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Fundamentals of Diagnostics > Exam Two > Flashcards

Exam Two Flashcards

1
Q

Your hemoglobin value multiplied by what number should equal your hematocrit +/- 1-3 values?

A

(Hgb x 3 = HCT +/- 1-3)

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2
Q

What is indicated if your Hgb x 3 does not equal HCT +/- 1-3?

A

(Hemolysis, can be in vivo or in vitro, look for icterus or increased bilirubin for in vivo causes of hemolysis)

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3
Q

What can cause neutrophilia?

A

(Inflammation and corticosteroid response (stress))

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4
Q

What can cause lymphocytosis?

A

(Epinephrine leukogram or chronic inflammation)

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5
Q

What are the more common causes of monocytosis?

A

(Stress leukogram and increased demand for macrophages; also (from eclinpath) recovery from acute marrow injury, paraneoplastic response, and monocytic/monoblastic leukemia)

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6
Q

What is the common cause of lymphopenia?

A

(Stress leukogram; also (from eclinpath) acute infection, loss of lymphocytes (chylothorax, lymphangiectasia), lymphocytolysis (viral infection, corticosteroid usage), and primary or secondary immunodeficiency)

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7
Q

What is the more common cause of neutropenia?

A

(Overwhelming inflammation)

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8
Q

Why should you confirm platelet counts with a blood smear?

A

(Bc platelet clumping can throw you numbers off)

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9
Q

How can you determine the functionality of platelets in your patient?

A

(Buccal mucosal bleeding time, aggregometry, and flow cytometry)

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10
Q

Is PTT or PT time associated with the intrinsic clotting pathway?

A

(PTT, PT is extrinsic)

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11
Q

What clotting factors are a part of the intrinsic clotting pathway?

A

(Factors 12, 11, 9, and 8)

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12
Q

What clotting factors are a part of the extrinsic clotting pathway?

A

(Factor 7 and 3 (tissue factor))

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13
Q

What clotting factors are a part of the common clotting pathway?

A

(Factors 10, 5, 2 (thrombin), and 1 (fibrinogen))

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14
Q

How do you calculate the plasma protein to fibrinogen ratio?

A

(Plasma protein minus fibrinogen divided by fibrinogen)

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15
Q

Give the PP:F values that indicate inflammation versus dehydration in horses versus cattle.

A

(Horses: <15 is inflammation, >20 is dehydration, cattle: <10 is inflammation, >15 is dehydration)

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16
Q

When is running a serum protein electrophoresis typically reserved for?

A

(In cases of unexplained hypoglobulinemia)

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17
Q

What are the normal glucose ranges for dogs, cats, horses, and cattle?

A

(Dog – 180-200, cat → 270-290, horse → 160-180, and cattle → 100-140)

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18
Q

(T/F) SDMA may increase earlier than creatinine in cases of CKD.

A

(T)

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19
Q

What proportion of renal tissue needs to be lost before azotemia is apparent on blood work?

A

(¾ loss of renal mass)

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20
Q

What proportion of renal tissue needs to be lost before the urine becomes isosthenuric?

A

(⅔ loss of renal mass)

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21
Q

How do you correct the chloride value?

A

(Take the average of the sodium reference interval and divide that by the measured sodium then multiply the measured chloride by that value)

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22
Q

Hypochloremia indicates alkalosis/acidosis (choose).

A

(Alkalosis, hyperchloremia would indicate acidosis)

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23
Q

ALT is typically used as an indicator of liver injury, what can interfere with that in dogs versus cats?

A

(Dogs → severe musculoskeletal damage and cats → hemolysis)

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24
Q

What values can be used to determine liver function?

A

(Albumin, BUN, glucose, cholesterol, coag factors, conjugated bilirubin, fibrogen, ammonia, bile acids, and RBC)

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25
Q

What values can be used to determine liver injury?

A

(ALT, AST, GDH, SDH (specific for liver damage, used in large animal but too expensive in small animal), and LDH (this one has lots of interference so not used a lot))

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26
Q

What values can be used to indicate cholestasis?

