Exam Flashcards by Clara W

Anticoagulant found in the blood:

a. Prothrombin
b. Vitamin B12
c. Gamma globulin
d. Heparin

d. Heparin

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Blood Protein that maintain the proper proportion and concentration of water in the blood.

a. Fibrenogen
b. Prothrombin
c. Globulin
d. Albumin

d. Albumin

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Breakdown of recipients red blood cells when incompatible bloods are mixed:

a. Embolism
b. Erythrocytosis
c. Hemolysis
d. Erythropoiesis

c. Hemolysis

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Condiditon associated with sideropenia, causing deficient production of hemoglobin:

a. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Aplastic anemia
c. Thalassemia
d. Hemolytic anemia

a. Iron deficiency anemia

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Deficiency in numbers of WBCs:

a. Neurtopenia
b. Hypochromia
c. Leukocytosis
d. Spherocytosis

a. Neutropenia

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Derived from bone marrow:

a. Polymorphonuclear
b. Phagocytic
c. Myeloid
d. Granulocytopenic

c. Myeloid

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Disorder of red blood cell morphology:

a. Monocytosis
b. Multiple myeoma
c. Poikilpcytosis
d. Acute myelocytic lukemia

c. Poikilcytosis

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Examination of blood smear to determine the shape or form of cells:

a. Hematocrit
b. Coagulation time
c. WBC differential
d. Red blood cell moorphology

d. Red blood cell morphology

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Excessive bleeding caused by lack of factor VIII or IX:

a. Erythermia
b. Autoimmune thrombocytopenia purpura
c. Hemophilia
d. Granulocytosis

c. Hemophilia

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Excessive deposits of iron throughout the body:

a. Cooley anemia
b. Hemochromatosis
c. Purpura
d. Thrombocytopenia

b. Hemochromatosis

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Falure of blood cell production due ro absence of formation of cells in the bone marrow:

a. Hemolytic anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Thalassemia

c. Aplastic anemia

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Foreign material that invades the body:

a. Antibodies
b. Antigens
c. Granulocytes
d. Neutrophils

b. Antigens

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IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE:

a. Stem cells
b. Neutrophils
c. Immunoglobulins
d. Megakaryocytes

c. Immunoglobulins

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Immature red blood cell:

a. Megakaryocytes
b. Segmented
c. Erythroblast
d. Thrombocyte

c. Erythroblast

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Inherited defect in ability to produce hemoglobin:

a. Pernicious anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Thalassemia

d. Thalassemia

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Lack of mature red cells due to inability to absorb vitamin B12 into the body:

a. Hemolytic anemia
b. Thalassemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia

c. Pernicious anemia

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Method of separating out plasma proteins by electrical charge:

a. Hemolysis
b. Plasmapheresis
c. Electrophoresis
d. Leukapheresis

c. Electrophoresis

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Pallor, shortness of breath, infection, bleeding gums, predominance of immature and abnormally functioning leukocytes, and low numbers of mature neutrophils in a young child may indicate a likely diagnosis of:

a. Chrinic lymphocytic leukemia
b. Hemoglobinopathy
c. Acute lymphosytic eukemia
d. Sickle cell anemia

c. Acute lymphocytic leukemia

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Pigment produced from hemoglobin when red blood cells are destroyed:

a. Serum
b. Bilirubin
c. Plasma
d. Globulin

b. Bilirubin

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Protein threads that form the basis of a clot:

a. Fibrinogen
b. Fibrin
c. Hemoglobin
d. Thrombin

b. Fibrin

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Reduction in cells due to excessive cell destruction:

a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Hemplytic anemia

d. Hemolytic anemia

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Reliving symptoms but not curing disease:

a. Coagulopathy
b. Hemostasis
c. Hemolysis
d. Pallative

d. Pallative

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Return of disease symptoms:

a. Remission
b. Spherosytosis
c. Relapse
d. Pallative

c. Relapse

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Test in which blood sample is spun in a test tube so that the red blood cells (RBCs) fall to the bottom and the percentage of RBCs is determined:

a. Coagulation time
b. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
c. Hematocrit
d. Red blood cell morphology

c. Hematocrit

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Test in which leukocytes are stained and counted under a microscope to see numbers of mature and immature forms:

a. Hematocrit
b. Red blod cell morphology
c. WBC differential
d. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

c. WBC differetial

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Mediastinal T cell producer:

a. Thymus
b. Bone marrow
c. Adenoids
d. Tonsils

b. Thymus

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Nasopharyngeal lymph tissue:

a. Tonsils
b. Spleen
c. Adenoids
d. Thymus

c. Adenoids

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Helper of suppressor cells are types of:

a. T cells
b. Antigens
c. B cells
d. Antibiotics

a. T cells

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Collection of fluid in tissues:

a. lymphedema
b. lymphfedema
c. lymphaedmea

a. lymphedema

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Major lung infection with fever, cough, chest pain, and sputum; treated with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Septra, Bactrim):

a. Herpes simplex
b. Cryptococcus
c. Pneumocystis jiroveci (formerly carinii) pneuomonia
d. Kaposi sarcoma

c. pneumonia

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Malignant tumor of the nodes:

a. Lymphocytopenia
b. Hypersplenism
c. Lymphedema
d. Hodgkin disease

d. Hodgkin disease

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An immune response in which B cells transform into plasma cells and secrete antibodies is known as ____ immunity.

a. cell-mediated
b. humoral

b. humoral

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Lymph nodes are concentrated in all of the following areas EXCEPT:

a. Cervical
b. Mediastinal
c. Inguinal
d. Bone marrow

d. Bone marrow

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Computerized x-ray imaging in the transverse plane:

a. Lymphangiogram
b. Ultrasonagraphy
c. Magnetiv resonance imaging (MRI)
d. CT scan

d. CT scan

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Examples of immunoglobulins:

a. IgA, IgG, IgE
b. Lymphocytes
c. Hepatocytes
d. Monocytes

a. IgA, IgG, IgE

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Select the term that is spelled correctly:

a. intrastital fluid
d. interstitiel fluid
c. interstitial fluid

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Interferons and interleukins are BEST described as:

a. Products of B cell lymphocytes
b. Interstitial fluid
c. Antiviral proteins produced by T cell lymphocytes
d. Gamma glubulins

c. Antiviral proteins produced by Te cell lymphocytes

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Interstitial fluid:

a. Contains red and white blood cells
b. Is resent in connective tissue
c. Contains blood-clotting factors
d. Is found in the spaces between cells and becomes lymph when it enters lymph capillaries

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HIV is:

a. the test used to detect AIDS
b. a type of lymphoma
c. the virus that causes AIDS
d. a malignancy associated with AIDS

c. the virus that causes AIDS

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Cancer arising from the lining cells of capilaries, producing purplish skin nodules:

a. Kaposi sarcoma
b. Herpies simplex
c. Toxoplasmosis
d. Cryptococcus

a. Kaposi sarcoma

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Lymphocytes contained in the thymus gland that act on antigens:

a. B cells
b. T cells
c. macrophages

b. T cells

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Protozoal (parasitic) infection associated with AIDS that may cause pneumonitis, hepatitis, and encephalitis:

a. Toxoplasmosis
b. Herpes simplex
c. Cryptococcus
d. Kaposi sarcoma

a. Toxoplasmosis

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An immune response in which T cells destroy antigens is called ___ immunity:

a. cell-mediated
b. humoral

a. cell-mediated

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Slight increase in numbers of lymphocytes:

a. Lymphoid
b. Lymphocytopenia
c. Lymphopoiesis
d. Lymphocytosis

d. Lymphocytosis

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Pertaining to poison:

a. Hypoxic
b. Toxic
c. Stenotic
d. Cyanotic

b. Toxic

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Abdominal organ that filters erythrocytes and activates lymphocytes:

a. Spleen
b. Adenoids
c. Tonsils
d. Bone marrow

a. Spleen

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All of the following components of the immune system EXCEPT:

a. Phagocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Monocytes
d. Antibodies
e. Platelets

e. Platelets

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Produces lymphocytes and monocytes and all other blood cells:

a. Thymus
b. Spleen
c. Tonsils
d. Bone marrow

d. Bone marrow

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Lymphocytes transform into plasma cells and secrete antibodies:

a. B Cells
b. T cells

a. B cells

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Atrophy is:

a. A type of lymphome
b. An early stage of AIDS
c. A hypersensitivity or allergic state
d. Acute infectious disease caused by Epstein-Barr virus

c. A hypersensitivity or allergic state

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Outward extention of the shoulder bone:

a. Acromion
b. Acetabulum
c. Patella
d. Vetebral arch

a. Acromion

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Vitamin D deficiency leads to softening of bone, which is known as:

a. Osteoporosis
b. Osteomalacia
c. Lumbago
d. Hypercalcemia

b. Osteomalacia

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Inflammation of joints caused by excessive uric acid accumulation:

a. Sciatica
b. Gouty arthritis
c. Bursitis
d. Myositis

b. Gouty arthritis

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Projection of the temporal bone:

a. Tubercle
b. Epiphysis
c. Xiphoid process
e. Mastoid process

e. Mastoid process

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Wasting away (no development) of muscle:

a. Myasthenia
b. Hypertrophy
c. Atrophy
d. Myositis

c. Atrophy

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Condition of stiffening and immobility of joint:

a. Kyphosis
b. Hemarthrosis
c. Ankylosis
d. Bursitis

c. Ankylosis

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Pertaining to the upper arm bone:

a. Ulnar
b. Carpal
c. Humeral
d. Radial

c. Humeral

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Poor formation of bone:

a. Osteolysis
b. Decalcifation
c. Osteoclasis
d. Osteodystrophy

e. Osteodystrophy

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Surgical repair of a joint:

a. Tenorraphy
b. Achondroplasia
c. Arthroplasty
d. Arthrosis

c. Arthroplasty

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Chronic inflammation of bones and joints due to degenerative changes in cartilage:

a. Systemic lupis erythematosis
b. Reumatoid arthritis
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Chondromalacia

c. Osteoarthritis

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Operation performed to relieve the symptoms of a slipped disk:

a. laminectomy
b. patellapexy
c. arthroscopy
d. metacarpectomy

a. laminectomy

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Occipital, sphenoid, frontal, temporal, and ethmoid are the bones of the:

a. cranium
b. pelvis
c. thorax
d. face

a, crainum

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Inflammation of bone and bone marrow:

a. osteomyelitis
b. osteitis fibrosa cystica
c. osteoporosis
d. multiple myeloma

a. osteomyelitisk

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Openign or passage in bones where blood vessels and nerves enter and leave:

a. Fissure
b. Sulcus
c. Fossa
d. Foramen

d. Foramen

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Spongy, porous bone tissue:

a. Cancellous bone
b. yellow bone marroe
c. compact bone
d. bone fissure

a. cancellous bone

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Mandible, vomer, maxilla, and zygomatic are bones of the:

a. spine
b. cranium
c. pelvis
d. face

d. face

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Knuckle-like process at the end of a bone:

a. xiphoid process
b. fontanelle
c. tuberosity
d. condyle

d. condyle

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the shaft of a long bone is called a:

a. olecrannon
b. diaphysis
c. osteoclast
d. periosteum

b. diaphysis

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Act of turning the palm upward:

a. pronation
b. supination

b. supination

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Lateral curvature of the spinal column:

a. scoliosis
b. spina bifida
c. pubic symphysis

a. scoliosis

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Connection of a muscle to a stationary bone:

a. origin
b. insertion

a. origin

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malignant tumor of smooth muscle:

a. leiomyoma
b. rhabdomyoscaroma
c. rhabdoma
d. leiomyoscarcoma

d. leiomyoscarcoma

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Larger of the two leg bones:

a. tibbia
b. tibea
c. tibia

c. tibia

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A splintered or crushed bone:

a. compression
b. greenstick fracture
c. comminuted fracture
d. crepitation

c. comminuted fracture

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Clubfoot:

a. Talipes
b. osteo scarcoma
c. bursitis
d. bunion

a. talipes

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White patches on a mucous membrane of tongue or cheek:

a. psoriasis
b. decubitis ulcer
c. tinea
d. leukoplakia

d. leukoplakia

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Inflamation of the soft tissue around a nail:

a. pharonchia
b. erythema
c. epidermolysis
d. onychomycosis

a. pharonychia

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Red, round wheals (hives):

a. urtikara
b. urticaria
c. urtakaria

b. urticaria

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Structural protein found in skin and connective tissue:

a. cartilage
b. cerumen
c. melanin
d. collagen

d. collagen

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a type of epithelial cell in the epidermis:

a. adiposyte
b. squamous cell
c. chondrocyte
d. neuron

b. squamous cell

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A wheal is a:

a. polyp
b. ulcer
c. hive
d. wart

c. hive

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malignant tumor of pigmented skin cells:

a. melanoma
b. melonoma
c. melenoma

a. melanoma

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Procedure in thich layers of growth are removed and examined microscopically:
a. fungal test
mohs surgery 
c. scratch test
d. punch biopsy

b. mohs surgery

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pertaining to under a nail:

a. sublingual
b. hypoglossal
c. subcuteneous
d. hypodermic

a. sublingual

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A combining form meaning skin:

a. adip/o
b. cutane/o
c. pachy/o
d. xanth/o

b. cutane/o

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Chronic recurent dermatosis with itchy, scaly patches:

a. psoriesis
b. psoriasis
c. psoraisis

b. psoriasis

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Profuse sweating:

a. diaphoresiss
b. diaforesis
c. diaphoriesis

a. diaphoresis

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Chronic recurrent dermatosis with silvery gray scales covering red patches in skin:

a. tinea
b. scleroderma
c. leukoplakia
d. psoriasis

d. psoraisis

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Blackhead:

a. comeddo
b. komedo
c. comedo

c. comedo

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A fungal infection: a. a.leukoplakia

b. onychomycosis
c. erythema
d. seborrhea

b. onychomycosis

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inflammatory disease of the joints and collagen of the skin; can affect other body organs:

a. mycosis fungoides
b. eczema
c. systemic lupis erythematosis
d. impetigo

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A dermatophytosis:

a. psoriasis
b. scleroderma
c. leukoplakia
d. tinea

d. tinea

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A hard protein found in the epidermis:

a. cerumen
b. melanin
c. collagen
d. keratin

d. keratin

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Condition in which connective tissue in the skin hardens:

a. scleroderma
b. decubitius ulcer
c. tinea
d. tinea

a. scleroderma

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Moles that can develop into malignant melanoma:

a. polyps
b. verrucae
c. squamous cell carcinomaas
d. dysplastic nevi

d. dysplastic nevi

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Xer/o means:

a. dry
b. yellow
c. thick
d. white

a. dry

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Fatty mass within a sebaceous gland:
a. philosebaceous gland:
a. piloebaceous
b verruca
c. lipoma
d. steatoma

d. steatoma

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Profuse sweating:

a. seborrhea
b. hidradentitis
c. keratosis
d. diaphoresis

d. diaphoresis

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Bed sore; break in continuity of skin:

a. psoriasis
b. scleroderma
c. tinea
d. decubitus ulcer

d. decubitus ulcer

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Absence of pigment in skin:
a. erythroderma
b. melanism
c. dermatitis
d, albinism

d. albinsim

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Light structure that is transparent and biconvex and focuses light on the retina:

a. conjunctiva
b. lens
c. vitreous body
d. sclera

b. lens

A blind spot; area of depressed vision surrounded by an area or normal vision:

a. nyctalopia
b. exotropia
c. scotoma
d. estropia

c. scotoma

Adjustment of the lens by the ciliary body:

a. accommodation
b. refraction
c. binocular vision
d. photophobia

a. accommodation

Astigmatism:

a. localized purulent infection of the eye
b. atrophy of the retina
c. esotropia
d. defective curvature of the cornea of lens

d. defective curvature of the cornea or the lens

Bacterial infection of the middle ear:

a. serous otitis media
b. cholesteatoma
c. mastoidisitis
d. suppurative otitis media

d. suppurative otitis media

chanel between the middle ear and the nasopharynx:

a. organ of corti
b. semicircular canal
c. labrynth
d. esutachian tube

d. estachian tube

Fibrous layer of clear tissue that extends over the anterior portion of the eye and is continuous with the white of the eye:

a. fundus
b. ciliary body
c. pupil
d. cornea

d. cornea

Fungal infection of the ear:

a. macrotia
b. saplingitis
c. otomycosis
d. cholesteatoma

c. otomycosis

glaucoma is promarily diagnosed by:

a. tonometry
b. ophthalmoscopy
c. slit lamp biomicroscopy
d. visual field exam

a. tonometry

impairment of vision due to old age:

a. emmetropia
b. diplopia
c. esotropia
d. presbyopia

d. presbyopia

macular degeneration produces:

a. loss of central vision
b. hemianopia
c. retinal detachment
d. nystagmus

a. loss of central vision

myopia:

a. nearsightedness
b. farsightedness
c. astigmatism
d. strabismus

a. nearsightedness

myring/o means:

a. cerumen
b. tympanic membrane
c. stapes
d. auditory canal

b. tympanic membrance

nerve deafness occurring with aging:

a. vertigo
b. meniere disease
c. acoustic neuroma
d. presbycusis

d. presbycusis

Palpebr/o means:

a. eyelid
b. cornea
c. tear gland
d. lens of the eye

a. eyelid

Photosensitive receptor cells of the retina; make the perception of color possible:

a. rods
b. cones
c. optic disk
d. optic chiasm

b. cones

Place where optic nerve fibers cross in the brain:

a. optic disc
b. optic chiasm
c. retina
d. olfactory lobe

b. optic chiasm

tinnitus:

a. hearing loss occuring with age
b. dizziness associated with nausea and sensations of whirling motion
c. ringing sound in ears

c. ringing sound in ears

Visual examination of the ear:

a. Audiometry
b. Otoscopy
c. Tympanometry
d. Tuning fork test

b. otoscopy

Yellowish region i the retina that contains the fovea centrailis:

a. optic disk
b. posterior chamber
c. macular
d. sclera

c. maucla

Small hard mass on the eyelid; formed from a sebacous gland enlargement:

a. scleral buckle
b. blepharochalasis
c. chalazion
d. cataract

c. chalazion

Snail-shapped, spirally wound tube in the inner ear:

a. Auricle
b. Cochlea
c. Auditory meatus
d. Utricle

b. Cochlea

Select the term that is spelled correctly:

a. blepharitis
b. blepheritis

a. blepharitis

Select the term that is spelled correctly:

a. glaucoma
b. glaukoma

a. glaucoma

Select the term spelled correctly:

a. conjuntivia
b. conjunctiva

Exophthalmos is a sign of which of the following endocrine disorders?

a. pituitary gland hypertrophy
b. endemic goiter
c. graves disease
d. thyroid carcinoma

c. graves disease

examples of estrogens are estradiol and estrone.

True

Insulin deficiency or resistance leading to hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis:

a. graves disease
b. myxedema
c. cushing syndrome
d. diabetes mellitus

d. diabetes mellitus

A function of the thyroid gland; secretes:

a. thyroid-stimulating hormone
b. thyroxine
c. immunologic substances
d. corticosteroids

b. thyroxine

A group of symptoms produced by excess of cortisol from the adrenal cortex:

a. cushing syndrome
b. graves disease
c. myxedema
d. diabetes mellitus

a. cushing syndrome

The pituitary gland is located in the middle of the chest.

False

Hormonethat regulates calcium in the blood and bones:

a. Prolactin
b. Parathyroid hormone
c. prostaglandins
d. thyroxine

b. parathyroid hormone

Post-puberty hypersecretion of growth hormone form the anterior pituitary gland:

a. acromegaly
b. diabetes mellitus
c. cushing syndome
d. graves disease

a. acromegaly

Which of the following is a feature of tetany?

a. constant muscle contraction
b. increased bone growth
c. hypokalamia

a. constant muscle contraction

Which of the following disorders is associated with neuropathy, nephropathy, and retinopathy?

a. Panhypopituitarism
b. diabeties mellitus ( as secondary complications)
c. deficient ADH secretion

b. diabetes mellitus ( as secondary complications)

An element present in thyroxine:

a. iodine
b. calcium
c. vitamin D
d. iron

a. iodine

Epinephrine is secreted by aadrenal cortex.

False

A thyroid scan scan consists of:

Adminsitration of radioactive compound and visualization with a scanner to detect tumors or nodules

Select the term that spelled correctly:

a. hyopohisectomy
b. hypophysectomy

Advanced hypothyroidism in adulthood:

a. Diabeted mellitus
b. acromegaly
c. graves disease
d. myxedema

d. myxedema

Which of the following is a description of gonadotropins?

a. stimulate the growth of long bones
b. secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
c. stimulate glucose uptake in cells

Term that is spelled correctly:

a. cortisol
b. courtisol

Thyrotoxicosis; hyper secretion of the thyroid gland:

a. cushing syndrome
b. graves disease
c. acromegally

b. graves disease

Nart/o is the combining form for:

a. potassium
b. sodium
c. sugar
d. iodine

b. sodium

Hormone secreted by the ovary and adrenal cortex:

a. follicle-stimulating hormone
b. estrogen
c. androgen
d. oxytocin

b. estrogen

Anterior lobe fo the pituitary gland:

a. hypophysis
b. adenohypophysis
c. hypothalamus
d. neurohypophysis

b. adenohypophysis

Which of the following secretes cortisol?

a. adrenal cortex
b. adrenal medulla
c. pituitary gland

Hormone that stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete hormones:

a. ADH
b. Secretin
c. ACTH
d. Cortisone

d. ACTH

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is also called vasopressin

True

Select the term that is spelled correctly.

