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Parasitology [LAB] > Exercise No. 6c-2 PROTOZOA Phylum Sarcomastigophora - Subphylum Mastigophora - Hemoflagellates > Flashcards

Exercise No. 6c-2 PROTOZOA Phylum Sarcomastigophora - Subphylum Mastigophora - Hemoflagellates Flashcards

1
Q

four morphologic forms of clinical significance associated with hemoflagellates

A

amastigote, promastigote, epimastigote, and trypomastigote

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2
Q

amastigote was formerly called

A

leishmania

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3
Q

promastigote was formerly called

A

leptomonas

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4
Q

epimastigote was formerly called

A

crithidia

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5
Q

trypomastigote was formerly called

A

trypanosoma

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6
Q

This stage is adapted to intracellular existence, being found inside macrophages, monocytes, neutrophils, or endothelial cells.

A

Amastigote

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7
Q

It is also known as the L-D (Leishman-Donovan) body.

A

Amastigote

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8
Q

The body is slightly wider than that of the promastigote.

A

Epimastigote

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9
Q

Volutin granules are found in the cytoplasm.

A

Trypomastigote

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10
Q

shape and size: ovoidal in shape and, on an average, measures 5 µm long by 3 µm wide

A

Amastigote

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11
Q

shape and size: spindle-shaped and measures 9 to 15 µm in length

A

Promastigote (typical)

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12
Q

shape and size: spindle-shaped and measures approximately 9 to 15 µm in length

A

Epimastigote (average)

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13
Q

shape and size: may be long and slender or assumes the shape of the letters C, S or U, and measures 12 to 35 µm long by 2 to 4 µm wide

A

Trypomastigote

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14
Q

nucleus: large single nucleus that is typically located off-center, sometimes present more toward the edge of the organism

A

Amastigote

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15
Q

nucleus: large single nucleus is located in or near the center of the body

A

Promastigote

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16
Q

nucleus: large single nucleus

A

Epimastigote; Trypomastigote

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17
Q

kinetoplast: consists of a deeply staining rod-like parabasal body and adjacent dot-like blepharoplast

A

Amastigote

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18
Q

kinetoplast: located in the anterior end of the organism and gives rise to an axoneme

A

Promastigote

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19
Q

kinetoplast: located anterior to the nucleus

A

Epimastigote

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20
Q

kinetoplast: located posteriorly from which emerges a full body length undulating membrane

A

Trypomastigote

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21
Q

blepharoplast: gives rise to and is attached to an axoneme

A

Amastigote

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22
Q

axoneme: extends to the anterior tip of the organism

A

Amastigote

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23
Q

flagellum: absent

A

Amastigote

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24
Q

flagellum: single free; extends anteriorly from the axoneme

A

Promastigote

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25
Q

undulating membrane: short; arising from the kinetoplast forms into a free flagellum at the anterior end

A

Epimastigote

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26
Q

undulating membrane: short; arising from the kinetoplast forms into a free flagellum at the posterior end

A

Trypomastigote

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27
Q

involve some combination of the four morphologic forms

A

Leishmania and Trypanosoma

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28
Q

Leishmania and Trypanosoma species are morphologically indistinguishable, but they can be differentiated by

A

isoenzyme analysis, molecular methods, or monoclonal antibodies

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29
Q

move by means of flagella

A

hemoflagellates

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30
Q

shape and size: ovoidal in shape and, on an average, measures 5 µm long by 3 µm wide

A

Amastigote

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31
Q

shape and size: spindle-shaped and measures 9 to 15 µm in length

A

Promastigote (typical)

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32
Q

shape and size: spindle-shaped and measures approximately 9 to 15 µm in length

A

Epimastigote (average)

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33
Q

shape and size: may be long and slender or assumes the shape of the letters C, S or U, and measures 12 to 35 µm long by 2 to 4 µm wide

A

Trypomastigote

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34
Q

nucleus: large single nucleus that is typically located off-center, sometimes present more toward the edge of the organism

A

Amastigote

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35
Q

nucleus: large single nucleus is located in or near the center of the body

A

Promastigote

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36
Q

nucleus: large single nucleus

A

Epimastigote; Trypomastigote

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37
Q

kinetoplast: consists of a deeply staining rod-like parabasal body and adjacent dot-like blepharoplast

A

Amastigote

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38
Q

kinetoplast: located in the anterior end of the organism and gives rise to an axoneme