A

(ALP, GGT, bilirubin, and a urinalysis)

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27
Q

What is the primary value used to determine if there is muscle injury?

A

(CK, secondarily can used K and P since they are in high concentration in muscle cells, look for myoglobinuria, and compared AST and/or LDH to ALT (if they are high and ALT is not, more indicative of msk damage instead of liver))

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28
Q

What is indicated by a mild versus a moderate to severe increase in lipase and amylase?

A

(Mild indicates decreased GFR, moderate to severe indicates exocrine pancreatic injury)

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29
Q

What is indicated by an increase versus a decrease in TLI and PLI?

A

(If increased → exocrine pancreatic injury and/or decreased GFR , if decreased → chronic pancreatitis and exocrine pancreatic atrophy)

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30
Q

Cobalamin will be increased/decreased (choose) and folate will be increased/decreased (choose) in cases of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency.

A

(Cobalamin will be decreased and folate will be increased in cases of EPI)

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31
Q

What values can be used to determine the appropriateness of a patient’s energy metabolism?

A

(Glucose, fructosamine, cholesterol, triglycerides, ketones, and NEFAs)

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32
Q

Typically, reference intervals are based on lab data from what population of animals for a given breed?

A

(Healthy adults (usually in a group of at least 120 individuals))

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33
Q

What all can reference intervals vary based on?

A

(Equipment used, methodology, location, and the patient (species, breed, age, sex, diet, physiological state))

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34
Q

How is a reference interval determined?

A

(Take the lab work of at least 120 healthy (typically adult) animals, find the mean and include both plus and minus two standard deviations from the mean, that’s your reference interval)

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35
Q

What are the three sources of laboratory error?

A

(Preanalytical (largest variation occurs here), analytical (not a lot of variation occurs here), and post-analytical (second largest variation occurs here))

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36
Q

Listed below are some of the things that can lead to preanalytical error, what can be done to prevent these things from occurring?

  • Inappropriate test request
  • Order entry error, errors on request form
  • Misidentification, labelling errors
  • Inappropriate container or sample
  • Insufficient volume
  • Inadequate transport or storage
  • Sample processing before analysis
A

(Standard operating procedures, training of personnel, and communication with clients)

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37
Q

What can lead to analytical errors?

A

(Instrument malfunction, issues with the reagents, issues with the methodology, and operator error → these things are avoided through SOPs, training, automation, monitoring of results, and certification)

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38
Q

What can lead to post-analytical errors?

A

(Failure in reporting, improper data entry, use of inappropriate reference intervals, and incorrect interpretation of results (this is a big one))

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39
Q

Use of what type of tube can lead to a 0.0 mg/dL calcium and an erroneous increase in potassium?

A

(K3 EDTA tubes = purple)

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40
Q

Leaving a blood sample exposed to air for too long with decrease/increase (choose) bicarb and lead to an decreased/increased (choose) anion gap.

A

(Too much air exposure leads to decreased bicarb because the sample will lose CO2, decreased bicarb will make the anion gap high)

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41
Q

How do you determine how much blood you can safely collect from a patient?

A

(Find the amount of blood they have (~6-8% of their body weight), you can take 5% of that volume, 10% is the max you can remove and the animal will need 2 weeks to recover, 7.5% needs 1 week)

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42
Q

What are the additives in the tube colors listed below, what tests are they typically used for, and if you were drawing every single one of these tubes in a single patient, what order would you draw them in?

Purple

A

(EDTA, , hematology, draw sixth)

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43
Q

What are the additives in the tube colors listed below, what tests are they typically used for, and if you were drawing every single one of these tubes in a single patient, what order would you draw them in?

Blood culture bottle

A

(Culture media, blood culture, draw first)

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44
Q

What are the additives in the tube colors listed below, what tests are they typically used for, and if you were drawing every single one of these tubes in a single patient, what order would you draw them in?

