exam 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the factors that lead to muscle fatigue.

A

Although the precise mechanisms that cause muscle fatigue are still not clear, several factors are thought to contribute. One is inadequate release of calcium ions from the SR, resulting in a decline of Ca2+ concentration in the sarcoplasm. Depletion of creatine phosphate also is associated with fatigue, but surprisingly, the ATP levels in fatigued muscle often are not much lower than those in resting muscle. Other factors that contribute to muscle fatigue include insufficient oxygen, depletion of glycogen and other nutrients, buildup of lactic acid and ADP, and failure of action potentials in the motor neuron to release enough acetylcholine.

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2
Q

Why would cardiac muscles have longer refractory periods than skeletal muscles. Choose the best answer?
a) to preserve the normal rhythm of the heart and prevent fatigue
b) the muscle types contain different contractile proteins
c) skeletal muscle is autorhythmic
d) skeletal muscles have prolonged calcium influx
e) cardiac muscle is not dependent on aerobic respiration to produce ATP

A

to preserve the normal rhythm of the heart and prevent fatigue

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3
Q

Motor unit recruitment occurs when there is a(n) [———-] in the number of active motor units within a skeletal muscle.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) no change

A

a) increase

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4
Q

Which microscopic structure is found only in the cardiac muscle tissue?
a) myosin
b) tropomyosin
c) sarcomeres
d) intercalated discs
e) striations

A

intercalated discs

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5
Q

Which type of muscle tissue contracts when excited by their own autorhythmic muscle fibers?
a) cardiac muscle
b) slow twitch oxidative skeletal muscle
c) multi-unit smooth muscle
d) fast twitch glycolytic skeletal muscle

A

cardiac muscle

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6
Q

How does a nerve impulse elicit a muscle action potential?

A

A nerve impulse reaches the synaptic end bulb and causes the release of acetylcholine, which diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to and activates acetylcholine receptors on the motor end plate. Binding of acetylcholine opens an ion channel in the acetylcholine receptors allowing Na+ to flow into the cell, which generates an action potential in the muscle cell.

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7
Q

What are the three ways that ATP can be produced in muscle fibers?

A

ATP can be produced from creatine phosphate, by anaerobic cellular respiration, and by aerobic cellular respiration.

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8
Q

Most muscles cross at least one
a) tendon
b) joint
c) bone
d) ligament
e) body plane

A

joint

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9
Q

The attachment of a muscle’s tendon to the stationary bone is called the _____; the attachment of the muscle’s other tendon to the movable bone is called the _____.

a) origin, action
b) insertion, action
c) origin, insertion
d) insertion, origin

A

origin, insertion

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10
Q

Briefly describe the three categories of levers based on the position of their fulcrum. Give an example of each type of lever and state whether the lever works at a mechanical advantage, disadvantage or both.

A

If the fulcrum is between the effort and the load it is a first class lever. Scissors are an example of a first class lever. A first class lever can produce either a mechanical advantage or disadvantage depending on whether the effort or load is closer to the fulcrum. If the load is between the fulcrum and the effort, it is a second class lever. A wheel barrow is an example of a second class lever. They operate at a mechanical advantage because the load is always closer to the fulcrum than the effort. If the effort is between the fulcrum and the load, it is a third class lever. Forceps are an example of a third class lever. They operate at a mechanical disadvantage because the effort is always closer to the fulcrum than the load.

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11
Q

The muscle that serves as the “prime mover” during a movement is called the
a) antagonist.
b) agonist.
c) synergist.
d) asynergist.
e) fixator.

A

agonist

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12
Q

This type of muscle works by stabilizing the origin of the agonist so that it can act more efficiently.
a) synergist
b) agonist
c) antagonist
d) fixator
e) secondary mover

A

fixator

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13
Q

Discuss the roles of agonists, antagonists, synergists, and fixators in movement.

A

The agonist (prime mover) contracts to cause a particular movement. The antagonist causes the opposite action, and so, must relax while the agonist contracts. Synergists prevent unwanted movements during an action or aid the agonist during the movement, while fixators stabilize the origin of the agonist. Both allow the agonist to work more efficiently.

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13
Q

Briefly describe four main benefits of stretching before exercising.

A

Stretching can improve physical performance by increasing joint flexibility allowing the joint to move through a greater range of motion. Stretching decreases risk of injury by decreasing resistance in various soft tissues so there is less of a chance of exceeding maximum tissue extensibility during activity. Stretching can reduce some of the muscle soreness that results after exercise. Stretching can help realign soft tissues to improve and maintain good posture.

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13
Q

Protrusion of an organ through a structure that normally contains it is referred to as a

A

hernia.

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14
Q

During inhalation, _____muscles contract to elevate the ribs. During forced exhalation, ______muscles contract to depress the ribs.

