exam 4 Flashcards
Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.
Drugs can modify neurotransmitter effects by: 1) stimulating or inhibiting their synthesis, 2)
enhancing or blocking their release, 3) activating or blocking their receptor, and 4)
stimulating or inhibiting their removal.
Which of the following types of neurons is exclusively found in the cerebellum?
a) bipolar neuron
b) multipolar neuron
c) Purkinje cells
d) unipolar neuron
e) pyramidal cells
c) Purkinje cells
What specific type of unipolar neuron detects a sharp pain?
a) tactile epithelial cells (Merkel disc)
b) corpuscle of touch (Meissner corpuscle)
c) lamellated (Pacinian) corpuscle
d) nociceptor
nociceptor
Which of these allows more potassium to exit the neuron and helps in maintaining the resting
membrane potential?
a) leak channel
b) ligand-gated channel
c) mechanically gated channel
d) voltage-gated channel
leak channel
Wallerian degeneration refers to
a) degeneration of the proximal end of axon and myelin sheath after neural injury.
b) degeneration of the distal end of axon and myelin sheath after neural injury.
c) break of Nissl bodies after neural injury.
d) plasticity of neuron.
degeneration of the distal end of axon and myelin sheath after neural injury.
Which electrical signal can allow for rapid long-distance communication within the
nervous system?
a) resting potential
b) nerve action potential
c) muscle action potential
d) graded potential
nerve action potential
In an action potential, the electric current that flows is generated by the movement of
_____ across the membrane.
a) electrons
b) protons
c) ions
d) chemicals
e) neutrons
ions
Interoceptors can detect what sensation? Select all that apply.
a) blood gas levels
b) stretch of organ walls
c) grilled steak aroma
d) taste of chocolate
e) pain
a) blood gas levels
b) stretch of organ walls
e) pain
The autonomic nervous system is involved in controlling what effectors? Select all that
apply.
a) exocrine glands.
b) skeletal muscle.
c) cardiac muscle.
d) smooth muscle.
e) endocrine glands.
a) exocrine glands.
c) cardiac muscle.
d) smooth muscle.
e) endocrine glands.
A postganglionic neuron in the ANS
a) releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell.
b) is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
c) has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
d) has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves.
e) carries information into the sympathetic chain ganglia.
releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell.
The largest autonomic plexus is called the
a) superior mesenteric plexus.
b) renal plexus.
c) cardiac plexus.
d) celiac plexus.
e) hypogastric plexus.
celiac plexus.
The ______contains sympathetic preganglionic axons and connects the anterior ramus of the
spinal nerve with the sympathetic trunk ganglia.
a) autonomic plexus
b) Greater splanchnic nerve
c) meningeal branch
d) White rami communicanes
e) Gray rami communicanes
White rami communicanes
The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are
a) noradrenaline and adrenaline.
b) adrenaline and acetylcholine.
c) norepinephrine and dopamine.
d) norepinephrine and acetylcholine.
e) acetylcholine and dopamine.
norepinephrine and acetylcholine.
Which sympathetic ganglion supplies the stomach with postganglionic neurons?
a) Renal ganglion
b) Superior cervical ganglion
c) Celiac ganglion
d) Inferior mesenteric ganglion
e) Ciliary ganglion
Celiac ganglion
Which nerve supplies the inferior mesenteric ganglion with preganglionic neurons?
a) Lumbar splanchnic nerve
b) Lesser splanchnic nerve
c) Greater splanchnic nerve
d) Cardiac accelerator
e) Phrenic nerve
Lumbar splanchnic nerve
Which cranial nerves contain preganglionic neurons for the parasympathetic motor pathway
to the salivary glands? Select all that apply.
a) Oculomotor (III) nerve
b) Facial (VII) nerve
c) Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve
d) Vagus (X) nerve
b) Facial (VII) nerve
c) Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve
Explain why the sympathetic division of the ANS has more widespread and longer-lasting
effects than the parasympathetic division.
A single sympathetic preganglionic fiber has many axon collaterals (branches) and synapses with 20 or more postganglionic neurons, whereas a parasympathetic preganglionic neurons synapses with only 4 or 5 postganglionic neurons. The sympathetic neurotransmitter, norepinephrine is
broken down more slowly than acetylcholine, so postganglionic cells are stimulated longer. The sympathetic division also stimulates release of catecholamines (mostly epinephrine) from the adrenal medulla, thus enhancing the sympathetic effects via the endocrine system. Also, more visceral effectors have receptors for catecholamines (norepinephrine and epinephrine) than for
acetylcholine.
Explain how blood flow to different tissues throughout the body changes during the fight-or-flight response.
During the fight-or-flight response, vasodilation occurs in those vessels serving the heart and skeletal muscles crucial to fight or flight. In contrast, vasoconstriction occurs in those vessels serving areas less vital to fighting/fleeing like skin, digestive organs, and the urinary system. The changes in blood vessel diameter are induced by activation of the sympathetic division of the
ANS.
