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Fundamentals of Diagnostics > Exam One > Flashcards

Exam One Flashcards

1
Q

If you want to visualize a virus, parasite, or bacteria, what two diagnostic tests are available for this purpose?

A

(Light or electron microscopy)

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2
Q

What part of a cell is detected when using ELISA, IFA, and IHC?

A

(Protein)

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3
Q

What part of a cell is detected when using PCR, in-situ hybridization, next generation sequencing?

A

(DNA or RNA)

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4
Q

What tests are antibody-antigen based tests that detect antigen using protein?

A

(ELISA/enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (sandwich), immunofluorescence, and immunohistochemistry)

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5
Q

(T/F) Immunofluorescent antibody testing can be used on cell cultures or tissues with a wide range of viral titers, from low to high.

A

(F, requires high viral titers)

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6
Q

SNAP tests (FELV/FIV, parvo, heartworm, etc.) are based on what test?

A

(ELISA)

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7
Q

(T/F) All SNAP tests use antibodies to capture antigen.

A

(F, some use antigen to catch antibodies, for example FIV is an antibody test (so there’s FIV antigen on the test and it captures FIV antibody) but FELV is an antigen test (so there’s FELV antibody on the test and it captures FELV antigen))

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8
Q

(T/F) The more cycles it takes for a PCR test to reach the established threshold cycle, the less DNA/RNA is present in the sample being tested.

A

(T, the opposite is also true so the less cycles it takes for a PCR test to reach the established threshold cycle, the more DNA/RNA is present in the sample being tested)

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9
Q

What PCR test is used for identification of clonal lymphocyte populations?

A

(PCR for antigen receptor rearrangement aka PARR; also used for detection of c-kit mutations in mast cell tumors → the more c-kit mutations you have the higher grade your mast cell tumor is)

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10
Q

What DNA/RNA based test allows for visualization of the virus in tissues or at the site of infection?

A

(In-situ hybridization)

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11
Q

What DNA/RNA based test is based on whole genome sequencing and is used for detection of unknown viruses?

A

(Next generation sequencing)

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12
Q

What sample is used for serology testing?

A

(Serum)

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13
Q

What tests are antigen-antibody based tests that detect the host response using antibody?

A

(This is serology → ELISA (direct and indirect), immunodiffusion, virus neutralization)

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14
Q

What is the highly specific test that uses antibodies in serum to inhibit virus replication?

A

(Virus neutralization → titer is the inverse of the highest dilution needed to neutralize the virus, this method is slow/expensive)

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15
Q

(T/F) If you have a neutralizing antibody, this indicates there was an active infection against the virus you are testing at some point in the patient’s past.

A

(T, vaccines typically produce antibodies that are not as strong as the neutralizing antibodies produced by true infection)

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16
Q

What type of testing is best used when determining what organisms are circulating in a population?

A

(Serology)

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17
Q

(T/F) Antibodies can be produced by infection, exposure with no clinical disease, and vaccination.

A

(T)

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18
Q

(T/F) Though the specificity of a test is high, if the prevalence is low in your area, there is a higher chance of false positives.

A

(T)

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19
Q

What is immunodiagnostics?

A

(The measurement of antigen-antibody interactions for diagnostics purposes)

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20
Q

What is serology?

A

(Primarily, measuring antibodies in body fluids)

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21
Q

Immunodiagnostics can use the detection of antibodies to determine exposure/disease/immunity (choose) in your patient.

A

(All of the above)

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22
Q

(T/F) Presence of antibodies = infection = disease.

A

(F)

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23
Q

This characteristic of a test is the test’s ability to designate an individual with disease/exposure as positive, truly identifying disease.

A

(Sensitivity → also your false negative right (if something is 98% sensitive, your false negative rate is 2%))

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24
Q

This characteristic of a test is the test’s ability to designate an individual who does not have a disease/exposure as negative, truly identifying lack of disease.

A

(Specificity → also your false positive rate (if something is 96% specific, your false positive rate is 4%))

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25
Q

Which of the fluorescent assays available can identify the presence of antigen in tissue?

A

(Both direct and indirect fluorescent antibody tests)

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26
Q

You use a direct/indirect (choose) fluorescent antibody test to measure antibodies in serum.

A

(Indirect, direct can only be used for detection of antigen in tissues)

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27
Q

(T/F) Immunoenzyme assays (ELISA) can measure both antigen and/or antibodies.