a. estrogen
b. estrogin

A cancerous tumor derived from bone:

a. chrondroscarcoma
b. adenocarcinoma
c. osteogenic sarcoma
d. osteoma

Abnormal growth of connective tissue, often a side effect of radiation therapy to the lungs:

a. erythema
b. fibrosis
c. alopecia
d. myelosuppression

Agent or device used in radiation therapy for tumors:

a. steroid
b. linear accelerator
c. antibiotic
d. antimetabolite

b. linear accelerator

An estrogen receptor assay is BEST described as a test for:

Concentration of hormone receptor sites in cells of patients with breast cancer

Cauterization:

a. drying tissue electrically
b. treating tissue with heat
c. treating a tumor with freezing temperatures

Description of fungating tumor:

a. characterized by inflammation
b. mushrooming pattern of growth as tumor cells pile on top of each other
c. large, soft, flesh tumor

Example of an inherited cancer:

a. lung cancer
b. basal cell carcinoma
c. retinoblastoma

Example of a soild tumor derived from epithelial tissue:

a. rhabdomyoma
b. leiomyoma
c. adenocarcinoma of the lung
d. chondroscarcoma

Example of genetic material that causes cancer:

a. alkyating agents
b. vinyl chloride
c. oncogenes
d. hydrocarbons

Exenteraton is BEST describe as

wide resection of tumor and removal of surrounding tissue

Fulguration:

a. destruction of tissue by electric sparks
b. aspiration biopsy technique
c. treatment with drugs.

Hypoplasia of bone marrow:

a. erythema
b. alopecia
c. fibrosis
d. myelosuppression

Inflammation of the iner lining of an organ:

a. myelosupression b. fibrosis
c. mucositis
d. alopecia

Interferon is Best described as

biologic response modifier

localized tumor growth:

a. scarcoma
b. carcinoma in situ
c. metastasis
d. pleomorphic

Modality means:

a. description of the diagnosis
b. death of cells
c. change in genetic material
d. method of treatment

Mutagenic means:

a. tumor that are large and fleshy
b. a high degree of differenation of cells
c. new growth in numbers of cells
d. producing a change in the DNA of a cell

Radioresistant tumor is a tumor:

which large doses of radiation are required to produce death of cells

Return of symtoms of disease:

a. mutation
b. differenation
c. relapse
d. remission

return of disease symptoms:

Relapse

Specialization of cells:

a. differentiation
b. differentsheation

Spread of malignant tumors to a distant location:

a. encapsulation
b. invasion
c. anaplasia
d. metastasis

Staging a tumor means:

a. need for radiotherapy
b. analyzing the microscopic apperance of tumor
c. assessing the degree of differentiation
d. assessing the extent of tumor spread.

Which term means assisting or aiding?

a. lethal
b. fractionization
c. adjuvant
d. grading

Mutation:

a. specialization of cells
b. plan for treatment
c. inheritable change in a cell
d. giving radiation in small doses

In which procedure is a transducer used?

a. ultrasound
b. ct scan
c. MRI
d. bone scan

a. ultrasound

In which test is a radiopharmaceutical injected intravenously and traced within the vessels of the lung?

a. CT scan of the thoracic cavity
b. perfusion study of the lung
c. ventilation scan of the lung
d. chest x-ray of the lung

In which x-ray view is the patient upright with thte back to the x-ray machine and the film to the chest?

a. AP view
b. oblique x-ray view
c. lateral view
d. PA view

Interventional radiologists perform all of the following EXCEPT:

a. administration of radiation therapy
b. instillation of antibiotics or chemotheraoy via catheters
c. occulsion of bleeding vessels
d. placement of drainage catheters

Myelogram is an x-ray of

a. spinal cord
b. muscles
c. lymphatic vessels
d. bone marrow

PACS is a:

a. system to replace traditional films with digital equivalents
b. technique using a radioactive substance and a computer to create 3-D images
c. radiopharmaceutical used in a PET scan
d. protocol for transmission between imaging devices.

Lying down position:

a. recumbent
b. recumbant
c. rekumbent

Obstructing the passage of x-rays

radiopaque

What BEST characterizes a CT scan?

a. gives a verticla front-to-back image of the body organs
b. uses ionizing x-rays and a computer to produce a transverse image of the body organs
c. magnetic and radio waves are used to create imag
d. uses radioactive substances to produce an x-ray image

What best describes an MRI

sagittal, frontal, and cross sectional images are produced using magnetic radio waves

What can thyroid scans detet?

a. thyroid carcinoma
b. cirrhosis and splenomegaly due to abcess or tumor
c. blood flow through the heart and large vessels
d. areas of metabolic deficiency in the brain

What does a radiologist do?

