Exam review Flashcards

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1
Q

What causes the seasons to change?

A

Tilt of the earth
Incident angle of sunlight
Lengths of daylight and nighttime hours

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2
Q

The sun’s rays are more direct in the ______, making the temperatures at latitude ______ and the length of daylight hours ______ compared to the rest of year

A

Summer, warmer, longer

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3
Q

To describe the motion of one celestial body in orbit around another we use the word:

A

Revolution

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4
Q

Mid-winter in the northern hemisphere, the path of the sun places it in the ________ part of our sky at noon

A

Southern

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5
Q

The word “rotation” in science is usually reserved to describe what motion

A

The spinning of a celestial body on its axis

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6
Q

The Earth makes approximately one complete revolution every:

A

Year
365.25 days

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7
Q

The reason that an extra day is added to our calendar every 4 years is that:

A

The period around the sun is slightly greater than 365 days
After several years the calendar would be off if we didn’t compensate for the extra 6 hours of revolution

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8
Q

The reason that we cannot see the new moon is that:

A

The illuminated surface of the moon is facing away from the earth

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9
Q

Phases of the moon are the result of:

A

The changing portion of the illuminated surface of the moon visible from the earth as the moon revolves around the earth

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10
Q

Daily tides are caused by:

A

The gravitational pull of the moon on the earth

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11
Q

Bacteria and viruses are sometimes seen as related in the general public because they are commonly identified as sources of _______ or ________

A

Disease, pathogens

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12
Q

Saprobes are organisms that get their energy from _______ ______ ______, so they may also be considered _________

A

Decaying organic matter, decomposers

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13
Q

In Biology, a virus is generally considered non-living because…

A

It does not grow
It is not capable of reproducing on its own
It does not respond to external stimuli
It does not engage in processes to maintain homeostasis

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14
Q

8 of the 20 peptides common to the proteins of living things are referred to as essential because…

A

They must be acquired in the diet of humans because our bodies cannot manufacture them

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15
Q

In order for us to get all _ of the essential peptides/amino acids in our diet we must:

A

8
Eat meat or grains with legumes (beans and rice)

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16
Q

The primary difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is that eukaryotes have:

A

Nuclei

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17
Q

The idea that evolutionary development is marked by isolated episodes of rapid speciation between long periods of little or no change is called:

A

Punctuated equilibrium

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18
Q

When change in an organism’s structure, metabolism, or behavior is genetic and can be passed on to subsequent generations, it’s called:

A

Adaption

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19
Q

In Biology, when a genetic change in an individual organism leads to genetic change in a population it is called:

A

Evolution

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20
Q

Darwin’s theory of evolution suggests that organisms have evolved by gradual accumulation of genetic changes over a long period of time is called:

A

Gradualism

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21
Q

When 2 populations of apparently related species are not capable of interbreeding and producing viable offspring, we call them distinct…

A

Species

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22
Q

Organisms that must get their energy and carbon source ready-make from existing organisms are called:

A

Heterotrophs

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23
Q

When organisms are able to produce their own organic molecules from inorganic materials, like CO2 and H2O, using the sun’s light for energy, they are referred to as:

A

Autotrophs/Photoautotrophs

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24
Q

According to the Campbell text, taxonomists now include a division above kingdom in the Linnaean hierarchy they call ______. According to this extremophiles are no longer classified with the monerals but as _______

A

Domain, Archaea

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25
Q

The primary method of transmission of HIV in the United States has been:

A

Sexual intercourse

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26
Q

What are the problems with the second Galapagos Finch articles as a scientific paper by Terry Shea?
#1

A

Uses emotive language that seeks emotion and sacrifices objectivity
Fails to see that the outcompeting is an example of adaptation driven by natural selection which is evolution
Fails to recognize that the difference in the beak sizes is genetics

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27
Q

One of the problems with the second Galapagos Finch articles as a scientific paper by Terry Shea is that it:
#2

A

Suggests birds cannot engineer genetic change as if this refutes evolutionary theory, but evolution doesn’t say organisms can will genetic change

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28
Q

A news report like the article from Discover News reporting on research conducted by the Grant’s Daphne Island in the Galapagos is an example of a _______ source of scientific information

A

Secondary

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29
Q

Human blood can actually be blue as evidenced by which of the following?

A

It’s not. It’s red because of the iron ion that carries O2 through the bloodstream

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30
Q

What does it mean to say that experimental results are peer reviewed?