In a sympathetic division motor pathway, which neurotransmitter is released at the kidney?
a) Norepinephrine
b) Acetylcholine
c) Epinephrine
d) Dopamine
e) Serotonin
Norepinephrine
Which disorder is a type of neuropathy often caused by long term diabetes mellitus?
a) Raynaud’s phenomenon
b) Autonomic dysreflexia
c) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
d) Diabetic neuropathy
e) Horner’s Syndrome
Diabetic neuropathy
___ is characterized by an exaggerated response of the sympathetic division of the ANS that
occurs in most individuals with spinal cord injury at or above T6.
a) Raynaud’s phenomenon
b) Autonomic dysreflexia
c) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
d) Diabetic neuropathy
e) Horner’s Syndrome
Autonomic dysreflexia
Which disorder involves the loss of sympathetic innervation to one side of the face due to
inherited mutation, injury or disease?
a) Raynaud’s phenomenon
b) Autonomic dysreflexia
c) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
d) Diabetic neuropathy
e) Horner’s Syndrome
Horner’s Syndrome
Based on your knowledge of ANS receptors, explain how beta blockers are able to manage
conditions such as hypertension (high blood pressure)?
Norepinephrine and epinephrine binds to beta adrenergic receptors on heart muscle cells and
stimulate an increase in heart rate and force of contraction. Beta blockers are antagonists of
norepinephrine and epinephrine meaning that beta blockers can bind and block their effects,
leading to a decrease in heart rate and force of contraction and lowering of blood pressure.
Which of the following statements describes a common response of an autonomic effector
during the “fight-or-flight” response?
a) Gastric motility and secretory activity increases.
b) Blood vessels serving skeletal muscles constrict.
c) Adipose tissues stores away triglycerides for later use.
d) The pupils of the eyes dilate.
e) Blood vessels serving the kidneys and digestive organs dilate.
The pupils of the eyes dilate.
Which of the following lists the components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper
sequence of activation?
a) receptor – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – effector
b) receptor – motor neuron – integrating center – sensory neuron – effector
c) effector – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – receptor
d) integrating center – receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector
e) receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector – integrating center
receptor – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – effector
One of the main differences between a somatic reflex and autonomic reflex is the type of
effectors that are activated. The effectors in somatic reflexes are _____, while the effectors in
autonomic reflexes are _____.
a) skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
b) striated muscles; smooth muscle and glands
c) skeletal muscles and glands; smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
d) glands; skeletal muscles, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle
e) smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands; skeletal muscles
skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
Which the following regions of the brain serve as the major control and integration center of
the ANS?
a) cerebrum
b) cerebellulum
c) thalamus
d) hypothalamus
e) pituitary
hypothalamus
Compare and contrast the structural characteristics of the three different types of muscular tissue.
Both cardiac and skeletal muscle tissues are striated and smooth muscle is not, hence its name. Skeletal muscle cells have more than one nucleus, are large and run parallel to each other. Cardiac muscle cells usually have only one, sometimes two, centrally located nuclei and are branched. They also are connected to each other via gap junctions. Smooth muscle cells are small but form thick layers of hollow organs. Like cardiac muscle cells, some smooth muscle cells communicate via gap junctions. Skeletal muscle is voluntarily controlled while both cardiac and smooth muscle tissue are involuntary and autorhythmic.
Which characteristics describe both skeletal and cardiac muscle?
a) striations
b) autorhymicity
c) cell shape
d) autonomic control
e) somatic control
striations
Which function do all three muscles perform?
a) moving and storing material throughout the body
b) generating heat through contractions
c) stabilizing the movement of joints
d) promoting movement of body structures
moving and storing material throughout the body
The outermost layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle is the
a) tendon
b) ligament
c) endomysium
d) epimysium
e) perimysium
epimysium
After the fusion of myoblasts, the muscle fiber loses its ability to
a) grow
b) lengthen
c) contract
d) go through mitosis
go through mitosis
Which correctly lists the sequence of structures that action potentials must move through to excite skeletal muscle contraction?
a) sarcolemma, axon of neuron, T tubules
b) T tubules, sarcolemma, myofilament
c) muscle fiber, axon of neuron, myofibrils
d) axon of neuron, sarcolemma, T tubules
e) myofibrils, myofilaments, mitochondria
axon of neuron, sarcolemma, T tubules
Skeletal muscle contraction is triggered to begin when calcium is released from
a) myofibrils
b) mitochondria
c) terminal cisterns of sarcoplasmic reticulum
d) T-tubules
terminal cisterns of sarcoplasmic reticulum
Place the muscle tissue type in order from least to most ability to regenerate.
a) smooth, skeletal, cardiac
b) skeletal, cardiac, smooth
c) cardiac, smooth, skeletal
d) skeletal, smooth, cardiac
e) cardiac, skeletal, smooth
skeletal, cardiac, smooth
Which region of a sarcomere contain thin filaments?
a) I band
b) A band
c) H zone
d) Both I band and A band.
Both I band and A band.
During muscle contractions , thin filaments are pulled towards the
a) Z disc.
b) H zone.
c) M line.
d) A band.
e) I band.
M line.
What energizes the myosin head?
a) acetylcholine
b) calcium ions
c) Phosphate release
d) ATP hydrolysis reaction
e) ADP synthesis
ATP hydrolysis reaction
At the neuromuscular junction, _______must enter the synaptic end bulb to stimulate the release of ____________, which binds to ligand gates so ________can enter the muscle fiber.
a) calcium ions; ACh, sodium ions
b) sodium ions, calcium ions, ACh
c) ACh, calcium ions, sodium ions
d) sodium ions, ACh, calcium ions
e) calcium ions, sodium ions, ACh
a) calcium ions; ACh, sodium ions
Which ATP production would be sufficient to run in place for one minute?
a) creatine phosphate
b) anaerobic cellular respiration
c) aerobic cellular respiration
anaerobic cellular respiration
