Exam Flashcards
1
Q
Anticoagulant found in the blood:
a. Prothrombin
b. Vitamin B12
c. Gamma globulin
d. Heparin
A
d. Heparin
2
Q
Blood Protein that maintain the proper proportion and concentration of water in the blood.
a. Fibrenogen
b. Prothrombin
c. Globulin
d. Albumin
A
d. Albumin
3
Q
Breakdown of recipients red blood cells when incompatible bloods are mixed:
a. Embolism
b. Erythrocytosis
c. Hemolysis
d. Erythropoiesis
A
c. Hemolysis
4
Q
Condiditon associated with sideropenia, causing deficient production of hemoglobin:
a. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Aplastic anemia
c. Thalassemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
A
a. Iron deficiency anemia
5
Q
Deficiency in numbers of WBCs:
a. Neurtopenia
b. Hypochromia
c. Leukocytosis
d. Spherocytosis
A
a. Neutropenia
6
Q
Derived from bone marrow:
a. Polymorphonuclear
b. Phagocytic
c. Myeloid
d. Granulocytopenic
A
c. Myeloid
7
Q
Disorder of red blood cell morphology:
a. Monocytosis
b. Multiple myeoma
c. Poikilpcytosis
d. Acute myelocytic lukemia
A
c. Poikilcytosis
8
Q
Examination of blood smear to determine the shape or form of cells:
a. Hematocrit
b. Coagulation time
c. WBC differential
d. Red blood cell moorphology
A
d. Red blood cell morphology
9
Q
Excessive bleeding caused by lack of factor VIII or IX:
a. Erythermia
b. Autoimmune thrombocytopenia purpura
c. Hemophilia
d. Granulocytosis
A
c. Hemophilia
10
Q
Excessive deposits of iron throughout the body:
a. Cooley anemia
b. Hemochromatosis
c. Purpura
d. Thrombocytopenia
A
b. Hemochromatosis
11
Q
Falure of blood cell production due ro absence of formation of cells in the bone marrow:
a. Hemolytic anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Thalassemia
A
c. Aplastic anemia
12
Q
Foreign material that invades the body:
a. Antibodies
b. Antigens
c. Granulocytes
d. Neutrophils
A
b. Antigens
13
Q
IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE:
a. Stem cells
b. Neutrophils
c. Immunoglobulins
d. Megakaryocytes
A
c. Immunoglobulins
14
Q
Immature red blood cell:
a. Megakaryocytes
b. Segmented
c. Erythroblast
d. Thrombocyte
A
c. Erythroblast
15
Q
Inherited defect in ability to produce hemoglobin:
a. Pernicious anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Thalassemia
A
d. Thalassemia
16
Q
Lack of mature red cells due to inability to absorb vitamin B12 into the body:
a. Hemolytic anemia
b. Thalassemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
A
c. Pernicious anemia
17
Q
Method of separating out plasma proteins by electrical charge:
a. Hemolysis
b. Plasmapheresis
c. Electrophoresis
d. Leukapheresis
A
c. Electrophoresis
18
Q
Pallor, shortness of breath, infection, bleeding gums, predominance of immature and abnormally functioning leukocytes, and low numbers of mature neutrophils in a young child may indicate a likely diagnosis of:
a. Chrinic lymphocytic leukemia
b. Hemoglobinopathy
c. Acute lymphosytic eukemia
d. Sickle cell anemia
A
c. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
19
Q
Pigment produced from hemoglobin when red blood cells are destroyed:
a. Serum
b. Bilirubin
c. Plasma
d. Globulin
A
b. Bilirubin
20
Q
Protein threads that form the basis of a clot:
a. Fibrinogen
b. Fibrin
c. Hemoglobin
d. Thrombin
A
b. Fibrin
21
Q
Reduction in cells due to excessive cell destruction:
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Hemplytic anemia
A
d. Hemolytic anemia
22
Q
Reliving symptoms but not curing disease:
a. Coagulopathy
b. Hemostasis
c. Hemolysis
d. Pallative
A
d. Pallative
23
Q
Return of disease symptoms:
a. Remission
b. Spherosytosis
c. Relapse
d. Pallative
A
c. Relapse
24
Q
Test in which blood sample is spun in a test tube so that the red blood cells (RBCs) fall to the bottom and the percentage of RBCs is determined:
a. Coagulation time
b. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
c. Hematocrit
d. Red blood cell morphology
A
c. Hematocrit
25
Test in which leukocytes are stained and counted under a microscope to see numbers of mature and immature forms:
a. Hematocrit
b. Red blod cell morphology
c. WBC differential
d. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
c. WBC differetial
26
Mediastinal T cell producer:
a. Thymus
b. Bone marrow
c. Adenoids
d. Tonsils
b. Thymus
27
Nasopharyngeal lymph tissue:
a. Tonsils
b. Spleen
c. Adenoids
d. Thymus
c. Adenoids
28
Helper of suppressor cells are types of:
a. T cells
b. Antigens
c. B cells
d. Antibiotics
a. T cells
29
Collection of fluid in tissues:
a. lymphedema
b. lymphfedema
c. lymphaedmea
a. lymphedema
30
Major lung infection with fever, cough, chest pain, and sputum; treated with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Septra, Bactrim):
a. Herpes simplex
b. Cryptococcus
c. Pneumocystis jiroveci (formerly carinii) pneuomonia
d. Kaposi sarcoma
c. pneumonia
31
Malignant tumor of the nodes:
a. Lymphocytopenia
b. Hypersplenism
c. Lymphedema
d. Hodgkin disease
d. Hodgkin disease
32
An immune response in which B cells transform into plasma cells and secrete antibodies is known as ____ immunity.