A

Promastigote

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39
Q

kinetoplast: located anterior to the nucleus

A

Epimastigote

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40
Q

kinetoplast: located posteriorly from which emerges a full body length undulating membrane

A

Trypomastigote

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41
Q

blepharoplast: gives rise to and is attached to an axoneme

A

Amastigote

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42
Q

axoneme: extends to the anterior tip of the organism

A

Amastigote

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43
Q

flagellum: absent

A

Amastigote

44
Q

flagellum: single free; extends anteriorly from the axoneme

A

Promastigote

45
Q

undulating membrane: short; arising from the kinetoplast forms into a free flagellum at the anterior end

A

Epimastigote

46
Q

The specimen of choice depends on the nature of disease.

A

Leishmania

47
Q

Fluid aspirate beneath the ulcer bed, biopsy of skin ulcer

A

Old World cutaneous leishmaniasis (CL)

48
Q

Same as in CL, and mucosal scrapings

A

Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis (ML)

49
Q

Tissue aspirates (liver, splenic, sternal marrow), blood (buffy coat)

A

Visceral leishmaniasis (VL)

50
Q

Stains used in Direct microscopy of Leishmania

A

Giemsa, Wright’s or Leishman’s stains, or Hematoxylin-Eosin

51
Q

Direct microscopy Objective: Leishmania

A

oil immersion objective

52
Q

In culture, Leishmania species behave as if they are in the

A

insect vector

53
Q

NNN medium was described by

A

Novy, MacNeal and Nicolle

54
Q

This is a rabbit blood agar slope consisting of two parts of salt agar and one part of defibrinated rabbit blood.

A

NNN medium

55
Q

NNN medium: The material is inoculated into the water of condensation and culture is incubated at

A

22- 24°C for 1-4 weeks.

56
Q

NNN medium: At the end of each week, a drop of culture fluid is examined under

A

high power objective or phase contrast illumination

57
Q

This medium was originally designed for cultivation of insect tissue culture cells.

A

Schneider’s Drosophila medium

58
Q

This medium is used containing inactivated fetal bovine serum and antibiotic and antimycotic solution to isolate and grow etiologic agents of leishmaniasis.

A

Schneider’s Drosophila medium

59
Q

Immunodiagnosis: Serologic testing for Leishmania

A

IFA (indirect fluorescent antibody), ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay), and DAT (direct agglutination test)

60
Q

Molecular diagnosis: Leishmania

A

Western blot and PCR

61
Q

confined to specialized laboratories and is yet to be used for routine diagnosis of visceral leishmaniasis in endemic areas

62
Q

delayed hypersensitivity test

A

Leishmanin skin test (Montenegro test)

63
Q

Skin test: What is injected intradermally on the dorsoventral aspect of forearm?

A

0.1 mL of killed promastigote suspension (106 washed promastigotes/mL)

64
Q

Leishmanin skin test (Montenegro test) Positive result

A

induration and erythema of 5 mm or more after 48-72 hours

65
Q

Leishmanin skin test (Montenegro test)

A

It has been tested in all types of leishmaniasis with high percentage of positivity in cutaneous leishmaniasis and 95% positivity in mucocutaneous leishmaniasis.

66
Q

Leishmanin skin test (Montenegro test)

A

In active visceral leishmaniasis, this test is negative and becomes positive usually 6-8 weeks after cure from the disease.

67
Q

The concentration of gammaglobulins in blood increases considerably following infection with

A

L. donovani

68
Q

In visceral leishmaniasis, the test becomes positive only when infection is at least three months old and may remain so even after six months of cure.

A

Nonspecific serum test

69
Q

1 mL of clear serum from the patient is taken in a small test tube, a drop of formalin (40% formaldehyde) is added, shaken and kept in a rack at room temperature. A control tube with normal serum is also set up.

A

walang answer nakalagay, no. 24 sa may “laboratory” part ng exercise 6c2

70
Q

Aldehyde test of Napier (or formol gel test): specimen

A

1 mL of clear serum

71
Q

Aldehyde test of Napier (or formol gel test): reagent

A

1 drop of formalin (40% formaldehyde)

72
Q

Aldehyde test of Napier (or formol gel test): incubation

A

room temperature

73
Q

A control tube with normal serum is also set up.

