
Choose one answer.
A. tactfully advise the patient that you cannot effectively help him or her if he or she continues to cry.
B. place your hand on his or her shoulder (if appropriate for the patient) and reassure him or her that you are in control of the situation.
C. have one family member calm the patient as you gather the medical history from another family member.
D. administer a sedative medication, which will calm the patient and facilitate your gathering of the medical history.

A

B

22
Q

It would MOST likely be necessary to ask a patient a direct question if:
Choose one answer.
A. he or she is having chest pain and a heart attack must be ruled out.
B. he or she is not giving you usable facts about himself or herself.
C. there are numerous family members and friends present at the scene.
D. he or she is elderly and has more than one medical complaint.

A

B

23
Q
If a patient's trigeminal nerve is intact, he or she should be able to:
Choose one answer.
	 A. maintain balance.  	
	 B. clench his or her jaw.  	
	 C. swallow without difficulty.  	
	 D. frown.
A

B

24
Q
A bruit indicates \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ blood flow and is MOST significant in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ arteries.
Choose one answer.
	 A. laminar, carotid  	
	 B. turbulent, femoral  	
	 C. turbulent, carotid  	
	 D. laminar, brachial
A

C

25
Q

S1, the first heart sound, represents:
Choose one answer.
A. the sound heard at the end of systole.
B. closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves.
C. the sound heard at the end of diastole.
D. closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves.

A

B

26
Q

A multi-systems trauma patient opens his eyes in response to pain, moans when you ask him his name, and withdraws from painful stimuli. From this information, you should:
Choose one answer.
A. hyperventilate him with a bag-mask at 24 breaths/min.
B. conclude that he has severe neurologic dysfunction.
C. assign him a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 and apply oxygen.
D. assume that he has an intracerebral hemorrhage.

A

B

27
Q

In contrast to dementia, delirium is:
Choose one answer.
A. more common in the elderly population.
B. a gradual deterioration in cognitive function.
C. an acute change in mental status.
D. characteristic of Alzheimer’s disease.

A

C

28
Q
The vestibulocochlear nerve is responsible for the functions of:
Choose one answer.
	 A. hearing and balance perception.  	
	 B. tongue and neck movements.  	
	 C. facial and eye movements.  	
	 D. swallowing and gland secretion.
A

A

29
Q

The optic nerve is a _______ nerve, and controls _______.
Choose one answer.
A. sensory, hearing and balance perception
B. motor, eye movements and pupil dilation
C. sensory, light perception and vision
D. motor, pupil constriction and eye movement

A

C

30
Q
A patient who complains of double vision has:
Choose one answer.
	 A. ptosis.  	
	 B. anisocoria.  	
	 C. diplopia.  	
	 D. hyperopia.
A

C