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Pharmacology > DH Pharmacology SG Quiz on H/O Ch1-3 > Flashcards

DH Pharmacology SG Quiz on H/O Ch1-3 Flashcards

1
Q

prn

A

as needed

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2
Q

tid

A

three times a day

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3
Q

po

A

orally (by mouth)

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4
Q

asa

A

aspirin

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5
Q

hs

A

at bedtime

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6
Q

qid

A

four times a day

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7
Q

ac

A

before meals

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8
Q

qd

A

every day

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9
Q

bid

A

twice a day

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10
Q

qs

A

a sufficient quantity

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11
Q

sl

A

sublingual

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12
Q

qod

A

every other day

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13
Q

ud

A

as directed

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14
Q

gtts

A

drops

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15
Q

rx is written in what section of a prescription

A

body

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16
Q

what affects absorption

A

route of administration, blood flow to organ, surface area of small intestine b/c of microvilli

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17
Q

metabolism of drugs primarily occurs in the

A

liver

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18
Q

drugs may be excreted from the body by many routes but the most important is

A

kidney in urine

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19
Q

excessive amount of the desired action on a target organ

A

toxic reaction

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20
Q

the drug produces undesirable effect on a nontarget organ

A

side effects/adverse effects reaction

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21
Q

_______+_______= pharmaceutical effect

A

therapeutic effect

adverse effect

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22
Q

a genetic abnormal drug response

A

idiosyncratic reaction

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23
Q

rash, itching, swelling; anaphylaxes

A

allergic reactions

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24
Q

an antihistamine in dental emergency kit to treat mild allergy reactions

A

Benadryl (diphenhydramine)

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25
Q

used to treat anaphylactic reactions

A

epinephrine

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26
Q

in addition to antihistamines and epinephrine, _______ may be used to combat an allergic rxn

A

steroids

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27
Q

_______ (doxycline 20mg) is used to treat _________

A

Periostat

chronic periodontitis

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28
Q

what is the difference between IM (intramuscular) and SC (subcutaneous) drug routes?

A

SC has good absorption, but slower than IM

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29
Q

agent that causes damage to the fetus

A

tetrogenic

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30
Q

allergic reactions

A

unpredictable

not dose-dependent

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31
Q

idiosyncratic reactions

A

abnormal drug response

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32
Q

side effects

A

predicable
dose related
nontarget organ sites

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33
Q

toxic reactions

A

predictable
dose related
target organ sites

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34
Q

primary therapeutic effect of diphenhydramine is to

A

reverse allergic reaction

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35
Q

trade name for the antihistamine diphenhydramine is

A

Benadryl

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36
Q

epithelium of the oral mucosa helps to form which barrier

A

oral mucosa/blood barrier

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37
Q

sublingual drug route

A

nitroglycerin tablets

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38
Q

buccal drug routes

A

testosterone buccal system

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39
Q

route is usually best for medical emergencies

A

intravenous (IV)

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40
Q

________ (meperidine) is given IM for ________

A

Demerol

severe pain

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41
Q

example of a drug that works best using subcutaneous route

A

dental anesthetic solution

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42
Q

the tuberculosis test (Mantoux) is an example of which drug route?

A

intradermal

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43
Q

give examples of the transdermal route

A

Dentipatch
oral contraceptive patch (OCP)
nitroglycerine patch

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44
Q

route has localized effects to the oral mucosa

A

subgingival

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45
Q

3 examples of controlled released antimicrobials

A

atridox
arestin
Periochip

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46
Q

local anesthetic gels are an example of which drug route

A

epicutaneous

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47
Q

drug first topical drug prescription to be approved for OTC sales

A

hydrocortisone

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48
Q

conjugation is linked with

A

highly water-soluble compounds

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49
Q

how are weak acids affected by the stomach

A

nonionized

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50
Q

the membrane between the blood and the tissue forms which barrier

A

blood/tissue barrier

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51
Q

cell membrane of the brain is very lipid thus inhibiting what type of drugs

A

water soluble

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52
Q

how are most drugs absorbed

A

passive diffusion

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53
Q

how does the tissue pKa affect the onset of a drug

A

closer pKa of drug to pKa of tissue, faster onset of action

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54
Q

what should a patient taking erythromycin or codeine be told

A

not to eat large amounts of fatty foods at meals

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55
Q

absorption of antibiotics are affected by

A

food

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56
Q

most drug absorption occurs in the ______

why?

A

small intestine

because of its greater surface area from microvilli

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57
Q

give the names of 2 drugs that have high first pass metabolism

A

morphine-a narcotic analgesic

norepinephrine (or nortriptyline)-an antidepressant

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58
Q

phase I metabolism is carried out in the

A

liver

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59
Q

sublingual and buccal drug routes have a _____ drug response

A

rapid

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60
Q

drugs bound to plasma proteins are in what state

A

inactive

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61
Q

when a drug is considered active; what state is drug in

A

free drug

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62
Q

primary site of biotransformation occur in the

A

liver

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63
Q

_______ are drugs that are inactive when administered orally

A

prodrugs

64
Q

3 examples of orally administered prodrugs

A

codine, levodopa, benzapril, losartan

65
Q

what are the examples of the prodrugs biotransformed to?