A

The results are analyzed by other scientists before they are published

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31
Q

All of the following statements are examples of anecdotal evidence EXCEPT:

A

Dr. Chowdury’s research on bowel disorders, which was published in a scientific journal

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32
Q

What are characteristics of summer?

A

Direct solar radiation = heating
Longer daylight hours
Higher temperatures

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33
Q

What are the characteristics of winter?

A

Little/no direct solar radiation = cooling
Fewer daylight hours
Cooler temperatures

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34
Q

How can someone obtain the 8 essential amino acids without meat?

A

Legumes (beans and peas) and grains (wheat, corn, and rice)

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35
Q

Why are 8 of the 20 amino acids called essential?

A

We can’t manufacture them, they need to be acquired in our diet

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36
Q

What is a possible explanation of a natural phenomenon or solution to a problem based on observations made?

A

Hypothesis

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37
Q

What does a hypothesis require?

A

Based on observations of a phenomenon
Testable and falsifiable

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38
Q

What is a scientific theory?

A

Sometimes contradicted by experimentation in which case it must be changed or rejected
Not an opinion, but based on upon the results of many experiments repeated by scientists throughout the world

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39
Q

To be useful, scientific theories must be able to…

A

Explain known phenomena
Predict new events

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40
Q

In a controlled experiment how many variables are allowed to change?

A

1

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41
Q

What is the changed variable in a controlled experiment called?

A

Experimental

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42
Q

According to Sagan, which of the following could not have existed in an early Earth atmosphere, prior to life?

A

O2

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43
Q

In Sagan’s COSMOS the Heike crab is used as an example of…

A

Artificial selection

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44
Q

What does Sagan suggest provides certain evidence to the fact of evolution?

A

Artificial selection
Natural selection
Fossil record
Shared organic chemistry, especially the genetic code of nucleic acids

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45
Q

In Sagan’s COSMOS he uses the Miller-Urey Experiment to demonstrate which of the following phenomena?

A

That organic molecules can be synthesized from early atmospheric gases
That the origin of organic molecules in the cosmos doesn’t require life

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46
Q

The ozone layer absorbs primarily…

A

High-energy, ultraviolet light

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47
Q

The Bullock’s and Baltimore Orioles produced hybrid offspring in areas where their populations overlapped, leading researchers to believe they were ___ ____ ______, but the hybrids molted twice in the molt season, requiring greater energy, thus making the hybrids ________, and therefore ________ ______

A

The same species, non-viable, different species

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48
Q

What kind of evolution describes cichlids from two different lakes evolving independently similar traits as a result of having to adapt to similar environments or ecological niches?

A

Convergent evolution

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49
Q

As the evolution of the species of cichlids occurred in two different lakes, this is a good example of…

A

Allopatric speciation

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50
Q

In Biology an ecosystem is referred to as…

A

An assembly of populations living together within a defined area and interacting, along with the geologic, climatic, and other abiotic factors of their shared habitat

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51
Q

Define sympatric speciation

A

When a reproductive barrier isolates a subset of a population within the same geographic location

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52
Q

Define allopatric speciation

A

When geographically separate populations may evolve independently through mutation, natural selection, and genetic drift

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53
Q

Apple maggots have adapted to the exploitation of domestic apples. These flies appear to have spontaneously emerged from the hawthorn feeding race native to North America. This is an example of:

A

Divergent evolution and sympatric speciation

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54
Q

A collection of species living in the same area at the same time is termed a:

A

Community

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55
Q

What is the smallest unit of an element that retains the chemical properties characteristic of that element?

A

Atom

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56
Q

Dr. David Resnick and his colleagues’ study on guppy evolution in Trinidad show that:

A

Evolution can be rapid in populations under selective pressure (punctuated equilibrium)

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57
Q

In Biology a community is referred to as:

A

An assembly of populations living together within a defined area and interacting

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58
Q

What might be a result of the expansion of the oceanic plates in the Atlantic ocean?

A

Oceanic plate will collide with continental crust
More dense oceanic plate will dive below continental crust, creating subduction zone
Subducting plate may cause volcanic activity on continental margin
Colliding oceanic plate may push continental crust, causing continental drift

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59
Q

When mantle material is heated by the Earth’s core, it becomes ____ _____ and _____ to the crust, where it strikes, spreads side-to-side, and _____ to become ____ _____ and _____

A

Less dense/rises…cools…more dense/sinks

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60
Q

The heating, rising, cooling, and sinking phenomenon of mantle material is called:

A

Convection

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61
Q

Digestive, endocrine, nervous, and transport systems are used by the body to maintain a stable internal environment, a process called:

A

Homeostasis

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62
Q

The process of nutrition involves:

A

Ingestion, digestion, taking nutrients in from the external environment and converting them into forms useful to life

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63
Q

Organisms build complex substances, break down complex substances, and release energy, by series of chemical reactions collectively called:

A

Metabolism

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64
Q

Excretion is the process by which:

A

Organisms remove waste materials, the products of chemical reactions, from their bodies

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65
Q

Natural selection acts in the ________ whereas evolution has a _________ effect

A

Individual/population

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66
Q

A leaf having a number of leaflets arranged along a common petiole is referred to as:

A

Compound

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67
Q

If one follows a single blade back to the apparent petiole and finds an axial bud at the point of petiole attachment, then the leaf must be:

A

Simple

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68
Q

A lead venation pattern in which veins branch from a single main vein extending from the petiole to the leaf tip:

A

Pinnate

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69
Q

Which of the following are considered lines of evidence that point to an evolutionary history?

A

Fossils
Anatomy & Development
Molecular Evidence
Sub-optimal Design
Artificial Selection

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70
Q

Dead organisms sometimes leave traces of their existence behind, preserved in form. We call these traces of their former existence:

A

Fossils

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71
Q

Fossils are often formed from/by:

A

Hard body parts preserved as/in stone
Impressions of tissues or organisms preserved in sediment
Bodies preserved and transformed into coal, siliceous or calcareous rock
Bodies preserved in peat bogs or tar pits

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72
Q

Possibly the greatest challenge to fossil evidence for evolution is that:

A

Only a fraction of those formed are ever found
Few organisms are ever fossilized
Soft bodied organisms are not easily preserved
Transitional species are often missing

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73
Q

According to the ___ __ ___________, sedimentary layers are deposited in a time sequence, with the oldest on the bottom and the youngest on the top. Using relative dating principles and the position of layers within rock, it’s possible to reconstruct the sequence of geologic events that have occurred at a site

A

Law of Superposition

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74
Q

Wetlands found in temperate regions characterized by the presence of sphagnum moss, typically nutrient poor and acidic, with few tree species (mostly tamarack)

A

Bogs

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75
Q

Wetlands found in temperate regions that contain low-growing emergent plants such as cattails as well as shrubs and trees:

A

Swamps

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76
Q

Herbaceous plants that are characterized by coming up from new seed every year, blooming, setting seed, and then dying:

A

Annuals

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77
Q

What herbaceous plants likely evolved as a result of the farming practices common in Europe at the time that settlers from Europe first arrived in North America?

A

Biennials

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78
Q

The farming practice common in Europe at the time that settlers from Europe first arrived in North America that is believed led to the evolution of the biennial is referred to as:

A

Crop rotation

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79
Q

Weeds are defined as those plants that are typically characterized as:

A

Prolific seed producers
Plants that thrive in disturbed areas

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80
Q

Trees of the upland forest in the temperate deciduous region are typically characterized by:

A

Long tap roots

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81
Q

Nodules on the roots of legumes contain _______ that add ________ to soil:

A

Bacteria/nitrogen

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82
Q

Trees of this community have no need of taproots and instead have shallow, wide-spreading roots, making them susceptible to tip-ups:

A

Swamp forest

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83
Q

Animals tend to populate edge zones of natural biotic communities, referred to as the ____ ______. This occurs because it’s here that these animals find the best supplies of space, shelter, food, and water:

A

Edge effect

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84
Q

The predictable and orderly changes in the composition or structure of an ecological community:

A

Succession

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85
Q

This form of succession begins in a virtually lifeless area where soil has not yet formed. Soil develops gradually as rock weathers, and decays from the activity of early colonizers like algae and lichens:

A

Primary succession

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86
Q

This form of succession occurs where an existing community is cleared by a disturbance that leaves the soil intact, like fire or farming:

A

Secondary succession

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87
Q

After croplands are abandoned to nature, the area slowly returns to its original state by a progressive series of changes called _______ ________. Ultimately, succession produces a ______ community, a permanent, self-sustaining community appropriate to the local area:

A

Secondary succession/climax

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88
Q

A community of organisms determined by climate conditions and recognized by the characteristic structure of its dominant vegetation is a:

A

Biome

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89
Q

Taiga is characterized by:

A

Spruces and firs
Much of precipitation is snow
Forest is occasionally interrupted by areas of bog
Moose are the dominant herbivore

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90
Q

The bulk of organic material in the tropical rain forest is found:

A

In living things, mostly above ground

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91
Q

Permafrost is characteristic of:

A

Tundra

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92
Q

Plants growing with their roots anchored on other plants are called:

A

Epiphytes

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93
Q

Herbaceous plants that return every year from rootstock that survives the winter or dry season are called:

A

Perennials

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94
Q

What are considered limiting factors for plant growth?