Yellow

A

(Gel/clot activator, chemistry, draw fourth)

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45
Q

What are the additives in the tube colors listed below, what tests are they typically used for, and if you were drawing every single one of these tubes in a single patient, what order would you draw them in?

Grey

A

(Sodium fluoride, glucose/lactate, draw last)

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46
Q

What are the additives in the tube colors listed below, what tests are they typically used for, and if you were drawing every single one of these tubes in a single patient, what order would you draw them in?

Light blue

A

(Sodium citrate, coagulation tests, draw second)

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47
Q

What are the additives in the tube colors listed below, what tests are they typically used for, and if you were drawing every single one of these tubes in a single patient, what order would you draw them in?

Red

A

(Clot activator or nothing, chemistry, draw third)

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48
Q

What are the additives in the tube colors listed below, what tests are they typically used for, and if you were drawing every single one of these tubes in a single patient, what order would you draw them in?

Green

A

(Heparin, chemistry or hematology, draw fifth)

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49
Q

What impact can the presence of heinz bodies have on the erythron and thrombon?

A

(Can increase MCH, MCHC, retics, and platelets)

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50
Q

Use of an EDTA tube will have what impact on the erythron?

A

(Decreased MCV and HCT)

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51
Q

If a sample is old, what impact will that have on the leukon?

A

(There may be dohle bodies, decreased WBC, decreased neutrophils, increased band neutrophils, and increased or decreased lymphocytes)

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52
Q

Give the impact the following findings may have on platelet numbers:

Clumps
Ghost cells
Organisms

A

Clumps (Decreased platelet numbers)
Ghost cells (Increased platelet numbers)
Organisms (Increased platelet numbers)

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53
Q

How will hemolysis (whether in vivo or in vitro) impact the following values:

  • MCH/MCHC
  • PCV/HCT/RBC #
  • Platelets
  • CK
  • Phosphorus
  • AST, LDH, Magnesium
A
  • MCH/MCHC (Increase)
  • PCV/HCT/RBC # (Decrease)
  • Platelets (Increase, if there are ghost cells)
  • CK (Increase, intraRBC enzymes - interfere in CK activity)
  • Phosphorus (Increase in horses, camelids, and asian dog breeds)
  • AST, LDH, Magnesium (Increase)
  • Will also impact your refractometry TP value
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54
Q

What values on your CBC will be impacted by icterus?

A

(None, can decreased creatinine and total protein)

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55
Q

How will lipemia impact the following values:

  • Platelets
  • HGB
  • Electrolytes
A
  • Platelets (Increased, bc of lipid droplets)
  • HGB (Increase)
  • Electrolytes (Decrease, bc of volume displacement)
  • Will also impact your refractometry TP value
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56
Q

What types of crystals can develop in urine that is delayed prior to its analysis?

A

(Calcium oxalate and magnesium ammonium phosphate crystals)

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57
Q

Will pH increase or decrease when a urine sample is delayed prior to analysis?

A

(Increase)

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58
Q

What is indicated by the x and y axis on the RBC scatter plot obtained when using an Idexx ProCyte?

A

(X axis is fluorescence and Y axis is size)

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59
Q

What does the fluorescence of a cell in the Idexx ProCyte RBC scatter plot depend on?

A

(The amount of RNA contained in a cell, RBCs have close to none so that is why they will be tucked up next to the y-axis whereas retics have RNA so they scatter out along the x-axis)

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60
Q

Give the color dot that represents the cells listed below on a RBC scatter plot:

  • Mature RBCs
  • Reticulocytes
  • Platelets
  • Escaped WBCs
A
  • Mature RBCs (Red)
  • Reticulocytes (Purple)
  • Platelets (Blue)
  • Escaped WBCs (Orange)
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61
Q

Typically the RBC and platelet clouds are separated on the RBC scatter plot with minimal dots between them, what is indicated if there are lots of red dots between the RBC and platelet cloud so much so that they could be touching?