a. specializes in the practice of administering diagnostic nuclear medicine procedures
b. treats malignancy with radiation
c. specializes in diagnostic techniques such as ultra sound, MRI and CT scans
d. aids a physician in administering x-ray procedure

What is a substance that gives off high-energy particles or rays?

a. radioisotope
b. half-life
c. barium
d. scanner

a. radio isotope

What is an in vivo test?

a. experiments are performed in a living organism?
b. radionuclide is incorporated into a chemical substance
c. experiments are performed in a labratory
d. radiopharmaceuticles are used

What is thallium 201?

a. gamma camera
b. contrast material
c. radionuclide
d. fluorescent material

What is the meaning of adduction?

a. moving the body toward the midline of the body
b. moving the part away from the midline
c. bending a part of the body
d. turning inward

What is the medical specialty that studies the characteristics and uses of radioactive substance in diagnosis of disease?

a. ultrasonagraphy
b. radiation oncology
c. nuclear medicine
d. radiology

Which BEST describes a barium enema?

a. aradioactive substance is given and x-rays are taken
b. a fluorescent screen is used instead of a photographic plate to visualize images
c. iodine compound is given and x-rays are taken of the intestinal tract.
d. metallic powder is introduced to the lare intestine and x-rays are taken.

Which is an x-ray of a blood vessel?

a. digital subtraction angiography
b. angiogram
c. arthrogram

Which of the following is true of a radiopaque substance?

a. is an air-containing structure
b. adsorbs most of the x-rays it is exposed to
c. permits the passage of most x-rays
d. lung tissue is an example

Which term best describes an x-ray test to show an organ in depth?

a. ultrasound
b. arteriography
c. tomography
d. fluoroscopy

x-ray of the renal pelvis and urinary tract after injecting dye into a vein:

a. IVP
b. Intravenious cholangiogram
c. venogram
d. RP

DICOM is a:

a. technique using a radioactive substance and a computer to create 3-D images
b. protocol for transmission between imaging devices
c. radiopharmaceutical used in a PET scan
d. system to replace traditional films with digital equivalents

FDG is a:

a. radiopharmaceutical used in a PAT scan
b. protocol for transmission between imaging devices
c. system to replace traditional films with digital equivalents
d. technique using radioactive substance and a computer to create 3-D images

SPECT is a:

a. protocol for transmission between imaging devices
b. radiopharmaceutical used in a PET scan
c. system to replace traditional films with digital equivalents
d. technique using a radioactive substance and a computer to create 3-D images

A diuretic exerts its effect by:

a. increasing blood pressure by holding water in the body
b. stopping blood clotting
c. lowering blood pressure by promoting fluid excretion from the kidney
d. decreasing cholesterol levels

Amphetamine and caffeine:

a. cardiovascular drugs
b. endocrine drugs
c. stimulant drugs
d. anticoagulant

An example of a drug generic name is:

a. omnipen
b. amniopenicillanic acid
c. amoxicillin
d. polycillin

Anaphylaxis:

a. a pattern of toxic efects that routeinly result from use of a drug
b. a condition produced by the treatment
c. a set of factors in the patients condition that make use of a drug dangerous
d. a type of hypersensitivity reaction

Beta-blocker:

a. analegsic drug
b. endocrine drug
c. stimulant drug
d. cardiovascular drug

Drug administractio route for medication applied on the skin:

a. rectal
b. parenteral
c. inhalation
d. topical

Drug administration route in which a medicine is injected through a syringe into a muscle, vein, or body cavity:

a. pareteral
b. oral
c. inhalation
d. rectal

Drug administration route with aerosols:

inhalation

Drug administration route with insertion fo suppositories:

rectal

Drug that works against fever:

a. antioruritic
b. anesthetic
c. antipyretic

c. antipyretic

Drugs that block release of a substance involved in producing allergic reactions:

antihistamines

Drugs that control anxiety and severe disturbances of behavior:

a. sedatives
b. anesthetics
c. tranquilizers

Drugs used to treat epilepsy:

a. sedatives
b. anticonvulsants
c. tranquilizers
d. analgesics

Estrogen

a. stimulant drug
b. endocrine drug
c. anticoagulant drug
d. cardiovascular drug

Fidning proper antidotes to the harmful effects of drugs is part of the specialty of:

a. molecular pharmacology
b. medicinial chemistry
c. pharmacokinetics
d. toxicology