a. cell-mediated
b. humoral
b. humoral
33
Lymph nodes are concentrated in all of the following areas EXCEPT:
a. Cervical
b. Mediastinal
c. Inguinal
d. Bone marrow
d. Bone marrow
34
Computerized x-ray imaging in the transverse plane:
a. Lymphangiogram
b. Ultrasonagraphy
c. Magnetiv resonance imaging (MRI)
d. CT scan
d. CT scan
35
Examples of immunoglobulins:
a. IgA, IgG, IgE
b. Lymphocytes
c. Hepatocytes
d. Monocytes
a. IgA, IgG, IgE
36
Select the term that is spelled correctly:
a. intrastital fluid
d. interstitiel fluid
c. interstitial fluid
c.
37
Interferons and interleukins are BEST described as:
a. Products of B cell lymphocytes
b. Interstitial fluid
c. Antiviral proteins produced by T cell lymphocytes
d. Gamma glubulins
c. Antiviral proteins produced by Te cell lymphocytes
38
Interstitial fluid:
a. Contains red and white blood cells
b. Is resent in connective tissue
c. Contains blood-clotting factors
d. Is found in the spaces between cells and becomes lymph when it enters lymph capillaries
d.
39
HIV is:
a. the test used to detect AIDS
b. a type of lymphoma
c. the virus that causes AIDS
d. a malignancy associated with AIDS
c. the virus that causes AIDS
40
Cancer arising from the lining cells of capilaries, producing purplish skin nodules:
a. Kaposi sarcoma
b. Herpies simplex
c. Toxoplasmosis
d. Cryptococcus
a. Kaposi sarcoma
41
Lymphocytes contained in the thymus gland that act on antigens:
a. B cells
b. T cells
c. macrophages
b. T cells
42
Protozoal (parasitic) infection associated with AIDS that may cause pneumonitis, hepatitis, and encephalitis:
a. Toxoplasmosis
b. Herpes simplex
c. Cryptococcus
d. Kaposi sarcoma
a. Toxoplasmosis
43
An immune response in which T cells destroy antigens is called ___ immunity:
a. cell-mediated
b. humoral
a. cell-mediated
44
Slight increase in numbers of lymphocytes:
a. Lymphoid
b. Lymphocytopenia
c. Lymphopoiesis
d. Lymphocytosis
d. Lymphocytosis
45
Pertaining to poison:
a. Hypoxic
b. Toxic
c. Stenotic
d. Cyanotic
b. Toxic
46
Abdominal organ that filters erythrocytes and activates lymphocytes:
a. Spleen
b. Adenoids
c. Tonsils
d. Bone marrow
a. Spleen
47
All of the following components of the immune system EXCEPT:
a. Phagocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Monocytes
d. Antibodies
e. Platelets
e. Platelets
48
Produces lymphocytes and monocytes and all other blood cells:
a. Thymus
b. Spleen
c. Tonsils
d. Bone marrow
d. Bone marrow
49
Lymphocytes transform into plasma cells and secrete antibodies:
a. B Cells
b. T cells
a. B cells
50
Atrophy is:
a. A type of lymphome
b. An early stage of AIDS
c. A hypersensitivity or allergic state
d. Acute infectious disease caused by Epstein-Barr virus
c. A hypersensitivity or allergic state
51
Outward extention of the shoulder bone:
a. Acromion
b. Acetabulum
c. Patella
d. Vetebral arch
a. Acromion
52
Vitamin D deficiency leads to softening of bone, which is known as:
a. Osteoporosis
b. Osteomalacia
c. Lumbago
d. Hypercalcemia
b. Osteomalacia
53
Inflammation of joints caused by excessive uric acid accumulation:
a. Sciatica
b. Gouty arthritis
c. Bursitis
d. Myositis
b. Gouty arthritis
54
Projection of the temporal bone:
a. Tubercle
b. Epiphysis
c. Xiphoid process
e. Mastoid process
e. Mastoid process
55
Wasting away (no development) of muscle:
a. Myasthenia
b. Hypertrophy
c. Atrophy
d. Myositis
c. Atrophy
56
Condition of stiffening and immobility of joint:
a. Kyphosis
b. Hemarthrosis
c. Ankylosis
d. Bursitis
c. Ankylosis
57
Pertaining to the upper arm bone:
a. Ulnar
b. Carpal
c. Humeral
d. Radial
c. Humeral
58
Poor formation of bone:
a. Osteolysis
b. Decalcifation
c. Osteoclasis
d. Osteodystrophy
e. Osteodystrophy
59
Surgical repair of a joint:
a. Tenorraphy
b. Achondroplasia
c. Arthroplasty
d. Arthrosis
c. Arthroplasty
60
Chronic inflammation of bones and joints due to degenerative changes in cartilage:
a. Systemic lupis erythematosis
b. Reumatoid arthritis
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Chondromalacia
c. Osteoarthritis
61
Operation performed to relieve the symptoms of a slipped disk:
a. laminectomy
b. patellapexy
c. arthroscopy
d. metacarpectomy
a. laminectomy
62
Occipital, sphenoid, frontal, temporal, and ethmoid are the bones of the:
a. cranium
b. pelvis
c. thorax
d. face
a, crainum
63
Inflammation of bone and bone marrow:
a. osteomyelitis
b. osteitis fibrosa cystica
c. osteoporosis
d. multiple myeloma
a. osteomyelitisk
64
Openign or passage in bones where blood vessels and nerves enter and leave:
a. Fissure
b. Sulcus
c. Fossa
d. Foramen
d. Foramen
65
Spongy, porous bone tissue:
a. Cancellous bone
b. yellow bone marroe
c. compact bone
d. bone fissure
a. cancellous bone
66
Mandible, vomer, maxilla, and zygomatic are bones of the:
a. spine
b. cranium
c. pelvis
d. face
d. face
67
Knuckle-like process at the end of a bone:
a. xiphoid process
b. fontanelle
c. tuberosity
d. condyle
d. condyle
68
the shaft of a long bone is called a:
a. olecrannon
b. diaphysis
c. osteoclast
d. periosteum
b. diaphysis
69
Act of turning the palm upward:
a. pronation
b. supination
b. supination
70
Lateral curvature of the spinal column:
a. scoliosis
b. spina bifida
c. pubic symphysis
a. scoliosis
71
Connection of a muscle to a stationary bone:
a. origin
b. insertion
a. origin
72
malignant tumor of smooth muscle:
a. leiomyoma
b. rhabdomyoscaroma
c. rhabdoma
d. leiomyoscarcoma
d. leiomyoscarcoma
73
Larger of the two leg bones:
a. tibbia
b. tibea
c. tibia
c. tibia
74
A splintered or crushed bone:
a. compression
b. greenstick fracture
c. comminuted fracture
d. crepitation
c. comminuted fracture
75
Clubfoot:
a. Talipes
b. osteo scarcoma
c. bursitis
d. bunion
a. talipes
76
White patches on a mucous membrane of tongue or cheek:
a. psoriasis
b. decubitis ulcer
c. tinea
d. leukoplakia
d. leukoplakia
77
Inflamation of the soft tissue around a nail:
a. pharonchia
b. erythema
c. epidermolysis
d. onychomycosis
a. pharonychia
78
Red, round wheals (hives):
a. urtikara
b. urticaria
c. urtakaria
b. urticaria
79
Structural protein found in skin and connective tissue:
a. cartilage
b. cerumen
c. melanin
d. collagen
d. collagen
80
a type of epithelial cell in the epidermis:
a. adiposyte
b. squamous cell
c. chondrocyte
d. neuron
b. squamous cell
81
A wheal is a:
a. polyp
b. ulcer
c. hive
d. wart
c. hive
82
malignant tumor of pigmented skin cells:
a. melanoma
b. melonoma
c. melenoma
a. melanoma
83
```
Procedure in thich layers of growth are removed and examined microscopically:
a. fungal test
mohs surgery
c. scratch test
d. punch biopsy
```
b. mohs surgery
84
pertaining to under a nail:
a. sublingual
b. hypoglossal
c. subcuteneous
d. hypodermic
a. sublingual
85
A combining form meaning skin:
a. adip/o
b. cutane/o
c. pachy/o
d. xanth/o
b. cutane/o
86
Chronic recurent dermatosis with itchy, scaly patches:
a. psoriesis
b. psoriasis
c. psoraisis
b. psoriasis
87
Profuse sweating:
a. diaphoresiss
b. diaforesis
c. diaphoriesis
a. diaphoresis
88
Chronic recurrent dermatosis with silvery gray scales covering red patches in skin:
a. tinea
b. scleroderma
c. leukoplakia
d. psoriasis
d. psoraisis
89
Blackhead:
a. comeddo
b. komedo
c. comedo
c. comedo
90
A fungal infection: a. a.leukoplakia
b. onychomycosis
c. erythema
d. seborrhea
b. onychomycosis
91
inflammatory disease of the joints and collagen of the skin; can affect other body organs:
a. mycosis fungoides
b. eczema
c. systemic lupis erythematosis
d. impetigo
c.