A

(RBC fragmentation)

62
Q

Give the color dot that represents the cells listed below on a WBC scatter plot:

  • Unlysed RBCs
  • Neutrophils
  • Basophils
  • Eosinophils
  • Lymphocytes
  • Monocytes
A
  • Unlysed RBCs (Orange)
  • Neutrophils (Purple)
  • Basophils (Teal)
  • Eosinophils (Green)
  • Lymphocytes (Blue)
  • Monocytes (Red)
63
Q

What is indicated by the x and y axis on the WBC scatter plot obtained when using an Idexx ProCyte?

A

(X axis is granularity and Y axis is fluorescence)

64
Q

What occurs on a WBC scatter plot when there are band neutrophils?

A

(A left shift! The machine will starts to read the bands as lymphocytes bc the nucleus is less segmented so the neutrophil cloud will shift up and to the left and merge with the lymphocyte and monocyte cloud, you’ll see sharp demarcations and that will indicate to you that you need to check out wtf is going on)

65
Q

Marked platelet clumping typically takes what appearance on a WBC scatter plot?

A

(A curved line → clumped platelets are variable in size and granularity and appear with the WBC population)

66
Q

What additional test can you use to determine if what is noted as basophilic stippling is actually basophilic stippling versus siderocytes?

A

(Prussian blue stain, siderocytes will stain blue because they contain iron)

67
Q

When you multiple phosphorus by calcium and the value is greater than 70-90, what does that indicate?

A

(There is a risk of tissue mineralization)

68
Q

What four characteristics of a toxicosis case will help you narrow down your differential list, if you can figure them out?

A

(Systemic classification (is it CNS, GI, renal, etc.), onset time classification, morbidity, and case mortality)

69
Q

What are the categories of top toxicoses in dogs/cats versus cattle?

A

(Dogs/cats → insecticides and rodenticides, cattle → metals and minerals)

70
Q

How many ounces are in a pound? A pint? A quart? A gallon?

A

(16 ounces in a pound, 16 ounces in a pint, 32 ounces in a quart, and 128 ounces in a gallon → 16 ounces in a pound, 16 ounces in a pint, 2 pints in a quart (so 32 ounces in a quart), and 4 quarts in a gallon (so 128 ounces in a gallon)

71
Q

How many milliliters weigh one gram?

A

(One milliliter)

72
Q

What does 65% concentration mean?

A

(65 (g or ml)/ 100 (g or ml))

73
Q

How many pounds equates to 1 kilogram?

A

(2.2 pounds)

74
Q

How many milliliters make up one fluid ounce?

A

(30 milliliters)

75
Q

Pesticides/insecticides tend to target which organ system?

A

(Nervous system)

76
Q

Where do organophosphates, carbamates, and neonicotinoid insecticides act in the body?

A

(At acetylcholine receptors, specifically they increase action)

77
Q

You are presented with a patient you suspect has organophosphate or carbamate toxicity and so you administer a low dose of atropine. What do you expect to see if they truly have a toxicosis?

A

(No change, this dose will not be high enough to reverse OP/carbamate toxicosis so if there is no change, they have OP/carbamate toxicosis; if they show signs (eyes dilate, HR increases, and/or salivation stops), they DO NOT have OP/carbamate toxicosis)

78
Q

What additional drug (so besides atropine) can you use to treat organophosphates and carbamate toxicosis in small animals?

A

(2-PAM)

79
Q

What samples can be used to confirm organophosphate or carbamate toxicity by measuring acetylcholinesterase activity?

A

(Heparinized whole blood (has to be whole blood bc acetylcholinesterase is on the membrane of blood cells, not in the serum or plasma) and/or brain tissue → >50% reduction in activity is sus esp with signs, >70% is reasonably diagnostic)

80
Q

What is the drug of choice for treatment of bromethalin toxicity?