A

Nitrogen
Phosphorus
Potassium

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95
Q

If a plant species is introduced from outside its native habitat and outcompetes the native plants in that area it is typically referred to as:

A

Invasive

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96
Q

When an introduced species survives and reproduces in a new environment without impacting the general survival of native species it’s most commonly referred to as being:

A

Naturalized

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97
Q

Why do invasive species sometimes thrive in new environments?

A

Encounter few, if any, predators
May be resistent to local disease
Native prey may have little defense against invasive predator

98
Q

What is true of an introduced species of organisms?

A

Could outcompete a native species for food
Could fail to survive in new environment and die off
Could survive alongside the native species with little impact
Could take over the habitat of native species

99
Q

What can be done to prevent the spread of invasive species?

A

Require ships to empty their ballast water into the ocean

100
Q

The comparison in embryos at different stages in the development of different organisms may demonstrate similarities in embryonic development. This is referred to as ________ _______ and may suggest _ ______ ______

A

Comparative embryology/a common ancestry

101
Q

The holoblastic pattern of cleavage occurs when:

A

An entire egg is divided into smaller cells, as it is in the development of frogs and mammals

102
Q

When developmental similarities that are inherited from a common ancestor, just like the patterns of bones in adult limbs, we say they are:

A

Homologous

103
Q

Homologous features result from a common ancestor, even if they look and function differently today, so they share the same origin. This is an example of:

A

Divergent evolution

104
Q

Convergent evolution occurs when two or more biological characteristics have different, unrelated evolutionary origins, but have converged over evolutionary time to have the same function, like bird wings and bug wings. Such characteristics are referred to as:

A

Analogous

105
Q

Homologous characters of organisms which have lost all or most of their original function in a species through evolution are referred to as:

A

Vestigial

106
Q

Vestigial characters may take various forms such as anatomical structures, behaviors and biochemical pathways. Some of them disappear early in embryonic development, but others are retained in adulthood though they may have no known purpose. These shared characteristics provide evidence for:

A

Common ancestry
Evolution

107
Q

When farmers manipulate selection processes to produce organisms that have the most fit characteristics, as in crops/livestock chosen to be the biggest, juiciest, hardiest, or sweetest, we call it _________ _______. Over time, the characteristics in crop/livestock populations are changed because their ____ have changed.

A

Artificial selection/genes

108
Q

Which tree species are located in the early upland succession?

A

Red & jack pines, Poplars

109
Q

Which tree species are located in the middle upland succession?

A

Hickories, oaks other than pin oak

110
Q

What tree species are located in the climax forest canopy?

A

Sugar maple, beech

111
Q

What tree species is located in the shrub carr?

A

Willows, Alders, Dogwoods other than flowering

112
Q

What tree species are located in the swamp forest canopy?

A

Yellow birch

113
Q

What tree species are located in the swamp forest understory?

A

Blue beech

114
Q

Cancer producing viruses are called:

A

Oncogenic viruses

115
Q

Most forms of chemotherapy target which feature of cancer cells?

A

Cell division

116
Q

What term describes a harmless, noncancerous, or precancerous tumor?

A

Benign

117
Q

Which term describes a cancerous tumor?

A

Malignant

118
Q

What is the name of the process by which cancer cells break off of tumors and spread to other parts of the body?

A

Metastasis

119
Q

The cause of about 1/3 of all cancer deaths and 90% of all lung cancer is:

A

Smoking tobacco

120
Q

These chemicals can be obtained from dietary fruits and vegetables, as well as dark chocolate, and can neutralize dangerous free radicals within the body

A

Antioxidants

121
Q

Encode proteins that help a cell divide under favorable conditions:

A

Proto-oncogenes

122
Q

Encode proteins that help a cell divide even under unfavorable conditions, leading to uncontrolled cell division:

A

Oncogenes

123
Q

List all known carcinogens #1

A

Ultraviolet light (skin cancer)
Cigarette smoke (lung cancer)
Some bacteria (stomach cancer & helicobacter pylori)
Certain viruses (HPV associated with cervical cancer)
Chemical compounds (DDT & Dieldrin)
Dioxins (By-products of industrial processes)

124
Q

List all known carcinogens #2

A

Radon (gas emitted from granitic rock, collects in basements)
Asbestos (fibrous mineral causing irritation to lungs)
Acrylamid and benzopyrenes (products of combustion like cooking)
Formaldehyde (preservative in lumber & fabrics)
Alcohol

125
Q

Consider a gene that encodes a protein necessary for a cell to stop at checkpoints. If a mutation eliminated the function of that gene, there would be no checkpoints. This gene, in normal form, is an example of a:

A

Proto-oncogene

126
Q

Which of the following can happen during a cell cycle checkpoint?