92
A dermatophytosis:
a. psoriasis
b. scleroderma
c. leukoplakia
d. tinea
d. tinea
93
A hard protein found in the epidermis:
a. cerumen
b. melanin
c. collagen
d. keratin
d. keratin
94
Condition in which connective tissue in the skin hardens:
a. scleroderma
b. decubitius ulcer
c. tinea
d. tinea
a. scleroderma
95
Moles that can develop into malignant melanoma:
a. polyps
b. verrucae
c. squamous cell carcinomaas
d. dysplastic nevi
d. dysplastic nevi
96
Xer/o means:
a. dry
b. yellow
c. thick
d. white
a. dry
97
```
Fatty mass within a sebaceous gland:
a. philosebaceous gland:
a. piloebaceous
b verruca
c. lipoma
d. steatoma
```
d. steatoma
98
Profuse sweating:
a. seborrhea
b. hidradentitis
c. keratosis
d. diaphoresis
d. diaphoresis
99
Bed sore; break in continuity of skin:
a. psoriasis
b. scleroderma
c. tinea
d. decubitus ulcer
d. decubitus ulcer
100
```
Absence of pigment in skin:
a. erythroderma
b. melanism
c. dermatitis
d, albinism
```
d. albinsim
101
Light structure that is transparent and biconvex and focuses light on the retina:
a. conjunctiva
b. lens
c. vitreous body
d. sclera
b. lens
102
A blind spot; area of depressed vision surrounded by an area or normal vision:
a. nyctalopia
b. exotropia
c. scotoma
d. estropia
c. scotoma
103
Adjustment of the lens by the ciliary body:
a. accommodation
b. refraction
c. binocular vision
d. photophobia
a. accommodation
104
Astigmatism:
a. localized purulent infection of the eye
b. atrophy of the retina
c. esotropia
d. defective curvature of the cornea of lens
d. defective curvature of the cornea or the lens
105
Bacterial infection of the middle ear:
a. serous otitis media
b. cholesteatoma
c. mastoidisitis
d. suppurative otitis media
d. suppurative otitis media
106
chanel between the middle ear and the nasopharynx:
a. organ of corti
b. semicircular canal
c. labrynth
d. esutachian tube
d. estachian tube
107
Fibrous layer of clear tissue that extends over the anterior portion of the eye and is continuous with the white of the eye:
a. fundus
b. ciliary body
c. pupil
d. cornea
d. cornea
108
Fungal infection of the ear:
a. macrotia
b. saplingitis
c. otomycosis
d. cholesteatoma
c. otomycosis
109
glaucoma is promarily diagnosed by:
a. tonometry
b. ophthalmoscopy
c. slit lamp biomicroscopy
d. visual field exam
a. tonometry
110
impairment of vision due to old age:
a. emmetropia
b. diplopia
c. esotropia
d. presbyopia
d. presbyopia
111
macular degeneration produces:
a. loss of central vision
b. hemianopia
c. retinal detachment
d. nystagmus
a. loss of central vision
112
myopia:
a. nearsightedness
b. farsightedness
c. astigmatism
d. strabismus
a. nearsightedness
113
myring/o means:
a. cerumen
b. tympanic membrane
c. stapes
d. auditory canal
b. tympanic membrance
114
nerve deafness occurring with aging:
a. vertigo
b. meniere disease
c. acoustic neuroma
d. presbycusis
d. presbycusis
115
Palpebr/o means:
a. eyelid
b. cornea
c. tear gland
d. lens of the eye
a. eyelid
116
Photosensitive receptor cells of the retina; make the perception of color possible:
a. rods
b. cones
c. optic disk
d. optic chiasm
b. cones
117
Place where optic nerve fibers cross in the brain:
a. optic disc
b. optic chiasm
c. retina
d. olfactory lobe
b. optic chiasm
118
tinnitus:
a. hearing loss occuring with age
b. dizziness associated with nausea and sensations of whirling motion
c. ringing sound in ears
c. ringing sound in ears
119
Visual examination of the ear:
a. Audiometry
b. Otoscopy
c. Tympanometry
d. Tuning fork test
b. otoscopy
120
Yellowish region i the retina that contains the fovea centrailis:
a. optic disk
b. posterior chamber
c. macular
d. sclera
c. maucla
121
Small hard mass on the eyelid; formed from a sebacous gland enlargement:
a. scleral buckle
b. blepharochalasis
c. chalazion
d. cataract
c. chalazion
122
Snail-shapped, spirally wound tube in the inner ear:
a. Auricle
b. Cochlea
c. Auditory meatus
d. Utricle
b. Cochlea
123
Select the term that is spelled correctly:
a. blepharitis
b. blepheritis
a. blepharitis
124
Select the term that is spelled correctly:
a. glaucoma
b. glaukoma
a. glaucoma
125
Select the term spelled correctly:
a. conjuntivia
b. conjunctiva
b.