A

(T)

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28
Q

Agglutination tests are used to test for the presence of antigen/antibodies (choose) by measuring agglutination using blood or other body fluids (e.g. milk).

A

(Antibodies)

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29
Q

(T/F) The intensity of the color of a positive dot on a SNAP test correlates to the amount of antibodies present in the sample run.

A

(F, SNAP tests are qualitative only)

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29
Q

Viral neutralization assays measure antigen/antibodies and can be quantitative.

A

(Antibodies, specifically antibodies that neutralize the virus, since these tests are quantitative you can get titer results)

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30
Q

If you have a huge lesion that you cannot possibly send the entirety of to the lab, what is a key location that you should sample?

A

(The interface from normal to abnormal tissue)

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31
Q

What are two downsides to small samples such as a tru cut biopsy?

A

(The small sample may not be representative of the entire lesion and small samples are much more susceptible to artifact)

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32
Q

When should you sample the GIT in a necropsy?

A

(At the end optimally)

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33
Q

What is the appropriate tissue:formalin ratio?

A

(1:10)

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34
Q

What are the 5 important components of a morphological diagnosis?

A

(Pathological process, organ affected, chronicity, distribution, and severity)

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35
Q

When is empirical therapy indicated? Three answers.

A

(There is a proven efficacious treatment for your top differential, when waiting for c/s results, and when client cannot afford c/s)

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36
Q

What are some instances where specific diagnosis of bacterial infections is needed?

A

(Animal is significantly compromised (very young/old, seriously ill), suspected infx in a difficult to treat site or a site with serious consequences (brain, joint, etc.), suspected bacterial pathogens with unpredictable susceptibility patterns or ones that rapidly develop resistance, poor responses to earlier therapy, outbreak of disease, and suspected dz is notifiable)

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37
Q

When are swabs an acceptable sample?

A

(Mucus membranes, ears, uterine (if using guarded), conjunctiva, cornea, only when you can’t collect something better)

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38
Q

(T/F) Fine needle aspirate samples are the preferred method for all bacteriology samples.

A

(T)

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39
Q

What is the main disadvantage of FNAs?

A

(Bacteria don’t live in them forever, especially anaerobes so get them to the lab asap)

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40
Q

When you take an FNA, you should also perform a smear. What evidence would you be looking for to indicate bacterial infection?

A

(Lots of neutrophils = inflammation, toxic changes, bacteria either extra/intracellular)

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41
Q

What is the purpose of removing the topmost layer of a punch biopsy sample prior to submission for bacteriology testing?

A

(Removes surface contamination)

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42
Q

Do bacteria survive longer in FNA samples or tissue samples?

A

(Tissue samples)

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43
Q

What are the pros and cons of free catch samples?

A

(Pros → cheap, may be the only way to collect a sample (i.e. GI tract), cons → will get normal flora contamination)

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44
Q

Do you want blood to clot when taking blood culture samples?

A

(No)

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45
Q

Can you use EDTA tubes for a blood culture?

A

(No EDTA has direct bacterial effect, use specific blood culture vials)

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46
Q

Sepsis is usually associated with cyclical fevers where there are troughs and spikes, when should blood culture samples be taken in these patients?

A

(When they are in a fever spike, this usually corresponds to when there is a high number of bacteria in the blood)

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47
Q

What are other sample types that you can use blood culture tubes for?

A

(Joint and CSF fluid)

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48
Q

Should blood culture tubes be refrigerated?

A

(No, leave at room temp to allow bacteria to multiply, there should be bacteria in this site anyway so if there’s some, that’s significant enough and the actual number of them doesn’t matter)

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49
Q

If you take a sample under the impression that there may be fungal involvement, should that sample be refrigerated or not?

A

(Not)

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50
Q

If you are taking samples from a site with normal flora, what do you need to consider when you are looking at your interpretation?

A

(The bacteria found is not apart of the normal flora (but still have to be sure it can cause dz) OR the bacteria is apart of the normal flora but it has increased numbers and has the ability to cause the dz seen)

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51
Q

What is the four point rule that should be applied to all samples/interpretations taken from sterile sites?

A

(Was the sample collected correctly, was there inflammation present on cytology, was there an organism present on cytology, and can the diagnosed organism cause THIS dz)

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52
Q

You are presented with a 2 year old quarter horse that has a large submandibular mass that feels warm and tender on palpation, what sample is the most ideal to submit for your patient?