A

(There is none, your only option is decontamination)

81
Q

Give the organ system target of the following metal and mineral toxicities:

  • Lead
  • Sodium
  • Copper
  • Zinc
  • Arsenic
  • Iron
A
  • Lead (Multi-system → CNS, GI, kidney; normal blood value is <0.2 ppm, normal liver value is <10 ppm)
  • Sodium (CNS; normal blood value 110-160 mEq/L (species dependent tho))
  • Copper (Hepatic, blood, kidney; normal blood value 0.7-1.5 ppm, normal liver levels 1-150 ppm)
  • Zinc (GI and blood; normal blood value 0.7-2 ppm, normal liver levels 25-200 ppm (bovine))
  • Arsenic (GI; normal liver levels < 2 ppm)
  • Iron (GI and liver; normal blood value 1-3 ppm)
82
Q

For the mycotoxins listed below, give the organ system target:

  • Aflatoxin
  • Vomitoxin
  • Zealenone
  • Slaframine
  • Penitrem A
  • Roquefortine
  • Fumonisin
A
  • Aflatoxin (GI and liver)
  • Vomitoxin (GI)
  • Zealenone (Reproductive, coexists with vomitoxin))
  • Slaframine (CNS)
  • Penitrem A (CNS, may coexist with roquefortine)
  • Roquefortine (CNS)
  • Fumonisin (CNS)
83
Q

Clinical signs associated with bulb plants (daffodils, tulips, etc.) are GI (salivation, vomiting, diarrhea) with an onset of < 1 hour, what does treatment entail?

A

(Decontamination (induction of emesis and activated charcoal), maropitant, and symptomatic treatment for GI upset/pain)

84
Q

What are the main insults to the body caused by onion/garlic ingestion in cats, dogs, and cattle?

A

(Oxidative damage to RBCs and RBC lysis)

85
Q

What are the treatments for onion/garlic toxicity and the prognosis?

A

(Treatment are decontamination and symptomatic; prognosis is dose dependent)

86
Q

Pair the following Christmas plant to its mechanism of action:

Mistletoe

A - Contains phoratoxin which is a weak toxalbumin that binds to ribosomal cell receptors in the GI epithelium
B - Contains saponins which is a general GI tract irritant
C - Contains euphorbol esters which is a general GI tract irritant
D - Contains phenols and pine-oils that are general protoplasmic poisons that denature and precipitate proteins → possible liver, kidney, and CNS involvement

A

Mistletoe (A)

87
Q

Pair the following Christmas plant to its mechanism of action:

Holly

A - Contains phoratoxin which is a weak toxalbumin that binds to ribosomal cell receptors in the GI epithelium
B - Contains saponins which is a general GI tract irritant
C - Contains euphorbol esters which is a general GI tract irritant
D - Contains phenols and pine-oils that are general protoplasmic poisons that denature and precipitate proteins → possible liver, kidney, and CNS involvement

A

Holly (B)

88
Q

Pair the following Christmas plant to its mechanism of action:

Poinsettias

A - Contains phoratoxin which is a weak toxalbumin that binds to ribosomal cell receptors in the GI epithelium
B - Contains saponins which is a general GI tract irritant
C - Contains euphorbol esters which is a general GI tract irritant
D - Contains phenols and pine-oils that are general protoplasmic poisons that denature and precipitate proteins → possible liver, kidney, and CNS involvement

A

Poinsettias (C)

89
Q

Pair the following Christmas plant to its mechanism of action:

Christmas trees

A - Contains phoratoxin which is a weak toxalbumin that binds to ribosomal cell receptors in the GI epithelium
B - Contains saponins which is a general GI tract irritant
C - Contains euphorbol esters which is a general GI tract irritant
D - Contains phenols and pine-oils that are general protoplasmic poisons that denature and precipitate proteins → possible liver, kidney, and CNS involvement

A

Christmas trees (D)

90
Q

(T/F) All parts of cardiotoxic plants (such as Christmas Kalanchoe, foxglove, lily of the valley, oleander, dogbane, and broadleaf milkweed) are toxic and all animals are susceptible.

A

(T)

91
Q

Cardiotoxic plants can cause various arrhythmias (bradycardia, tachycardia, AV blocks, etc.) leading to weak and irregular pulses, death usually results from what arrhythmias?