A

external intercostals; internal intercostals

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15
Q

Which motions can be made by the upper limbs but NOT by the lower limbs?
a) pronation and supination
b) flexion and extension
c) adduction and abduction
d) lateral and medial rotation

A

pronation and supination

16
Q

Which muscle’s insertion fuses with the calcaneal tendon? Select all that apply.
a) soleus
b) gastrocnemius
c) plantaris
d) popliteus
e) flexor hallucis longus

A

a) soleus
b) gastrocnemius
c) plantaris

17
Q

Which of the following structures is a part of both the nervous system and endocrine systems?
A) Thalamus B) Pineal gland C) Pancreas D) Hypothalamus E) Thymus

A

Hypothalamus

17
Q

Which muscles help move the jaw during mastication?

a) masseter, temporalis, pterygoid (medial and lateral)
b) genioglossus, styloglossus, hyoglossus, palatoglossus
c) omohyoid, sternohyoid, thyrohyoid
d) sternocleidomastoid, longissimus capitis, splenius capitis
e) orbicularis oris, levator labii superioris, depressor labii inferioris

A

masseter, temporalis, pterygoid (medial and lateral)

18
Q

______ are chemical messengers that are produced in one body region but affect a different body region.
A) Enzymes B) Endocrines C) Neurotransmitters D) Nucleic acids E) Hormones

A

Hormones

19
Q

The endocrine system works together with the ________ system to maintain the body’s equilibrium?
A) digestive system B) nervous system C) respiratory system D) reproductive system

A

nervous system

20
Q

Hormones help balance the body’s reactions differently than nerve impulses in that:
A) the reactions take longer to occur. B) hormones can target specific target cells found somewhere else in the body. C) the reactions can last much longer. D) All of the above.

A

All of the above

21
Q

All the following are endocrine glands, EXCEPT the:
A) sweat gland B) adrenal glands C) thyroid gland D) pituitary gland

A

sweat gland

22
Q

Endocrine glands are different than exocrine glands in that exocrine glands:
A) release hormones into the blood. B) secrete through ducts out onto the skin.
C) affect many body organs. D) include the reproductive organs.

A

secrete through ducts out onto the skin.

23
Q

The endocrine gland(s) referred to as the “master gland” is the:
A) pancreas B) adrenal glands C) thyroid gland D) pituitary gland

A

pituitary gland

24
Q

The endocrine gland(s) that makes insulin is the:
A) pancreas B) adrenal glands C) thyroid gland D) pituitary gland

A

pancreas

25
Q

The endocrine gland(s) that sits on top of the kidneys and secretes both metabolic stabilizers and stress regulators:
A) pancreas B) adrenal glands C) thyroid gland D) pituitary gland

A

adrenal glands

26
Q

The largest endocrine gland(s) that makes 3 hormones that affect the metabolism is the:
A) pancreas B) adrenal glands C) thyroid gland D) pituitary gland

A

thyroid gland

27
Q

Which structure is the site of sperm production?
a) Vas deferens
b) Seminiferous tubules
c) Albuginea
d) Epididymis
e) Raphe

A

Seminiferous tubules

28
Q

Which of the following are produced in and released from the ovaries?
a) Primary oocytes, prolactin and estrogen
b) Secondary oocytes, progesterone and oxytocin
c) Tertiary oocytes, oxytocin and estrogen
d) Secondary oocytes, estrogen and progesterone
e) Primary oocytes, estrogen and testosterone

A

Secondary oocytes, estrogen and progesterone

29
Q

Which cells secrete testosterone?
a) Sertoli cells
b) Spermatogenic cells
c) Leydig cells
d) Oogonia
e) Chief cells

A

Leydig cells

30
Q

Which of the following is the site of fertilization?
a) Ureters
b) Urethra
c) Uterine tubes
d) Ovaries
e) Vagina

A

Uterine tubes

31
Q

Describe the functions of testosterone.

A

Testosterone promotes the development and maintenance of male secondary sex characteristics, protein anabolism, development of sexual function (behavior, libido, spermatogenesis), and the male pattern of development during prenatal life.

32
Q

Describe the roles of estrogens and progesterone.
Estrogens

A

Estrogens secreted by ovarian follicles have several important functions:
* Estrogens promote the development and maintenance of female reproductive structures, secondary sex characteristics, and the breasts. The secondary sex characteristics include distribution of adipose tissue in the breasts, abdomen, mons pubis, and hips; voice pitch; a broad pelvis; and pattern of hair growth on the head and body.
* Estrogens increase protein anabolism, including the building of strong bones. In this regard, estrogens are synergistic with human growth hormone (hGH).
* Estrogens lower blood cholesterol level, which is probably the reason that women under age 50 have a much lower risk of coronary artery disease than do men of comparable age.
* Moderate levels of estrogens in the blood inhibit both the release of GnRH by the hypothalamus and secretion of LH and FSH by the anterior pituitary. Progesterone, secreted mainly by cells of the corpus luteum, cooperates with estrogens to prepare and maintain the endometrium for implantation of a fertilized ovum and to prepare the mammary glands for milk secretion. High levels of progesterone also inhibit secretion of GnRH and LH.

33
Q

Which of the following will become the primary structure for exchange of material between the mother and the fetus?
a) Chorionic villi of the placenta
b) Amnion
c) Amniotic fluid
d) Embryonic disc
e) Endoderm

A

Chorionic villi of the placenta

34
Q

Gastrulation occurs at approximately which point after fertilization?
a) within days
b) during first 2 weeks of embryonic period
c) during third week of embryonic period
d) during fourth week of embryonic period
e) after the fifth week of embryonic period

A

during third week of embryonic period

35
Q

The hormone associated with a change in gait of a pregnant woman in the later stages of pregnancy is
a) estrogen
b) human chorionic gonadotropin
c) progesterone
d) inhibin
e) relaxin

A

relaxin

36
Q

Which hormone causes release of milk into the mammary ducts via the milk ejection reflex?
a) Prolactin
b) Oxytocin
c) Estrogen
d) Progesterone
e) Aldosterone

A

Oxytocin

37
Q

The period of prenatal development would include
a) fertilization
b) the first trimester
c) the second trimester
d) the third trimester
e) all of these

A

all of these