A

(FNA)

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53
Q

What answer would you receive back when you complain that you did not get your susceptibility results back when Streptococcus spp. are identified in your sample?

A

(Beta hemolytic Streptococcus spp. have predictable susceptibility to first line antimicrobial therapies)

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54
Q

(T/F) Susceptibility testing is not needed when systemic antimicrobial therapy will not be used.

A

(T)

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55
Q

(T/F) Susceptibility testing is not needed when a probable pathogen has not been identified or your identified pathogen has a predictable susceptibility pattern.

A

(T)

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56
Q

(T/F) Susceptibility testing is not possible for all pathogens, for example Nocardia spp.

A

(T)

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57
Q

(T/F) Clostridium spp. are predictably susceptible to penicillin but can still be difficult to treat depending on the site of infection.

A

(T, especially if dealing with a necrotic site)

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58
Q

What do susceptible, intermediate, and resistant mean?

A

(Susceptible → growth inhibited by a concentration of an abx associated with a high likelihood of therapeutic success (NOT GUARANTEED); intermediate → growth inhibited by a concentration of an abx associated with an uncertain therapeutic effect (can change uncertainty by increasing dose or decreasing dose interval); resistant → growth inhibited by a concentration of an abx associated with a high likelihood of failure)

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59
Q

What is the 90-60 rule?

A

(In an immunocompetent patient with a monobacterial infx, bacteria reported as susceptible are associated with a positive therapeutic response in 90% of patients and bacteria reported as resistant are associated with a positive therapeutic response in 60% of patients)

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60
Q

(T/F) An anaerobic culture for a urine sample in a patient with signs of a UTI is a waste of money.

A

(T, do not need anaerobic culture for urine, anaerobic organisms unlikely to cause UTI)

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61
Q

What do you do if you started empirical treatment for a dog with a UTI and your susceptibility report comes back with that abx being an intermediate drug?

A

(Check on the dog; if getting better finish the course, if not getting better switch to susceptible drug)

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62
Q

How does reporting where you obtained your sample affected reported MIC values?

A

(Drugs achieve different concentrations in different parts of the body so that may change the MIC and if the drug will be reported as S, I, or R)

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63
Q

What is an antimicrobial breakpoint?

A

(The maximum MIC that predicts successful therapy, essentially tells you if an organism is S, I, or R by taking into account the normal range of MIC values in wild type bacteria, the PK/PD properties of the drugs in the species of interest, and +/- site of infection)

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64
Q

If everything on your susceptibility report comes back as susceptible, you should just pick the drug with the lowest MIC right?

A

(No, susceptible is susceptible, think more about cost and owner compliance and let that guide your choice if you have a long list of options)

65
Q

(T/F) Many vets in practice will not ever use MIC values and they are typically only to be used when there is a patient with limited options for abx therapy.

A

(T)

66
Q

(T/F) Topical antimicrobials have much higher concentrations than can be achieved through oral or parenteral dosing.

A

(T, this matters bc MIC breakpoints are based on systemic concentrations of antimicrobials, this is why if you are using topicals, susceptibility testing is unnecessary)

67
Q

Why might your susceptibility report for a Pseudomonas spp. infx not include beta-lactams, most cephalosporins, tetracyclines, chloramphenicol, TMS, and fluoroquinolones?

A

(Bc Pseudomonas is intrinsically resistant to all of those options → most labs will just not include this data or even test for it bc what’s the point in wasting material and time)

68
Q

Enterococcus species are intrinsically resistant to which of the following:
A - Amikacin
B - Ampicillin sulbactam
C - Clavamox
D - Erythromycin
E - Clindamycin
F - TMS

A

(A, C, E, F (except TMS may be S in vitro))

69
Q

There are two reasons that when suspecting Brucella canis infection, a culture alone cannot be relied on and serology should be performed, what are those two reasons?

A

(Brucella canis bacteremia is very cyclical and can easily be missed during sampling and it is uncommon for a dog to have Brucella antibodies since it is not a common dz nor vaccinated for so being antibody positive is highly indicative of infection)

70
Q

hy should you perform tests on urine in discospondylitis cases?

A

(A lot of disco cases start as UTIs then spread hematogenously)

71
Q

Though strangles cases can be treated empirically, why might further diagnostics be performed?

