Exam III: Equine MSK emergencies, conditions of the forelimb and conditions of the hindlimb Flashcards

Nelson

1
Q

emergency

How do you diagnose septic arthritis in the equine and what are the synovial fluid characteristics?

A

arthrocentesis (cytology)
culture and sensitivity
radiographs (lysis)
ultrasound (particles)
point of care analyzers (serum amyloid a and lactate acid)

infection has >90% neutrophils, low viscosity, orange/opaque, greater than 4 g/dl protein, and >30k NCC

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2
Q

emergency

What are some considerations for cast care?

A

Cast Care
u Monitoring – twice daily (at least)
u Heat
u Drainage (strike through)
u Lameness
u Fly accumulation
u Unwilling to stand on it
u pick up contralateral (uncasted) limb

u Changing casts
u Adults: 3-4 weeks
u Foals: 1-2 weeks
u Splints – usually with bandage changes or every 1-2 weeks

Common sites for cast sores
- Proximal dorsal MC3/MT3
- Palmar/plantar fetlock
- Heel bulbs

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3
Q

emergency

how do you immoblize fracture in the four regions of the equine forelimb and hindlimb

A

forelimb
I: hoof to distal MC3 (P1,P2, P3 and distal MC3 fractures), bandage and apply DORSAL splint, aligns DORSAL cortices of cannon bone/phalanges

II: distal MC3 to distal radius (Mc3, carpal, distal radius fractures), thick bandage and apply LATERAL and CAUDAL splint. prevents medial to lateral and dorsal to palmar instability.

III: distal radius to elbow (radius fractures), thick bandage and CAUDAL ground to elbow and LATERAL above shoulder. prevent limb abduction and further injury to the medial aspect

IV: elbow to scapula. no coaptation EXCEPT olecranon fractures (dropped elbow) apply full limb bandage and CAUDAL splint up to elbow. prevents limb abduction and further injury to medial aspect.

hindlimb
I: hoof to distal MT3 (P1, P2, distal MT3), bandage and PLANTAR splint, aligns PLANTAR cortices of cannon bone/phalanges.

II: distal metatarsus to distal tarsus (MT3, tarsal fractures/luxations), thick bandage and PLANTAR splint to calcaneus and LATERAL splint to stifle. prevents medial to lateral and dorsal to plantar instability.

III: tibia to mid tarsus (tibia fractures), thick bandage and LATERAL splint to hip (challenging with and and reciprocal apparatus), prevents limb abduction and further injury t the medial aspect

IV: stifle to hip. no coaptation. attahcments enable stability.

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4
Q

A horse present swith a dropped fetlock with the toe off the gorund which soft tissue structures have been lacerated? Which is still intact?

A

droppd fetlock: SDF
raised toe: DDF
fetlock to ground: SDF, DDF, and suspensory ligament

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5
Q

what can OA of DIP and PIP be referred to as? How can they be managed?

A

ringbone

challenging, intra-articular injections, NSAIDs, extracorporeal shockwave, arthodesis (good for PIP and better prognosis in hindlimbs, salvage in DIP)

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6
Q

In splint bone fractures, when do you wnat to preserve the splint bone?
What is the treatment?

what ligaments do you want to check?

A

mid body to proximal fractures. distal most common and can be removed if necesary up to 2/3. check suspensary ligament here.

conservative treatment. rest bandage and NSAIDS, surgery if causing lameness.

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7
Q

What re the differentials for a dropped elbow?

A

(disrupted TRICEPS apparatus) radial nerve paralysis, triceps myopathy, humerus fracture

stabilize for transport by locking the carpus in extension

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8
Q

How does prevelance in location of injury differ from forelimb to hindlimb? Where is OCD most common?

A

most injuries (70%) of hinlimb lameness is localized to the hock or above where as in the forelimb, most injuries occur below the fetlock.

OCD most common in tarsus and stifle

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9
Q

What would a dropped fetlock in the hindlimb signal?

A

suspensory branch desmitits (degenerative DSLD), a bilatera condition.
difficult to treat if degenerative, traumatic better prognosis, entire suspensory involved.

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10
Q

What are the most common locations for OCD in the tarsus?

A

distal intermediate ridge of the tibia (DIRT)
lateral trochelar ridge of the talus
medial malleolus

treatment
athroscopic debridement and good prognosis

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