A

(Asystole and ventricular fibrillation)

92
Q

Why would you expect to see hyperkalemia on blood work for an animal you suspect died from ingestion of a cardiotoxic plant?

A

(Related to mechanism of action, cardiotoxic plants inhibit Na/K ATPase pump so tons of sodium and calcium inside cardiac cells (positive inotropic effect) and tons of potassium outside cardiac cells (decreased resting membrane potential → impaired conduction), so you will see hyperkalemia on your chem)

93
Q

What organ system is targeted by tobacco toxicity?

A

(CNS, maybe see GI from tobacco effect on ANS, indirectly cardiotoxic)

94
Q

What is thought to be the reason for laminitis induced by exposure of horses to black walnut?

A

(Enhanced constriction of the blood vessels in the hoof wall)

95
Q

What is the purpose of feeding animals high proline containing feed (i.e. what toxin is this pertinent to)?

A

(Proline binds tannins in the gut so this is used for preventing acorn toxicity)

96
Q

What is the main insult to the body with red (or sugar, silver) maple toxicity?

A

(Formation of methemoglobin, hemolysis, and heinz body formation → affected animal will be cyanotic, tachypneic, tachycardic, icteric, weak)

97
Q

Why is red maple toxicity in horses treated with ascorbic acid as opposed to methylene blue (which is usually the treatment of choice for toxins that cause methemoglobinemia)?

A

(Bc horses are very susceptible to methylene blue toxicosis)

98
Q

What is the most important thing to determine in a toxicology case to start narrowing your differential list?

A

(System affected)

99
Q

When are emetics and gastric lavage contraindicated?

A

(Volatile compounds, solvents, corrosives, and convulsing patients)

100
Q

What types of toxicants is activated charcoal not useful for?

A

(Metals and alcohols)

101
Q

If you are presented with a dog that got into an unknown cleaning supply and it has signs of hemolysis, what type of detergent is likely to be the toxin?

A

(Something anionic)

102
Q

If you are presented with a dog that got into an unknown cleaning supply and it has neurologic signs on top of GI signs, what type of detergent is likely to be the toxin?

A

(Something cationic)

103
Q

What type of lesion results from alkali product toxicosis?

A

(Liquefactive necrosis)

104
Q

(T/F) Glyphosate (a herbicide) has a low mammalian toxicity and the surfactant contained in commercial products causes more adverse effects than the glyphosate itself.

A

(T, poorly absorbed dermally and orally so low mammalian toxicity, commercial products contain 15% surfactant for maximum coverage and penetration of plants)

105
Q

What organ systems are affected by glufosinate toxicity?

A

(CNS and respiratory)

106
Q

Why do dogs have a greater sensitivity to phenoxyacetic acid herbicides compared to ruminants?

A

(Dogs have a decreased ability to excrete organic acids in their urine, >80% of the dose if ingested by a ruminant will be excreted unchanged in the urine so they won’t get mild signs until 300 mg/kg but dogs acute oral LD50 is 100 mg/kg)

107
Q

What are the primary clinicals signs of phenoxyacetic acid herbicide toxicosis in dogs? (i.e. the two bolded ones on her slides)

A

(Myotonia and paresis (esp. rear legs); others are anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea +/- blood, hyperthermia, tachypnea, rigidity/hesitancy to move, ataxia, depression, myalgia, and rhabdomyolysis)

108
Q

In which two organs does paraquat accumulate in the body?

A

(Lungs → severe fibrosis, and kidneys → necrosis)

109
Q

(T/F) When exposed to sublethal doses of paraquat, it has minimal effect on the body and it is not fatal.

A

(F, even at chronic or acute sublethal doses paraquat will cause fatal, progressive pulmonary fibrosis it will just take longer (weeks) to kill the animal than a high dose (days))

110
Q

(T/F) Pulmonary fibrosis is one of the clinical manifestations common to all bipyridyl herbicides (paraquat/diquat).

