exam pt 3

Question 1

The cells active in fracture repair during the production of the hard (spongy bone) callus.
a) fibroblasts
b) osteoclasts
c) osteocytes
d) osteoblasts
e) chondroblasts

Answer 1

c) osteocytes

Question 2

Describe the steps in bone repair

Answer 2

After the break in the bone occurs, blood vessels in that area are damaged and blood surrounds
the fracture. The blood solidifies to form a clot, which reduces bleeding. White blood cells
migrate into the area to remove bacteria and damaged cells. Osteoclasts migrate in to remove
dead bone matrix. Secondly, fibroblasts migrate into the fracture to form a plate of cartilage to
prevent further movement and damage at the fracture site. Thirdly, osteoblasts invade to
replace the cartilage with bone matrix in the form of spongy bone. Lastly, the bone matrix will
be remodeled as compact bone replaces spongy bone

Question 3

Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) The axial skeleton has 80 bones.
b) The appendicular skeleton has 126 bones.
c) The axial skeleton is composed of the bones that run through the axis of the body.
d) Children have more bones than adults.
e) The appendicular skeleton does not include the pelvic and pectoral girdles

Answer 3

e) The appendicular skeleton does not include the pelvic and pectoral girdles.

Question 4

Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton?
a) hyoid
b) ribs
c) vertebrae
d) carpals
e) sternum

Answer 4

d) carpals

Question 5

An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is
called a
a) fissure.
b) foramen.
c) fossa.
d) meatus.
e) sulcus.

Answer 5

b) foramen

Question 6

Which of following facial bones is a single (unpaired) bone in the human skull?
a) maxilla
b) nasal
c) lacrimal
d) mandible
e) zygomatic

Answer 6

d) mandible

Question 7

Which of the following cranial bones forms the inferior lateral aspects of the cranium and
part of the cranial floor?
a) frontal
b) temporal
c) parietal
d) occipital
e) ethmoid

Answer 7

b) temporal

Question 8

Which of the following cranial bones contains the organs of hearing and balance, and
articulate with the mandible?
a) frontal
b) temporal
c) parietal
d) occipital
e) sphenoid

Answer 8

b) temporal

Question 9

Briefly describe the bones that make up the orbit of the eye. Include a description of the
portion of the orbit formed by each bone

Answer 9

Parts of the frontal and sphenoid bones comprise the roof of the orbit. Parts of the zygomatic
and sphenoid bones form the lateral wall of the orbit. Parts of the maxilla, zygomatic and
palatine bones make up the floor of the orbit. Parts of the maxilla, lacrimal, ethmoid, and
sphenoid bones form the medial wall of the orbit.

Question 10

List and describe the number of bones found in all the regions of the adult vertebral
column.

Answer 10

There are seven cervical vertebrae in the neck region. There are twelve thoracic vertebrae
posterior to the thoracic cavity. The five lumbar vertebrae support the lower back. There is one
sacrum consisting of five fused sacral vertebrae. There is one coccyx (tail bone) consisting of
four fused coccygeal vertebrae.

Question 11

Which of the following bones is the anterior bone that articulates with the manubrium of
the sternum at the sternoclavicular joint?
a) scapula
b) clavicle
c) xiphoid
d) rib
e) thoracic vertebra

Answer 11

b) clavicle

Question 12

Which of the following bones is the anterior bone that articulates with the manubrium of
the sternum at the sternoclavicular joint?
a) scapula
b) clavicle
c) xiphoid
d) rib
e) thoracic vertebra

Answer 12

b) clavicle

Question 13

Which of the following bones articulates with the scapula?
a) thoracic vertebra
b) humerus
c) sacrum
d) tibia

Answer 13

b) humerus

Question 14

Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to the human hand?
a) There are 5 carpals, 8 metacarpals and 14 phalanges.
b) There are 8 carpals, 6 metacarpals and 14 phalanges
c) There are 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 15 phalanges
d) There are 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 14 phalanges
e) There are 5 carpals, 8 metacarpals and 15 phalanges

Answer 14

d) There are 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 14 phalanges

Question 15

The medial and lateral epicondyles are found on the distal end of the humerus and are used
for
a) formation of the elbow joint.
b) tendon attachment.
c) passage of nerves and blood vessels through the bone into the marrow cavity.
d) Both formation of the elbow joint and tendon attachment.
e) All of these choices are correct

Answer 15

b) tendon attachment.

Question 16

How many phalanges are in each hand?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 14
d) 16
e) 20

Answer 16

c) 14

Question 17

Which of the following markings is located on the medial side of the femur?
a) lesser trochanter
b) greater trochanter
c) head
d) Both head and lesser trochanter
e) Both head and greater trochanter

Answer 17

d) Both head and lesser trochanter

Question 18

The lateral malleolus is found on the distal end of what bone?
a) tibia
b) fibula
c) talus
d) metatarsals
e) femur

Answer 18

fibula

Question 19

Compare and contrast the male and female pelvis.

Answer 19

Male pelvis is heavier with a deeper false pelvis, a smaller pelvic inlet, a rounder obturator
foramen, and a pubic arch less than 90 degrees. The female pelvis is lighter with a shallower
false pelvis, oval shaped pelvic inlet, and a pubic arch of over 90 degrees.

Question 20

List the three structural categories of joints and briefly describe the criteria used for
structural classification of joints.

Answer 20

The structural types of joints include: 1) fibrous joints, 2) cartilaginous joints, and 3) synovial
joints. Joints can be classified structurally based on two criteria: 1) the presence or absence of a
space between the articulating bones, called a synovial cavity and 2) the type of connective
tissue that binds the bones together.