A

Checks whether its chromosomes are properly attached to microtubules
Allow determination of sufficient growth factors
Determine that DNA has replicated properly

127
Q

What is the process by which a tumor attracts and redirects blood vessels to keep it supplies with O2 and nutrients?

A

Angiogenesis

128
Q

List all common features of cancer cells

A

Loss of anchorage dependence
Loss of contact inhibition
Metastasis
Uncontrolled division
Immortalization

129
Q

The multiple hit model of cancer means that:

A

Multiple mutations are required to cause most forms of cancer

130
Q

What is the name for the surgical removal of cells, tissue, or fluid that will by analyzed to determine whether they’re cancerous?

A

Biopsy

131
Q

Which of the following tree species are NOT diagnostic of the shrub carr community throughout most of the Eastern Deciduous Forest?

A

Oaks and hickories

132
Q

The features of the Tundra that allow an area that otherwise receives desert levels of precipitation annually, to be inhibited by plants diagnostic to marshes includes:

A

Permafrost prevents meltwater from penetrating into groundwater table, so it pools at surface
Cool temps and less direct solar radiation = low rates of evaporation
Relatively brief growing season during which plants grow and use water

133
Q

List all the non-specific immune responses

A

Skin
Mucus membranes
Phagocytes
Inflammation
Fever
Interferons
Complement reactions

134
Q

Oils and waxes produced by the sebaceous glands and sweat glands affect protection from pathogens by:

A

Providing a protective coating and further preventing penetration of pathogen
Lactic and fatty acids in these secretions kill or inhibit growth of cells

135
Q

Inflammation results from the production of ________ by mast cells arriving at the site of pathogen infection

A

Histamines

136
Q

The primary complement in the action between T-cells and B-cells in immune response is that:

A

T-cells destroy infected body tissues that B-cells can’t
B-cells produce massive antibody response T-cells can’t
T-cells activate B-cells

137
Q

When bacterial infection occurs, phagocytes may produce hormones called ________ which cause a _____

A

Pyrogens/fever

138
Q

What vaccine is created by heat treating a pathogen to denature the DNA so that it’s neither capable of infecting nor reproducing?

A

Inactivated vaccine

139
Q

____ _____ arrive at the site of wound or infection and begin to produce ________ which results in inflammation of the infected tissues

A

Mast cells/histamines

140
Q

When the immune system is induced to produce a histamine response to perceived pathogens in error, that is, when mast cells become active when there is no real infectious agent, it results in ___________ and is referred to as an _______ response

A

Inflammation/allergic

141
Q

These cells produce perforin which, injected into the cell membrane of infected cells, causes those cells to leak to death

A

Killer T cells

142
Q

T cells react to APC’s by producing lymphokines. These lymphokines are responsible for…

A

Activation of B cells
Division of T cells
Stimulation of inflammation
Stimulation of complement reactions

143
Q

The primary function of B cells is to produce _______ specific to the antigens of infectious cells

A

Antibodies and immunoglobulins

144
Q

Antibodies work in defense of disease by:

A

Binding to antigens, preventing cells from reproducing
Binding to antigens, preventing cells from binding to and damaging other cells
Marking cells for termination by phagocytes

145
Q

To avoid the risk of rejection by the recipient patient when tissues are transplanted, the patient is provided…

A

Immunosuppressant drugs

146
Q

What is the function of a vaccination?

A

Present the body with a copy, less active, or genetically altered form of a pathogen in order to induce an immune response that will be effective later should the individual be exposed to the pathogen

147
Q

When the body is provided with an inoculated of antibodies, like the Regeneron therapy, it’s referred to as:

A

Passive immunity

148
Q

Running a fever assists defense from the spread of infection by:

A

Increasing the metabolic rate of phagocytes
Producing pyrogens which reduce the level of iron in blood, slowing down bacterial reproduction

149
Q

What vaccine is formed of actual pathogens that have passed through rounds of replication and have become less virulent, thus allowing the body to present a sufficient defense against them with little risk of illness

A

Live attenuated vaccine

150
Q

Your physician gives you a prescription for an antibiotic. You take the antibiotic until you are feeling better and decide to save the remaining dose for future use. What is the result of your behavior?