A

(Bc is it highly contagious and is also reportable in some states)

72
Q

(T/F) It would be a reasonable choice to sample nasal discharge with a swab in suspect strangles cases.

A

(T, Strep equi is not normal flora in the nose so it is reasonable to say if your sample comes back as Strep equi, it is causing dz)

73
Q

Do you need susceptibility testing in strangles cases?

A

(Depends on the animal, if able to give IV injections of susceptible drugs, no but if you need to give oral meds d/t temperament, yes)

74
Q

What four questions do you need to ask yourself when you sampled a site with normal flora and are considered the significance of a bacteria on your report?

A

(Was the sample collected correctly, is the organism a part of the normal flora, can this organism cause dz, and are there an excess number of this organism (if it is a part of normal flora))

75
Q

In the case of the calf with white, pasty diarrhea, it was unable to be determined if the E. coli cultured from the fecal sample was the cause of the clinical signs. If you suspected E. coli still, what further tests could you run to either confirm or deny your suspicion?

A

(Could run a PCR to look for toxin gene or could test for E. coli toxin in feces)

76
Q

What are the two purposes of testing for parasites in small animals?

A

(Identifying the cause of clinical signs and monitoring asymptomatic animals as a part of preventative medicine programs)

77
Q

List the advantages and disadvantages of morphological parasite tests.

A

(Advantages → inexpensive, allows examination for multiple parasites; disadvantages → requires trained technicians, requires larger samples than immunologic or molecular tests)

78
Q

If fecal samples are unable to be examined within a few hours, where should they be stored?

A

(The fridge)

79
Q

A direct saline smear can only be used for what stage of protozoan parasites?

A

(Trophozoites, bc they move, cannot use this method for other parasites or protozoan cysts)

80
Q

What are the two protozoans that affect small animals that have trophozoites that can be seen on a direct smear?

A

(Giardia and Tritrichomonas)

81
Q

Why should fecal samples be mixed thoroughly prior to taking your sample for testing?

A

(Because parasites are not uniformly distributed in feces)

82
Q

(T/F) Higher density liquids will likely have more debris floating at the top when compared to lower density liquids.

A

(T, but lower density liquids will float eggs less efficiently depending on their weight)

83
Q

For a direct smear, the sensitivity is low/moderate/high (choose) while the specificity is low/moderate/high (choose).

A

(Sensitivity is low and specificity is moderate aka your false negative chance is high and your false positive chance is moderate)

84
Q

Do centrifugal or passive flotation exams have a higher sensitivity?

A

(Centrifugal, if you do not have the ability to centrifuge your fecal floats you might as well just send them out)

85
Q

What flotation solution is commonly used for Giardia infections?

A

(Zinc sulfate, will float in the others bc the cysts are so light but Sheather’s and sodium nitrate can destroy the cysts)

86
Q

What are pseudoparasites?

A

(Things that look like parasites but aren’t)

87
Q

What are spurious parasites?

A

(Things that are parasites of other animals but that show up in samples because or coprophagy or predation)

88
Q

When a fecal float and antigen test are combined, the combined sensitivity is higher when compared to the sensitivity of each individual test, why is that?

A

(Bc an animal is considered positive if it is detected positive for any (one) or both of the tests → you are decreasing the chance of a false negative because being false negative on both tests is less likely)

89
Q

When a fecal float and antigen test are combined, the combined specificity is lower when compared to the specificity of each individual test, why is that?

A

(Bc an animal is considered negative if it is detected negative for both tests → your probability to get a false positive increases)

90
Q

What is specificity most affected by?

A

(Reader error)

91
Q

A lot of things can look like parasites, what is often the easiest way to rule out something being a pseudoparasite?

A

(Weird size, parasites are a predictable size)

92
Q

What are sedimentation tests used for?

A

(Parasite stages with high density that won’t float readily → fluke eggs)

93
Q

What parasitic characteristic is being taken advantage of when performing a Baermann test?

A

(Hydrotropism)

94
Q

What is the benefit to using iodine to kill a larva found with a Baermann test as opposed to heat?

A

(Iodine can help to visualize structures of the larva)

95
Q

What are some of the nematode morphological characteristics that are used to distinguish between different species?

A

(Esophagus bulb, buccal capsule length, and the genital primordium)

96
Q

(T/F) If you see a larva with a kink tail in a fecal sample obtained from a dog, you can assume it is likely a spurious parasite due to coprophagy.