A

Aldehyde test of Napier (or formol gel test)

74
Q

Aldehyde test of Napier (or formol gel test): positive result

A

opaque jellification of the test serum

75
Q

Aldehyde test of Napier (or formol gel test): positive result resemblance

A

coagulated white of egg

76
Q

Aldehyde test of Napier (or formol gel test): positive result (reaction time)

A

3-30 minutes

77
Q

Antimony test of Chopra: specimen

A

0.2 mL of serum diluted 1:10 with distilled water

78
Q

Antimony test of Chopra: reagent

A

4% solution of urea stibamine

79
Q

Aldehyde test of Napier (or formol gel test): glassware

A

small ordinary test tube

80
Q

Antimony test of Chopra: glassware

A

Dreyer’s tube

81
Q

Antimony test of Chopra: positive result

A

flocculent precipitate

82
Q

microscopic examination of chancre fluid, lymph node aspirates, blood, bone marrow, or, in the late stages of infection, cerebrospinal fluid demostrates

A

highly pleomorphic trypanosomes

83
Q

Concentration techniques such as centrifugation can be used prior to microscopic examination.

A

Trypanosoma

84
Q

Trypomastigotes are barely visible, but their motion against the RBCs makes them apparent.

A

Wet mount preparation

85
Q

The specimen is fixed on a slide and stained with Giemsa (most sensitive) or other Romanowsky’s stain (Wright, Leishman)

A

Permanent staining

86
Q

malaria diagnosis

A

Quantitative buffy coat (QBC) technique

87
Q

Almost all patients with African trypanosomiasis have very high levels of which immunoglobulin classes?

A

IgM and IgG

88
Q

Immunodiagnosis: Serologic testing for Trypanosoma

A

Indirect hemagglutination (IHA), indirect immunofluorescence (lF), enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), card agglutination trypanosomiasis test (CATT), and complement fixation test (CFT)

89
Q

Immunodiagnosis: Antigen detectionfor Trypanosoma

90
Q

T or F: Molecular diagnosis: Nucleic acid-based tests are validated for the diagnosis of African trypanosomiasis, and diagnostic performance varies considerably among these tests.

A

F - No nucleic acid-based tests are validated for the diagnosis

91
Q

Direct microscopy: Trpanosoma acute stage specimen

A

trypomastigotes in circulating blood or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

92
Q

Trypomastigotes are barely visible, but their motion against the RBCs makes them apparent.

A

Wet mount preparation

93
Q

Trypomastigotes can be seen in thick and thin blood smear stained with Giemsa (most sensitive) or other Romanowsky’s stain (Wright, Leishman)

A

Permanent staining

94
Q

malaria diagnosis

A

Quantitative buffy coat (QBC) technique

95
Q

Direct microscopy: Trpanosoma chronic stage specimen

A

biopsy specimens stained with hematoxylin-and-eosin (H&E) or Giemsa

96
Q

also used for growing T. cruzi

A

NNN (Novy, MacNeal and Nicolle) medium

97
Q

found in trypanosoma culture

A

Epimastigotes and trypomastigotes

98
Q

This is the method of choice in suspected Chagas’ disease, if other examinations are negative, especially during the early phase of the disease onset.

A

Xenodiagnosis

99
Q

allowed to feed on patient suspected to have Chagas’ disease

A

pathogen-free laboratory-bred triatomine bugs

100
Q

The bugs’ feces are examined 3-4 weeks later for the presence of trypomastigotes.

A

Xenodiagnosis

101
Q

a useful technique for determining whether the patient is infected

A

Immunodiagnosis

102
Q

parasitemia is low

A

chronic phase of infection

103
Q

can be detected in urine and sera in patients with chronic Chagas disease

A

T. cruzi antigen

104
Q

Other tests: Trypanosoma

A

Electrocardiography (ECG) and chest X-ray; Endoscopy

105
Q

useful for diagnosis and prognosis of cardiomyopathy seen in chronic Chagas disease

A

Electrocardiography (ECG) and chest X-ray

106
Q

helps in visualization of megaesophagus in Chagas disease

107
Q

Which test/tests give false-positive reactions in several other disease such as multiple myeloma, cirrhosis of liver, tuberculosis, leprosy, shictosomiases , African trypanosomiasis, etc. where hypergammaglobulinemia is a feature?

A

Nonspecific serum test (Aldehyde test of Napier and Antimony test of Chopra)

Parasitology [LAB] (15 decks)

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