A

(F, diquat is not associated with lung toxicity)

111
Q

What is the stand out clinical sign for diquat toxicity?

A

(Cataract formation, also causes anorexia, depression, ulceration of the mouth and esophagus, vomiting, diarrhea, colic, and renal impairment)

112
Q

(T/F) Pulmonary disease typically results in increased lung opacity.

A

(T)

113
Q

Pair the following distribution of a lung pattern to its typical cause:

  • Caudodorsal
  • Cranioventral
  • Perihilar

A - Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema
B - Cardiogenic pulmonary edema
C - Aspiration pneumonia

A

Caudodorsal (A)
Cranioventral (C)
Perihilar (B)

114
Q

Describe an alveolar pattern.

A

(Homogenous, uniform opacity that can vary from solid/opaque to faint/fluffy)

115
Q

What determines whether an alveolar pattern will be solid/opaque versus faint/fluffy?

A

(How much the alveoli have filled with fluid; less = wispy, more = opaque)

116
Q

What is a lobar sign?

A

(The interface between a fluid filled versus air filled lung, will appear as a sharply demarcated line)

117
Q

What are the two radiographic findings that scream alveolar pattern?

A

(Air bronchograms and lobar signs)

118
Q

What does it mean that an alveolar pattern is a dominant pattern?

A

(If a patient has multiple lung patterns, the alveolar pattern will appear over any of them esp when opaque)

119
Q

What are the different types of fluid that can cause an alveolar pattern and what leads to those fluids being in the lungs?

A

(Pus → aspiration, bronchopneumonia, hematogenous; edema/water → cardiogenic or non-cardiogenic; hemorrhage/blood → trauma, coagulopathy)

120
Q

(T/F) Atelectasis causes an alveolar pattern.

A

(T, alveoli are collapsed instead of fluid filled)

121
Q

How can a linear interstitial pattern be artificially created?

A

(There may be a linear interstitial pattern on a expiratory radiograph or an underexposed radiograph)

122
Q

What is the distinction between an alveolar pattern and a linear interstitial pattern?

A

(Vasculature is visible in linear interstitial patterns whereas they are not visible in alveolar patterns)

123
Q

What would be on your differential list if you are presented with a linear interstitial pattern?

A

(Artifact, geriatric change, pulmonary edema, hemorrhage, pneumonia, neoplasia, and fibrosis)

124
Q

You are presented with radiographs that have relatively circumscribed nodules throughout, what is the lung pattern and what are the primary differentials?

A

(Nodular interstitial pattern, primary differentials are neoplasia or granulomatous dz)

125
Q

What do you look for to determine if a patient has a bronchial pattern on radiographs?

A

(End on thickened bronchi will look like donuts and longitudinal thickened bronchi will look like railroad tracks)

126
Q

What can cause a patient to have a bronchial pattern?

A

(Anything that causes bronchial inflammation → bronchitis, feline asthma, and pulmonary parasites (heartworm, roundworm migration))

127
Q

Veins in the lungs are always dorsal/ventral (choose) and lateral/central (choose).

A

(Ventral and central)

128
Q

Of the following diseases, pair them with the pertinent vascular pattern:

  • Left-to-right shunts (pulmonary overperfusion)
  • Heartworm disease
  • Left sided heart failure

A - Artery more affected than vein
B - Vein more affected than artery
C - Artery and vein equally enlarged

A
  • Heartworm disease (A)
  • Left-to-right shunts (pulmonary overperfusion) (C)
  • Left sided heart failure (B)
129
Q

The small intestines are normally displaced to the right/left (choose) in cats.

A

(Right)

130
Q

What is the normal diameter of canine small intestine?

A

(Less than 1.6 times the height of the body of L5)

131
Q

What is the normal diameter of feline small intestines?

A

(Less than or equal to 12 mm)

132
Q

Describe the abdominal radiograph of an animal with paralytic ileus.