A

You’re contributing to the antibiotic becoming less effective the next time it’s used

151
Q

When tissues are transplanted, as in the surgical treatment of tissue damage, there is a risk of rejection by the recipient patient, this is due to lack of…

A

Histocompatibility

152
Q

Immune system cells that will remain in the system for a decade or more, ready to respond to pathogens of the type that originally induced their formation are called:

A

Memory B cells

153
Q

As memory B cells present response upon return of the pathogen a second time (or more), their immune response is referred to as:

A

A secondary immune response

154
Q

Meiosis is a _______ process of _____ ______ by which the _____ of the cell is replicated, but with formation of four, unique, haploid daughter nuclei

A

Reductive/nuclear division/nucleus

155
Q

Prophase represents the _____ stage of mitosis during which…

A

First, chromosomes begin to condense from chromatin

156
Q

During ________ of mitosis the separated chromosomes arrive at the poles and begin to uncoil, the nuclear envelope and _________ reappear, and the cell divided

A

Telophase, nucleolus

157
Q

What is true of sister chromatids?

A

They represent the copied DNA
They usually contain identical nucleic acid sequencing
They are part of the same chromosome until anaphase

158
Q

How does meiosis II differ from mitosis?

A

Meiosis II involved a haploid number of chromosomes

159
Q

Cytokinesis refers to the actual division of the ________ and the ____ itself

A

Cytoplasm, cell

160
Q

During prophase I meiosis the ________ ___________ ____ __ ______ which is different from mitosis

A

Homologous chromosomes pair by synapsis

161
Q

Meiosis division promotes sexual reproduction and its advantages by…

A

As a reductive form of karyocytosis, it reduces the chromosome count
Homologues pair and align randomly at metaphase I which creates variation
Formation of chiasma result in crossing-over and results in hybrid chromosome

162
Q

The exchanges of genes between non-sister chromatids is called:

A

Crossing over

163
Q

What results from meiosis?

A

New combinations of genes on chromosomes
New combinations of chromosomes

164
Q

A cell that contains pairs of homologous chromosomes is said to be:

A

Diploid

165
Q

The structure that apparently allows the chromosome to attach to the spindle network during nuclear division is called:

A

Kinetochore

166
Q

Number of new combinations of chromosomes produced by meiosis is __ where N equals the haploid number

A

2^N

167
Q

What is true about homologous chromosomes?

A

They constitute a pair of chromosomes
They look alike
One homologue came from the mother’s eggs and one from the father’s sperm
They carry forms of genes for the same traits

168
Q

Supercoiling of the chromatin to form chromosomes prior to nuclear division has what major advantage to the cell?

A

Prevents entanglement of DNA
Reduces risk of loss from or damage to chromosomes
Protects genetic code and maintains integrity of the chromosome

169
Q

A region of repetitive nucleotide sequences at each side of a chromosome, which protects the end of the chromosome from deterioration or from fusion with neighboring chromosomes:

A

Telomere

170
Q

The number, forms, and types of chromosomes in a cell, most easily observed at metaphase:

A

Karyotype

171
Q

What properly identifies functions of chiasmata?

A

Mechanical-chiasmata hold bivalent together while it maneuvers itself onto the spindle
Are places where chromatids may break and rejoin with an exchange of equivalent chromosome regions between non sister chromatids (crossing over)
As homologous chromosomes usually contain different genetic material, crossing over promotes genetic variety and propels evolution

172
Q

Strictly speaking, mitosis refers only to the division of the _____ or __________

A

Nucleus, karyocytosis

173
Q

What forms of reproduction might result from mitotic division followed by cytokinesis?

A

Asexual
Vegetation propagation like succulents
Budding like hydra

174
Q

List advantages of asexual reproduction

A

Fast & effective
Produces large populations with less energy
Resulting clone is as well adapted to its environment as the parent

175
Q

What is the greatest advantage to sexual reproduction?

A

Promotes genetic diversity, which promotes survival in a changing environment

176
Q

H2O has a high ______ ____ _______

A

Specific heat capacity

177
Q

Large bodies of H2O act as a…

A

Heat sink

178
Q

How do large bodies of H2O act as a heat sink?