126
Exophthalmos is a sign of which of the following endocrine disorders?
a. pituitary gland hypertrophy
b. endemic goiter
c. graves disease
d. thyroid carcinoma
c. graves disease
127
examples of estrogens are estradiol and estrone.
True
128
Insulin deficiency or resistance leading to hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis:
a. graves disease
b. myxedema
c. cushing syndrome
d. diabetes mellitus
d. diabetes mellitus
129
A function of the thyroid gland; secretes:
a. thyroid-stimulating hormone
b. thyroxine
c. immunologic substances
d. corticosteroids
b. thyroxine
130
A group of symptoms produced by excess of cortisol from the adrenal cortex:
a. cushing syndrome
b. graves disease
c. myxedema
d. diabetes mellitus
a. cushing syndrome
131
The pituitary gland is located in the middle of the chest.
False
132
Hormonethat regulates calcium in the blood and bones:
a. Prolactin
b. Parathyroid hormone
c. prostaglandins
d. thyroxine
b. parathyroid hormone
133
Post-puberty hypersecretion of growth hormone form the anterior pituitary gland:
a. acromegaly
b. diabetes mellitus
c. cushing syndome
d. graves disease
a. acromegaly
134
Which of the following is a feature of tetany?
a. constant muscle contraction
b. increased bone growth
c. hypokalamia
a. constant muscle contraction
135
Which of the following disorders is associated with neuropathy, nephropathy, and retinopathy?
a. Panhypopituitarism
b. diabeties mellitus ( as secondary complications)
c. deficient ADH secretion
b. diabetes mellitus ( as secondary complications)
136
An element present in thyroxine:
a. iodine
b. calcium
c. vitamin D
d. iron
a. iodine
137
Epinephrine is secreted by aadrenal cortex.
False
138
A thyroid scan scan consists of:
Adminsitration of radioactive compound and visualization with a scanner to detect tumors or nodules
139
Select the term that spelled correctly:
a. hyopohisectomy
b. hypophysectomy
b.
140
Advanced hypothyroidism in adulthood:
a. Diabeted mellitus
b. acromegaly
c. graves disease
d. myxedema
d. myxedema
141
Which of the following is a description of gonadotropins?
a. stimulate the growth of long bones
b. secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
c. stimulate glucose uptake in cells
b.
142
Term that is spelled correctly:
a. cortisol
b. courtisol
a.
143
Thyrotoxicosis; hyper secretion of the thyroid gland:
a. cushing syndrome
b. graves disease
c. acromegally
b. graves disease
144
Nart/o is the combining form for:
a. potassium
b. sodium
c. sugar
d. iodine
b. sodium
145
Hormone secreted by the ovary and adrenal cortex:
a. follicle-stimulating hormone
b. estrogen
c. androgen
d. oxytocin
b. estrogen
146
Anterior lobe fo the pituitary gland:
a. hypophysis
b. adenohypophysis
c. hypothalamus
d. neurohypophysis
b. adenohypophysis
147
Which of the following secretes cortisol?
a. adrenal cortex
b. adrenal medulla
c. pituitary gland
a.
148
Hormone that stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete hormones:
a. ADH
b. Secretin
c. ACTH
d. Cortisone
d. ACTH
149
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is also called vasopressin
True
150
Select the term that is spelled correctly.
a. estrogen
b. estrogin
a.
151
A cancerous tumor derived from bone:
a. chrondroscarcoma
b. adenocarcinoma
c. osteogenic sarcoma
d. osteoma
c.
152
Abnormal growth of connective tissue, often a side effect of radiation therapy to the lungs:
a. erythema
b. fibrosis
c. alopecia
d. myelosuppression
b.
153
Agent or device used in radiation therapy for tumors:
a. steroid
b. linear accelerator
c. antibiotic
d. antimetabolite
b. linear accelerator
154
An estrogen receptor assay is BEST described as a test for:
Concentration of hormone receptor sites in cells of patients with breast cancer
155
Cauterization:
a. drying tissue electrically
b. treating tissue with heat
c. treating a tumor with freezing temperatures
b.
