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Pharmacology > Exam II SG > Flashcards

Exam II SG Flashcards

1
Q

t/f:

atropine has no effect on wide angle glaucoma

A

true

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2
Q

t/f:

atropine is indicated for narrow angle glaucoma

A

false

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3
Q

t/f:

adrenergics are contraindicated for patients with hyperthyroidism

A

true

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4
Q

t/f:

parasympatholitics are good agents for someone who has prostate hypertrophy

A

false

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5
Q

t/f:

catecholamines are potent inotropes

A

true

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6
Q

t/f:

drugs that block the action of neurotransmitters on alpha-adrenergic blocking agent

A

false

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7
Q

t/f: sclopamine is a CNS stimulant used to treat motion sickness

A

true

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8
Q

t/f:

isoproterenol is an exogenous catecholamine

A

false

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9
Q

t/f:

norepinephrine and phenylephrine stimulates both alpha and beta receptors

A

false

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10
Q

t/f:

epinephrine is the mediator for the adrenergic system

A

true

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11
Q

t/f:

nicotine is so toxic one drop on the skin is rapidly fatal

A

true

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12
Q

a catecholamine-secreting tumor that causes severe hypertension

A

pheochromocytoma

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13
Q

______(dantrolene) is the drug of choice for malignant hyperthermia

A

Dantrium

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14
Q

_____ is given to reduce postoperative muscle pain

A

curare

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15
Q

_____ a disease that causes intermittent pallor, cyanosis, or redness of the fingers

A

Raynaud’s Syndrome

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16
Q

____ occurs when there is a drop in BP that occurs when a person stands up

A

postural hypotension

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17
Q

_____ is the drug of choice for treating shock

A

dopamine

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18
Q

precursor of dopamine, NE and EPI

A

tyrosine

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19
Q

_____ have supplementary use in the treatment of parkinsonism causing the relase of dopamine

A

amphetamines

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20
Q

_____ is a disease in which spontaneous deep sleep can occur at any time. this condition is treated w/ _______

A

sympathomimetics

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21
Q

used to tx peripheral vascular disease like Raynaud’s syndrome

A

phenoxybenzamine

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22
Q

_____ refers to the paralysis of accommodation so that the lens is focused for distance and near vision is blurred

A

cytoplegia

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23
Q

_____ nervous system originates in the S2-S4

A

parasympathetic

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24
Q

_____ (labetalol) has both alpha and beta blocking action

A

normodyne

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25
Q

______ are two enzymes involved in the metabolism of a portion of both epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

MAO

COMT

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26
Q

has both alpha and beta receptor activity

A

epinephrine

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27
Q

drugs that cause heart to beat faster

A

chronotropic

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28
Q

drugs that cause heart to beat stronger

A

inotropic

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29
Q

chemical formula for catecholamines

A

NH2(little 2)

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30
Q

mimic the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system

A

parasympathomimetic agents

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31
Q

primary areas of innervation for the CN in the PAN system

A

III-oculomotor
VII-facial
IX-glossopharyngeal
X-vagus

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32
Q

mimics the effects of the sympathetic nervous system

A

sympathomimetics

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33
Q

nervous system is rest and digest

A

Parasympathetic nervous system

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34
Q

types of meds used to tx xerostomia, urinary retention and glaucoma

A

direct acting cholinergic (parasympathomimetic) agents

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35
Q

opposite adverse reaction for SLUD

A

dry mouth
blurred vision
constipation
urinary retention

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36
Q

nervous system originates in the t1-l2

A

sympathetic

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37
Q

eyes dilated and sensitive to light; name of condition

A

photophobia

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38
Q

specific autonomic side effects of antidepressants and antipsychotic drugs

A

anticholinergic effects

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39
Q

parotid glands have _____ innervation

A

parasympathetic

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40
Q

submandibular glands have _____ innervation

A

sympathetic

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41
Q

sublingual glands have ____ innervation

A

sympathetic

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42
Q

____ used to treat motion sickness

A

scoplamine

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43
Q

SLUD stands for

A

salivation
lacrimation
urination
defecation

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44
Q

epinephrine is released by the

A

adrenal medulla postganglionic fibers

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45
Q

system SLUD deals with

A

cholinergic

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46
Q

____ dominates nervous system during stress

A

SANS

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47
Q

neurotransmitter for the SANS is

A

norepinephrine

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48
Q

adrenal medulla innervated by the

A

sympathetic preganglionic fibers

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49
Q

neurotransmitter for PANS

A

acetylcholine

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50
Q

type of clogoma occurs in 5% of patients

A

narrow

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51
Q

good for someone w/ heart failure

A

inotropic

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52
Q

receptors to which adrenergic agonists bind are termed ______, which means, “related to nerves that release _______”

A

adrenergic

norepinephrine and epinephrine

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53
Q

neurons that release acetylcholine are termed _____

A

neuromuscular junction

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54
Q

the ____ nervous system accelerates heart rate, constricts blood vessels and raises blood pressure

A

sympathetic

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55
Q

the _____ nervous system slows heart rate, increases intestinal and glandular activity and relaxes muscles

A

parasympathetic

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56
Q

repolarization occurs as the sodium channel closes. what phase does this occur in?