A

(T, only canine parasite with a kink tail is Angiostrongylus vasorum which has only been found in Newfoundland and Canada, may one day be an issue but not right now)

97
Q

Blood stains are most effective in diagnosing acute/chronic (choose) infections of haemoprotozoan.

A

(Acute)

98
Q

How can you increase the sensitivity of a skin scrape for diagnosing Sarcoptes?

A

(Take multiple samples from multiple sites and repeat every few days)

99
Q

If you find a worm in feces or vomit of a small animal, it is most likely what genus?

A

(Toxocara spp.)

100
Q

(T/F) Cats that are antibodies positive for Toxoplasma are unlikely to be shedding oocysts.

A

(T, period of oocyst production usually occurs before antibodies are detectable)

101
Q

(T/F) Both IgG and IgM can be detected in chronic Toxoplasma infections.

A

(T)

102
Q

What is the test of choice for chronic hemaprotozoan infections?

A

(Serology, PCR may not detect organism if levels are very low and PCR is generally more expensive)

103
Q

What is the test of choice for Echinococcus?

A

(PCR → only reasonable option)

104
Q

Give an example of when PCR is useful for determining more information about a parasite you are testing.

A

(Babesia → PCR can ID species which can impact tx; Giardia → PCR can ID assemblage)

105
Q

What are the reasons that you cannot assume that an animal shedding a certain number of coccidia oocysts has coccidiosis?

A

(Symptoms (diarrhea mainly) may precede high oocyst shedding, clinically normal animals can have high oocyst counts, and some species of Coccidia do not cause dz which you cannot tell microscopically what species you are looking at)

106
Q

What things can influence fecal egg counts?

A

(Immunity, season, fecal consistency (egg #s will be lower in diarrheic feces), and luck (eggs are not evenly distributed in feces))

107
Q

Does a low limit of detection increase or decrease sensitivity and increase or decrease negative predictive value?

A

(Increases sensitivity and increases negative predictive value)

108
Q

How can you increase the accuracy versus the precision of a fecal egg count?

A

(Accuracy → homogenize the fecal sample as much as possible to evenly distribute eggs/oocysts in the sample; precision → increases as you increase the volume of feces examined)

109
Q

What are the three ways to evaluate if there is anthelmintic resistance in a parasite population?

A

(FECRT, in vitro drug bioassays, and molecular testing)

110
Q

Which of the following treatment protocols have been successful in tx of persistent hookworm infections?
A - Febental/pyrantel/praziquantel + moxidectin
B - Fenbendazole alone
C - Fenbendazole + pyrantel + moxidectin
D - Emodepside alone
E - Moxidectin + imidacloprid

A

(A, C, D)

111
Q

(T/F) It is an AVMA policy that veterinarian’s are required to report suspected abuse cases.

A

(T)

112
Q

(T/F) It is mandatory by Virginia state law that veterinarian’s are required to report suspected abuse cases.

A

(T)

113
Q

(T/F) The animal is considered evidence in abuse cases.

A

(T)

114
Q

What is the chain of custody?

A

(Documentation of every person who comes in contact with the evidence → includes anything collected at the scene, the animal, samples taken from the animal, etc.)

115
Q

What should be included about a piece of evidence in an evidence log?

A

(An identifying item number and a description)

116
Q

Rephrase this statement to better support your testimony: “I think that weapon could have possibly made these wounds.”

A

(Something along the lines of “that weapon is consistent with these wounds”)

117
Q

Rephrase this statement to better support your testimony: “I believe this animal was subject to starvation based on this photo series and findings.”

A

(Something along the lines of “it is within medical certainty that this animal was subject to starvation based on the evidence gathered which is depicted here” or “the evidence gathered is consistent with starvation”, etc.)

118
Q

Pair the following descriptions with their terms:

Mechanism of death

A - Any condition that animal had that could have contributed to death or injury → clotting disorder in an animal with gunshot wound that died from hypovolemic shock
B - Injury or disease that began sequence of events that led to the death of the animal → gunshot wound, stab wound, blunt force trauma
C - Circumstances surrounding the death → non-accidental, accidental, natural, undetermined
D - Biological or physiological abnormality that result in death → shock, septicemia, cardiorespiratory arrest

A

(D)

119
Q

Pair the following descriptions with their terms:

Cause of death

A - Any condition that animal had that could have contributed to death or injury → clotting disorder in an animal with gunshot wound that died from hypovolemic shock
B - Injury or disease that began sequence of events that led to the death of the animal → gunshot wound, stab wound, blunt force trauma
C - Circumstances surrounding the death → non-accidental, accidental, natural, undetermined
D - Biological or physiological abnormality that result in death → shock, septicemia, cardiorespiratory arrest

A

(B)

120
Q

Pair the following descriptions with their terms:

Manner of death

A - Any condition that animal had that could have contributed to death or injury → clotting disorder in an animal with gunshot wound that died from hypovolemic shock
B - Injury or disease that began sequence of events that led to the death of the animal → gunshot wound, stab wound, blunt force trauma
C - Circumstances surrounding the death → non-accidental, accidental, natural, undetermined
D - Biological or physiological abnormality that result in death → shock, septicemia, cardiorespiratory arrest

A

(C)

121
Q

Pair the following descriptions with their terms:

Contributory cause

A - Any condition that animal had that could have contributed to death or injury → clotting disorder in an animal with gunshot wound that died from hypovolemic shock
B - Injury or disease that began sequence of events that led to the death of the animal → gunshot wound, stab wound, blunt force trauma
C - Circumstances surrounding the death → non-accidental, accidental, natural, undetermined
D - Biological or physiological abnormality that result in death → shock, septicemia, cardiorespiratory arrest

A

(A)

122
Q

What is the best way to collect and sustain DNA samples?

A

(On a swab and allow it to dry, will degrade in plastic bags)

123
Q

Why should plastic tweezers be used on bullets and other metal objects?

A

(Will not leave scrape marks → these can interfere with bullet markings and make it harder to match a bullet to the weapon that fired it, making it an arguable point for defense lawyers)

124
Q

What should be documented in every live animal forensic science examination and case, that is optimally evaluated at the crime scene, and is great for supporting evidence of pain?

A

(Animal behavior)

125
Q

What are the IVFSA minimum standards for diagnostics to be performed if on a live animal after thorough examination in abuse cases?

A

(Radiographs, fecal evaluation, basic blood work, and UA)

126
Q

In cases of starvation, what about the animal is good to note (besides current weight and BCS) when someone might claim “they weren’t eating on their own”?

A

(Appetite → if the animal readily eats, obviously they would eat if offered food at home)

127
Q

What are some bloodwork abnormalities you can expect to see in cases of starvation?

A

(Hypoglycemia, increased CK, increased liver values, hypoalbuminemia, anemia, stress leukogram, electrolyte abnormalities)

128
Q

When performing a feed/forage analysis, what two values are you particularly looking at?

A

(ADF and NDF; ADF >45% poor nutrients and NDF >65 horses may not eat)

129
Q

What is indicated by a bone marrow fat analysis being low?

A

(The animal was starved for a long time because bone marrow is the last place the body pulls fat from)

130
Q

What are predisposing factors for hyperthermia?

A

(High humidity, obesity, brachycephalic breeds, lack of acclimation, dehydration, previous heat stroke)

131
Q

At what body temperature do dogs start to lose equilibrium and vocalize and become hyperpyrexic and excited?

A

(105 F)

132
Q

At what body temperature do dogs become ataxic, develop abdominal swelling from aerophagia and may collapse?

A

(109 F)

133
Q

Why is it important to get a body temperature in cases of hyperthermia?

A

(Bc none of the physiological changes that occur d/t hyperthermia are pathognomonic for hyperthermia, they can all occur with other diseases so you cannot prove hyperthermia without a body temperature or you have to hope other evidence is available)

134
Q

(T/F) The entrance use of a projectile wound related to a firearm will be smaller than the exit wound.

A

(T)

135
Q

What can a concentric versus eccentric abrasion ring/wound tell you about the trajectory of a bullet entering something?

A

(Concentric → 90 degree entrance, eccentric → entered at an angle other than 90 degrees, helps to determine where the firearm was shot from and the position of the animal in combination with the wound tract)

136
Q

What results from carboxyhemoglobin formation that is associated with close range firearm entrance wounds?

A

(Cherry red muscles)

137
Q

What can be indicated if a firearm entrance wound has a wide abrasion ring, is large and irregular, and the wound is penetrating?

A

(It ricocheted off of something, lost energy so did not perforate through the animal, also will be tumbling upon entrance so the wound will not be a clean circle)

138
Q

Why is the depth for a knife wound variable in most cases?