156
Description of fungating tumor:
a. characterized by inflammation
b. mushrooming pattern of growth as tumor cells pile on top of each other
c. large, soft, flesh tumor
b.
157
Example of an inherited cancer:
a. lung cancer
b. basal cell carcinoma
c. retinoblastoma
c.
158
Example of a soild tumor derived from epithelial tissue:
a. rhabdomyoma
b. leiomyoma
c. adenocarcinoma of the lung
d. chondroscarcoma
c.
159
Example of genetic material that causes cancer:
a. alkyating agents
b. vinyl chloride
c. oncogenes
d. hydrocarbons
c.
160
Exenteraton is BEST describe as
wide resection of tumor and removal of surrounding tissue
161
Fulguration:
a. destruction of tissue by electric sparks
b. aspiration biopsy technique
c. treatment with drugs.
a.
162
Hypoplasia of bone marrow:
a. erythema
b. alopecia
c. fibrosis
d. myelosuppression
d.
163
Inflammation of the iner lining of an organ:
a. myelosupression b. fibrosis
c. mucositis
d. alopecia
c.
164
Interferon is Best described as
biologic response modifier
165
localized tumor growth:
a. scarcoma
b. carcinoma in situ
c. metastasis
d. pleomorphic
b.
166
Modality means:
a. description of the diagnosis
b. death of cells
c. change in genetic material
d. method of treatment
d.
167
Mutagenic means:
a. tumor that are large and fleshy
b. a high degree of differenation of cells
c. new growth in numbers of cells
d. producing a change in the DNA of a cell
d.
168
Radioresistant tumor is a tumor:
which large doses of radiation are required to produce death of cells
169
Return of symtoms of disease:
a. mutation
b. differenation
c. relapse
d. remission
c.
170
return of disease symptoms:
Relapse
171
Specialization of cells:
a. differentiation
b. differentsheation
a.
172
Spread of malignant tumors to a distant location:
a. encapsulation
b. invasion
c. anaplasia
d. metastasis
d.
173
Staging a tumor means:
a. need for radiotherapy
b. analyzing the microscopic apperance of tumor
c. assessing the degree of differentiation
d. assessing the extent of tumor spread.
d.
174
Which term means assisting or aiding?
a. lethal
b. fractionization
c. adjuvant
d. grading
c.
175
Mutation:
a. specialization of cells
b. plan for treatment
c. inheritable change in a cell
d. giving radiation in small doses
c.
176
In which procedure is a transducer used?
a. ultrasound
b. ct scan
c. MRI
d. bone scan
a. ultrasound
177
In which test is a radiopharmaceutical injected intravenously and traced within the vessels of the lung?
a. CT scan of the thoracic cavity
b. perfusion study of the lung
c. ventilation scan of the lung
d. chest x-ray of the lung
b.
178
In which x-ray view is the patient upright with thte back to the x-ray machine and the film to the chest?
a. AP view
b. oblique x-ray view
c. lateral view
d. PA view
d.
179
Interventional radiologists perform all of the following EXCEPT:
a. administration of radiation therapy
b. instillation of antibiotics or chemotheraoy via catheters
c. occulsion of bleeding vessels
d. placement of drainage catheters
a.
180
Myelogram is an x-ray of
a. spinal cord
b. muscles
c. lymphatic vessels
d. bone marrow
a.
181
PACS is a:
a. system to replace traditional films with digital equivalents
b. technique using a radioactive substance and a computer to create 3-D images
c. radiopharmaceutical used in a PET scan
d. protocol for transmission between imaging devices.
a.
182
Lying down position:
a. recumbent
b. recumbant
c. rekumbent
a.
183
Obstructing the passage of x-rays
radiopaque
184
What BEST characterizes a CT scan?
a. gives a verticla front-to-back image of the body organs
b. uses ionizing x-rays and a computer to produce a transverse image of the body organs
c. magnetic and radio waves are used to create imag
d. uses radioactive substances to produce an x-ray image
b.
185
What best describes an MRI
sagittal, frontal, and cross sectional images are produced using magnetic radio waves
186
What can thyroid scans detet?
a. thyroid carcinoma
b. cirrhosis and splenomegaly due to abcess or tumor
c. blood flow through the heart and large vessels
d. areas of metabolic deficiency in the brain
a.
187
What does a radiologist do?
a. specializes in the practice of administering diagnostic nuclear medicine procedures
b. treats malignancy with radiation
c. specializes in diagnostic techniques such as ultra sound, MRI and CT scans
d. aids a physician in administering x-ray procedure
c.