A

II

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57
Q

depolarization occurs as the sodium channel opens. what phase does this occur in

A

I

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58
Q

which is an exogenous catecholamine

A

isoproterenol

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59
Q

type of agents cause blurred vision and constipation

A

anticholinergics

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60
Q

agents used to treat xerostomia and glaucoma

A

parasympathomimetics

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61
Q

reaction occurring with smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, gland cells and has a NT-acetylcholine

A

muscarinic

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62
Q

neostigmine is (reversible/irreversible) cholinesterase inhibitor

A

reversible

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63
Q

reaction occurs w/ postganglionic neurons, skeletal muscle end plates and has a NT-acetylcholine

A

muscarinic

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64
Q

neurotransmitter btwn the postganglionic fiber and the effector organ in the SANS

A

norepinephrine

65
Q

tx pt w/ xerostomia

A

parasympathomimetics/cholinergics

66
Q

drug to tx an overdose of irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor

A

atropine, 2-pralidoximine

67
Q

activity of SANS neurotransmitter is terminated mainly by

A

reuptake into neuron

68
Q

autonomic nervous system responsible for regulation of

A 
BP
heart rate
GI motility
salivary gland secretion
bronchial smooth muscle
69
Q

neurotransmitter for sympathetic system is

A

norepinephrine

70
Q

neurotransmitter for parasympathetic system

A

acetylcholine

71
Q

parasympathetic system the pupils are

A

constricted

72
Q

helps w/ action of heart and lungs and enables body to meet stressful situations

A

epinephrine

73
Q

if vasoconstriction is occurring what receptors are being stimulated

A

alpha

74
Q

w/ bronchodilation is occurring what receptors are being stimulated

A

beta2

75
Q

neurotransmitter for muscarinic receptor cites is

A

acetylcholine

76
Q

which inhibitors doe we work with

A

reversible cholinersterase inhibitors

77
Q

SLUD is an adverse reaction for

A

cholinergic drugs

78
Q

immodium AD is what type of drug

A

anticholinergic

79
Q

when pupils are dilated by an optometrist, what is occurring?

A

mydriasis

80
Q

the cardiovascular effects of adrenergic medications increases the strength of contraction of the heart, this is good for what type of patients?

A

pts with congestive heart failure

81
Q

if a patient is experiencing an allergic reaction type I; what type of adrengic medication can be given to help the situation

A

epinephrine

82
Q

you will have a decrease salivary flow with

A

sympathetics

83
Q

craniosacral outflow is another name for

A

parasympathetics

84
Q

type of drugs to avoid w/ pts that have glaucoma

A

anticholinergic

85
Q

type of drugs to avoid w/ pts that have prostate hypertophy

A

anticholinergics

86
Q

fight or flight

A

sympathetic

87
Q

neurotransmitter btwn postganglionic fiber and the ffector organ in the SANS is

A

norepinephrine

88
Q

tx pt with xerostomia

A

cholinergics

89
Q

catecholamine is a chemical compound derived from the amino acid called

A

tyrosine

90
Q

PANS preganglionic neurons released which neurotransmitter

A

acetylcholine

91
Q

drug group least likely to produce xerostomia

A

antibiotics

92
Q

pts givent to prevent choking on their own saliva during general anesthesia

A

parasympatholytics

93
Q

signs of epinephrine toxicity include

A

tachycardia

94
Q

produces mydriasis

A

anticholinergics

95
Q

best to tx xerostomia

A

pilocarpine

96
Q

an irreversible adverse reaction of the phenothiaziness that occurs in older women who have used them for many years is

A

tardivedyskinesia

97
Q

what would be an indirect effect of an alpha1 agonist on the heart rate

A

decrease heart reate

98
Q

used to tx acute toxicity from the anticholinergic agent atropine

A

physostigmine

99
Q

anticholinergic agent used to tx ephysema

A

ipratropium

100
Q

most common mechanism for drug interaction of older anticonvulsants

A

enzyme stimulation

101
Q

advantage of gapapentin over the older anticonvulsants

A

fewer days

102
Q

drug group most likely to produce dry mouth

A

anticholinergics

103
Q

drug has affinity for a receptor and produces no effect it is called

A

antagonist

104
Q

sypathomimetics used to tx all except

A

nervousness

105
Q

most likely to exhibit a drug interaction w/ epinephrine

A

tricyclic antidepressants

106
Q

______ is an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor

A

cholinergics

107
Q

atropine blocks the _____ receptor

A

acetylcholine

108
Q

side effect of atropine

A

moist hot skin

109
Q

pt had effect from epinephrine given a B-blocker, one could expect pts heart rate to