Heparin:

a. cardiovascular drug
b. anticoagulant drug
c. endocrine drug
d. analgesic drug

Morphine:

a. cardiovascular drug
b. stimulant drug
c. endocrine drug
d. analgesic drug

Penicillin:

a. antibiotic
b. analgesic
c. hypnotic
d. antihistamine

Administration route for drugs given by injection:

a. parenteral
b. parentarol
c. parinteral

Agent that excites and promotes activity:

a. stimolent
b. stimulant
c. stimulent

Hypersensitivity reaction:

a. anaphilaxis
b. antiphylaxis
c. anaphylaxis

Long non commercial name for a drug:

a. generic
b. genareic
c. jeneric

Study of the interaction of drugs and subcellular entites such as enzymes and DNA is called:

a. molecular pharmacology
b. pharmacokinetics
c. medicinal chemistry
d. chemotheraphy

The combination of two drugs can cause an effect that is greater than the sum of the individual effects of each; this action is termed:

a. iatrogenic
b. synergism
c. tolerance
d. idiosyncrasy

US agency that holds the legal responsibility for deciding weather a drug may be distributed and sold:

FDA

A psychotherapy model that makes use of free association and transference:

a. behavior therapy
b. sex therapy
c. psychodrama
d. psychoanalysis

Alternation moods of exhalted feelings and excitement with moods of extreeme sadness adn decreased activity

a. hypomania
b. bipolar disorder
c. cyclothymic disorder
d. major depression

Condition in which fear of obesity in which binge eating is followed by purging:

a. bulimia nervosa
b. conversion disorder
c. dissociative disorder
d. hypochondriasis

condiditon in which mental symptoms such as amnesia hide the pain an anxeity of unconscious conflicts

a. anorexia nervosa
b. conversion disorder
c. hypochondriasis
d. dissociative disorder

Condition in which physical symptoms appear as a defense against overwhelming anxiety:

a. anorexia nervosa
b. bulimia nervosa
c. conversion disorder
d. dissociative disorder

Condition in which psychological factors such as anxiety, anger, and fear produce unrealistic body image and reluctance to eat:

a. bulimia nervosa
b. hypochonriasis
c. anorexia nervosa
d. conversion disorder

Exaggerated feeling of well-being:

a. paranoia
b. autism
c. euphoria
d. delusion

Example of a mood disorder:

a. manic-depressive disorder
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. phobia
d. panic attack

False or unreal sensory perceptions:

a. phobias
b. panic disorders
c. hallucinations
d. obsessions

Fear of leaving one’s home:

a. acrophobia
b. necrophobia
c. claustrophobia
d. agoraphobia

General preoccupation with bodily aches and pains and a irrational fear about one’s health:

a. hypochondriasis
b. dissociative disorder
c. bulima nervosa
d. conversion disorder

Numerous periods of mania and depression, but not of long duration, with no psychotic features:

a. dysthymic disorder
b. cyclothymic disorder
c. major depression
d. bipolar disorder

Personality disorder characterized by absence of loyalty or concern for others, and of moral standards:

a. histronic
b. paranoid
c. narcissistic
d. antisocial

Personality disorder characterized by grandoise sense fo self-importance and preoccupation with fantasies of success and power:

a. paranoid
b. histronic
c. schizoid
d. narcissistic

Personality disorder in which the individual is emotional, immature, and dependent, often exhibiting irrational outbursts and flamboyant behavior:

a. histrionic
b. narcissistic
c. paranoid
d. antisocial

Personality disorder in which the individual is emotionally cold and aloof, with indifference to praise or criticism and to the feelings of others:

a. histrionic
b. narcissistic
c. paranoid
d. schizoid

Personality disorder in which the person is continually suspicious and mistrustful of other people:

a. paranoid
b. antisocial
c. narcissistic
d. histrionic

Preoccupation with oneself combined with lack of responsiveness to others is a characteristic of:

a. autism
b. delusion
c. apathy
d. dysphoria

Repression is BEST described as:

a. a mild depression
b. an involuntary, persistent idea, emotion, or urge
c. a defense mechanism in which unacceptable thoughts are pushed into the unconscious
d. repetitive acts

Resembling mania, but not as severe:

a. cyclothymic disorder
b. bipolar
c. major depression
d. hypomania

Absence of emotion:

a. apathy
b. apethy
c. apathe

Amnseia associated with fleeing from customary surroundings:

a. feuge
b. fugeue
c. fugue

Depressvie episodes but not of intensity of major depression:

a. dysthymia
b. dysthimia
c. disthymia

Dried leaves and flowers of the hemp plant; causes euphoria:

marijuana

External emotion or response of a person:

a. effact
b. effect
d. affect

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