A

Coastal temperatures are moderated by large bodies of H2O
Example: Lake Michigan seldom freezes over

179
Q

Cold winter air ____ as it…

A

Warms, blows across lake Michigan

180
Q

The result of no early frosts or late freezes are…

A

Increased growing season
Protects flower buds
Allows fruiting plants to flower and produce fruit further North than usual

181
Q

Dry air picks up ______ as it crosses the lake

A

Moisture

182
Q

Moist air _____ in the dunes and _________ as ____ _____ ____

A

Rises, precipitates, lake effect snow

183
Q

Lake effect snow insulates…

A

The ground and protects fruiting plants

184
Q

Cold air masses retain ____ ______ than warm air masses

A

Less moisture

185
Q

H2O is less dense as…

A

A solid than a liquid

186
Q

What does frozen H2O do as it forms on the surface of a body of H2O?

A

Insulates the water below

187
Q

Aquatic organisms survive…

A

Winter temperatures below ice

188
Q

Aquatic organisms that are protected by insulative ice are exposed to…

A

Narrower range of temperature than on land

189
Q

What would happen if H2O was not less dense as a solid?

A

Lakes would freeze from the bottom into solid blocks
Aquatic organisms would be exposed to temperatures that drop below freezing

190
Q

What are hydrocarbons?

A

A group of organic compounds

191
Q

What do hydrocarbons contain?

A

Primarily C & H as constituent atoms
Many include other organic atomic components like O, N, S, P

192
Q

Hydrocarbons are molecules that are built on a…

A

Carbon chain

193
Q

Which hydrocarbon compound contains a hydroxyl functional group (-OH) within their structure?

A

Alcohol
Hydrocarbon prefix + ol

194
Q

Which hydrocarbon compound contains a carbonyl functional group (=O) at the end of the chain?

A

Aldehydes
Hydrocarbon prefix + al

195
Q

Which hydrocarbon compound contains a carbonyl functional group (=O) within their chain?

A

Ketones
Hydrocarbon prefix + one

196
Q

Which hydrocarbon compound contains a carboxyl functional group (-COOH) at the end of the chain?

A

Carboxylic acids
Hydrocarbon prefix + oic acid

197
Q

Which hydrocarbon compound contains a carboxyl functional group (-COOH) at the end of their chain and an amine group
(-NH2) on the other end?

A

Amino acids
1 of 23 different monomers in all living things
20 in human proteins

198
Q

Which hydrocarbon compound is the product of condensation synthesis between 2 alcohols which leaves an O bonded in the middle?

A

Ethers
Alkyl-Alkyl Ether where the shorter alcohol comes first
R-O-R’

199
Q

Which hydrocarbon compound is the product of a condensation synthesis between a carboxylic acid and an alcohol?

A

Esters
Alkyl-Alkanoate where the carboxylic acid is the -oate
R-O-C-R’

200
Q

Double or triple bonds means…

A

Unsaturated

201
Q

Single bond means…

A

Saturated

202
Q

The Earth was formed as a…

A

Rocky, sterile ball by gravitational collapse

203
Q

Due to tremendous pressure by gravitational collapse, the earth…

A

Heated up and the core melted

204
Q

What was the early atmosphere created by?

A

Violent volcanism

205
Q

What were the early seas formed by?

A

Condensation of water vapor

206
Q

The first organic molecules were synthesized by…

A

Atmospheric gases like violent electrical storms and lightening

207
Q

4 billion years ago, the first organisms appeared in the…

A

Ocean, they were bacteria

208
Q

Water protected the first organisms from..:

A

Ultra-violet radiation and the sun

209
Q

Photosynthesis was done by…

A

Early organisms which contributed O2 to the atmosphere
Then the ozone layer was formed in the upper atmosphere which absorbs most of the ultra-violet radiation that was deadly to early organisms and still mutagenic today

210
Q

Early life spread to…

A

Shallow, coastal waters and eventually to dry land

211
Q

Define the life process: transport

A

Organisms control the movement in & out of cells

212
Q

Define the life process: respiration

A

Chemical energy from nutrients, needed for life, is released

213
Q

Define the life process: synthesis

A

Organisms combine simple substances to form more complex substances
Usually employs products of digestion

214
Q

Define the life process: assimilation and growth

A

Organisms incorporate materials into their bodies, making them part of their structure
Results in an increase in the size of an organism (growth)
Growth follows a particular pattern and may have defined limits

215
Q

Define the life process: homeostasis

A

Organisms incorporate many regulatory processes to capacitate homeostasis and regulate our internal environment
Ex: Digestive endocrine, excretory, nervous & transport systems

216
Q

Define the life process: reproduction

A

Organisms produce new organisms of their own kind

217
Q

Define the life process: metabolism

A

Organisms build complex substances, break down complex substances, release energy by a series of chemical reactions