Question 21

Which type(s) of joint(s) lack(s) a synovial cavity?
1. Fibrous joints
2. Cartilaginous joints
3. Synovial joints
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 2
e) 1, 2, and 3

Answer 21

1 and 2

Question 22

Which functional class(es) of joint(s) allow(s) movement?
1. Synarthrosis
2. Amphiarthrosis
3. Diarthrosis
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) Both 2 and 3
e) 1, 2, and 3

Answer 22

Both 2 and 3

Question 23

Briefly describe the functions of synovial fluid.

Answer 23

Synovial fluid reduces friction, absorbs shock and supplying oxygen and nutrients to and
removing carbon dioxide and metabolic wastes from the chondrocytes within articular
cartilage.

Question 24

Forming a fist, requires the fingers to perform what motion?
a) Opposition
b) Extension
c) Dorsiflexion
d) Flexion
e) Rotation

Answer 24

Flexion

Question 25

Describe the general effects that aging has on joints.

Answer 25

Changes in joints due to aging include: production of synovial fluid decreases; articular cartilage thins; ligaments shorten and lose flexibility; osteoarthritis develops from wear and tear; bone becomes exposed at joints, and spurs form and the synovial membrane becomes inflamed.
These changes lead to decreases in the range of motion of joints.

Question 26

Which is an autoimmune disease that affects the joints?
a) gouty arthritis
b) Lyme disease
c) arthroplasty
d) osteoarthritis
e) rheumatoid arthritis

Answer 26

rheumatoid arthritis

Question 27

Explain why the shoulder joint is both more mobile and weaker than the hip joint.

Answer 27

The shoulder joint has a shallow socket (the glenoid fossa) into which the head of the humerus fits, and the labrum only slightly deepens the socket. The head of the humerus is larger in relation to the socket. It is deepened by a number of ligaments, but because of its structure, tends to be weaker than the hip joint. It is highly movable and can rotate easily. The hip joint has a deeper socket (acetabulum) into which the head of the femur inserts, and is also strengthened by ligaments. Because of the angle at which the femur fits into its socket, along with the depth of the socket, the hip is a stronger, less mobile joint, made to support the weight
of the body.

Question 28

Which is a function of the nervous system? Select all that apply.
a) Sensory function
b) Integrative function
c) Motor function
d) Contractility
e) Elasticity

Answer 28

a) Sensory function
b) Integrative function
c) Motor function

Question 29

Which division of the peripheral nervous system only innervates the gastrointestinal
tract’s wall?
a) Somatic nervous system
b) Autonomic nervous system
c) Enteric nervous system
d) Parasympathetic nervous system
e) Sympathetic nervous system

Answer 29

Enteric nervous system

Question 30

) The motor portion of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into
a) somatic and sympathetic divisions.
b) somatic and parasympathetic divisions.
c) enteric and somatic divisions.
d) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
e) voluntary and involuntary divisions.

Answer 30

sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.

Question 31

With respect to neurons, the term “nerve fiber” refers to what structure? Select all that
apply.
a) an axon
b) a dendrite
c) a Nissl body
d) microtubules
e) neurofibrils

Answer 31

a) an axon
b) a dendrite

Question 32

This type of neuron has one dendrite and one axon emerging from the cell body.
a) Multipolar neuron
b) Bipolar neuron
c) Unipolar neuron
d) Purkinje cell
e) Pyramidal cell

Answer 32

Bipolar neuron

Question 33

After birth Schwann cells
a) form myelin sheaths around axons in the central nervous system.
b) stop myelinating neurons in the peripheral nervous system.
c) lose their ability to regenerate neurons.
d) increase their presence and amount of myelination in the peripheral nervous system.
e) wrap around multiple parts of several axons forming nodes of Ranvier

Answer 33

increase their presence and amount of myelination in the peripheral nervous system.

Question 34

Which type of central nervous system tissue contains neuronal cell bodies, dendrites,
unmyelinated axons, axon terminals, and neuroglial cells?
a) Gray matter
b) White matter
c) Nissl bodies
d) Ganglia

Answer 34

Gray matter

Question 35

When a graded potential summates to threshold at the axon hillock,
a) ligand-gated Ca+2 channels close rapidly.
b) voltage-gated Ca+2 channels open rapidly.
c) ligand-gated Na+ channels close rapidly.
d) voltage-gated Na+ channels open rapidly.
e) ligand-gated K+ channels open rapidly.

Answer 35

voltage-gated Na+ channels open rapidly.

Question 36

The nervous system can distinguish between a light touch and a heavier touch because
a) weak stimuli generate action potentials more often than strong stimuli.
b) all action potentials are alike regardless of stimulus intensity.
c) the frequency of impulses sent to sensory centers is changing.
d) the threshold is lower for different sensations.
e) the length of the refractory period is modified.

Answer 36

the frequency of impulses sent to sensory centers is changing.

Question 37

Faster communication and synchronization are two advantages of
a) chemical synapses
b) electrical synapses
c) graded potentials
d) action potentials
e) Na+
-K
+ ATPases

Answer 37

electrical synapses

Question 38

Plasticity means the ability to
a) regenerate after being damaged.
b) communicate by hormones
c) convert stimulus into an action potential.
d) change based on experience.
e) stretch and recoil without damage.

Answer 38

change based on experience.

Question 39

What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults?

Answer 39

Neurogenesis in adults is limited by: 1) Inhibitory influences from neuroglia, mainly from
oligodendrocytes, and 2) the absence of growth-stimulating cues present during fetal
development.

Question 40

Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.

Answer 40

Drugs can modify neurotransmitter effects by: 1) stimulating or inhibiting their synthesis, 2)
enhancing or blocking their release, 3) activating or blocking their receptor, and 4)
stimulating or inhibiting their removal.