A

decrease

110
Q

drug is a quaternary drug

A

ipratropium (Atrovent)

propantheline (pro-Banthine)

111
Q

pt with either of the 2 following conditions, atropine should be used with caution

A

enlarged prostate

wide angle glaucoma

112
Q

what should be given to a pt who has been given too much prilocarpine

A

atropine

113
Q

drug group that frequently produces xerostomia is

A

tricyclic antidepressant

114
Q

phenylephrine (an a-agonist) indirectly produces ____ in heart rate

A

decrease

115
Q

the direct effect of epinephrine is to _____ heart rate

A

increase

116
Q

drug w/ anticholinergic side effects might exhibit all of the following except

A

salivation

117
Q

pt exhibits excessive sweating (that is not caused by excessive ambient temperatures or exercise) this could be due to

A

stimulation of PANS

118
Q

effect assoc with tachycardia, mydriasis, bronchodialation and pale skin

A

adrenergic antagonistic

119
Q

statement about antipsychotic is false

A

interact significantly w/ epinephrine

120
Q

nonspecific B-blockers (like propranolol) can interact w/ epinephrine and produce

A

bradycardia

121
Q

not caused by the parasympatholytics

A

diarrhea

122
Q

can produce lithium toxicity in a pt taking lithium

A

naproxen

123
Q

effects of the cholinergic agents include all of the following except

A

constipation

124
Q

cholinergic agents can be used to manage

A

xerostomia

125
Q

which 2 produce miosis

A

adrenergic blockers

parasympathomimetics

126
Q

likely to produce tachycardia

A

cholinergics

127
Q

more important quality for a drug to have

A

efficacy

128
Q

which drugs would be most appropriate for a pt w/ dental phobia

A

nitrous oxide, lorazepam

129
Q

antipsychotic agents can also be used for

A

nausea

130
Q

pts w/ parkinsonism may be helped if they receive

A

anticholinergic

131
Q

xerostomia w/ dry pebbly appearance of the palate and gums can be caused by

A

amitriptyline (Elavil)

132
Q

portion of brain controls respiration

A

medulla oblongata

133
Q

sympathomimetic drug that can increase bp

A

epinephrine

134
Q

combined action of 2 drugs is greater than sum of their individual actions

A

synergy

135
Q

while teaching pt about drug therapy for diabetes, you review absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of insulin and oral antidiabetic agents. which principal of pharmacology are you describing

A

pharmacokinetics

136
Q

type of drug therapy used for pt who have chronic condition that cant be cured

A

maintenance therapy

137
Q

branch of pharmacology studies the mechanisms of action of drugs and seeks to understand how drugs work in living organisms

A

pharmakodynamics

138
Q

during bethanechol therapy, which common adverse reaction should you expect to observe

A

nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, intestinal cramps

139
Q

catecholamines act as potent inotropes. that means they

A

contract forcal

140
Q

noncatecholamines can interact w/ monoamine oxidase inhibitors to caused

A

severe hypertension

141
Q

beta-adrenergic blockers have widespread effects b/c they produce their blocking action in the

A

adrenal medulla

142
Q

drug that causes xerostomia is blocking drug

A

anticholinergics

143
Q

precautions must be taken when drugs are administered to geriatric pt b/c elderly ppl

A

metabolize less rapidly &?

144
Q

action is not caused by epinephrine

A

miosis

145
Q

action not a potential side effect of epinephrine

A

bronchospasm

146
Q

after receiving a local anesthetic injection, the pt experiences anaphylaxis. to tx this condition immediately, you used which drug

A

epinephrine

147
Q

an excess of which hormone can be assoc w/ an increased sensitivity to epinephrine

A

thyroid

148
Q

exothalmos, nervousness, tachycardia, heat intolerance and hypertension most likely suggest which condition

A

hyperthyroidism

149
Q

ace inhibitors end in

A

-pril

150
Q

beta blockers end in

A

-olol

151
Q

beta-blockers block ____ for heart

A

beta-adrenergic receptors

152
Q

which one is for the heart

A

B1

153
Q

local anesthetic can be administered intravenously to tx cardiac arrhythmias

A

lidocane

154
Q

good for tx benign prostatic hypertrophy (to increase ease of urination)

A

alpha adrenergic blockers

155
Q

factors determines dose of drug to be administered

A

age, weight, pt physical condition

156
Q

12 CN

A 
I olfactory
II optic
III oculomotor
IV trochlear
V trigeminal
VI abducens
VII facial
VIII vestibulocochlear
IX glossopharyngeal 
X vagus
XI accessory
XII hypoglossal
157
Q

indirect acting sympathetic agonist:

A

amphetamine

158
Q

acetylcholine on heart is

A

negative

159
Q

agent droplets endogenous norepinephrine

A

reserpine

Pharmacology (11 decks)

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