A

(Mild generalized dilation, no one portion of the SI should be more dilated than the rest, equal dilation throughout)

133
Q

Describe the abdominal radiograph of an animal with obstructive ileus.

A

(More dramatic dilation, only the portion of bowel orad to the obstruction will be dilated so there will be two populations of bowel → one dilated (orad) and one normal (aborad))

134
Q

Describe the abdominal radiograph of an animal with a linear foreign body.

A

(Plication of the small intestines, eccentric (gas bubbles not in the center of the intestine, pushed off to the side by abnormally shaped SI) or comma shaped gas bubbles)

135
Q

If you want to detect earlier infections using antibody tests, what antibody needs to be tested for?

A

(IgM)

136
Q

Do you look for more or less color to indicate a high antibody load for the following tests:

Direct ELISA
Indirect ELISA
Competitive ELISA

A

Direct ELISA (more)
Indirect ELISA (more)
Competitive ELISA (less)

137
Q

The FIV snap test is an example of a lateral flow assay in which antibody/antigen (choose) is detected with a capture antibody/antigen (choose).

A

(The FIV snap test is an antibody lateral flow assay so it uses FIV antigen to detect antibodies in the patient)

138
Q

What type of test is the coggins test used for equine infectious anemia?

A

(Agar gel immunodiffusion test)

139
Q

Describe how a hemagglutination inhibition test works.

A

(Patient blood is mixed with the virus, if the patient has no antibodies the virus will lyse the RBCs and no agglutination will occur, if the patient has antibodies then the blood will agglutinate as you expect)

140
Q

The parvo snap test is an example of a lateral flow assay in which antibody/antigen (choose) is detected with a capture antibody/antigen (choose).

A

(The parvo snap test is an antigen lateral flow assay so it uses labeled antibodies to detect parvo antigen in the patient)

141
Q

Which types of ELISA can be used to detect antigen?

A

(Capture or sandwich)

142
Q

Fluorescent antibody testing uses labeled antibody/antigen (choose) to detect target antibody/antigen (choose) in tissue samples.

A

(Uses labeled antibody to detect target antigen in tissue samples → good example is rabies)

143
Q

Immunohistochemistry testing uses antibody/antigen (choose) to detect target antibody/antigen (choose) in tissue samples.

A

(Uses antibody to detect target antigen in tissue samples → examples are FIP and Marek’s dz)

144
Q

What type of sequencing test can be used on impure samples?

A

(Metagenomic sequencing)

145
Q

What specifically is histopathology useful for in relation to virus detection?

A

(Looking for inclusion bodies)

146
Q

Pair the following oral LD50 dose to the appropriate label or signal word that would be used in the household product warning label:

> 15 g/kg

A - No label
B - Caution
C - Warning
D - Danger: Poison

A

> 15 g/kg (A)

147
Q

Pair the following oral LD50 dose to the appropriate label or signal word that would be used in the household product warning label:

5-15 g/kg

A - No label
B - Caution
C - Warning
D - Danger: Poison

A

5-15 g/kg (A)

148
Q

Pair the following oral LD50 dose to the appropriate label or signal word that would be used in the household product warning label:

0.5-5 g/kg

A - No label
B - Caution
C - Warning
D - Danger: Poison

A

0.5-5 g/kg (B)

149
Q

Pair the following oral LD50 dose to the appropriate label or signal word that would be used in the household product warning label:

50-500 mg/kg

A - No label
B - Caution
C - Warning
D - Danger: Poison

A

50-500 mg/kg (C)

150
Q

Pair the following oral LD50 dose to the appropriate label or signal word that would be used in the household product warning label:

5-50 mg/kg

A - No label
B - Caution
C - Warning
D - Danger: Poison

A

5-50 mg/kg (D)

151
Q

Pair the following oral LD50 dose to the appropriate label or signal word that would be used in the household product warning label:

< 5 mg/kg

A - No label
B - Caution
C - Warning
D - Danger: Poison

A

< 5 mg/kg (D)

Fundamentals of Diagnostics (12 decks)

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