188
What is a substance that gives off high-energy particles or rays?
a. radioisotope
b. half-life
c. barium
d. scanner
a. radio isotope
189
What is an in vivo test?
a. experiments are performed in a living organism?
b. radionuclide is incorporated into a chemical substance
c. experiments are performed in a labratory
d. radiopharmaceuticles are used
a.
190
What is thallium 201?
a. gamma camera
b. contrast material
c. radionuclide
d. fluorescent material
c.
191
What is the meaning of adduction?
a. moving the body toward the midline of the body
b. moving the part away from the midline
c. bending a part of the body
d. turning inward
a.
192
What is the medical specialty that studies the characteristics and uses of radioactive substance in diagnosis of disease?
a. ultrasonagraphy
b. radiation oncology
c. nuclear medicine
d. radiology
c.
193
Which BEST describes a barium enema?
a. aradioactive substance is given and x-rays are taken
b. a fluorescent screen is used instead of a photographic plate to visualize images
c. iodine compound is given and x-rays are taken of the intestinal tract.
d. metallic powder is introduced to the lare intestine and x-rays are taken.
d.
194
Which is an x-ray of a blood vessel?
a. digital subtraction angiography
b. angiogram
c. arthrogram
c.
195
Which of the following is true of a radiopaque substance?
a. is an air-containing structure
b. adsorbs most of the x-rays it is exposed to
c. permits the passage of most x-rays
d. lung tissue is an example
b.
196
Which term best describes an x-ray test to show an organ in depth?
a. ultrasound
b. arteriography
c. tomography
d. fluoroscopy
c.
197
x-ray of the renal pelvis and urinary tract after injecting dye into a vein:
a. IVP
b. Intravenious cholangiogram
c. venogram
d. RP
a.
198
DICOM is a:
a. technique using a radioactive substance and a computer to create 3-D images
b. protocol for transmission between imaging devices
c. radiopharmaceutical used in a PET scan
d. system to replace traditional films with digital equivalents
b.
199
FDG is a:
a. radiopharmaceutical used in a PAT scan
b. protocol for transmission between imaging devices
c. system to replace traditional films with digital equivalents
d. technique using radioactive substance and a computer to create 3-D images
a.
200
SPECT is a:
a. protocol for transmission between imaging devices
b. radiopharmaceutical used in a PET scan
c. system to replace traditional films with digital equivalents
d. technique using a radioactive substance and a computer to create 3-D images
d.
201
A diuretic exerts its effect by:
a. increasing blood pressure by holding water in the body
b. stopping blood clotting
c. lowering blood pressure by promoting fluid excretion from the kidney
d. decreasing cholesterol levels
c.
202
Amphetamine and caffeine:
a. cardiovascular drugs
b. endocrine drugs
c. stimulant drugs
d. anticoagulant
c.
203
An example of a drug generic name is:
a. omnipen
b. amniopenicillanic acid
c. amoxicillin
d. polycillin
c.
204
Anaphylaxis:
a. a pattern of toxic efects that routeinly result from use of a drug
b. a condition produced by the treatment
c. a set of factors in the patients condition that make use of a drug dangerous
d. a type of hypersensitivity reaction
d.
205
Beta-blocker:
a. analegsic drug
b. endocrine drug
c. stimulant drug
d. cardiovascular drug
d.
206
Drug administractio route for medication applied on the skin:
a. rectal
b. parenteral
c. inhalation
d. topical
d.
207
Drug administration route in which a medicine is injected through a syringe into a muscle, vein, or body cavity:
a. pareteral
b. oral
c. inhalation
d. rectal
a.
208
Drug administration route with aerosols:
inhalation
209
Drug administration route with insertion fo suppositories:
rectal
210
Drug that works against fever:
a. antioruritic
b. anesthetic
c. antipyretic
c. antipyretic
211
Drugs that block release of a substance involved in producing allergic reactions:
antihistamines
212
Drugs that control anxiety and severe disturbances of behavior:
a. sedatives
b. anesthetics
c. tranquilizers
c.
213
Drugs used to treat epilepsy:
a. sedatives
b. anticonvulsants
c. tranquilizers
d. analgesics
b.
214
Estrogen
a. stimulant drug
b. endocrine drug
c. anticoagulant drug
d. cardiovascular drug
b.
215
Fidning proper antidotes to the harmful effects of drugs is part of the specialty of:
a. molecular pharmacology
b. medicinial chemistry
c. pharmacokinetics
d. toxicology
d.
216
Heparin:
a. cardiovascular drug
b. anticoagulant drug
c. endocrine drug
d. analgesic drug
b.
217
Morphine:
a. cardiovascular drug
b. stimulant drug
c. endocrine drug
d. analgesic drug
d.
218
Penicillin:
a. antibiotic
b. analgesic
c. hypnotic
d. antihistamine
a.