A

(Because the force behind each stab will be different, no human is consistent)

139
Q

Chopping wounds result in a combination of what two types of trauma?

A

(Sharp and blunt force)

140
Q

What factors change the injuries that result from blunt force trauma?

A

(Amount of force, type of object (whether broad or narrow), and body region/tissue affected)

141
Q

How can thermal imaging be used in a live animal abuse examination for cases of abuse?

A

(Can detect areas of inflammation → injury)

142
Q

Why is it best to have an abuse victim animal return for another examination 2-3 days after the initial examination?

A

(Some bruising may not be apparent at first, gives them time to develop)

143
Q

What are some of the resulting injuries possible with blunt force trauma?

A

(Bruises, abrasions, lacerations, avulsion injuries, fractures, broken teeth, eye lesions, and frayed nails)

144
Q

If you note a bony callus on the ribs of an animal on radiography, that injury is at least how old?

A

(4-6 weeks)

145
Q

What is the typical growth rate of granulation tissue, which can help you determine the age of an injury?

A

(1 mm/day or 1 cm/month , usually starts in a wound at about 3-6 days)

146
Q

How can you determine if an injury occurred post mortem vs antemortem?

A

(If there is a presence of hemorrhage or tissue reaction, the animal had to have been alive when the injury occurred)

147
Q

What do the injuries that result from motor vehicle accidents depend on?

A

(Where the animal is hit, the speed of the vehicle, and secondary impact (rolling, being tossed, run over, dragged))

148
Q

What internal injuries and fractures are most common with MVAs?

A

(Liver and pulmonary trauma and pelvic fractures)

149
Q

What are common findings related to asphyxiation cases?

A

(Petechial hemorrhage, visceral congestion, increased fluidity of blood, hypoxia → cyanosis, increased vessel dilation, and injuries associated with struggling)

150
Q

In cases of drowning, an animal will lose consciousness in 2-3 minutes due to the failure of what?

A

(Cardiopulmonary system → cardiopulmonary arrest, then death will occur 5-10 minutes after the head is submerged)

151
Q

(T/F) There are no pathognomonic findings associated with drowning.

A

(T, cases need to be proved with the other evidence/investigation, etc.)

152
Q

What is one of the best ways to determine if an animal was affected by a fire post or antemortem?

A

(Soot found in the airways/stomach → animal was alive)

153
Q

Of your PT and PTT, which is first to become prolonged in cases of anticoagulant toxicity?

A

(PT → extrinsic clotting pathway, bc seven has the shortest half life and it is one of the vitamin K dependent clotting factors that is affected by anticoagulant toxins)

154
Q

What are possible findings associated with anticoagulant toxicosis?

A

(Hemorrhages, liver necrosis d/t anemia and hypoxia, and possible bait in stomach)

155
Q

What do the toxic metabolites of ethylene glycol cause in the body?

A

(Metabolic acidosis and renal damage)

156
Q

Pair the following time when you find a dog that was exposed to ethylene glycol with how they might present:

30 minutes to 12 hours

A - CNS depression → depression, stupor, ataxia, decreased withdrawal and righting reflexes, PU/PD, UA → acidic urine with calcium oxalate crystals
B - Cardiopulmonary toxicity → increased heart and resp rate
C - Renal toxicity → renal failure

A

(A)

157
Q

Pair the following time when you find a dog that was exposed to ethylene glycol with how they might present:

12 to 24 hours

A - CNS depression → depression, stupor, ataxia, decreased withdrawal and righting reflexes, PU/PD, UA → acidic urine with calcium oxalate crystals
B - Cardiopulmonary toxicity → increased heart and resp rate
C - Renal toxicity → renal failure

A

(B)

158
Q

Pair the following time when you find a dog that was exposed to ethylene glycol with how they might present:

36-72 hours

A - CNS depression → depression, stupor, ataxia, decreased withdrawal and righting reflexes, PU/PD, UA → acidic urine with calcium oxalate crystals
B - Cardiopulmonary toxicity → increased heart and resp rate
C - Renal toxicity → renal failure

A

(C, occurs in cats at 12-24 hrs)

159
Q

What is “gameness” that describes fighting dogs?

A

(These dogs do not turn away when normal dogs would when being attacked so viciously, injuries and scars will be focused on the face, arms, and chest bc they did not turn away)

Fundamentals of Diagnostics (12 decks)

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