A

codeine–>active morphine
levodopa–>dopamine
losartan–>cozaar
benazepril–>Lotensin

66
Q

lithium is not metabolized and continues to be active until it eliminated

A

unchanged in the urine

67
Q

xerostomia assoc with antihistamine use is an example of

A

side effect

68
Q

not a true allergic reaction to a drug

A

syncope

69
Q

general anesthetics example of which drug route

A

inhalation

70
Q

tincture is a soluble drug that contains

A

alcohol

71
Q

a semisolid preparation in an aqueous or oily base for local topical protective soothing effects that can be applied by rubbing. The external phase is oily

A

ointment

72
Q

a semisolid preparation in an aqueous and oily base for local topical protective soothing effects. the external phase is aqueous

A

cream

73
Q

swallow pill route of administration is

A

entral

74
Q

inhalation considred

A

parenteral route

75
Q

safest/least expensive

A

oral

76
Q

rapid drug response

A

intravascular

77
Q

emergency situation

A

intravascular

78
Q

patch used for treatment

A

passive

79
Q

readily moves across biological membranes

A

nonionized lipid soluble

80
Q

most common protein drugs bond to

A

plasma albumin

81
Q

organ major site for drug metabolism

A

liver

82
Q

weakest bond

A

van der walls

83
Q

reservoir for drug

A

bound drug

84
Q

circumvents need for injections

A

intranasal

85
Q

long duration

A

long half life

86
Q

every other day

A

qod

87
Q

highly effective in dentistry

A

topical

88
Q

exerts pharmalogical effects

A

free drug

89
Q

GI upset

A

rectal

90
Q

regulated by concentration gradient

A

passive diffusion

91
Q

microsomal enzyme

A

p450

92
Q

follows foncentration gradient

A

facilitated

93
Q

enterohepatic circulation

A

sublingual

94
Q

can develop adverse skin reaction

A

transdermal

95
Q

requires energy to transport

A

active transport

96
Q

asa

A

asprin

97
Q

regulated by concentration gradient

A

passive diffusion

98
Q

tid

A

three times a day

99
Q

by mouth

A

po

100
Q

every other day

A

qod

101
Q

as directed

A

ud

102
Q

every

A

q

103
Q

four times a day

A

qid

104
Q

follows concentration gradient

A

facilitated diffusion

105
Q

after meals

A

pc

106
Q

as needed

A

prn

107
Q

before meals

A

ac

108
Q

bed time

A

hs

109
Q

drop

A

gtts

110
Q

sugars can be found in what type of dosage form

A

syrup

111
Q

t/f

drug reservoir impenetrable membrane and the adhesive

A

false

112
Q

schedule drug allows no refills, written prescription must have providers signature

A

schedule ii

113
Q

urticartial skin eruptions, arthralgia, arthritis, lymphadenopathy, fever: signs of

A

serum sickness

114
Q

schedule drug may be phoned in

A

III & IV

115
Q

mild type IV allergic reaction

A

diphenhydramine

116
Q

drug enforcement number recquired except

A

tetracyclin

117
Q

bed time abbreviation

A

hs

118
Q

high potential for abuse

A

schedule I

119
Q

not need antibiotic premed

A

cardiac pacemaker

120
Q

chedule II controlled substance

A

demerol

121
Q

t/f:

drugs used topically can produce systemic effects

A

true

122
Q

t/f:

most drugs can penetrate keratinized epithelium

A

false

123
Q

t/f:

toxicity can lead

A

true

124
Q

drug produces undesirable effect target organ

A

toxic reaction

125
Q

genetic abnormal drug response

A

idiosyncratic reaction

126
Q

rash, itching, swelling,

A

drug allergy

127
Q

dental emergency kit mild allergies

A

benedryl

128
Q

anaphylactic reaction

A

epinephrine

129
Q

not true allergic reaction

A

Syncope

130
Q

strength of a drug

A

potency

131
Q

once a day abbreviation

A

qd

132
Q

3 chemical mediators trigger inflammatory response in anaphalactic shock

A

histamine
leukotrines
prostaglandins

133
Q

hypersensitivity I

A

(Immediate, anaphalactic)
IgE
Fc receptor to mast cells and basophils

134
Q

hypersensitivity II

A 
(cytotoxic)
antibody
lysis
quinine lyses platelets
throbocytopenia
135
Q

hypersensitivity III

A 
(delayed)
cell
Helper T-lymphocytes
poison ivy
contact dermatitis
136
Q

makes prescription legal

A

date

137
Q

pharmaceutical effect

A

therapeutic effect + adverse effect

138
Q

bonds that are weakest

A

van der walls

139
Q

intravenous administration

A

local anesthetic spray

140
Q

characteristics increase absorption of small intestine

A

weak base, with high lipid soluble

141
Q

strength of a drug

A

potency

142
Q

drugs that have teratogenic effects

A

produce abnormal fetus

143
Q

combined drugs

A

stimulating hepatic microsomal enzymes

144
Q

pt has developed tolerance to drug, one can assume

A

needs dosage increased in order for effect

145
Q

easily penetrates blood brain barrier

A

thiopental

146
Q

elixers have

A

alcohol

147
Q

studies MOA and how they work in body

A

pharmacodynamics

148
Q

makes membrane polar molecules

A

membrane lipids

149
Q

biomolecular leaflet structure

A

hydrophobic: shielded from water
hydrophilic: comes in contact w/ water

150
Q

_____ pass through hepatic potal circulation first

A

orally

151
Q

term for pass through hepatic portal circulation

A

first pass effect

152
Q

safe used by public

A

therapeutic index

153
Q

medication prescribed

A

inscription

154
Q

rx symbol

A

superscription

155
Q

dispensing directions to pharmacist

A

subscription

156
Q

directions for pt

A

signa

Pharmacology (11 decks)

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