218
Q

Define the non-specific immune response: skin

A

Epidermal cells are constantly dying and sloughing off, taking potential invaders with it
Oils and waxes from sebaceous glands and sweat from sweat glands further prevent penetration
Lactic acid and fatty acids contained in these secretions kill or inhibit the growth of fungi and bacteria

219
Q

Define the non-specific immune response: mucous membranes

A

Protein-rich fluid secreted by moist membranes, traps microorganisms
Bacterial enzymes in the mucous, like lysozymes, digest the peptidoglycan cell wall of the bacteria, and protein capsule of viruses, killing them

220
Q

Define the non-specific immune response: phagocytes

A

Phagocytic cells like macrophages and special lymphocytes (a type of white blood cell) are called natural killer cells
Absorb and digest pathogenic antigens
Some produce cytotoxic that kills damaged body cells like cancer or infected tissue

221
Q

Define the non-specific immune response: inflammation

A

Where pathogens or antigens have punctured the skin or membranes, mast cells collect
Mast cells produce histamine, a derivative of amino acids, which cause redness and swelling
Increases phagocytes which engulf bacteria and dying body cells

222
Q

Define non-specific immune response: fever

A

White blood cells produce hormones called pyrogens which cause the brain to reset the body’s thermostat to a higher temperature, causing a fever

223
Q

Define the non-specific immune response: complement

A

Proteins produced primarily by the liver circulate through bloodstream
Activated by pathogens or peptidoglycan cell wall of bacteria, destroy bacterial coat
Enhance and induce phagocytic reactions

224
Q

Define non-specific immune response: interferons

A

Fever induces interferons
Produced by cells infected by a virus as a response
Bind to surface receptors of neighboring cells triggering antiviral proteins including enzymes that cleave mRNA

225
Q

Vaccines are intended to…

A

Stimulate body immune response without risk of infection

226
Q

Describe live attenuated vaccine

A

“Wild type” pathogen passes in and out of a host through generations inhibited to become less virulent
Still genetically the same as the wild type parent
Because it retains its abilities to reproduce and carry on normal pathology, immune response is naturally stimulated

227
Q

Describe a conjugate vaccine

A

Contain a polysaccharide modeling that shows if the cell wall of bacterium is bonded to a protein representing the antigen, a vaccine with no threat of infection will be produced
Less dangerous but less effective
Artificially made

228
Q

Describe recombinant vaccine

A

Recombinant bacteria doesn’t reproduce, so no threat

229
Q

Describe inactivated vaccine

A

Cells are inactivated by heat or chemical lysis
Exposes the patient to fragments of cell wall, promotes immune response without exposure to live cells

230
Q

The polarity of the water molecule is due to which of the following?

A

The relative sizes of O & H nuclei
The stronger attraction of e-‘s to the larger O nucleus

231
Q

The cohesion of water, adhesion of water to other materials, and effectiveness of water as a solvent are due to which of the following phenomena?

A

The polarity of the water molecule

232
Q

The cohesion and adhesion of water are characteristics that continue to cause ________ _____ which plays an important role in……

A

Capillary action/promoting water movement against gravity in tubes of small diameter, like xylem in plants

233
Q

What are characteristics of water?

A

H2O has a relatively high boiling point
H2O absorbs an unusually large amount of heat in changing from a liquid to a vapor
H2O is LESS dense in the solid form than in the liquid form

234
Q

Why is southwest lower Michigan a good blueberry producing region?

A

Area has many boggy places which is natural habitat of blueberries
Blueberries as an agricultural crop were first developed here
Soil is rich in nutrient
Lake Michigan acts as a heat sink, storing heat and warming the winter air as it passes over the lake, leaving our area with more temperate climate favorable to fruit plants

235
Q

The ratio of C to H to O in typical carbohydrates is…

A

1 : 2 : 1

236
Q

Ice forms on the surface of temperate lakes and ponds. This characteristic of water is due to the fact that … and allows ….

A

Water is less dense as a solid than as a liquid/organisms to survive the winter months in liquid insulated from the cold above by the ice layer at the surface

237
Q

Which organic molecules contain a carbonyl (-CO) functional group?

A

Aldehydes
Ketones

238
Q

An unsaturated hydrocarbon differs from a saturated in that an unsaturated hydrocarbon:

A

Contains C=C or C≡C somewhere in its structure

239
Q

A bond that forms by the sharing of elections between constituent atoms is called a:

A

Covalent bond

240
Q

As one moves across a period on the periodic table from left to right, the metallic character of the element:

A

Decreases