219
Administration route for drugs given by injection:
a. parenteral
b. parentarol
c. parinteral
a.
220
Agent that excites and promotes activity:
a. stimolent
b. stimulant
c. stimulent
b.
221
Hypersensitivity reaction:
a. anaphilaxis
b. antiphylaxis
c. anaphylaxis
c.
222
Long non commercial name for a drug:
a. generic
b. genareic
c. jeneric
a.
223
Study of the interaction of drugs and subcellular entites such as enzymes and DNA is called:
a. molecular pharmacology
b. pharmacokinetics
c. medicinal chemistry
d. chemotheraphy
a.
224
The combination of two drugs can cause an effect that is greater than the sum of the individual effects of each; this action is termed:
a. iatrogenic
b. synergism
c. tolerance
d. idiosyncrasy
b.
225
US agency that holds the legal responsibility for deciding weather a drug may be distributed and sold:
FDA
226
A psychotherapy model that makes use of free association and transference:
a. behavior therapy
b. sex therapy
c. psychodrama
d. psychoanalysis
d.
227
Alternation moods of exhalted feelings and excitement with moods of extreeme sadness adn decreased activity
a. hypomania
b. bipolar disorder
c. cyclothymic disorder
d. major depression
b.
228
Condition in which fear of obesity in which binge eating is followed by purging:
a. bulimia nervosa
b. conversion disorder
c. dissociative disorder
d. hypochondriasis
a.
229
condiditon in which mental symptoms such as amnesia hide the pain an anxeity of unconscious conflicts
a. anorexia nervosa
b. conversion disorder
c. hypochondriasis
d. dissociative disorder
e.
230
Condition in which physical symptoms appear as a defense against overwhelming anxiety:
a. anorexia nervosa
b. bulimia nervosa
c. conversion disorder
d. dissociative disorder
c.
231
Condition in which psychological factors such as anxiety, anger, and fear produce unrealistic body image and reluctance to eat:
a. bulimia nervosa
b. hypochonriasis
c. anorexia nervosa
d. conversion disorder
c.
232
Exaggerated feeling of well-being:
a. paranoia
b. autism
c. euphoria
d. delusion
c.
233
Example of a mood disorder:
a. manic-depressive disorder
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. phobia
d. panic attack
a.
234
False or unreal sensory perceptions:
a. phobias
b. panic disorders
c. hallucinations
d. obsessions
c.
235
Fear of leaving one's home:
a. acrophobia
b. necrophobia
c. claustrophobia
d. agoraphobia
d.
236
General preoccupation with bodily aches and pains and a irrational fear about one's health:
a. hypochondriasis
b. dissociative disorder
c. bulima nervosa
d. conversion disorder
a.
237
Numerous periods of mania and depression, but not of long duration, with no psychotic features:
a. dysthymic disorder
b. cyclothymic disorder
c. major depression
d. bipolar disorder
b.
238
Personality disorder characterized by absence of loyalty or concern for others, and of moral standards:
a. histronic
b. paranoid
c. narcissistic
d. antisocial
d.
239
Personality disorder characterized by grandoise sense fo self-importance and preoccupation with fantasies of success and power:
a. paranoid
b. histronic
c. schizoid
d. narcissistic
d.
240
Personality disorder in which the individual is emotional, immature, and dependent, often exhibiting irrational outbursts and flamboyant behavior:
a. histrionic
b. narcissistic
c. paranoid
d. antisocial
a.
241
Personality disorder in which the individual is emotionally cold and aloof, with indifference to praise or criticism and to the feelings of others:
a. histrionic
b. narcissistic
c. paranoid
d. schizoid
d.
242
Personality disorder in which the person is continually suspicious and mistrustful of other people:
a. paranoid
b. antisocial
c. narcissistic
d. histrionic
a.
243
Preoccupation with oneself combined with lack of responsiveness to others is a characteristic of:
a. autism
b. delusion
c. apathy
d. dysphoria
a.
244
Repression is BEST described as:
a. a mild depression
b. an involuntary, persistent idea, emotion, or urge
c. a defense mechanism in which unacceptable thoughts are pushed into the unconscious
d. repetitive acts
c.
245
Resembling mania, but not as severe:
a. cyclothymic disorder
b. bipolar
c. major depression
d. hypomania
d.
246
Absence of emotion:
a. apathy
b. apethy
c. apathe
a.
247
Amnseia associated with fleeing from customary surroundings:
a. feuge
b. fugeue
c. fugue
c.
248
Depressvie episodes but not of intensity of major depression:
a. dysthymia
b. dysthimia
c. disthymia
a.
249
Dried leaves and flowers of the hemp plant; causes euphoria:
marijuana
250
External emotion or response of a person:
a. effact
b. effect
d. affect
d.
